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Curtis Kufel
Pathophysiology Week 1- 8 (Midterm)
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The nurse is caring for a patient with a genetic disease that is transmitted through autosomal recessive inheritance. Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? A. Cystic Fibrosis B. Huntington’s Disease C. Marfan Syndrome D. Hemophilia A | Cystic Fibrosis |
| Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to: A. Promote unregulated cell growth B. Cause immediate cell death when exposed to toxins C. Protect cells from injury D. Trigger autoimmune responses | Protect cells from injury. |
| If a patient has liquefactive necrosis, which organ should the nurse assess first? A. Brain B. Heart C. Liver D. Kidney | Brain |
| The nurse in the genetics clinic is describing a genetic disease that leads to progressive dementia in middle to later adulthood. To which disease is the nurse most likely referring? Huntington disease Down syndrome Tay-Sachs disease | Huntington disease |
| The triplet of base pairs necessary to code for a specific amino acid is called: | codon |
| The outward manifestation of a disease, often influenced by both genes and the environment, is called the disease: | Phenotype |
| The condition that occurs when a zygote is missing in each cell is referred to as: A. Monosomy B. Trisomy C. Diploidy D. Polyploidy | a "monosomy" |
| The process by which RNA is formed from DNA for protein synthesis as: A. Translation B. Transcription C. Replication D. Mutation | Transcription |
| The somatic cell that contains a multiple of 23 chromosomes is called: A. Aneuploid B. Haploid C. Euploid D. Diploid | an euploid cell |
| Which is the chief function of ribosomes? | protein synthesis |
| A disease results in the accumlation of lipids in the nerve cell of the brain. A. Tay-Sachs disease B. Cystic fibrosis C. Phenylketonuria (PKU) D. Huntington disease | Tay-Sachs disease |
| Cellular atrophy is: | a decrease in cell size |
| The process by which cells program themselves to die: | Apoptosis |
| which causes metaplasia in humans : A. Normal cellular aging B. Genetic mutations C. Cell injury from noxious stimuli D. Hormonal stimulation | Cell injury from noxious stimuli. |
| The postmortem decreases in a patient's body temperature will be documented as: | algor mortis |
| Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal change in: A. Cell number B. Cell function C. Cell membrane permeability D. Cell size, shape, and organization (cell secretions) | cell secretions |
| Clastrogens are agents that cause: A. Point mutations in DNA B. Chromosomal breakage C. Protein misfolding D. Increased cell proliferation | chromosomal breakage |
| which organ is most frequently affected by chronic alchoal (ethanol) injury? | Liver |
| The nurse documents "tattooing and stippling" in a truama patient. Which type of injury does this patient have? | Gunshot Wounds |
| When a patient has an ectreme laceration (laceration with a flap), which medical term should the nurse document on the chart? A. Abrasion B. Contusion C. Avulsion D. Puncture wound | an avulsion |
| A patient with a combined immune deficiency lacks: A. Neutrophils B. Natural killer (NK) cells C. Macrophages D. T and B lymphocytes | T and B lymphocytes |
| When assessing a patient with SLE, you should expect to identify : A. Arthralgia, anemia, and rash B. Muscle weakness, hearing loss, and diarrhea C. Jaundice, constipation, and seizures D. Cough, weight gain, and blurred vision | arthralgia, anemia, and rash. |
| Your patient is having a reaction to a bee sting. Which type of hypersensitivity are they displaying? | Type 1 |
| The major phagocytic cells in inflammation are: A. Basophils and eosinophils B. Lymphocytes and plasma cells C. Neutrophils and macrophages D. Mast cells and dendritic cells | Neutrophils and macrophages |
| What is the role of plasmin in the inflammatory response cycle? | It controls clotting by breaking down fibrin. |
| Among the many innate defenses the body has to pathogens, the first line of defense is The: | Skin and mucos membranes. |
| Which substances is released during a viral infection and signals neighboring cells to enhance viral defenses? | Interferon |
| What term is used to describe the process of endocytosis? | Engulfment |
| DiGeorge syndrome is characterized by absence or underdevelopment of which organ? | Thymus |
| You are planning a community teaching event about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). To which population should your teaching be primarily targeted? | Women, 20-40 years old. |
| Which of the following patients is the most at risk for developing hypernatremia? A patient with: vomiting. diuretic use. dehydration. hypoaldosteronism. | dehydration. |
| A 60-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting lung tumor. Further testing indicates that the tumor secretes ADH. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) | Confusion Weakness Nausea Muscle twitching |
| Water movement between the ICF and ECF compartments is determined by: osmotic forces. plasma oncotic pressure. antidiuretic hormone. buffer systems. | osmotic forces. |
| A nurse is teaching the staff about antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which information should the nurse include? Secretion of ADH is stimulated by: increased serum potassium. increased plasma osmolality. decreased renal blood flow. generalized edema. | increased plasma osmolality. |
| A patient has been searching on the Internet about natriuretic hormones. When the patient asks the nurse what these hormones do, how should the nurse respond? Natriuretic hormones affect the balance of: calcium. sodium. magnesium. potassium. | sodium. |
| Which finding would support the diagnosis of respiratory acidosis? Vomiting Hyperventilation Pneumonia An increase in noncarbonic acids | Pneumonia |
| Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering system? Protein/fat Carbonic acid/bicarbonate Sodium/potassium Amylase/albumin | Carbonic acid/bicarbonate |
| A 30-year-old female complains of fatigue, arthritis, rash, and changes in urine color. Laboratory testing reveals anemia, lymphopenia, and kidney inflammation. Assuming a diagnosis of SLE, which of the following is also likely to be present? | Anti-LE antibodies Autoantibodies <--- Antiherpes antibodies Anti-CMV antibodies |
| In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for: HLA type. Rh antigen. immunoglobulins. platelet compatibility. | Rh antigen. |
| When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse remembers this disease is an example of: autoimmunity. alloimmunity. homoimmunity. alleimmunity. | autoimmunity. |
| A 22 year old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus? CD4+ T-helper CD8 T-helper CDC cells CDC10 cells | CD4+ T-helper |
| The nurse would correctly respond that the etiology of a congenital immune deficiency is due to a(n): negative response to an immunization. adverse response to a medication. renal failure. genetic defect. | genetic defect. |
| A 15-year-old male suffers from severe hemorrhage following a motor vehicle accident. He is given a blood transfusion, but shortly afterward the red blood cells are destroyed by agglutination and lysis. What blood type transfusion type matches would do it | A-A B-O AB-O A-AB <--- |
| When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs? Autoimmune Anaphylaxis Alloimmune Allergic | Alloimmune |
| An infant is experiencing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in the infant’s history and physical? | The mother was exposed to measles. The father was exposed to Agent Orange. The baby is Rh positive. <--- The baby was born 6 weeks prematurely. |
| Cystic fibrosis is caused by what gene abnormality? X-linked dominant X-linked recessive Autosomal dominant Autosomal recessive | Autosomal recessive |
| To express a polygenic trait: genes must interact with the environment. several genes must act together. multiple mutations must occur in the same family. penetrance must occur. | several genes must act together. |
| A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following? XY XX XYY XXY | XXY |
| What is the result of homologous chromosomes failing to separate during meiosis? Neurofibromatosis Nondisjunction Polyploidy Conjoined twins | Nondisjunction |
| A biologist is explaining how RNA directs the synthesis of protein. Which process is the biologist describing? Termination Transcription Translocation Translation | Translation |
| A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition? Biploidy Triploidy Tetraploidy Aneuploidy | Tetraploidy |
| A child is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. History reveals that the child’s parents are siblings. Cystic fibrosis was most likely the result of: X-inactivation. genomic imprinting. consanguinity. obligate carriers. | consanguinity. |
| When a nurse observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6–14 hours after death, the nurse should document this finding as the presence of: livor mortis. gangrene. algor mortis. rigor mortis. | rigor mortis. |
| Confirmation of somatic death is based on: presence of algor mortis. presence of livor mortis. complete cessation of respiration and circulation. change in skin color to pale yellow. | complete cessation of respiration and circulation. |
| A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to: malnutrition. free radicals. ischemia. chemical toxicity. | ischemia. |
| The early dilation (swelling) of the cell’s endoplasmic reticulum results in: increased aerobic metabolism. failure of DNA. reduced protein synthesis. increased Na+–K+ pump function. | reduced protein synthesis. |
| Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of: decreased ATP production. karyorrhexis. ribosome detachment. dehydration. | decreased ATP production. |
| A 50-year-old female became infected with Clostridium bacteria and died a week later. Examination of her red blood cells revealed lysis of membranes. Which of the following was the most likely cause of her death? | Fat necrosis Wet gangrene Gangrenous necrosis Gas gangrene <-- |
| A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Biopsy of the tumor reveals Russell bodies, and laboratory testing reveals kidney dysfunction. Which substance should the nurse monitor as it is accumulating in the patient’s body? | Glycogen Protein <--- Pigment Melanin |
| A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause? | Coagulative necrosis Liquefactive necrosis Caseous necrosis <--- Autonecrosis |
| The most commonly reported symptom associated with Cancer is: | Fatigue |
| The Retinoblastoma gene is what type of gene? A. Tumor-suppressor gene B. Proto-oncogene C. Oncogene D. DNA repair gene | A Tumor-Supressor Gene |
| A process in which a piece of one chromosome is moved to another chromosome: | Translocation |
| What term is used to describe cancer that extends to organs or tissues distant from the site of origin? | Metastasis |
| What is the leading cause of death in developed countries? | Cancer |
| What would you expect to occur when a patient’s cancer is caused by mutations of a proto oncogene? A. Decreased cell proliferation B. Increased cell division C. Enhanced DNA repair D. Cell cycle arrest | Increased cell division. |
| A patient is experiencing leukopenia from cancer and chemotherapy treatment. Which condition should you assess for in this patient? A. Hypertension B. Deep vein thrombosis C. Infection D. Hyperglycemia | Infection. |
| Malignant tumors have a tendancy to : | Invade surrounding tissues; They also grow rapidly and have a tendency to metastasize. |
| For metastasis to occur, tumor cells must be capable of: | Surving in the blood stream. |
| What is the primary cause of cervicle cancer? | Human Papilloma Virus. |
| The development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis is caused by: Immunologic and Inflammatory delamination of Central Nervous System Neurons. Degeneration of peripheral nerves. Autoimmune destruction of muscle tissue. | Immunologic and Inflammatory delamination of Central Nervous System Neurons |
| Subdural hematomas: A. Between the skull and the dura mater B. bleeding between the dura mater and the brain C. Between the arachnoid mater and the brain tissue D. Within the brain tissue itself | bleeding between the dura mater and the brain |
| Autonomic hyperreflexia is caused by: A. Stimulation of sensory/pain receptors below the level of the spinal cord lesion B. Damage to the cerebellum C. Increased parasympathetic activity above the lesion D. Peripheral nerve injury | Stimulation of sensory/pain receptors below the level of the spinal cord lesion. |
| What usually causes encephalitis? A. A viral infection B. Bacterial infection C. Fungal infection D. Autoimmune reaction | A viral infection. |
| Most forms of focal brain injury are associated with increased: A. Cerebrospinal fluid production B. Intracranial pressure C. Blood flow to the brain D. Brain swelling | Brain Swelling |
| ALS is caused by: A. Demyelination of peripheral nerves B. Degeneration of lower and upper motor neurons C. Autoimmune attack on neuromuscular junctions D. Accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques | Degeneration of lower and upper motor neurons. |
| A patient has a spinal cord tumor that originated within the neural tissues. What type of tumor is this called? A. Intramedullary B. Extramedullary C. Extradural D. Metastatic | Intramedullary |
| A sign associated with classic cerebral concussion is: A. Loss of consciousness B. Hemiplegia C. Persistent seizures D. Gradual memory loss | Loss of consciousness |
| Your patient has Guillain Barre. During the health history you should ask about a history of: A. Respiratory or gastrointestinal viral infections B. Chronic hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Previous fractures | Respiratory or gastrointestinal viral infections |
| Cerebral thrombosis develops most often from: A. Embolism originating from the heart B. Trauma to the brain vessels C. Atherosclerosis and inflammatory disease process (arteritis) D. Hypertension alone | Atherosclerosis and inflammatory disease process (arteritis) |
| Which intervertebral disks should the nurse assess first for herniation? | L4-S1 |
| Your patient's Forheads hit the steering wheel during a motor vehicle accident. Which part of the brain received the coup injury? | Frontal |
| Your patient has a brief episode of neurological deficits that resolves within 12 hours with return to normal functioning. What diagnosis should you document on the chart. A. Transient ischemic attack B. Ischemic stroke C. Hemorrhagic stroke | Transient ischemic attack |
| What type of injury will the nurse prepare to care for when a patient has a diffuse brain injury? A. Contusion B. Epidural hematoma C. Subdural hematoma D. Concussion | concussion |
| A patient has a recent spinal cord injury. Which terms should the nurse use to describe the loss of reflex function below the level of injury/lesion? A. Spinal shock B. Neurogenic shock C. Autonomic dysreflexia D. Multiple sclerosis | Spinal shock |
| Your patient with HIV has painful burning dysesthesias and parethesias, especially in the extremities. What condition will you document in the chart? | HIV neuropathy |
| During your assessment of a patient with meningitis, you want to test for nuchal rigidity. Which test will you implement? | Kernig |
| During a myasthenic or cholinergic crisis, a patient is in danger of: A. Respiratory arrest B. Hypertension C. Seizures D. Renal failure | Respiratory arrest |
| Irritative syndromes involve: A. Only muscle weakness without sensory symptoms B. Purely autonomic dysfunction C. Loss of consciousness and seizures D. Compressive symptoms plus radicular pain and paresthesias | Compressive symptoms plus radicular pain and paresthesias. |
| A herniated disc allows the gelatinous material (the nucleus pulposus) to: A. Extrude and compress the nerve root B. Harden and strengthen the spinal cord C. Regenerate damaged neurons D. Cause inflammation in the brain | Extrude and compress the nerve root. |
| Which of the following indicates a nurse understands a proto-oncogene? A proto-oncogene is best defined as a(n) _____ gene. normal altered inactive tumor-suppressor | normal |
| Which statement indicates the patient has a correct understanding of metastasis? The most common route of metastasis is through the blood vessels and: lung tissue. body cavities. lymphatics. connective tissues. | lymphatics. |
| A patient asks when adjuvant chemotherapy is used. How should the nurse respond? Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment is used: | as the primary treatment. before radiation therapy. after surgical removal of a tumor. <---- in cancer with little risk of metastasis. |
| A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes. A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage: 1. 2. 3. 4. | 3. |
| A nurse recalls physical activity was shown to definitely reduce the risk of which of the following types of cancer? Prostate Lung Bone Colon | Colon |
| When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should the oncologist discuss? Increasing hypersensitivity Facilitating new mutations Promoting cell death Enhancing mitosis | Facilitating new mutations |
| The most important environmental risk factor for cancer is exposure to: ultraviolet (UV) radiation. radon. estrogen. cigarette smoke. | cigarette smoke. |
| A 65-year-old patient recently diagnosed with cancer retired from construction work. Which cancer is likely to develop secondarily to occupational hazards? Mesothelioma Bladder cancer Prostate cancer Bone cancer | Mesothelioma |
| The nurse explains to a parent that young children diagnosed with Down syndrome are at higher risk for developing: nephroblastoma. rhabdomyosarcoma. leukemia. retinoblastoma. | leukemia. |
| A 16 year old with aspirations of becoming a bodybuilder spends 3 hours a day in the gym. Five years later, a hepatocellular carcinoma is discovered. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the cancer? | Immunosuppressive agents Cytotoxic agents Anabolic steroids <--- A viral infection |
| A 40-year-old female developed adenocarcinoma of the vagina. Which prenatal event is the most likely cause of her cancer? Rb gene mutation Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) Exposure to solvents Exposure to radiation | Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) |
| What event occurs in about 70% of the cases of childhood cancers? Cured. Required only chemotherapy. Participated in clinical trails. Developed a secondary malignancy. | Cured. |
| A patient scrapes both knees while playing soccer and reports sharp and well-localized pain. Which of the following should the nurse document to most accurately characterize the pain? Chronic pain Referred pain Somatic pain Visceral pain | Somatic pain |
| A nurse should document on the chart that chronic pain is occurring when the patient reports the pain has lasted longer than: 1 month. 3–6 months. 1 year. 2–3 years. | 3–6 months. |
| The nurse would expect the patient with an alteration in proprioception to experience vertigo, which is manifested by: headache. light sensitivity. a sensation that the room is spinning. loss of feeling in the lips. | a sensation that the room is spinning. |
| A patient received a prescription for a weight loss pill. One effect of the pills is to increase the release of epinephrine. Which of the following would be expected to also occur? | Decreased vascular tone Increased skeletal muscle tone Increased heat production <-- Decreased basal metabolic rate |
| A nurse recalls that neural systems basic to cognitive functions include _____ systems. (Select all that apply.) attentional memory and language affective sensory and motor tactile | attentional memory and language affective |
| A 70-year-old patient is being monitored in the neurologic unit for a closed head injury. 48 hours, signs of deterioration pupils are small and sluggish, pulse pressure is widening, and heart rate is bradycardic. What stage of intracranial hypertension? | Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 <-- Stage 4 |
| A patient with an addiction to alcohol checked into a rehabilitation center as a result of experiencing delirium, inability to concentrate, and being easily distracted. What term would be used to document this state? | Acute confusional state <--- Echolalia Dementia Dysphagia |
| The breathing pattern that reflects respirations based primarily on carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood is: Cheyne-Stokes. ataxic. central neurogenic. normal. | Cheyne-Stokes. |
| A patient presents with acute low back pain. There is no history of trauma. An MRI reveals that the vertebra at L5 has slipped forward relative to those below it. Which of the following conditions will be documented on the chart? | Degenerative disk disease Spondylolysis Spondylolisthesis <---- Spinal stenosis |
| Which assessment finding by the nurse characterizes a mild concussion? A brief loss of consciousness Significant behavioral changes Retrograde amnesia Permanent confusion | Retrograde amnesia |
| Patient teaching is considered successful regarding myasthenia gravis when the patient identifies its cause as being: | viral infection of skeletal muscle. atrophy of motor neurons in the spinal cord. demyelination of skeletal motor neurons. autoimmune injury at the neuromuscular junction. <--- |
| Who is most at risk of spinal cord injury because of preexisting degenerative disorders? Infants Men Women The elderly | The elderly |
| Which information is basic to the assessment findings associated with a patient diagnosed with an aneurysm? | A headache is the most common symptom. The majority are asymptomatic. <--- Nosebleeds are an early symptom. Epidural hemorrhage occurs in over 80% of patients. |
| Which reflex of infancy will disappear first? Stepping Rooting Palmar grasp Moro reflex | Stepping |
| What nutrient should the nurse encourage a woman in the early stages of pregnancy to consume to prevent neural tube defects? Protein Iron Vitamin D Folic acid | Folic acid |
| An infant is diagnosed with congenital hydrocephalus. Which of the following characteristics would the nurse expect to find? | Enlarged ventricles <--- Decreased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production Increased resorption of CSF Smaller than average head circumference |
| A child is diagnosed with cerebral palsy, characterized by extreme difficulty in fine motor coordination and purposeful movement. Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is the child experiencing? Ataxic Dystonic Spastic Mixed | Dystonic |
| A baby is stillborn after 6 hours of labor. Autopsy reveals hydrocephalus caused by cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle and aqueductal compression. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Congenital hydrocephalus Microcephaly Dandy-Walker deformity <--- Macewen sign |
| The eukaryotic cell consists of three general components: | The palsma membrane, the cytoplasm, and the intracellular organelles. |
| Genes, the basic units of inheritance, are composed of: | Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) |
| AN inherited alteration of genetic material is called: | a mutation |
| The reversible replacement of mature cell type by another less mature cell type is called: | metaplasia |
| A problem of fluid distribution that results in accumulation of fluid within the interstitial spaces: | edema |
| Waterbalance is regualted by: | Sensation of thirst and by antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
| What is regulated by the kidney, by aldostererone and insulin secreatio, and by changes in pH? | Potassium Balance |
| The second line of defense is: | is the inflammatory response. |
| What are molecules that bind and react with components of the immune response, such as antibodies and receptors on B and T cells? | antigens |
| What enters host cells and uses the metabolic processes of the host cells to proliferate and cause disease? | Viruses |
| A propensity to unusual or recurrent severe infections is a clinical hallmark of: | Immunodeficiency i |
| A nurse recalls that adaptive cellular mechanisms function to: a. treat disease. b. protect cells from injury. c. prevent cellular aging. d. speed up cellular death. | b. protect cells from injury. |
| When teaching staff Tay-Sachs disease, which information should the nurse include? Tay-Sachs disease results in the accumulation of: protein in the kidneys. calcium in the liver. lipids in the nerve cells of the brain. uric acid in the heart muscle. | c. lipids in the nerve cells of the brain. |
| When a patient has tissue ischemia and a decrease in mitochondrial oxygenation, which of the following does the nurse expect? a. Cellular dehydration b. Decreased ATP production c. Calcium accumulation outside the cell d. Increased protein synthesis | b. Decreased ATP production |
| When the clinician is discussing the DNA helix, which information should be included? In the DNA helix, guanine pairs with: a. cytosine b. thymine c. uracil d. adenine | a. Cytosine |
| Which statement by a nursing student indicates the need for further teaching? Free radical injury can be caused by: a. tissue damage by antioxidants. b. radiation injury. c. tissue reperfusion following ischemia. d. enzymatic metabolism of chemicals. | a. tissue damage by antioxidants. |
| If an ovum has chromosomal nondisjunction, which conditions(s) could result in the embryo? a. Monosomies and trisomies b. Chromosomal translocation c. Broken chromosomes d. Normal cell division | a. Monosomies and trisomies |
| The nurse is caring for a new mother who just gave birth to a baby with Down syndrome. The nurse explains that this syndrome is a result of trisomy with which chromosome? a. 6 b. 8 c. 14 d. 21 | 21 |
| If a patient has Gaucher disease, which of the following organ(s) should the nurse monitor? a. Liver b. Spleen c. CNS/Brain d. All of the Above. | D. All of the above |
| What term does the nurse use to describe the exudate that is characterized by the movement of watery fluid, containing few cells and little protein? a. Fibrinous b. Serous c. Purulent d. Hemorrhagic | b. Serous |
| While discussing the complement system, which information should the nurse include? The alternative pathway of the complement system is activated by: a. histamine. b. antigen-antibody complexes. c. bacteria d. bleeding | c. bacteria |
| A patient has a complement deficiency of C5 and C7. The nurse should monitor this patient for infections caused by: a. Staphylococcus. b. Neisseria. c. Streptococcus. d. Escherichia coli. | b. Neisseria. |
| Which cells are primarily responsible for phagocytic activity during inflammation? a. Histamine and interferons b. Neutrophils and macrophages c. Interleukins and cytokines d. Platelets and leukocytes | b. Neutrophils and macrophages |
| The nurse is caring for a patient with B-lymphocyte deficiency. The nurse should protect the patient primarily from: a. capsulated viruses. b. fermented yeast. c. wet fungi d. encapsulated bacteria | d. encapsulated bacteria |
| A nurse is describing primary immune deficiency. Which primary deficiencies should the nurse include? a. T lymphocytes and mast cells b. Phagocytes and histamine c. B lymphocytes and complement d. Combined and allergen | c. B lymphocytes and complement |
| A patient has Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. Which typical assessment findings should the nurse monitor for in this patient? a. Decreased IgM and bleeding b. Increased IgE and clotting c. Decreased IgG and wheezing d. Increased IgA and coughing | a. Decreased IgM and bleeding |
| A patient asks a nurse what leukotrienes do. Which of the following is the best answer? Leukotrienes: a. cause smooth muscle relaxation. b. activate chemotactic cytokines. c. cause increased vascular permeability. d. activate complement proteins. | c. cause increased vascular permeability. |
| A patient asks about the role of clotting mechanisms during inflammation. The nurse should indicate that the function of the clotting cascade during inflammation is to: breakdown a fibrin plug. enhance bleeding. prevent healing. trap microorganisms. | d. trap microorganisms. |
| An individual who is heterozygous for a gene has: alleles at a given locus that are different from one another. alleles at a given locus that are the same. alleles at different loci that are the same. a recessive gene on chromosomal pairs. | a. alleles at a given locus that are different from one another. |
| A patient presents with untreated Cushing Disease. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to see in this patient? Truncal obesity Weight loss with muscle wasting Hyperpigmentation of the skin Bradycardia | Truncal obesity |
| The nurse on a neurological unit is caring for several patients. Which patient is at highest risk for a cerebral vascular accident (stroke)? The patient with: Allergies and asthma Hypertension and diabetes Repaired heart defect insomnia and anxiety | Hypertension and diabetes |
| The nurse is assessing the patient for meningitis. The Nurse bends the patient's neck, and the patient experiences neck pain and rigidity. How would you chart this? Negative Kernig sign Nuchal tenderness Positive Brudzinski sign Hyperactive reflexes | Positive Brudzinski sign |
| Which of the following treatments to help cancer related or chemotherapy related anemia should the nurse discuss with the patient? a. Erythropoietin b. Anticoagulants c. Beta blockers d. Corticosteroids | Erythropoietin |
| A patient presents with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following signs would the clinicians expect to see? a. Weight loss and enlarged thyroid gland b. Cold intolerance and weight gain c. Bradycardia and dry skin d. Constipation and hoarse voice | Weight loss and enlarged thyroid gland |
| Which of the following involves autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland and gradual loss of the thyroid function? a. Graves disease b. Toxic multinodular goiter c. Subacute thyroiditis d. Autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto Disease) | Autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto Disease) |
| The nurse is describing acid-balance imbalances with a nursing student. In regards to metabolic acid-base disturbances, what two chemicals as altered? Sodium and potassium Hydrogen ion (H⁺) and bicarbonate ion (HCO₃⁻) Calcium and chloride | hydrogen ion (H+) and bicarbonate ion (HCO3) |
| What of the following is an autoimmune inflammatory disease that results in widespread demyelination of central nervous system neurons? | Multiple Sclerosis |
| A patient with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse what causes polyuria. What is the nurse's best response? The symptom of polyuria in diabetes mellitus is caused by: Increased glucose in the urine Excess insulin production Decreased sodium excretion | Increased glucose in the urine. |
| A patient who is heterozygous for a gene has: a. Two identical alleles at a given locus b. Alleles at a given locus that are different from one another c. Multiple copies of the same allele d. No alleles at that locus | alleles at a given locus that are different from one another |
| The patient presents with elevated levels of ACTH due to Addison Disease. Which of the following would: Inadequate corticosteroid and mineralocorticoid synthesis Excess cortisol production Increased aldosterone secretion Hyperglycemia and weight gain | Inadequate corticosteroid and mineralcorticoid synthesis |
| Which of the following is the most common sensory defect? a. Visual impairment b. Impaired hearing c. Loss of taste d. Reduced touch sensation | Impaired hearing |
| Caring for a patient with Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS). This disease is caused by: Inflammation of peripheral nerves Demyelination of sensory neurons Degeneration of the upper and lower motor neurons, resulting in progressive muscle wasting | Degeneration of the upper and lower motor neurons, resulting in progressive muscle wasting. |
| A patient with a spinal cord injury at the T6 level reports a headache. The patient’s blood pressure is 296 systolic, and the patient is sweating. Which intervention is most appropriate? | a. Check the patient’s bladder <-- b. Administer antihypertensive medication immediately c. Elevate the patient’s legs d. Provide a cold compress to the forehead |
| A set of parents has two offspring. One child has an autosomal recessive disease trait and one is normal. What likely conclusion can the nurse make about the parents? | a. Both parents are affected by the disease b. Both parents could be carriers <-- c. One parent has the disease and the other is normal d. Neither parent carries the gene |
| While working in the oncology unit, a nurse cares for a patient with cachexia. Which of the following is NOT associated with this condition? a. Muscle wasting b. Weight loss c. Heart murmur d. Fatigue | Heart Murmur |
| The nurse is describing the symptoms associated with diabetes insipidus (DI) to a group of nursing students. She should include: a. Low urine output b. High blood glucose c. Muscle cramps d. High volume urine output | High volume urine output. |
| A patient is experiencing a thyroid storm. Which assessment findings will the nurse observe? a. Hypothermia and bradycardia b. Weight gain and lethargy c. Dry skin and constipation d. Fever and tachycardia leading to high-output heart failure | Fever and tachycardia leading to high-output heart failure |
| The nurse in the endocrine clinic is preparing a brochure for adults with hypothyroidism. the brochure should identify that the most common cause is: a. Autoimmune thyroiditis b. Iodine excess c. Thyroid cancer d. Pituitary adenoma | Autoimmune thyroiditis |
| A patient presents with a subcutaneous swelling of the anterior leg due to Graves disease. Which of the following would the nurse document on the patient's chart? a. Pretibial myxedema b. Pitting edema c. Cellulitis d. Deep vein thrombosis | Pretibial myxedema |
| The nurse is caring for a patient with elevated levels of growth hormone (GH) and IGF-1 resulting from a pituitary adenoma. What disease will the nurse observe in his chart? Acromegaly Addison’s disease Cushing’s syndrome Diabetes insipidus | Acromegaly |
| The patient presents with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following will the nurse include as part of the treatment? Increased sodium intake Fluid restriction High-dose diuretics Intravenous hypotonic fluids | Fluid restriction |
| The nurse educator is discussing the regulation of hormone release. Which of the following factors would the nurse identify for regulation of insulin secretion? a. Neural factors b. chemical factors c. Endocrine factors d. All of the above | Endocrine factors Chemical factors Neural control ALL OF THE ABOVE |
| A patient has a spinal cord tumor that is causing an irritative syndrome. What does this imply? | a. The patient is experiencing compression symptoms plus radicular pain. <--- b. The patient has only sensory loss without pain c. The tumor is benign and symptom-free d. The patient shows signs of autonomic dysfunction only |
| A nurse is caring for a patient in the genetics clinic with a neurologic disease which presented at the age of 48 with progressive dementia and increasingly uncontrollable limb movements. This patient most likely has which of the following diseases? | a. Parkinson’s disease b. Multiple sclerosis c. Huntington disease <--- d. Alzheimer’s disease |
| A nurse reviews a pathology report that includes the term carcinoma in situ (CIS). Which of the following can the nurse assume about the patient's condition? | a. The tumor has invaded nearby tissues b. The patient has a noninvasive epithelial tumor <-- c. The cancer has metastasized d. The tumor is benign |
| A nurse educator is presenting on type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) at a community event. Which of the following best describes major risk factors related to this disease? | a. Family history, obesity, and sedentary lifestyle <--- b. Autoimmune destruction of beta cells c. Viral infections in childhood d. Excessive insulin production |
| Nurse is educating about forms of accidental hyperthermia at a community event for outdoor enthusiasts. The nurse discusses high core temperature, absence of sweating, rapid pulse rate, confusion, agitation, and coma as symptoms of which the following? | a. Heat exhaustion b. Heat stroke <--- c. Sunburn d. Hypothermia |
| A 30-year o female presents with severe, unilateral, throbbing head pain. She also has associated nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. Reports that the onset of menstruation often triggers a similar headache. The nurse expect to find in the patient's chart? | a. Migraine headache <-- b. Tension headache c. Cluster headache d. Sinus headache |
| Which statement indicates that the nurse understands the different types of headaches? One classification of headaches is called: | a. Tension b. Cluster <--- c. Infectious d. Traumatic |
| A 75-year-old patient experienced a lucunar stroke. When looking through the histroy of the patient's chart, which of the following would the nurse expect to find? An embolus An ischemic lesion A hemorrage An aneurysm | An ischemic lesion |
| A patient experienced a stroke and now has difficulty writing and producing language. This condition is most likely caused by occlusion of the: Anterior communicating artery Posterior communicating artery Circle of Willis Middle cerebral artery | Middle cerebral artery |
| A 16 year old's level of arousal was altered after taking a recreational drug. Physical exam revealed a negative Babinski sign, ewual and reactive pupils, and roving eye movements. Which of the following diagnoses will the nurse most likely see on ? | Structural arousal alteration. Psychongenic arousal alteration. Metabolically induced coma. <-- structurally induced coma . |
| A patient asks the nurse where nociceptors can be found. How should the nurse repsond? One location in which nociceptors can be found is the: skin spinal cord efferent pathways hypothalamus | skin |
| when an aide asks why carcinomas rarely occur in childhood, how should the nurse respond? (Select all that apply). | Carcinomas need a long time from exposure to occurrence. carcinomas are due to environmental exposures. |
| The most common type of tissue cancer occuring between ages 15 and 19 is: Sarcoma squamous cell carcinoma neuroma | Sarcoma |
| Which characterizes an embryonic cancer tumor? commonly occuring often seen in adults composed of mature, differentiated cells usually manifested around age 5 | usually manifested around age 5 |
| A patient asks why indoor pollution is worse that outdoor pollution. How should the nurse respond? Indoor pollution is considered worse than outdoor pollution because of cigarette smoke and: fireplace wood smoke radon benzene chlorine | radon |
| A pateint deveopls skin cancer on the head and neck following years of sunbathing. Which of the following cancers is most likely? lymphoma adenoma basal cell carcinoma leukemia | basal cell carcinoma |
| A 25-year-old male deveopls a tumor of the breast glandular tissue. What type of tumor will be documented on the chart? Carcinoma Adenocarcinoma Sarcoma Lymphoma | Adenocarcinoma |
| A patient presents with poison ivy on the extremities, face, and buttocks after an initial exposure 48 hours ago. This condition is an example of: Anaphylaxis Serum sickness delayed hypersensitivity viral disease | delayed hypersensitivity |
| When a patient presents at the emergency department for an allergic reaction, the nurse recognizes the most severe consequence of type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is: urticaria hives anaphylaxis antibidy-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC) | anaphylaxis |
| Which of the following conditions would cause the nurse to monitor for hyperkalemia? Excess aldosterone acute acidosis insulin usage metabolic alkalosis | acute acidosis |
| A 25-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreating tumor of the adrenal cortex. Which finding would the N expect to see in the lab results? Decreased blood volume decreased blood K+ values increased urine Na+ levels increased white blood cells | decreased blood K+ values |
| A 24 female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. Physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances. These cellular changes would be referred to as: dysplasia pathologic dysplasia hyperplasia pathologic hyperplasia | pathologic hyperplasia |
| A 55 male with a 30-year history of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adaptation is called: | anaplasia hyperplasia metaplasia <--- dysplasia |
| A patient, age 9, is admitted to a pediatric unit with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. When planning care, the nurse recalls the patient inherited this condition through a trait that is: X-linked dominant X-influneced X-Limited X-linked recessive | X-linked recessive |
| What type of mutation does not change the amino acid sequence and thus has no observable consequence? Frameshift Spontaneous Silent Missense | Silent |
| When the nurse is teaching the staff about X-linked recessive disorders, which information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply). | The trait never trasnmitted from father to son The gene can be transmitted through a series of carrier females The gene is passed from an affected father to all his daughters |
Created by:
ckalaska