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AP Psych Full Review
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| psychology | the scientific study of behavior and mental processes |
| critical thinking | Question, analyze, interpret, evaluate, and make judgment on information you receive |
| hindsight bias | the tendency to believe, after learning an outcome, that one would have foreseen it |
| confirmation bias | a tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions and to ignore or distort contradictory evidence |
| overconfidence | Tendency to overestimate our ability to make correct predictions |
| peer reviews | The evaluation of scientific, academic, or professional work by others in the same field to ensure its quality and validity before publication or presentation. |
| Hypothesis | A testable prediction, often implied by a theory |
| falsifiable | hypothesis tested to see if it can be proven wrong based on scientific observation and investigation |
| operational definition | a statement of the procedures used to define research variables (how are the variables measured) |
| replication | repeating the essence of a research study, usually with different participants in different situations, to see whether the basic finding extends to other participants and circumstances |
| case study | a descriptive technique in which one individual or group is studied in depth in the hope of revealing universal principles |
| meta-analysis | a procedure for statistically combining the results of many different research studies |
| naturalistic observation | observing and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations without trying to manipulate and control the situation |
| survey | a descriptive technique for obtaining the self-reported attitudes or behaviors of a particular group |
| social desirability bias | A tendency to give socially approved answers to questions about oneself. |
| self-report bias | Inaccuracies or distortions in responses to surveys or questionnaires due to factors such as social desirability, memory recall, or misunderstanding of questions. |
| experimenter bias | a phenomenon that occurs when a researcher's expectations or preferences about the outcome of a study influence the results obtained |
| population | the group from which your participants were drawn from |
| sample | a subset of the population |
| sampling bias | exists when a sample is not representative of the population from which it was drawn |
| random sample | a sample that fairly represents a population because each member has an equal chance of inclusion |
| convenience sampling | using a sample of people who are readily available to participate |
| representative sample | a sample that accurately reflects the characteristics of the population as a whole |
| experimental methodology | Aim to determine cause and effect relationships by manipulating, and controlling for, certain factors/variables |
| non-experimental methodology | Is research that lacks the manipulation of an independent variable, random assignment of participants to conditions or orders of conditions, or both |
| correlation | Expresses the relationship between two variables. NO cause and effect! |
| correlational coefficient | a number between -1 and +1 expressing the degree of relationship between two variables |
| directionality problem | a problem encountered in correlational studies; the researchers find a relationship between two variables, but they cannot determine which variable may have caused changes in the other variable |
| scatterplot | a graphed cluster of dots, each of which represents the values of two variables |
| third variable problem | the concept that a correlation between two variables may stem from both being influenced by some third variable |
| regression toward the mean | tendency for extremely high or low scores (outliers) to move closer to the mean with retesting over time |
| experiment | A research method in which an investigator manipulates one or more factors to observe the effect on some behavior or mental process; to show cause the effect |
| experimental group | In an experiment, the group that is exposed to the treatment, that is, to one version of the independent variable. |
| control group | In an experiment, the group that is not exposed to the treatment; contrasts with the experimental group and serves as a comparison for evaluating the effect of the treatment. |
| independent variable | The experimental factor that is manipulated; the variable whose effect is being studied. |
| dependent variable | The outcome factor; the variable that may change in response to manipulations of the independent variable. |
| random assignment | assigning participants to experimental and control conditions by chance, thus minimizing preexisting differences between those assigned to the different groups |
| single-blind procedure | research design in which participants don't know whether they are in the experimental or control group |
| double-blind procedure | an experimental procedure in which both the research participants and the research staff are ignorant (blind) about whether the research participants have received the treatment or a placebo. Commonly used in drug-evaluation studies. |
| placebo | A harmless pill, medicine, or procedure prescribed more for the psychological benefit to the patient than for any physiological effect. |
| placebo effect | a measurable or observable improvement in health or behavior that occurs after a "dummy" treatment or inert substance, driven by the patient's belief in the treatment's effectiveness rather than its active ingredients |
| confounding variable | a factor other than the independent variable that might produce an effect in an experiment |
| validity | the extent to which a test measures or predicts what it is supposed to |
| reliability | the extent to which a test yields consistent results, as assessed by the consistency of scores on two halves of the test, on alternate forms of the test, or on retesting |
| quantitative research | research that collects and reports data primarily in numerical form |
| qualitative research | research that relies on what is seen in field or naturalistic settings more than on statistical data |
| likert scale | quantitatively assess opinions, attitudes, or behaviors Usually on a 1 - 5 scale |
| institutional review board | A committee at each institution where research is conducted to review every experiment for ethics and methodology. |
| informed consent | an ethical principle that research participants be told enough to enable them to choose whether they wish to participate |
| protect from harm | Participants should be free from physical and psychological harm in research |
| confidentiality | the act of holding information in confidence, not to be released to unauthorized individuals |
| research confederates | individuals who seem to be participants but in reality are part of the research team |
| debriefing | the post-experimental explanation of a study, including its purpose and any deceptions, to its participants |
| measure of central tendency | a descriptive statistic that tells which result or score best represents an entire set of scores (mean, median, or mode) |
| mode | the most frequently occurring score(s) in a distribution |
| median | the middle score in a distribution; half the scores are above it and half are below it |
| mean | average |
| percentile rank | the percentage of scores below a specific score in a distribution of scores |
| skewed distribution | an asymmetrical but generally bell-shaped distribution (of opinions); its mode, or most frequent response, lies off to one side |
| bimodal distribution | a type of probability distribution that exhibits two distinct peaks or modes, indicating the presence of two separate groups or processes within the same dataset |
| measures of variation | A measure used to describe the distribution of data; most common are standard deviation, variance, and range |
| range | the difference between the highest and lowest scores in a distribution |
| standard deviation | a computed measure of how much scores vary around the mean score or how consistent scores are over time |
| normal distribution | describes a symmetrical, bell shaped curve that shows the distribution of many physical and psychological attributes; 50% score above the mean; 50% score below the mean |
| statistical significance | a statistical statement of how likely it is that an obtained result occurred by chance (measured as a "p value" |
| effect size | a measure of the strength of the relationship between two variables or the extent of an experimental effect (Cohen's d value) |
| nature | the influence of our inherited characteristics on our personality, physical growth, intellectual growth, and social interactions |
| nurture | environmental influences |
| evolutionary perspective | the theory that seeks to identify behavior that is a result of our genetic inheritance from our ancestors |
| natural selection | A process in which individuals that have certain inherited traits tend to survive and reproduce at higher rates than other individuals because of those traits. |
| environment | The sum of your surroundings |
| heredity | the passing on of physical or mental characteristics genetically from one generation to another. |
| eugenics | the science of improving a human population by controlled mating to increase the occurrence of desirable heritable characteristics |
| nervous system | the body's speedy, electrochemical communication network, consisting of all the nerve cells of the peripheral and central nervous systems |
| central nervous system | brain and spinal cord |
| autonomic nervous system | A subdivision of the peripheral nervous system. Controls involuntary activity of visceral muscles and internal organs and glands. |
| sympathetic nervous system | the division of the autonomic nervous system that arouses the body, mobilizing its energy in stressful situations |
| parasympathetic nervous system | the division of the autonomic nervous system that calms the body, conserving its energy |
| peripheral nervous system | A division of the nervous system consisting of all nerves that are not part of the brain or spinal cord. |
| somatic nervous system | the division of the peripheral nervous system that controls the body's skeletal muscles |
| neurons | a nerve cell; the basic building block of the nervous system |
| glial cells | cells in the nervous system that support, nourish, and protect neurons |
| reflex arc | A relatively direct connection between a sensory neuron and a motor neuron that allows an extremely rapid response to a stimulus, often without conscious brain involvement. |
| sensory neurons | neurons that carry incoming information from the sensory receptors to the brain and spinal cord |
| motor neurons | neurons that carry outgoing information from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles and glands |
| interneurons | neurons within the brain and spinal cord that communicate internally and intervene between the sensory inputs and motor outputs |
| synapse | the junction between the axon tip of the sending neuron and the dendrite or cell body of the receiving neuron |
| myelin sheath | A layer of fatty tissue segmentally encasing the fibers of many neurons; enables vastly greater transmission speed of neural impulses as the impulse hops from one node to the next. |
| action potential | a neural impulse; a brief electrical charge that travels down an axon |
| all or nothing principle | a nerve or muscle cell either responds to a stimulus completely or not at all, regardless of the stimulus's strength, once a threshold is reached |
| depolarization | The process during the action potential when sodium is rushing into the cell causing the interior to become more positive. |
| reuptake | a neurotransmitter's reabsorption by the sending neuron |
| multiple sclerosis | A chronic disease of the central nervous system marked by damage to the myelin sheath. Plaques occur in the brain and spinal cord causing tremor, weakness, incoordination, paresthesia, and disturbances in vision and speech |
| excitatory neurotransmitters | chemicals released from the terminal buttons of a neuron that excite the next neuron into firing |
| dopamine | A neurotransmitter associated with movement, attention and learning and the brain's pleasure and reward system. |
| Norepinephrine (NE) | neurotransmitter that increases alertness, arousal, and attention |
| GABA | inhibitory neurotransmitter involved in regulating brain function and maintaining a calm, relaxed state |
| substance p | A neurotransmitter that is involved in the transmission of pain messages to the brain. |
| hormones | chemical messengers that are manufactured by the endocrine glands, travel through the bloodstream, and affect other tissues |
| leptin | A hormone produced by adipose (fat) cells that acts as a satiety factor in regulating appetite. Sends signals to hypothalamus to reduce appetite. |
| ghrelin | hormone secreted by empty stomach; sends "I'm hungry" signals to the brain |
| melatonin | A hormone manufactured by the pineal gland that produces sleepiness. |
| refractory period | the time following an action potential during which a new action potential cannot be initiated |
| resting potential | the state of the neuron when not firing a neural impulse |
| threshold | the level of stimulation required to trigger a neural impulse |
| myasthenia gravis | autoimmune neuromuscular disorder characterized by weakness of voluntary muscles |
| inhibitory neurotransmitters | chemicals released from the terminal buttons of a neuron that inhibit the next neuron from firing |
| serotonin | A neurotransmitter that affects hunger,sleep, arousal, and mood. |
| glutamate | A major excitatory neurotransmitter; involved in memory |
| endorphins | natural, opiate-like neurotransmitters linked to pain control and to pleasure |
| acetylcholine | A neurotransmitter that enables learning and memory and also triggers muscle contraction |
| adrenaline | A hormone released into the bloodstream in response to physical or mental stress |
| oxytocin | a hormone and neuropeptide that plays a vital role in reproduction, social bonding, and emotional regulation |
| psychoactive drugs | chemicals that affect the central nervous system and alter activity in the brain |
| antagonist | Stops/blocks neural firing |
| agonist | A chemical that mimics the action of a neurotransmitter. |
| stimulants | Drugs (such as caffeine, nicotine, and the more powerful amphetamines, cocaine, and Ecstasy) that excite neural activity and speed up body functions. |
| Caffeine | a stimulant drug found in coffee, tea, cola drinks, chocolate, and many over-the-counter medications |
| cocaine | a powerful and addictive stimulant, derived from the coca plant, producing temporarily increased alertness and euphoria |
| opioids | synthetic drugs that are prescribed for pain relief |
| heroin | narcotic drug derived from opium that is extremely addictive |
| addiction | A physiological or psychological dependence on a drug |
| reuptake inhibitors | Drugs that interfere with the recovery of neurotransmitters into the sending terminal branch so that a greater amount remains in the synapse; anti-depressants |
| depressants | drugs (such as alcohol, barbiturates, and opiates) that reduce neural activity and slow body functions |
| alcohol | Depressant |
| hallucinogens | Drugs that alter moods, thoughts, and sense perceptions including vision, hearing, smell, and touch |
| marijuana | a drug, often smoked, whose effects include euphoria, impairment of judgment, concentration, and hallucinations |
| tolerance | the diminishing effect with regular use of the same dose of a drug, requiring the user to take larger and larger doses before experiencing the drug's effect |
| withdrawal | the discomfort and distress that follow discontinuing the use of an addictive drug |
| brain plasticity | the brain's ability to change, especially during childhood, by reorganizing after damage or by building new pathways based on experience |
| EEG (electroencephalogram) | An amplified recording of the waves of electrical activity that sweep across the brain's surface. Helps diagnose brain disorders. |
| fMRI (functional MRI) | A technique for revealing blood flow and, therefore, brain activity by comparing successive MRI scans. fMRI scans show brain function. |
| lesions | areas of tissue that have been pathologically altered by injury, wound, or infection |
| brain stem | Connection to spinal cord. Filters information flow between peripheral nervous system and the rest of the brain. |
| medulla oblongata | Part of the brainstem that controls vital life-sustaining functions such as heartbeat, breathing, blood pressure, and digestion. |
| reticular activating system (reticular formation) | Responsible for alterations in arousal and sleep-wake transitions |
| Extreme damage can cause coma | |
| cerebellum | the "little brain" at the rear of the brainstem; functions include processing sensory input and coordinating movement output and balance |
| cerebral cortex | The intricate fabric of interconnected neural cells covering the cerebral hemispheres; the body's ultimate control and information-processing center. |
| limbic system | neural system (including the hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus) located below the cerebral hemispheres; associated with emotions and drives. |
| thalamus | the brain's sensory switchboard, located on top of the brainstem; it directs messages to the sensory receiving areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla |
| hypothalamus | A neural structure lying below the thalamus; it directs several maintenance activities (eating, drinking, body temperature), helps govern the endocrine system via the pituitary gland, and is linked to emotion and reward. |
| pituitary gland | The endocrine system's most influential gland (Master gland). Under the influence of the hypothalamus, the pituitary regulates growth and controls other endocrine glands. |
| hippocampus | a neural center located in the limbic system; helps process explicit memories for storage |
| amygdala | A limbic system structure involved in memory and emotion, particularly fear and aggression. |
| corpus callosum | the large band of neural fibers connecting the two brain hemispheres and carrying messages between them |
| Broca's area | Controls language expression - an area of the frontal lobe, usually in the left hemisphere, that directs the muscle movements involved in speech. |
| Wernicke's area | controls language reception - a brain area involved in language comprehension and expression; usually in the left temporal lobe |
| cortex specialization | also known as localization of function, is the idea that different parts of the brain have different functions and are connected to different parts of the body. |
| Contralateral Hemispheric Organization | left side of brain controls right side of body while right brain controls left body except smell |
| split brain procedure | the severing of the corpus callosum to reduce the spread of seizures across brain hemispheres |
| aphasia | impairment of language, usually caused by left hemisphere damage either to Broca's area (impairing speaking) or to Wernicke's area (impairing understanding). |
| occipital lobe | A region of the cerebral cortex that processes visual information |
| temporal lobe | A region of the cerebral cortex responsible for hearing and language. |
| parietal lobe | A region of the cerebral cortex whose functions include processing information about touch. |
| frontal lobe | A region of the cerebral cortex that has specialized areas for movement, abstract thinking, planning, memory, and judgement |
| somatosensory cortex | area at the front of the parietal lobes that registers and processes body touch and movement sensations |
| prefrontal cortex | part of frontal lobe responsible for thinking, planning, and language |
| motor cortex | an area at the rear of the frontal lobes that controls voluntary movements |
| consciousness | our awareness of ourselves and our environment |
| circadian rhythm | the biological clock; regular bodily rhythms (for example, of temperature and wakefulness) that occur on a 24-hour cycle |
| Jet lag | a disruption of circadian rhythms due to crossing time zones |
| EEG patterns | beta, alpha, theta, delta; how stages of sleep are identified |
| NREM | non-rapid eye movement sleep; encompasses all sleep stages except for REM sleep |
| hypnagogic sensations | life-like hallucinations that occur shortly after falling asleep; usually sensation of falling or floating |
| REM | describes sleep in which vivid dreams typically occur; this type of sleep increases as the night progresses while stage 4 sleep decreases |
| REM rebound | the tendency for REM sleep to increase following REM sleep deprivation (created by repeated awakenings during REM sleep) |
| activation synthesis theory | a theory of dreaming; this theory proposes that the brain tries to make sense of random brain activity that occurs during sleep by synthesizing the activity with stored memories |
| consolidation theory | Circuits wired together during the waking period are strengthened during sleep |
| restoration theory | a theory on the purpose and function of sleep proposing that sleep provides 'time out' to help us recover from depleting activities during waking time that use up the body's physical and mental resources |
| insomnia | recurring problems in falling or staying asleep |
| narcolepsy | A sleep disorder characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks. The sufferer may lapse directly into REM sleep, often at inopportune times. |
| REM sleep behavior disorder | a neurological disorder in which the person does not become paralyzed during REM sleep and thus acts out dreams |
| sleep apnea | a sleep disorder characterized by temporary cessations of breathing during sleep and repeated momentary awakenings |
| somnambulism | sleepwalking |
| sensation | the process by which our sensory receptors and nervous system receive and represent stimulus energies from our environment |
| absolute threshold | the minimum stimulation needed to detect a particular stimulus 50 percent of the time |
| just noticeable difference (difference threshold) | the smallest difference between two stimuli that is detectable 50 percent of the time |
| Weber's law | the principle that, to be perceived as different, two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage (rather than a constant amount) |
| sensory adaptation | tendency of sensory receptor cells to become less responsive to a stimulus that is unchanging |
| sensory interaction | the principle that one sense may influence another, as when the smell of food influences its taste |
| Synesthesia | a crossing of senses; smell a number or taste a sound |
| wavelengths | The distance between the arrival of peaks of a light wave; shorter wavelengths correspond to higher frequencies |
| retina | the light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the receptor rods and cones plus layers of neurons that begin the processing of visual information |
| blind spot | the point at which the optic nerve leaves the eye, creating a "blind" spot because no receptor cells are located there |
| visual (optic) nerve | carries neural impulses from the eye to the brain |
| lens | the transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to help focus images on the retina |
| accommodation | the process by which the eye's lens changes shape to focus near or far objects on the retina |
| nearsightedness | a condition in which nearby objects are seen more clearly than distant objects because distant objects focus in front of the retina |
| farsightedness | a condition in which faraway objects are seen more clearly than near objects because the image of near objects is focused behind the retina |
| fovea | the central focal point in the retina, around which the eye's cones cluster |
| photoreceptors | respond to light (rods and cones) |
| transduction | conversion of one form of energy into another. In sensation, the transforming of stimulus energies, such as sights, sounds, and smells, into neural impulses our brains can interpret. |
| rods | retinal receptors that detect black, white, and gray; necessary for peripheral and twilight vision, when cones don't respond |
| cones | retinal receptor cells that are concentrated near the center of the retina and that function in daylight or in well-lit conditions. The cones detect fine detail and give rise to color sensations. |
| Trichromatic Theory (Young-Helmholtz) | the theory that the retina contains three different color receptors—one most sensitive to red, one to green, one to blue—which, when stimulated in combination, can produce the perception of any color. |
| opponent-process theory | the theory that opposing retinal processes (red-green, yellow-blue, white-black) enable color vision. For example, some cells are stimulated by green and inhibited by red; others are stimulated by red and inhibited by green |
| afterimages | images that occur when a visual sensation persists for a brief time even after the original stimulus is removed |
| ganglion cells | In the retina, the specialized neurons that connect to the bipolar cells; the bundled axons of the ganglion cells form the optic nerve. |
| dichromatism | A type of color blindness where one of the three basic color mechanisms is absent or not functioning. |
| monochromatism | the inability to distinguish colors; also known as color blindness |
| prosopagnosia | inability to recognize faces |
| blindsight | a psychological defense mechanism, caused by a self-protective need to deny visual information that might cause fear, anxiety, or shame |
| Wavelength | Horizontal distance between the crests or between the troughs of two adjacent waves (short = high frequency; long = low frequency) |
| pitch | a tone's experienced highness or lowness; depends on frequency |
| amplitude | Height of a wave (great amplitude = loud sounds; small amplitude = soft sounds) |
| place theory | in hearing, the theory that links the pitch we hear with the place where the cochlea's membrane is stimulated |
| volley theory | a theory that proposes that our brain decodes pitch by noticing the frequency at which groups of hair cells on the basilar membrane are firing |
| frequency theory | in hearing, the theory that the rate of nerve impulses traveling up the auditory nerve matches the frequency of a tone, thus enabling us to sense its pitch |
| conduction deafness | An inability to hear resulting from damage to structures of the middle or inner ear (something wrong with the sound and vibration on the way to the cochlea); hearing aids |
| sensorineural deafness (nerve deafness) | results from physical damage to the hair cells, the vestibulocochlear nerve, or the auditory cortex; caused by aging, extremely loud noise, some antibiotics, or other medical conditions |
| sound localization | we can locate sounds based on which ear they strike first |
| olfactory system (olfaction) | The sensory system responsible for the sense of smell. |
| pheromones | Chemical signals released by an animal that communicate information and affect the behavior of other animals of the same species. |
| gustation | sense of taste |
| taste receptors | chemical receptors on the tongue that decode molecules of food or drink to identify them |
| umami | taste for monosodium glutamate; savory |
| oleogustus | A proposed sixth taste sensation for the taste of fat. |
| supertasters | people with heightened sensitivity to all tastes and mouth sensations |
| medium tasters | Have an average sensitivity to taste, experiencing flavors moderately. |
| nontasters | Not so sensitive to taste, seek out relatively sweeter or fattier foods to maximize taste. |
| gate control theory | theory that the spinal cord contains a "gate" that only allows a certain amount of touch signals to go through at once, so you can block pain by adding another touch signal |
| phantom limb sensation | patients who have had a limb amputated may still experience sensations such as itching, pressure, tingling, or pain as if the limb were still there |
| vestibular sense | the sense of body movement and position, including the sense of balance |
| semicircular canals | three fluid-filled canals in the inner ear responsible for our sense of balance |
| kinesthesis | the system for sensing the position and movement of individual body parts |
| perception | the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information, enabling us to recognize meaningful objects and events; based on our experience |
| bottom-up processing | analysis that emphasizes the characteristics of the stimuli rather than our concepts or expectations (i.e. lines, angles, colors; the details) |
| top-down processing | information processing guided by higher-level mental processes, as when we construct perceptions drawing on our experience and expectations |
| schemas | Concepts or mental frameworks that organize and interpret information. |
| perceptional set | a predisposition or readiness to perceive specific stimuli in a particular way, influenced by expectations, emotions, cultural background, and past experiences |
| attention | focusing awareness on a narrowed range of stimuli or events |
| selective attention | the ability to focus on only one stimulus from among all sensory input |
| cocktail party effect | Ability to concentrate on one voice amongst a crowd |
| inattentional blindness | failing to see visible objects when our attention is directed elsewhere |
| change blindness | failing to notice changes in the environment; a form of inattentional blindness |
| Gestalt psychology | the whole is greater than the sum of its parts |
| closure | the tendency to complete figures that are incomplete |
| figure-ground | the organization of the visual field into objects (the figures) that stand out from their surroundings (the ground). |
| proximity | grouping objects that are close together |
| similarity | the tendency to perceive things that look similar to each other as being part of the same group |
| binocular cues | depth cues, such as retinal disparity and convergence, that depend on the use of two eyes |
| monocular cues | distance cues, such as linear perspective and overlap, available to either eye alone |
| convergence | A binocular cue for perceiving depth; the extent to which the eyes move inward when looking at an object, to keep it in focus |
| retinal disparity | a binocular cue for perceiving depth by comparing images from the retinas in the two eyes, the brain computes distance—the greater the difference between the two images, the closer the object. |
| relative clarity | a monocular cue for perceiving depth; hazy objects are farther away than sharp, clear objects |
| relative size | a monocular cue for perceiving depth; the smaller retinal image is farther away |
| texture gradient | a gradual change from a coarse, distinct texture to a fine, indistinct texture signals increasing distance. Objects far away appear smaller and more densely packed. |
| linear perspective | parallel lines appear to converge with distance |
| perceptual constancies | tendency to perceive objects as stable and unchanging despite changing sensory info (size, shape, brightness, color) |
| apparent motion | the perception of movement when a series of stationary images or stimuli are presented in rapid succession, creating the illusion of continuous motion |
| cognition | all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating |
| metacognition | awareness and understanding of one's own thought processes. |
| concept | a mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people |
| prototype | a mental image or best example of a category |
| assimilation | interpreting our new experiences in terms of our existing schemas |
| accommodation | adapting our current understandings (schemas) to incorporate new information |
| executive functioning | the cognitive abilities and processes that allow humans to plan or inhibit their actions |
| algorithm | a step-by-step procedure for solving a problem |
| heuristic | a simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently; usually speedier but also more error-prone than algorithms |
| representative heuristic | judging the likelihood of things in terms of how well they seem to match a particular prototype |
| availability heuristic | estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; first thing that comes to mind |
| mental set | a tendency to approach a problem in one particular way, often a way that has been successful in the past |
| priming | the activation, often unconsciously, of certain associations, thus predisposing one's perception, memory, or response |
| framing | cognitive bias where individuals make decisions based on how information is presented, rather than on the objective facts themselves, leading to different choices even when the options are essentially the same |
| Gambler's Fallacy | a cognitive bias that adheres to the ideas that if something hasn't happened recently it soon will |
| Sunk-cost fallacy | cognitive bias where individuals continue investing time, money, or effort into a project or decision because they have already invested so much, even if the returns are poor or the endeavor no longer aligns with their goals. |
| functional fixedness | the tendency to think of things only in terms of their usual functions; an impediment to problem solving |
| creativity | the ability to produce novel and valuable ideas |
| divergent thinking | expands the number of possible problem solutions |
| convergent thinking | narrows the available problem solutions to determine the single best solution |
| explicit/declarative memory | memory of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and "declare" |
| episodic memory | memory for one's personal past events |
| semantic memory | general knowledge, facts, and language meaning |
| Implicit/procedural memory | memory that involves conditioned associations and knowledge of how to do things |
| prospective memory | remembering to do things in the future |
| long-term potentiation (LTP) | The more a memory is utilized, the more strength that neuron has. |
| Working memory | a newer understanding of short-term memory that focuses on conscious, active processing of incoming auditory and visual-spatial information, and of information retrieved from long-term memory |
| visuospatial sketchpad | A component of working memory where we create mental images to remember visual information |
| long-term memory | the relatively permanent and limitless storehouse of the memory system. Includes knowledge, skills, and experiences. |
| Multi-store model | An explanation of memory based on three separate memory stores, and how information is transferred between these stores (sensory memory, short-term memory, long-term memory). |
| sensory memory | A type of storage that holds sensory information for a few seconds or less. |
| central executive | a memory component that coordinates the activities of the phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad. |
| phonological loop (working memory) | verbal and acoustical information |
| iconic memory | a momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli |
| echoic memory | a momentary sensory memory of auditory stimuli |
| shallow processing | encoding on a basic level based on the structure or appearance of words |
| deep processing | encoding semantically, based on the meaning of the words; tends to yield the best retention |
| automatic processing | unconscious encoding of incidental information, such as space, time, and frequency, and of well-learned information, such as word meanings |
| effortful processing | encoding that requires attention and conscious effort |
| encoding | the processing of information into the memory system—for example, by extracting meaning. |
| Storing | maintain in memory |
| retrieval | the process of getting information out of memory storage |
| structural processing | Words are learned by remembering their physical features, such as whether they were in upper or lower case, started with a vowel or consonant, or were long or short. |
| phonemic processing | when we encode its sound |
| semantic processing | Words are encoded by their meaning. |
| mnemonic devices | memory aids, especially those techniques that use vivid imagery and organizational devices |
| method of loci | A mnemonic technique that involves associating items on a list with a sequence of familiar physical locations |
| chunking | organizing items into familiar, manageable units |
| categories | objects, events, ideas organized based on shared characteristics |
| hierarchies | memories organized into structured system where information is categorized from general to specific levels |
| spacing effect/distributed practice | our tendency to retain information more easily if we practice it over time in multiple sessions |
| serial position effect | our tendency to recall best the last (a recency effect) and first items (a primacy effect) in a list |
| primacy effect | tendency to remember words at the beginning of a list especially well |
| recency effect | tendency to remember words at the end of a list especially well |
| maintenance rehearsal | A system for remembering involving repeating information to oneself without attempting to find meaning in it |
| elaborative rehearsal | a method of transferring information from STM into LTM by making that information meaningful in some way |
| autobiographical memory | a special form of episodic memory, consisting of a person's recollections of his or her life experiences |
| retrograde amnesia | an inability to retrieve information from one's past |
| anterograde amnesia | an inability to form new memories |
| Alzheimer's disease | a progressive and irreversible brain disorder characterized by gradual deterioration of memory, reasoning, language, and, finally, physical functioning |
| infantile amnesia | the inability to remember events from early childhood |
| recall | A measure of memory in which the person must retrieve information learned earlier, as on a fill-in-the-blank test (truly know the material, from long-term memory) |
| recognition | a measure of memory in which the person need only identify items previously learned, as on a multiple-choice test (will recognize it when you see it, but don't really know it) |
| retrieval cues | stimuli that aid the recall or recognition of information stored in memory |
| context-dependent memory | The theory that information learned in a particular situation or place is better remembered when in that same situation or place. |
| mood-congruent memory | A memory process that selectively retrieves memories that match one's mood. |
| state-dependent memory | The theory that information learned in a particular state of mind (e.g., depressed, happy, somber) is more easily recalled when in that same state of mind. |
| testing effect | Completing practice tests will help improve memory and learning |
| forgetting curve | a graphic depiction of how recall steadily declines over time |
| encoding failure | failure to process information into memory |
| proactive interference | the disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information |
| retroactive interference | the disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of old information |
| tip of the tongue phenomenon | the temporary inability to remember something you know, accompanied by a feeling that it's just out of reach |
| repression | "pushing" threatening or conflicting events or situations out of conscious memory |
| misinformation effect | when misleading information has corrupted one's memory of an event |
| source amnesia | attributing to the wrong source an event we have experienced, heard about, read about, or imagined |
| constructive memory | memory that utilizes knowledge and expectations to fill in the missing details in retrieved memory traces |
| memory consolidation | the gradual, physical process of converting new long-term memories to stable, enduring memory codes |
| imagination inflation | repeatedly imaging an event that never happened makes you believe it actually happened. |
| intelligence | mental quality consisting of the ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations |
| general intelligence (g factor) | a general intelligence factor that, according to Spearman and others, underlies specific mental abilities and is therefore measured by every task on an intelligence test |
| multiple intelligences | idea that people vary in their ability levels across different domains of intellectual skill |
| intelligence quotient (IQ) | a child's mental age divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100 |
| mental age | the chronological age that most typically corresponds to a given level of performance |
| standardization | defining meaningful scores by comparison with the performance of a pretested group |
| construct validity | the extent to which variables measure what they are supposed to measure |
| predictive validity | The success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior. |
| test-retest reliability | |
| split-half reliability | A measure of reliability in which a test is split into two parts and an individual's scores on both halves are compared. |
| stereotype threat | a self-confirming concern that one will be evaluated based on a negative stereotype |
| stereotype lift | awareness of positive expectations can actually improve performance on tasks |
| Flynn effect | the worldwide phenomenon that shows intelligence test performance has been increasing over the years |
| achievement tests | tests designed to assess what a person has learned. |
| aptitude test | a test designed to predict a person's future performance |
| fixed mindset | the idea that we have a set amount of an ability that cannot change |
| growth mindset | belief that qualities can change/improve through effort |
| cross-sectional study | research that compares people of different ages at the same point in time |
| longitudinal study | research in which the same people are restudied and retested over a long period |
| teratogens | agents, such as chemicals and viruses, that can reach the embryo or fetus during prenatal development and cause harm |
| genetic mutations | an alteration in a gene that changes the instructions within the gene; some mutations result in biological dysfunction |
| rooting | a reflex in which a newborn turns its head in response to a gentle stimulus on its cheek |
| visual cliff | a laboratory device for testing depth perception in infants and young animals |
| critical period | an optimal period shortly after birth when an organism's exposure to certain stimuli or experiences produces proper development |
| sensitive period | a point in development when organisms are particularly susceptible to certain kinds of stimuli in their environments, but the absence of those stimuli does not always produce irreversible consequences |
| imprinting | the process by which certain animals form attachments during a critical period very early in life |
| adolescence | the transition period from childhood to adulthood, extending from puberty to independence |
| puberty | the period of sexual maturation, during which a person becomes capable of reproducing |
| primary sex characteristics | the body structures (ovaries, testes, and external genitalia) that make sexual reproduction possible |
| secondary sex characteristics | nonreproductive sexual characteristics, such as female breasts and hips, male voice quality, and body hair |
| menarche | the first menstrual period |
| spermarche | first ejaculation |
| menopause | the time of natural cessation of menstruation; also refers to the biological changes a woman experiences as her ability to reproduce declines |
| sex | the biological distinction between females and males |
| gender | in psychology, the biologically and socially influenced characteristics by which people define male and female |
| Jean Piaget | Known for his theory of cognitive development in children |
| schema | a concept or framework that organizes and interprets information |
| sensorimotor stage | in Piaget's theory, the stage (from birth to about 2 years of age) during which infants know the world mostly in terms of their sensory impressions and motor activities |
| object permanence | the knowledge that an object exists even when it is not in sight |
| preoperational stage | in Piaget's theory, the stage (from about 2 to 6 or 7 years of age) during which a child learns to use language but does not yet comprehend the mental operations of concrete logic |
| conservation | the principle (which Piaget believed to be a part of concrete operational reasoning) that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite changes in the forms of objects |
| reversibility | the capacity to think through a series of steps and then mentally reverse direction, returning to the starting point |
| egocentrism | in Piaget's theory, the preoperational child's difficulty taking another's point of view |
| theory of mind | ability to reason about what other people know or believe |
| concrete operational stage | in Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (from about 6 or 7 to 11 years of age) during which children gain the mental operations that enable them to think logically about concrete events |
| formal operational stage | in Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (normally beginning about age 12) during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts |
| Lev Vygotsky | child development; investigated how culture & interpersonal communication guide development; zone of proximal development; play research |
| zone of proximal development | In Vygotsky's theory, the range between children's present level of knowledge and their potential knowledge state if they receive proper guidance and instruction |
| scaffold | learn by breaking down new information/skills into smaller, more manageable pieces |
| crystallized intelligence | our accumulated knowledge and verbal skills; tends to increase with age |
| fluid intelligence | our ability to reason speedily and abstractly; tends to decrease during late adulthood |
| dementia | a slowly progressive decline in mental abilities, including memory, thinking, and judgment, that is often accompanied by personality changes |
| phonemes | in language, the smallest distinctive sound unit |
| morphemes | The smallest units of meaning in a language. |
| semantics | the set of rules by which we derive meaning from morphemes, words, and sentences in a given language; also, the study of meaning |
| grammar | in a language, a system of rules that enables us to communicate with and understand others |
| syntax | The arrangement of words and phrases to create well-formed sentences in a language. |
| cooing | early vowel-like noises made by infants, beginning around 2 months of age |
| babbling | stage of language development at about 4 months when an infant spontaneously utters nonsense sounds |
| one-word stage | the stage in speech development, from about age 1 to 2, during which a child speaks mostly in single words |
| telegraphic speech | early speech stage in which a child speaks like a telegram—"go car"—using mostly nouns and verbs. |
| overgeneralization | applying grammar rules in areas they don't apply ("I writed a story"; goed; comed) |
| Ecological systems theory | scientific theory explaining how a person's development is influenced by a system of environmental factors |
| microsystem | the people and objects in an individual's immediate environment |
| mesosystem | connections between microsystems |
| exosystem | social settings that a person may not experience firsthand but that still influence development |
| macrosystem | consists of cultural values, laws, customs, and resources |
| chronosystem | time of life right now or events on the immediate horizon |
| attachment | an emotional tie with another person; shown in young children by their seeking closeness to the caregiver and showing distress on separation |
| authoritative parenting | parenting style characterized by emotional warmth, high standards for behavior, explanation and consistent enforcement of rules, and inclusion of children in decision making |
| authoritarian parenting | style of parenting in which parent is rigid and overly strict, showing little warmth to the child |
| permissive parenting | A parenting style characterized by the placement of few limits on the child's behavior. |
| secure attachment | a relationship in which an infant obtains both comfort and confidence from the presence of his or her caregiver |
| insecure attachment | demonstrated by infants who display either a clinging, anxious attachment or an avoidant attachment that resists closeness |
| avoidant attachment | attachments marked by discomfort over, or resistance to, being close to others |
| anxious attachment | attachments marked by anxiety or ambivalence. an insecure attachment style |
| disorganized attachment | a type of attachment that is marked by an infant's inconsistent reactions to the caregiver's departure and return |
| separation anxiety | emotional distress seen in many infants when they are separated from people with whom they have formed an attachment |
| stranger anxiety | the fear of strangers that infants commonly display, beginning by about 8 months of age |
| temperament | the enduring characteristics with which each person is born |
| parallel play | activity in which children play side by side without interacting |
| pretend play | make-believe activities in which children create new symbolic relations, acting as if they were in a situation different from their actual one |
| imaginary audience | adolescents' belief that they are the focus of everyone else's attention and concern |
| personal fable | type of thought common to adolescents in which young people believe themselves to be unique and protected from harm |
| social clock | the culturally preferred timing of social events such as marriage, parenthood, and retirement |
| trust vs mistrust | Erikson's first stage during the first year of life, infants learn to trust when they are cared for in a consistent warm manner |
| autonomy vs shame and doubt | Erikson's stage in which a toddler learns to exercise will and to do things independently; failure to do so causes shame and doubt |
| initiative vs guilt | Erikson's third stage in which the child finds independence in planning, playing and other activities |
| Industry vs. Inferiority | Erikson's stage between 6 and 11 years, when the child learns to be productive |
| identity vs. role confusion | Erikson's stage during which teenagers and young adults search for and become their true selves |
| intimacy vs. isolation | Erikson's stage in which individuals form deeply personal relationships, marry, begin families |
| generativity vs stagnation | Erikson's stage of social development in which middle-aged people begin to devote themselves more to fulfilling one's potential and doing public service |
| integrity vs despair | Erikson's final stage in which those near the end of life look back and evaluate their lives |
| Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs) | Stressful or traumatic experiences, including abuse, neglect, and a range of household dysfunction, such as witnessing domestic violence or growing up with substance abuse, mental disorders, parental discord, or crime in the home. |
| identity | our sense of self; according to Erikson, the adolescent's task is to solidify a sense of self by testing and integrating various roles |
| achievement of identity | active exploration where adolescents make a commitment to highly developed sense of beliefs and values |
| diffusion of identity | basically "undecided" about who you are, what you want in life characterized by lack of exploration and commitment to any specific goals or values |
| foreclosure of identity | Commitment to identity without exploration, usually accepting other's values and beliefs |
| moratorium of identity | Active exploration of identity without commitment. |
| associative learning | learning that certain events occur together. The events may be two stimuli (as in classical conditioning) or a response and its consequences (as in operant conditioning). |
| behavioral perspective | An approach to the study of psychology that focuses on the role of learning in explaining observable behavior. |
| classical conditioning | type of learning in which an organism comes to associate stimuli. A neutral stimulus that signals an unconditioned stimulus (US) begins to produce a response that anticipates and prepares for the unconditioned stimulus. |
| acquisition | In classical conditioning, the initial stage, when one links a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus begins triggering the conditioned response. In operant conditioning, the strengthening of a reinforced response. |
| unconditioned stimulus | in classical conditioning, a stimulus that unconditionally—naturally and automatically—triggers a response. |
| unconditioned response | In classical conditioning, the unlearned, naturally occurring response to the unconditioned stimulus (US), such as salivation when food is in the mouth. |
| conditioned stimulus | in classical conditioning, an originally irrelevant stimulus that, after association with an unconditioned stimulus, comes to trigger a conditioned response |
| conditioned response | in classical conditioning, the learned response to a previously neutral (but now conditioned) stimulus (CS) |
| extinction | the diminishing of a conditioned response; occurs in classical conditioning when an unconditioned stimulus (US) does not follow a conditioned stimulus (CS); occurs in operant conditioning when a response is no longer reinforced. |
| spontaneous recovery | the reappearance, after a pause, of an extinguished conditioned response |
| stimulus generalization | the tendency to respond to a stimulus that is only similar to the original conditioned stimulus with the conditioned response |
| stimulus discrimination | a differentiation between two similar stimuli when only one of them is consistently associated with the unconditioned stimulus |
| higher-order conditioning | a procedure in which the conditioned stimulus in one conditioning experience is paired with a new neutral stimulus, creating a second (often weaker) conditioned stimulus. (aka second-order conditioning.) |
| counterconditioning | a behavior therapy procedure that uses classical conditioning to evoke new responses to stimuli that are triggering unwanted behaviors; includes exposure therapies and aversive conditioning |
| one-trial conditioning | when one pairing of CS and a US produces considerable learning |
| biological preparedness | In learning theory, the idea that an organism is innately predisposed to form associations between certain stimuli and responses. |
| habituation | an organism's decreasing response to a stimulus with repeated exposure to it |
| operant conditioning | a type of learning in which behavior is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer or diminished if followed by a punishment |
| Law of effect | Thorndike's principle that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, and that behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely |
| reinforcement | in operant conditioning, any event that strengthens the behavior it follows |
| punishment | an event that decreases the behavior that it follows |
| positive reinforcement | Increasing behaviors by presenting positive stimuli, such as food. A positive reinforcer is any stimulus that, when presented after a response, strengthens the response. |
| negative reinforcement | Increasing behaviors by stopping or reducing negative stimuli, such as shock. A negative reinforcer is any stimulus that, when removed after a response, strengthens the response. (Note: negative reinforcement is not punishment.) |
| positive punishment | adding an undesirable stimulus to stop or decrease a behavior |
| negative punishment | taking away a pleasant stimulus to decrease or stop a behavior |
| primary reinforcer | an innately reinforcing stimulus, such as one that satisfies a biological need |
| secondary reinforcer | any reinforcer that becomes reinforcing after being paired with a primary reinforcer, such as praise, tokens, or gold stars |
| reinforcement discrimination | In OC, a stimulus that increases the probability of a response because of a previous history of reinforcement in the presence of that stimulus. |
| reinforcement generalization | in operant conditioning, the appearance of a reinforced behavior in a new context, because of previous reinforcement in a similar context. |
| shaping | an operant conditioning procedure in which reinforcers guide behavior toward closer and closer approximations of the desired behavior |
| instinctive drift | tendency for animals to return to innate behaviors following repeated reinforcement |
| learned helplessness | the tendency to fail to act to escape from a situation because of a history of repeated failures in the past |
| continuous reinforcement | reinforcing the desired response every time it occurs |
| partial reinforcement | reinforcing a response only part of the time; results in slower acquisition of a response but much greater resistance to extinction than does continuous reinforcement |
| fixed-interval schedule | in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified time has elapsed |
| variable-interval schedule | in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response at unpredictable time intervals |
| fixed-ratio schedule | in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified number of responses |
| variable-ratio schedule | in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responses |
| social learning theory | the theory that we learn social behavior by observing and imitating and by being rewarded or punished |
| vicarious conditioning | learning the consequences of an action by watching others being rewarded or punished for performing the action |
| modeling | the process of observing and imitating a specific behavior |
| insight learning | the process of mentally working through a problem until the sudden realization of a solution occurs |
| latent learning | learning that occurs but is not apparent until there is an incentive to demonstrate it |
| cognitive map | a mental representation of the layout of one's environment |
| attribution theory | the theory that we explain someone's behavior by crediting either the situation or the person's disposition |
| dispositional attribution | assuming that another's behavior is due to personality factors, not situational ones |
| situational attribution | attributing behavior to the environment or event |
| explanatory styles | BANDURA--ways in which people explain themselves or react in different situations (either positive or negative) |
| actor-observer bias | the tendency to blame our actions on the situation and blame the actions of others on their personalities |
| fundamental attribution error | the tendency for observers, when analyzing another's behavior, to underestimate the impact of the situation and to overestimate the impact of personal disposition |
| self-serving bias | a readiness to perceive oneself favorably |
| internal locus of control | the perception that you control your own fate |
| external locus of control | the perception that chance or outside forces beyond your personal control determine your fate. |
| mere exposure effect | the phenomenon that repeated exposure to novel stimuli increases liking of them |
| self-fulfilling prophecy | an expectation that causes you to act in ways that make that expectation come true. |
| social comparison | evaluating one's abilities and opinions by comparing oneself with others |
| relative deprivation | the perception that one is worse off relative to those with whom one compares oneself |
| stereotype | A generalized belief about a group of people |
| cognitive load | The amount of a person's cognitive resources needed to carry out a particular cognitive task. |
| prejudice | A negative attitude toward an entire category of people, often an ethnic or racial minority. |
| Discrimination | unjustifiable negative behavior toward a group and its members |
| implicit attitudes | attitudes that influence a person's feelings and behavior at an unconscious level |
| Just-world phenomenon | the tendency for people to believe the world is just and that people therefore get what they deserve and deserve what they get |
| out-group homogeneity bias | one's perception of out-group members as more similar to one another than are in-group members |
| in-group bias | tendency to favor individuals within our group over those from outside our group |
| ethnocentrism | Belief in the superiority of one's nation or ethnic group. |
| belief perseverance | clinging to one's initial conceptions after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited |
| cognitive dissonance | unpleasant mental experience of tension resulting from two conflicting thoughts or beliefs |
| social norms | A group's expectations regarding what is appropriate and acceptable for its members' attitudes and behaviors. |
| social influence theory | social pressure to behave or think in certain ways can be normative or informational |
| normative social influence | influence resulting from a person's desire to gain approval or avoid disapproval |
| informational social influence | influence resulting from one's willingness to accept others' opinions about reality |
| peripheral route of persuasion | occurs when people are influenced by incidental cues, such as a speaker's attractiveness |
| central route of persuasion | using facts, ideas, evidence to influence to agree with you |
| halo effect | when an initial positive judgment of a person unconsciously colors the perception of the person as a whole (someone who is good looking must also be smart) |
| foot-in-the door phenomenon | the tendency for people who have first agreed to a small request to comply later with a larger request |
| door-in-the-face phenomenon | tendency for people who won't agree to a large task, but then agree when a smaller request is made |
| conformity | Adjusting one's behavior or thinking to coincide with a group standard. |
| persuasion | the process of creating, reinforcing, or changing people's beliefs or actions |
| obedience | A form of compliance that occurs when people follow direct commands, usually from someone in a position of authority |
| elaboration likelihood model | theory identifying two ways to persuade: a central route and a peripheral route |
| individualism | giving priority to one's own goals over group goals and defining one's identity in terms of personal attributes rather than group identifications |
| collectivism | giving priority to the goals of one's group (often one's extended family or work group) and defining one's identity accordingly |
| multiculturalism | coexistence of multiple cultures, celebrates diversity and promotes collaboration |
| group polarization | tendency of group members to move to an extreme position after discussing an issue as a group |
| groupthink | the mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for harmony in a decision-making group overrides a realistic appraisal of alternatives |
| diffusion of responsibility | the tendency for individuals to feel diminished responsibility for their actions when they are surrounded by others who are acting the same way |
| social loafing | the tendency for people in a group to exert less effort when pooling their efforts toward attaining a common goal than when individually accountable |
| Deindividuation | the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity |
| social facilitation | improved performance on simple or well-learned tasks in the presence of others |
| social trap | a situation in which the conflicting parties, by each rationally pursuing their self-interest, become caught in mutually destructive behavior |
| superordinate goals | shared goals that override differences among people and require their cooperation |
| false consensus bias | When we assume everyone else agrees with what we do, even if they do not |
| industrial-organizational (I/O) psychology | the application of psychology concepts and methods to optimizing human behavior in workplaces |
| prosocial behavior | positive, constructive, helpful behavior. The opposite of antisocial behavior |
| antisocial behavior | actions that are deliberately hurtful or destructive to another person |
| altruism | unselfish regard for the welfare of others |
| social responsibility norm | an expectation that people will help those needing their help |
| bystander effect | the tendency for any given bystander to be less likely to give aid if other bystanders are present |
| reciprocity norm | expectation that people will help those who have helped them |
| social exchange theory | the theory that human interactions are transactions that aim to maximize one's rewards and minimize one's costs |
| personality | an individual's characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting |
| psychodynamic theory | Any theory of behavior that emphasizes internal conflicts, motives, and unconscious forces |
| ego | the largely conscious, "executive" part of personality that, Freud said mediates the demands of the id, superego, and reality; operates on the reality principle, satisfying the id's desires in ways that will realistically bring pleasure rather than pain. |
| id | a reservoir of unconscious psychic energy that, according to Freud, strives to satisfy basic sexual and aggressive drives; operates on the pleasure principle, demanding immediate gratification (the little devil on your shoulder) |
| superego | the part of personality that, according to Freud, represents internalized ideals and provides standards for judgment (the conscience) and for future aspirations (the little angel on your shoulder) |
| defense mechanism | the ego's protective methods of reducing anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality |
| denial | Defense mechanism by which people refuse to accept reality. |
| displacement | psychoanalytic defense mechanism that shifts sexual or aggressive impulses toward a more acceptable or less threatening object or person, as when redirecting anger toward a safer outlet |
| projection | psychoanalytic defense mechanism by which people disguise their own threatening impulses by attributing them to others |
| rationalization | defense mechanism that offers self-justifying explanations in place of the real, more threatening, unconscious reasons for one's actions |
| reaction formation | Defense mechanism by which people behave in a way opposite to what their true but anxiety-provoking feelings would dictate. |
| regression | A reversion to immature patterns of behavior. |
| sublimation | channeling unacceptable urges into something more acceptable |
| projective tests | a personality test, such as the Rorschach or TAT, that provides ambiguous stimuli to trigger projection of one's inner thoughts and feelings |
| preconscious | Information that is not conscious but is retrievable into conscious awareness |
| unconscious | |
| unconditional positive regard | a caring, accepting, nonjudgmental attitude, which Carl Rogers believed would help clients to develop self-awareness and self-acceptance |
| self-actualizing tendency | Rogers; drive of an individual to achieve his/her self-concept or self image; living up to the image of yourself that you create |
| social cognitive theory | The view of psychologists who emphasize behavior, environment, and cognition as the key factors in development. |
| reciprocal determinism | the interacting influences of behavior, internal cognition, and environment |
| self-concept | a sense of one's identity and personal worth |
| self-efficacy | One's belief in his or her own ability. |
| self-esteem | how much you value, respect, and feel confident about yourself |
| traits | characteristics |
| The Big 5 Personality Theory | OCEAN (openness, conscientiousness, extroversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism) |
| Openness | Being high on openness means you're curious and enjoy new experiences, while low openness suggests you're more traditional and prefer routine. |
| Conscientiousness | High conscientiousness indicates you're organized and responsible, whereas low conscientiousness implies a more spontaneous and less structured approach. |
| Extroversion | High extraversion means you're sociable and seek stimulation, while low extraversion (introversion) suggests you're more reserved and gain energy from solitude. |
| Agreeableness | High agreeableness reflects being cooperative and empathetic, while low agreeableness can manifest as being more competitive and critical. |
| Neuroticism | High neuroticism indicates a tendency towards experiencing negative emotions, while low neuroticism suggests emotional stability and resilience. |
| agreeableness | A personality dimension that describes someone who is good natured, cooperative, and trusting. |
| personality inventory | a questionnaire (often with true-false or agree-disagree items) on which people respond to items designed to gauge a wide range of feelings and behaviors; used to assess selected personality traits. |
| factor analysis | a statistical procedure that identifies clusters of related items (called factors) on a test; used to identify different dimensions of performance that underlie a person's total score. |
| drive-reduction theory | the idea that a physiological need creates an aroused tension state (a drive) that motivates an organism to satisfy the need |
| arousal theory | A theory of motivation suggesting that people are motivated to maintain an optimal level of alertness and physical and mental activation. |
| optimal level of arousal theory | A theory of motivation that each individual has an optimal level of arousal (alertness, paying attention) that varies from one situation to the next. Sometimes called the Inverted-U Theory. |
| Yerkes-Dodson Law | the principle that performance increases with arousal only up to a point, beyond which performance decreases |
| self-determination theory | the theory that we feel motivated to satisfy our needs for competence, autonomy, and relatedness |
| intrinsic motivation | a desire to perform a behavior effectively for its own sake |
| extrinsic motivation | a desire to perform a behavior to receive promised rewards or avoid threatened punishment |
| instincts | innate tendencies that determine behavior |
| instinct theory | A view that explains human behavior as motivated by automatic, involuntary, and unlearned responses. |
| Lewin's motivational conflicts theory | Describes various types of conflict involved in the decision making process. (i.e. approach-approach, avoidance-avoidance, approach-avoidance.) |
| approach-approach | a choice must be made between two attractive goals |
| approach-avoidance | a choice must be made about whether to pursue a single goal that has both attractive and unattractive aspects |
| avoidance-avoidance | Conflict that results from having to choose between two distasteful alternatives |
| sensation-seeking theory | tendency to seek out new and intense experiences and feelings despite the risk involved |
| emotion | complex reaction pattern involving thoughts, feelings, and actions |
| facial feedback hypothesis | the idea that facial expressions can influence emotions as well as reflect them |
| broaden-and-build theory | positive emotions prompt people to consider novel solutions to their problems |
| universal emotions | happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust, anger |
| anger | a strong feeling of displeasure |
| disgust | strong feelings of dislike |
| happiness | enduring state of mind consisting of joy, contentment, and other positive emotions; the sense that one's life has meaning and value |
| surprise | something that is beyond what is expected |
| fear | the usual reaction when a stressor involves real or imagined danger |
| sadness | state of unhappiness; feeling sorrow; not in a state of well-being |
| display rules | culturally determined rules about which nonverbal behaviors are appropriate to display |
| health psychology | the subfield of psychology concerned with ways psychological factors influence the causes and treatment of physical illness and the maintenance of health |
| stress | the reaction of the body and mind to everyday challenges and demands |
| hypertension | high blood pressure |
| immune suppression | a weakening of the body's ability to fight disease; created by a reduction in lymphocytes that normally help the body resist pathogens |
| eustress | A positive stress that energizes a person and helps a person reach a goal |
| distress | negative stress |
| general adaptation syndrome (GAS) | Seyle's concept that the body responds to stress with alarm, resistance and exhaustion |
| alarm | the first phase of the stress response, in which the person faces a challenge and starts paying attention to it. |
| Resistance (GAS stage) | the second stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome involving maintaining high levels of bodily arousal in response to a persistent stressor |
| exhaustion (GAS stage) | the third stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome involving the depletion of energy levels and bodily resources, resulting in an inability to cope with the stressor |
| tend-and-befriend theory | A theory that suggests people seek social support and tend to others in times of stress. |
| problem-focused coping | Attempting to alleviate stress directly by changing the stressor or the way we interact with that stressor. |
| emotion-focused coping | attempting to alleviate stress by avoiding or ignoring a stressor and attending to emotional needs related to one's stress reaction |
| meditation | the focusing of attention to clear one's mind and produce relaxation |
| positive psychology | the scientific study of optimal human functioning; aims to discover and promote strengths and virtues that enable individuals and communities to thrive |
| well-being | self-perceived happiness or satisfaction with life. Used along with measures of objective well-being (for example, physical and economic indicators) to evaluate people's quality of life. |
| resilience | the personal strength that helps most people cope with stress and recover from adversity and even trauma |
| gratitude | a feeling of thankfulness and appreciation |
| signature strengths | positive human traits that influence thoughts, feelings, and behaviors and provide a sense of fulfillment and meaning |
| virtues | behavior showing high moral standards |
| character strengths | personal characteristics that contribute to a person's happiness without diminishing the happiness of others |
| wisdom | expert knowledge about the practical aspects of life (character strength) |
| courage | a fundamental virtue, encompassing the ability to act despite fear and pursue noble goals, contributing to a fulfilling and authentic life (character strength) |
| humanity | virtue encompassing strengths like love, kindness, and empathy, promoting well-being by fostering positive relationships and a sense of belonging (character strength) |
| justice | Respecting the rights of others and giving them what is rightfully theirs (character strength) |
| temperance | moderation and self-restraint (character strength) |
| transcendence | moving beyond limitations and ego to a higher level of consciousness (character strength) |
| post-traumatic growth | the capacity to grow and experience long-term positive effects in response to negative events |
| psychological disorder | a "harmful dysfunction" in which behavior is judged to be atypical, disturbing, maladaptive, and unjustifiable |
| dysfunction | Impaired or abnormal functioning |
| maladaptive | destructive to oneself or others |
| unjustifiable | without a rational basis |
| disturbing | upsetting; bothering |
| atypical | so different that it violates a norm |
| stigma | a mark of disgrace associated with a particular circumstance, quality, or person. |
| DSM | Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (classifies and describes only) |
| International classification of mental disorders | global categorization system for physical and mental illnesses published by the World Health Organization (WHO) |
| eclectic approach | an approach to psychotherapy that uses techniques from various forms of therapy |
| psychodynamic perspective | the approach based on the view that behavior is motivated by unconscious inner forces over which the individual has little control |
| humanistic perspective | stresses the human capacity for self-fulfillment and the importance of consciousness, self-awareness, and the capacity to make choices |
| cognitive perspective | A psychological approach that emphasizes mental processes in perception, memory, language, problem solving, and other areas of behavior |
| maladaptive thoughts | Distorted thoughts that can negatively affect emotion and behavior |
| sociocultural perspective | A psychological approach that emphasizes social and cultural influences on behavior |
| maladaptive relationships | Relationships with unhealthy dynamics |
| biological perspective | the psychological perspective that emphasizes the influence of biology on behavior |
| biopsychosocial model | a model of health that integrates the effects of biological, behavioral, and social factors on health and illness |
| diathesis-stress model | suggests that a person may be predisposed for a mental disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by stress |
| diathesis | a vulnerability or predisposition to developing a disorder |
| stress | the reaction of the body and mind to everyday challenges and demands |
| neurodevelopmental disorders | a group of conditions manifested early in development that are characterized by developmental deficits that produce impairments of personal, social, academic, or occupational functioning |
| Schizophrenic Spectrum Disorders | severe disorders in which there are disturbances of thoughts, communications, and emotions, including delusions and hallucinations |
| delusions | false beliefs, often of persecution or grandeur, that may accompany psychotic disorders |
| delusions of persecution | the belief that people are out to get you |
| delusions of grandeur | belief that you enjoy greater power and influence than you do |
| hallucinations | false sensory experiences, such as seeing something in the absence of an external visual stimulus |
| disorganized thinking or speech | incoherent or nonsensical speech patterns, such as jumping between unrelated topics or using words inappropriately, reflecting disordered thought processes. |
| Word Salad (Schizophrenia) | Incoherent mixture of words, phrases, and sentences |
| disorganized motor behavior | ranges from unusually active to barely moving; unusual grimaces and gestures |
| catatonia | state of immobility and unresponsiveness lasting for long periods of time |
| stupor | a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility (daze) |
| catatonic stupor | an immobile, expressionless, coma-like state associated with schizophrenia |
| negative symptoms | symptoms of schizophrenia that are marked by deficits in functioning, such as apathy, lack of emotion, and slowed speech and movement |
| positive symptoms | Schizophrenic symptoms that involve behavioral excesses or peculiarities, such as hallucinations, delusions, bizarre behavior, and wild flights of ideas. |
| flat affect | a lack of emotional responsiveness |
| schizophrenia | a psychological disorder characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and/or diminished, inappropriate emotional expression |
| acute schizophrenia | an active phase; a period of time when a person experiences worsening symptoms (usually diagnosed earlier) |
| chronic schizophrenia | (also called process schizophrenia) a form of schizophrenia in which symptoms usually appear by late adolescence or early adulthood. As people age, psychotic episodes last longer and recovery periods shorten. |
| dopamine hypothesis | the idea that schizophrenia involves an excess of dopamine activity |
| depressive disorders | general category of mood disorders in which people show extreme and persistent sadness, despair, and loss of interest in life's usual activities. |
| major depressive disorder | a mood disorder in which a person feels sad and hopeless for weeks or months |
| persistent depressive disorder | depressive disorder characterized by a chronically sad and melancholy mood (not enough to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder) |
| bipolar disorder | A mood disorder in which the person alternates between the hopelessness and lethargy of depression and the overexcited state of mania. |
| mania | a mood disorder marked by a hyperactive, wildly optimistic state |
| depression | A prolonged feeling of helplessness, hopelessness, and sadness |
| bipolar 1 disorder | a type of bipolar disorder marked by full manic and major depressive episodes |
| Bipolar II Disorder | a type of bipolar disorder marked by mildly manic (hypomanic) episodes and major depressive episodes |
| anxiety disorder | psychological disorders characterized by distressing, persistent anxiety or maladaptive behaviors that reduce anxiety |
| specific phobia | fear of objects or specific situations or events |
| acrophobia | fear of heights |
| arachnophobia | fear of spiders |
| agoraphobia | fear or avoidance of situations, such as crowds or wide open places, where one has felt loss of control and panic |
| panic disorder | An anxiety disorder marked by unpredictable minutes-long episodes of intense dread in which a person experiences terror and accompanying chest pain, choking, or other frightening sensations. |
| panic attacks | attacks marked by intense heart palpitations, pressure or pain in the chest, dizziness or unsteadiness, sweating, and a feeling of faintness |
| culture-bound anxiety disorder | a collection of signs and symptoms that is restricted to a limited number of cultures by reason of certain psychosocial features. |
| Ataque de nervios | a form of panic disorder found in Latinos from the Caribbean |
| social anxiety disorder | an anxiety disorder involving the extreme and irrational fear of being embarrassed, judged, or scrutinized by others in social situations |
| Taijin Kyofusho | a form of social anxiety common in Japan involving a fear of offending or embarrassing others with one's odor, eye contact, or appearance. |
| generalized anxiety disorder | persistent and pervasive feelings of anxiety without any external cause |
| Obsessive-compulsive disorder | An anxiety disorder characterized by unwanted repetitive thoughts (obsession) and/ or actions (compulsions). |
| obsessions | persistent ideas, thoughts, or impulses that are unwanted and inappropriate, causing marked distress |
| compulsions | Repetitive behaviors or mental acts that are performed to prevent or reduce anxiety. |
| hoarding disorder | Persistent difficulty discarding or parting with possessions, regardless of their actual value |
| dissociative disorders | conscious awareness becomes separated from previous memories, thoughts, and feelings |
| dissociations | a mental process where a person separates or disconnects from their thoughts, feelings, memories, or sense of identity |
| dissociative identity disorder | A rare dissociative disorder in which a person exhibits two or more distinct and alternating personalities. Also called multiple personality disorder. |
| dissociative amnesia | A psychologically induced loss of memory for personal information, such as one's identity or residence. |
| PTSD (Post Traumatic Stress Disorder) | an anxiety disorder characterized by haunting memories, nightmares, social withdrawal, jumpy anxiety, and/or insomnia that lingers for four weeks or more after a traumatic experience |
| Hypervigilance (relating to PTSD) | an enhanced state of sensory sensitivity accompanied by an exaggerated intensity of behaviors whose purpose is to detect threats; also accompanied by a state of increased anxiety which can cause exhaustion |
| Flashbacks (PTSD) | feel like in trauma, memories seem to happen in the here and now, reexperiencing traumatic memroy |
| emotional detachment | Inability to connect emotionally with others. |
| hostility | unfriendliness; hatred |
| feeding and eating disorders | Difficulty managing food intake such as a life-threatening failure to maintain sufficient body weight |
| anorexia | an eating disorder that causes people to weigh less than is considered healthy for their age and height, usually by excessive weight loss |
| bulimia | an eating disorder characterized by episodes of overeating, usually of high-calorie foods, followed by vomiting, laxative use, fasting, or excessive exercise |
| personality disorders | psychological disorders characterized by inflexible and enduring behavior patterns that impair social functioning |
| cluster A personality disorders | paranoid, schizoid, schizotypal |
| paranoid personality disorder | a personality disorder marked by a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness of others |
| schizoid personality disorder | a personality disorder characterized by persistent avoidance of social relationships and little expression of emotion |
| schizotypal personality disorder | a psychological disorder characterized by several traits that cause problems interpersonally, including constricted or inappropriate affect; magical or paranoid thinking; and odd beliefs, speech, behavior, appearance, and perceptions |
| cluster B personality disorders | dramatic, emotional, or erratic cluster; antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic |
| histrionic personality disorder | a personality disorder characterized by excessive emotionality and preoccupation with being the center of attention; emotional shallowness; overly dramatic behavior |
| narcissistic personality disorder | characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a preoccupation with fantasies of success or power, and a need for constant attention or admiration |
| borderline personality disorder | a personality disorder characterized by lack of stability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotion; impulsivity; angry outbursts; intense fear of abandonment; recurring suicidal gestures |
| antisocial personality disorder | A personality disorder in which the person (usually a man) exhibits a lack of conscience for wrongdoing, even toward friends and family members. May be aggressive and ruthless or a clever con artist. |
| sociopath | a person with a personality disorder manifesting itself in extreme antisocial attitudes and behavior and a lack of conscience. |
| psychopath | unable to form real social attachments or feel empathy although they often have charming personalities |
| cluster c personality disorders | anxious or fearful cluster; avoidant, dependent, OCD |
| avoidant personality disorder | a personality disorder characterized by inhibition in social situations; feelings of inadequacy; oversensitivity to criticism |
| dependent personality disorder | A personality disorder characterized by a pattern of clinging and obedience, fear of separation, and an ongoing need to be taken care of. |
| psychotherapy | treatment involving psychological techniques; consists of interactions between a trained therapist and someone seeking to overcome psychological difficulties or achieve personal growth |
| evidence-based interventions | treatments that have been found to be effective on the basis of valid and reliable research studies |
| therapeutic alliance | a bond of trust and mutual understanding between a therapist and client, who work together constructively to overcome the client's problem |
| biomedical therapy | prescribed medications or medical procedures that act directly on the patient's nervous system |
| psychotropic medication therapy | The treatment of psychiatric disorders with medication that affects brain chemistry. |
| asylums | institutions to house and care for people who are afflicted with mental illness |
| deinstitutionalization | moving people with psychological or developmental disabilities from highly structured institutions to home- or community-based settings |
| psychological therapies | Therapies based on psychological principles (rather than on the biomedical approach); often called "psychotherapy." |
| Nonmaleficence | ethical principle to avoid or minimize harm to others |
| fidelity | ethical principle to be accountable and trustworthy in professional relationship |
| integrity | ethical principle of commitment to being honest, truthful, and consistent in actions and words with a patient |
| respect | ethical principle where patient is regarded as someone of worth; being non-judgmental |
| psychodynamic therapies | Treatments that stress the importance of the unconscious mind, extensive interpretation by the therapist, and the role of early childhood experiences in the development of an individual's problems |
| free association | in psychoanalysis, a method of exploring the unconscious in which the person relaxes and says whatever comes to mind, no matter how trivial or embarrassing |
| dream interpretation | a technique used in psychoanalysis in which the content of dreams is analyzed for disguised or symbolic wishes, meanings, and motivations |
| resistance | in psychoanalysis, the blocking from consciousness of anxiety-laden material |
| transference | in psychoanalysis, the patient's transfer to the analyst of emotions linked with other relationships (such as love or hatred for a parent) |
| cognitive therapies | therapy that teaches people new, more adaptive ways of thinking and acting; based on the assumption that thoughts intervene between events and our emotional reactions |
| cognitive restructuring | a therapeutic approach that teaches clients to question the automatic beliefs, assumptions, and predictions that often lead to negative emotions and to replace negative thinking with more realistic and positive beliefs |
| fear hierarchies | feared objects, activities or situations are ranked according to difficulty. They begin with mildly or moderately difficult exposures, then progress to harder ones. |
| cognitive triad | The three forms of negative thinking that Aaron Beck theorizes lead people to feel depressed. The triad consists of a negative view of one's experiences, oneself, and the future. |
| applied behavior therapy | to help people with autism or developmental disorders change their behavior; breaks down complex skills into smaller steps, give multiple opportunities for practice positive behaviors are rewarded |
| biofeedback | the use of an external monitoring device to obtain information about a bodily function and possibly gain control over that function |
| exposure therapy | An approach to treatment that involves confronting an emotion-arousing stimulus directly and repeatedly, ultimately leading to a decrease in the emotional response |
| systematic desensitization | A type of counterconditioning that associates a pleasant relaxed state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli |
| aversive conditioning | a type of counterconditioning that associates an unpleasant state (such as nausea) with an unwanted behavior (such as drinking alcohol) |
| token economy | an operant conditioning procedure in which people earn a token of some sort for exhibiting a desired behavior and can later exchange the tokens for various privileges or treats |
| cognitive behavioral therapy | a popular integrative therapy that combines cognitive therapy (changing self-defeating thinking) with behavior therapy (changing behavior) |
| dialectical behavior therapy | A form of treatment in which the focus is on getting people to accept who they are regardless of whether it matches their ideal. |
| humanistic approach to therapy | aim to boost self-fulfillment by helping people grow in self-awareness and self-acceptance |
| person-centered therapy | a nondirective insight therapy based on the work of Carl Rogers in which the client does all the talking and the therapist listens |
| active listening | Empathic listening in which the listener echoes, restates, and clarifies. A feature of Rogers' client-centered therapy. |
| group therapy | therapy conducted with groups rather than individuals, permitting therapeutic benefits from group interaction |
| individual therapy | A therapy modality in which an individual client is treated by a single therapist |
| hypnosis | shown effectiveness for treating pain and anxiety |
| rational emotive therapy | A Cognitive Therapy based on Albert Ellis' theory that cognitions control our emotions and behaviors; therefore, changing the way we think about things will affect the way we feel and the way we behave. |
| psychoactive medication | Medications used to change, modify, or alter an individual's behavior or mood. This general term includes antianxiety, antidepressant, antipsychotic, and hypnotic medications. |
| antidepressants | drugs that combat depression by affecting the levels or activity of neurotransmitters in the brain (reuptake inhibitor) |
| antianxiety drugs | A category of drugs that includes the barbiturates and benzodiazepines, drugs that diminish feelings of anxiety. |
| Lithium | Rapidly acts on the manic phase of bipolar affective disorder, doesn't suppress normal emotions, can cause hand tremors, weight gain, and thirst |
| antipsychotic drugs | medications that are used to treat schizophrenia and related psychotic disorders |
| tardive dyskinesia | involuntary movements of the facial muscles, tongue, and limbs; a possible neurotoxic side effect of long-term use of antipsychotic drugs that target certain dopamine receptors |
| psychosurgery | brain surgery on human patients intended to relieve severe and otherwise intractable mental or behavioral problems |
| transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) | a treatment that involves placing a powerful pulsed magnet over a person's scalp, which alters neuronal activity in the brain |
| electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) | a biomedical treatment in which electric shock is used to produce a cortical seizure accompanied by convulsions; causes a seizure |
| lobotomy | a psychosurgical procedure once used to calm uncontrollably emotional or violent patients. The procedure cut the nerves connecting the frontal lobes to the emotion-controlling centers of the inner brain |
| dendrite | the bushy, branching extensions of a neuron that receive messages and conduct impulses toward the cell body |
| cell body (soma) | the part of a neuron that coordinates information-processing tasks and keeps the cell alive |
| axon | A threadlike extension of a neuron that carries nerve impulses away from the cell body. |
| terminal branches (buttons) | small knobs that secrete chemicals called neurotransmitters (chemical messengers) |
| James-Lange Theory | the theory that emotion results from physiological states triggered by stimuli in the environment (stimulus, physiological response, emotion) |
| Cannon-Bard Theory | the theory that an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers (1) physiological responses and (2) the subjective experience of emotion |
| Schacter's Two-Factor Theory | to experience emotion one must be physically aroused and cognitively label the arousal (stimulus, physiological response and cognitive label at the same time, then emotion) |
| self-actualization | according to Maslow, one of the ultimate psychological needs that arises after basic physical and psychological needs are met and self-esteem is achieved; the motivation to fulfill one's potential |
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lcurty100