Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Pathophysiology mid
Nightingale College midterm
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which organ system should the nurse monitor when the patient has long-term potassium deficits? | Kidneys |
| A 55-year-old female presents to her primary care provider and reports dizziness, confusion, and tingling in the extremities. Blood tests reveal an elevated pH, decreased PCO2, and slightly decreased HCO3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnos | Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation |
| Which of the following patients is the most at risk for developing hypernatremia? A patient with: | dehydration. |
| A 60-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting lung tumor. Further testing indicates that the tumor secretes ADH. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) | Confusion, Weakness, Nausea, Muscle twitching |
| Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined by: | osmotic forces. |
| A 35-year-old male weighs 70 kg. Approximately how much of this weight is considered the total volume of body water? | 42 L |
| Which patient is most prone to metabolic alkalosis? A patient with: | excessive loss of chloride (Cl). |
| A 22 year old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus? | CD4+ T-helper |
| A patient presents with poison ivy on the extremities, face, and buttocks after an initial exposure 48 hours ago. This condition is an example of: | delayed hypersensitivity. (The response to poison ivy is a delayed hypersensitivity because it takes up to 72 hours to develop. Anaphylaxis is immediate.) |
| Serum sickness-type reactions | are caused by the formation of immune complexes in the blood and their subsequent generalized deposition in target tissues |
| When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as: | an excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen. |
| When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse remembers this disease is an example of: | autoimmunity. |
| In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for: | Rh antigen. |
| A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from: | anaphylaxis. (Anaphylaxis occurs within minutes of reexposure to the antigen and can be either systemic (generalized) or cutaneous (localized). Immunodeficiency is a decrease in the immune response. Autoimmunity is a disturbance in the immunologic tolera |
| When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs? | Alloimmune |
| A nurse recalls that an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is | serum sickness. |
| A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? | Turner syndrome (A condition with the presence of a single X chromosome and no homologous X or Y chromosome, so the individual has a total of 45 chromosomes, is known as Turner syndrome.) |
| Down syndrome | is a change in one arm of a chromosome. A genetic disorder caused by the presence of all or part of a third copy of chromosome 21. |
| Cri du chat syndrome | is due to a chromosome deletion. A rare genetic disorder caused by a missing piece of chromosome 5, characterized by a high-pitched cry resembling a cat's meow. |
| Fragile X syndrome | is due to a break or a gap in a chromosome. |
| An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide? | Expressivity |
| Which of the following mutations have the most significant effect on protein synthesis? | Frameshift mutations (The frameshift mutation involves the insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs of the DNA molecule) |
| What genetic disorder is the result if an individual possesses an XXY chromosome configuration? | Klinefelter Individuals with at least two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome in each cell (47 XXY karyotype) have a disorder known as Klinefelter syndrome. |
| What is the result of homologous chromosomes failing to separate during meiosis? | Nondisjunction |
| When discussing DNA replication, which enzyme is most important? | DNA polymerase |
| Which disorders is manifested primarily in males? -Cystic fibrosis -Neurofibromatosis -Muscular dystrophy -Klinefelter syndrome | Muscular dystrophy |
| A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause? | Caseous necrosis (results from tuberculosis pulmonary infection) |
| Coagulative necrosis | occurs primarily in the kidneys, heart, and adrenal glands, and commonly results from hypoxia. |
| Liquefactive necrosis | results from ischemic injury to neurons and glial cells in the brain. |
| Autonecrosis | is a process of cellular self-digestion and is not due to infection such as tuberculosis. |
| A 30-year-old female presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. what kind of wound is expected? | - contact range entrance. |
| contact range entrance | wound is a distinctive type of wound that happens when a gun is held so the muzzle rests on or presses into the skin surface; in addition to the hole, there is searing of the edges of the wound from flame and soot or smoke on the edges of the wound |
| A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury that causes cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?-Adaptation -Calcification -Apoptosis -Necrosis | Necrosis which is the sum of cellular changes after local cell death |
| intermediate range entrance wound | is surrounded by gunpowder tattooing or stippling |
| indeterminate range entrance wound | occurs when flame, soot, or gunpowder does not reach the skin surface but the bullet does. |
| Cellular adaptation | a reversible, structural, or functional response to both normal or physiologic conditions and adverse or pathologic conditions. |
| Calcification | is an accumulation of calcium salts |
| Apoptosis | an active process of cellular self-destruction |
| A 52-year-old male suffered a myocardial infarction secondary to atherosclerosis and ischemia. Once blood flow is returned to the damaged heart, reperfusion injury occurs as a result of: | oxidation stress |
| Reperfusion injury | can result from oxidative stress, increased intracellular calcium, inflammation, or complement activation |
| Oxidative stress | causes the formation of radicals that cause further membrane damage and mitochondrial calcium overload. |
| Vacuolation | leads to cellular swelling but is not associated with reperfusion. |
| An increase of intracellular calcium is a cause of? | reperfusion injury |
| A 24-year-old female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances. These cellular changes would be referred to as: | pathologic hyperplasia. |
| A 50-year-old male sustained a closed head injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident. CT scan revealed a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain. Which type of injury will the nurse be caring for? | Subdural hematoma |
| subdural hematoma | occurs when blood is between the inner surface of the dura mater and the surface of the brain; it can result from blows, falls, or sudden acceleration/deceleration of the head |
| epidural hematoma | a collection of blood between the inner surface of the skull and the dura; it is most often associated with a skull fracture |
| contusion | is bleeding into the skin or underlying tissues. |
| abrasion (scrape) | results from removal of the superficial layers of the skin caused by friction between the skin and injuring object. |
| A 2 year old swallowed watch batteries. Following ingestion, kidney function was impaired, and the heart began to fail. Which of the following was the most likely cause? | Coagulative necrosis |
| Coagulative necrosis | occurs primarily in the kidneys, heart, and adrenal glands and commonly results from hypoxia. |
| Karyorrhexis | means fragmentation of the nucleus into smaller particles or “nuclear dust.” |
| Caseous necrosis | results from tuberculosis pulmonary infection. |
| When a nurse observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6–14 hours after death, the nurse should document this finding as the presence of: | rigor mortis. |
| rigor mortis. | occurs within 6 hours after death and is evidenced by muscle stiffening |
| Livor mortis | a purple discoloration |
| Gangrene | death of tissue and results from severe hypoxic injury and does not lead to stiffening |
| Algor mortis | is postmortem reduction of body temperature. |
| Malignant tumors | have cells that vary in both size and shape, and they grow rapidly. They are poorly differentiated and not encapsulated. |
| A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer. Which term best describes this growth? | Malignant tumor |
| Lipomas | benign growths |
| meningioma | a benign tumor. |
| Hypertrophy | tissue overgrowth but not cancer. |
| A 25-year-old male develops a tumor of the breast glandular tissue. What type of tumor will be documented on the chart?-Carcinoma - Adenocarcinoma - Sarcoma -Lymphoma | Adenocarcinoma |
| adenocarcinomas | Tumors that arise from or form ductal or glandular structures |
| carcinomas | Cancers arising in epithelial tissue |
| A nurse is discussing preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing? -Tumor in differentiation -Dysplastic -Cancer in situ -Cancer beyond (meta) situ | Cancer in situ |
| Cancer in situ | Early-stage growths that are localized to the epithelium and have not invaded; not a tumor in differentiation but is more mature growth. Dysplastic cells do not define cancer in situ. |
| The most important environmental risk factor for cancer is exposure to: | cigarette smoke. |
| A 50-year-old female confirms chronic alcohol intake. This practice places the patient at risk for cancer in which organs?(SATA) Larynx -Esophagus -Liver -Lung -Brain -Breast | Larynx Esophagus Liver Breast |
| Chronic alcohol consumption | is a strong risk factor for colorectal cancer and cancer of the oral cavity, pharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, esophagus, liver, and breast. |
| When an oncologist is discussing the degree to which an organism’s development is contingent on its environment, which of the following is the oncologist explaining? | Developmental plasticity |
| Developmental plasticity | the degree to which an organism’s development is contingent on its environment. |
| Transgenerational inheritance | the heritable transmission to future generations of environmentally caused phenotypes. |
| Epigenetics | the role of genes in development and disease |
| Histone modifications | changes in genetic acetylation. |
| When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should the oncologist discuss? | Facilitating new mutations |
| Radiation | induces genomic instability because it facilitates new mutations but it does not promote hypersensitivity. |
| What is the origin of most childhood cancers? | Mesodermal germ layer |
| Mesodermal germ layer | gives rise to connective tissue, bone, cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, the gonads, the kidney, and the lymphatic system. |
| A 40-year-old female developed adenocarcinoma of the vagina. Which prenatal event is the most likely cause of her cancer? | Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) |
| Which characterizes an embryonic cancer tumor? | Usually manifested around age 5 |
| The most common type of tissue cancer occurring between ages 15 and 19 is: | carcinoma. |
| Hikers are attempting to cross the Arizona desert with a small supply of water. The temperatures cause them to sweat profusely and become dehydrated. The hikers are experiencing: | heat exhaustion. |
| heat exhaustion | results from prolonged high core or environmental temperatures, which cause profound vasodilation and profuse sweating, leading to dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia. |
| Symptoms of Heat exhaustion | weakness, dizziness, confusion, nausea, and fainting. |
| Heat cramping | severe, spasmodic cramps in the abdomen and extremities that follow prolonged sweating and associated sodium loss. |
| Heat stroke | a potentially lethal result of an overstressed thermoregulatory center. With very high core temperatures (>40° C; 104° F), the regulatory center ceases to function, and the body’s heat loss mechanisms fail. |
| Malignant hyperthermia | a potentially lethal complication of a rare inherited muscle disorder that may be triggered by inhaled anesthetics and depolarizing muscle relaxants. |
| A young child presents to the ophthalmologist for visual difficulties secondary to eye deviation. One of the child’s eyes deviates inward, thereby decreasing the visual field. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely? | Entropia |
| Entropia | deviation of the eye inward |
| Extropia | deviation of the eye outward |
| Diplopia | double vision |
| Nystagmus | an involuntary unilateral or bilateral rhythmic movement of the eyes. |
| When a patient has a fever, which thermoregulatory mechanisms is activated? | The body’s thermostat is reset to a higher level. |
| Fever (febrile response) | is a temporary “resetting of the hypothalamic thermostat” to a higher level in response to endogenous or exogenous pyrogens. Bacteria do not stimulate peripheral thermogenesis, but their endotoxins do. |
| A child suffers from sudden apparent arousals in which she expresses intense fear or other emotion. Her mother reports that she seems to wake screaming, but that she is difficult to waken completely. The child most likely suffers from: | night terrors. |
| Parasomnia | unusual behaviors during sleep |
| Somnambulism | sleep-walking |
| Enuresis | episodes are bed-wetting. |
| A teenager sustains a severe closed head injury following an all-terrain vehicle (ATV) accident and is in a state of deep sleep that requires vigorous stimulation to elicit eye opening. How should the nurse document this in the chart? | Stupor |
| Stupor | Stupor is a condition of deep sleep or unresponsiveness from which a person may be aroused or caused to open his or her eyes only by vigorous and repeated stimulation |
| Confusion | the loss of the ability to think rapidly and clearly and is characterized by impaired judgment and decision making |
| Coma | a condition in which there is no verbal response to the external environment or to any stimuli; noxious stimuli such as deep pain or suctioning do not yield motor movement. |
| Obtundation | a mild-to-moderate reduction in arousal (awakeness) with limited response to the environment. |
| The breathing pattern that reflects respirations based primarily on carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood is: | Cheyne-Stokes. |
| Ataxic breathing | occurs as a result of dysfunction of the medullary neurons. |
| Central neurogenic patterns | occur as a result of uncal herniation |
| Normal respirations | based on the levels of oxygen (O2) in the blood. |
| A nurse recalls that neural systems basic to cognitive functions include _____ systems. (SATA.) -Attentional -Memory and language -Affective -Sensory and motor -Tactile | -attentional -memory and language -affective |
| attentional systems | provide arousal and maintenance of attention over time |
| memory and language systems | which information is communicated |
| affective or emotive systems | mediate mood, emotion, and intention |
| The patient is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure. This increase results in: | brain tissue hypoxia |
| Brain tissue hypoxia | occurs as a result of increased intracranial pressure as it places pressure on the brain |
| Increased intracranial pressure leads to | intracranial hypertension |
| Ventricular swelling | lead to increased intracranial pressure, but increased pressure does not lead to either ventricular swelling or the expansion of the cranial vault. |
| A patient is newly diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS). What physiologic change is causing the patient’s symptoms? | Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS |
| pathophysiology of MS | includes demyelination of nerve fibers |
| Parkinson disease | Depletion of dopamine |
| The development of neurofibrils is related to | Alzheimer disease |
| Myasthenia gravis | is due to decreased amounts of acetylcholine at the junction. |
| A 65-year-old patient diagnosed with a subarachnoid hemorrhage secondary to uncontrolled hypertension appears drowsy and confused with pronounced focal neurologic deficits. This symptomology would place this hemorrhage at which grade | III |
| Hemorrhage grade III | patient experiences drowsiness and confusion with or without focal neurologic deficits and pronounced meningeal signs |
| Hemorrhage Grade I | neurologic status is intact with mild headache and slight nuchal rigidity |
| Hemorrhage Grade II | neurologic deficit is evidenced by cranial nerve involvement and moderate-to-severe headache with more pronounced meningeal signs (e.g., photophobia, nuchal rigidity) |
| Hemorrhage Grade IV | the patient is stuporous with pronounced neurologic deficits (e.g., hemiparesis, dysphasia) and nuchal rigidity. |
| A 60-year-old patient with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hypertension presents to the ER for changes in mental status. MRI reveals that the patient has experienced a subarachnoid hemorrhage. What suspect cause? | Aneurysm |
| subarachnoid hemorrhagic bleeding | primary causative factor is an aneurysm |
| thrombotic stroke | thrombi would lead to a CVA from blockage |
| Hypertension | would lead to a hemorrhagic stroke |
| Six weeks ago a patient suffered a T6 spinal cord injury. What complication does the nurse suspect when the patient develops a blood pressure of 200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia? | Autonomic hyperreflexia |
| autonomic hyperreflexia | paroxysmal hypertension (up to 300 systolic), a pounding headache, blurred vision, sweating above the level of the lesion with flushing of the skin, nasal congestion, nausea, piloerection caused by pilomotor spasm, and bradycardia (30-40 beats/min). |
| extreme spinal shock | experiences paralysis and flaccidity in muscles, absence of sensation, loss of bladder and rectal control, transient drop in blood pressure, and poor venous circulation |
| A coup injury resulting from a blow to the frontal portion of the skull would occur in which region of the brain? | Frontal |
| coup | injury at site of impact |
| contrecoup | injury from brain rebounding and hitting opposite side of skull |
| A nurse is preparing to teach about brain tumors. Which information should the nurse include? The most common type of brain tumor in children is: | astrocytoma. |
| A 3-year-old Black child with a history of sickle cell disease and is now diagnosed with meningitis. Which is the most likely microorganism the nurse will find on the lab report? | S. pneumonia |
| Children with sickle cell disease | are at risk for developing bacterial meningitis |
| An infant has an anterior midline defect of neural tube closure. What term will the nurse observe written on the chart? | Cyclopia |
| Cyclopia | is an example of an anterior midline defect that may cause brain and face abnormalities |
| anencephaly | the soft, bony component of the skull and part of the brain are missing |
| Myelodysplasia | is a posterior neural tube disorder |
| Hydrocephalus | is associated with accelerated head growth |
| A nurse is preparing to teach about the most common defects of neural tube closure. Which one should the nurse discuss? | Posterior |
| A child is diagnosed with cerebral palsy, characterized by extreme difficulty in fine motor coordination and purposeful movement. Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is the child experiencing? | Dystonic |
| Dystonic cerebral palsy | is associated with extreme difficulty in fine motor coordination and purposeful movements |
| Ataxic cerebral palsy | manifests with gait disturbances and instability. The infant with this form of cerebral palsy may have hypotonia at birth, but stiffness of the trunk muscles develops by late infancy |
| Spastic cerebral palsy | is associated with increased muscle tone, persistent primitive reflexes, hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, clonus, rigidity of the extremities, scoliosis, and contractures |
| Mixed cerebral palsy | may have symptoms of each of the disorders. |
| Cystic Fibrosis | Genetic disease transmitted through autosomal recessive inheritance |
| Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to | protect cells from injury |
| if a pt has liquefactive necrosis, which organ should the nurse assess first? | Brain |
| Huntingtons Disease | genetic disease that leads to progressive dementia in mid to late adulthood |
| Codon | the triplet of base pairs necessary to code for a specific amino acid |
| Phenotype | outward manifestation of a disease influenced by both genes and environment |
| Monosomy | a zygote is missing in each cell |
| Transcription | RNA is formed from DNA for protein synthesis |
| Euploid cell | somatic cell containing a multiple of 23 chromosomes |
| Function of Ribosomes | Protein Synthesis |
| Tay-Sachs Disease | accumulation of lipids in nerve cells of brain |
| Cellular Atrophy | decrease in cell size |
| Apoptosis | cells program themselves to die "pop" |
| Cell injury from noxious stimuli | causes metaplasia in humans |
| Dysplasia | abnormal changes in cell secretions |
| Clastogens | cause chromosomal breakage |
| Which organ is frequently affected by chronic alcohol? | Liver |
| "Tattooing and Stippling" are characteristics of what trauma? | Gunshot wounds |
| Avulsion | Extreme laceration with a flap |
| a pt with a combined immune deficiency lacks | T & B Lymphocytes |
| When assessing a pt with SLE, you should expect to identify | Arthralgia (joint pain), Anemia, Rash (butterfly) |
| Rxn to a bee sting is which type of hypersensitivity? | Type 1 |
| Major phagocytic cells in inflammation are | Neutrophils and Macrophages |
| What is the role of Plasmin in the inflammatory response cycle? | controls clotting by breaking down fibrin |
| First line of defense is our | Skin and Mucous Membranes |
| Interferon | Substance released during a viral infection that signals neighboring cells to enhance viral defenses |
| The term used to describe the process of endocytosis... | Engulfment |
| DiGeorge Syndrome | the absence or underdevelopment of the Thymus |
| You are planning a teaching on Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE). Who should be your target audience? | Women, 20-40 years old |
| Most commonly reported symptom associated w/ cancer is | Fatigue |
| The Retinoblastoma Gene is what type of gene? | A Tumor-suppressor gene |
| Translocation | is when a piece of one chromosome is moved into another |
| Metastasis | when cancer extends to tissues and organs distant from site of origin |
| What is the leading cause of death in developed countries? | Cancer |
| What should you expect to occur when a pts cancer is caused by mutations of a Proto-Oncogene? | Increased Cell Division |
| a pt with leukopenia from cancer and chemo tx. which condition should you assess this pt for? | Infection |
| Malignant Tumors | invade surrounding tissue; they grow rapidly and metastasize |
| For Metastasis to occur, the tumor cells must be capable to... | Survive in the bloodstream |
| What is the primary cause of cervical cancer? | HPV |
| The development of Sensory and motor symptoms in MS is caused by... | Immunologic and inflammatory demyelination of the CNS neurons |
| Subdural Hematoma | Bleeding between the dura mater and the brain |
| Autonomic Hyperreflexia | stimulation of sensory/pain receptors below the level of the spinal cord lesion |
| What usually causes Encephalitis? | A viral infection |
| Most focal brain injuries are associated with increased... | Brain swelling |
| ALS is caused by | Degeneration of lower and upper motor neurons |
| A spinal cord tumor that originates within the neural tissue is called ____________ tumor | Intramedullary |
| Classical sign of Cererbal concussion | is LOC |
| pt with Guillain- Barre, during health hx you should ask about hx of.... | Respiratory or GI viral infections |
| Cerebral thrombosis delelops most often from..... | Atherosclerosis and inflammation of disease processes (arteritis- inflammation of the arteries) |
| Which intervertebral disc should be assessed first for herniation? | L4-S1 |
| A pts forehead hit the steering wheel during an MVA. which part of the brain received the coup injury? | Frontal |
| A pt has a brief episode fo neurological deficits that resolves within 12hrs. What diagnosis should you document on their chart? | Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) aka Stroke |
| What type of injury will the nurse prepare to care for when a pt has a diffuse brain injury? | Concussion |
| Term used to describe the loss of refelex function below the injury/lesion? | Spinal Shock |
| Your patient w/ HIV has painful burning Dysesthesias and Paresthesias, especially in the extremities. What condition is this? | HIV Neuropathy |
| Which test would you implement to test for Nuchal Rigidity as a result of meningitis? | Kernig |
| During a Myasthenic or Cholinergic crisis, a pt is in danger of: | Respiratory Arrest. |
| Irritative syndrome involves: | Compressive symptoms plus radicular pain and paresthesias |
| A herniated disc allows the gelatinous material (the nucleus pulposus) to: | Extrude and compress the nerve root |
| The Eukaryotic cell consists of | Plasma membrane, Cytoplasm, Intracellular Organelles |
| Genes are composed of | DNA |
| Inherited alteration of genetic material is called | A mutation |
| Metaplasia | reversable replacement of one mature cell type by another less mature cell |
| Edema | Fluid distribution that results in accumulation of fluid within interstitial spaces |
| Water balance is regulated by | Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
| What is regulate by the kidneys, by aldosterone and insulin secretion and by changes in pH? | Potassium Balance |
| The second line of defense is.... | The inflammatory response |
| What are the molecules that bind and react with components of the immune response, such as antibodies and receptors on B and T cells? | Antigens |
| What enters host cells and uses the metabolic processes of host cells to proliferate and cause disease? | Viruses |
| A propensity to unusual or recurrent severe infections is a clinical hallmark of | Immunodeficiency I |
| heterozygous | Having two different alleles for a particular gene |
| homozygous | Having two identical alleles for a specific gene |
| genotype | The genetic constitution of an individual organism |
| allele | An alternative form of a gene found at the same place on a chromosome |
| Define cystic fibrosis | A hereditary disorder affecting the lungs and digestive system, characterized by thick, sticky mucus production leading to respiratory and digestive problems |
| What is Duchenne muscular dystrophy? | A severe type of muscular dystrophy that primarily affects boys, leading to muscle weakness and loss. |
| Describe neurofibromatosis. | A genetic disorder causing tumors to form on nerve tissue, leading to skin changes and bone deformities. |
| What is autosomal dominant inheritance? | A pattern of inheritance where only one copy of a mutated gene from one parent is sufficient to cause the disease. |
| Define autosomal recessive inheritance. | A pattern of inheritance where two copies of a mutated gene (one from each parent) are necessary to cause the disease. |
| What is X-linked inheritance? | A mode of inheritance where the gene causing the trait or disorder is located on the X chromosome. |
| Explain autophagy. | The process by which cells degrade and recycle their own components. |
| Explain fat necrosis. | Necrosis of adipose tissue, often due to trauma or pancreatitis. |
| What is fibrinoid necrosis? | A type of necrosis where immune complexes and fibrin are deposited in the walls of blood vessels |
| How does chronic alcohol use affect the liver? | It can lead to fatty liver, alcoholic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and liver cancer. |
| What impact does chronic alcohol use have on the cardiovascular system? | It increases the risk of hypertension, cardiomyopathy, and arrhythmias. |
| How does chronic alcohol use affect the nervous system? | It can cause neuropathy, cognitive impairments, and an increased risk of seizures. |
| What are the components of innate immunity? | Physical barriers (skin, mucous membranes), phagocytic cells, and inflammatory mediators. |
| Define adaptive immunity | The body's ability to recognize and defend itself against specific pathogens through B and T lymphocytes. |
| What processes are associated with inflammation? | Vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and leukocyte migration. |
| What are cytokines? | Proteins secreted by cells that mediate and regulate immunity and inflammation. |
| What is bradykinin? | A peptide that causes blood vessels to dilate, leading to decreased blood pressure. |
| What is plasmin? | An enzyme involved in the breakdown of fibrin in blood clots. |
| What is serous exudate? | A clear, watery fluid that accumulates in response to inflammation. |
| Define fibrinous exudate. | A thick, sticky fluid rich in fibrinogen, indicating severe inflammation. |
| What is purulent exudate? | A thick, yellow-green fluid containing pus, indicating infection. |
| What is hemorrhagic exudate? | A bloody fluid indicating severe tissue injury. |
| What is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? | A chronic autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks the body's own tissues. |
| What are the four types of hypersensitivity reactions? | Type I (immediate), Type II (cytotoxic), Type III (immune complex), Type IV (delayed). |
| What is combined immune deficiency? | A condition characterized by defects in both T and B lymphocytes, leading to increased susceptibility to infections. |
| What is respiratory acidosis? | A condition where carbon dioxide retention leads to decreased blood pH. |
| Define metabolic acidosis. | A condition characterized by a decrease in bicarbonate ions, leading to a lower blood pH. |
| What is respiratory alkalosis? | A condition where excessive loss of carbon dioxide leads to an increased blood pH. |
| Define metabolic alkalosis. | : A condition characterized by an increase in bicarbonate ions, leading to a higher blood pH |
| Name viruses associated with human cancer. | Human papillomavirus (HPV), Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), Hepatitis B and C viruses. |
| Define proto-oncogene. | A normal gene that can become an oncogene due to mutations or increased expression. |
| What is an oncogene? | A gene that has the potential to cause cancer when mutated or expressed at high levels. |
| Define tumor-suppressor gene. | A gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer. |
| What is a caretaker gene? | A gene involved in maintaining the integrity of the genome. |
| What is the difference between CIS and invasive cancer? | CIS is confined to the site of origin, while invasive cancer has spread beyond its original location. |
| Which sensory defect is most common? | Hearing loss. |
| What is sleep apnea? | A disorder characterized by pauses in breathing or periods of shallow breathing during sleep. |
| What are the pathophysiology and risk factors for sleep apnea? | Obstruction of the upper airway during sleep; risk factors include obesity, age, and anatomical abnormalities. |
| What is vertigo? | A sensation of spinning or dizziness, often due to inner ear problems. |
| What is meningitis? | Inflammation of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord, typically caused by infection. |
| What are Kernig and Brudzinski signs? | Clinical signs indicating meningitis; Kernig's sign is pain upon extending the knee with the hip flexed, and Brudzinski's sign is involuntary bending of the knees when the neck is flexed |
| What is multiple sclerosis? | A chronic autoimmune disease affecting the central nervous system, leading to demyelination and neurological symptoms |
| What is spondylolisthesis? | Forward displacement of a vertebra over the one below it, often causing back pain. |
| What is cauda equina syndrome? | A serious condition involving compression of the nerve roots at the end of the spinal cord, leading to lower back pain, numbness, and potential loss of bladder or bowel control. |
| What is a herniated nucleus pulposus? | Displacement of the inner gel-like core of an intervertebral disc, which can compress nearby nerves. |
| What is spinal stenosis? | Narrowing of the spinal canal, leading to pressure on the spinal cord and nerves. |
| What is a cerebral vascular accident (stroke) | A sudden loss of brain function due to disruption of blood supply. |
| What are the causes and risk factors for stroke? | Causes include ischemia or hemorrhage; risk factors include hypertension, smoking, diabetes, and atrial fibrillation |
| What is an ischemic stroke? | A type of stroke caused by blockage of blood flow to the brain. |
| What is a hemorrhagic stroke? | A type of stroke caused by bleeding into the brain tissue. |
| What is an intracranial aneurysm? | An abnormal bulging of a blood vessel in the brain, which can rupture and cause bleeding. |
| What is myasthenia gravis? | An autoimmune neuromuscular disorder leading to weakness of voluntary muscles. |
| How do spinal cord injuries differ? | They vary based on the level and completeness of the injury, affecting motor and sensory functions. |
| What is irritative syndrome? | A condition characterized by increased neuronal activity, leading to symptoms like hyperreflexia. |
| What is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? | A progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting motor neurons, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. |
| What is somatopause? | The age-related decline in growth hormone secretion. |
| What hormones are affected by somatopause? | Growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1). |
| What factors influence insulin secretion? | Blood glucose levels, hormonal signals, and autonomic nervous system activity. |
| What is Addison disease? | A disorder where the adrenal glands produce insufficient cortisol and aldosterone. |
| What is gestational diabetes? | Diabetes that develops during pregnancy and usually resolves |
| What is the Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)? | A condition where excessive ADH secretion leads to water retention, hyponatremia, and concentrated urine |
| What is Graves' disease? | An autoimmune disorder causing hyperthyroidism due to thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins stimulating the thyroid gland |
| What is Diabetes Insipidus (DI)? | A disorder characterized by insufficient ADH, leading to excessive urination and thirst. |
| What is Acromegaly? | A condition caused by excessive growth hormone, leading to abnormal growth of bones and tissues. |
| What is Cushing syndrome? | A disorder caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, leading to symptoms like weight gain and skin changes. |
| What is a Prolactinoma? | A benign tumor of the pituitary gland that produces excess prolactin, affecting reproductive and sexual function. |
| What is Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)? | A group of genetic disorders affecting adrenal gland enzyme production, leading to hormonal imbalances. |
| What are the signs and symptoms of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (DM)? | Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, weight loss, fatigue, and blurred vision. |
| What is the pathophysiology of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (DM)? | Insulin resistance and beta-cell dysfunction leading to elevated blood glucose levels. |
| What complications are associated with Type 2 DM? | Diabetic retinopathy, diabetic neuropathy, and polyuria |
| What are the signs and symptoms of Hyperthyroidism? | Weight loss, rapid heartbeat, increased appetite, sweating, and tremors. |
| What is a Thyroid Storm? | A life-threatening exacerbation of hyperthyroidism with fever, tachycardia, and altered mental status. |
| What are the signs and symptoms of Hypothyroidism? | Fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, and dry skin. |
| What is the most common cause of Hypothyroidism? | Hashimoto's thyroiditis, an autoimmune disorder. |
| What complications are associated with Hyperparathyroidism? | Osteoporosis, kidney stones, abdominal pain, and fatigue. |
Created by:
Sapphirej3853