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Performing the study
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Sensory symptoms such as tingling, numbness and pins and needles would suggest a sz arising from the: | Parietal lobe |
| Bolus of propofol will cause? | Burst suppression |
| First line treatment for Lennox-Gastaut: | Valproic acid |
| An appropriate anesthetic regimen for language mapping; | Awake with focal |
| Phenobarbital: | Beta activity |
| In the ICU, what is the most commonly encountered EEG med effect that is not specific for a particular med? | Gen slowing |
| What EEG finding do is most often associated with sensory sz? | Parietal sharp waves |
| Focal sz with symptoms of tingling sensations in the face likely originate in: | Inferior post central gyrus |
| Rapid removal of which of the following AEDs is most likely to elicit a GTC? | Phenobarbital |
| Phenobarbital coma: | Burst suppression |
| What type of anesthesia is best for ecog in the OR? | Desflurane- fast acting gas |
| Prior to dura opening for an awake crani, propofol, remifentanil and local anesthetic infiltration is used for induction and placement of the mayfield head holder. What are the anesthetic affects? | IONM monitoring will not be affected if the propofol and remifentanil are turned off because they will wear off in 10-15 min |
| Complex automatisms: | Mesial temporal |
| Olfactory hallucinations are not associated with the? | Not associated with the inferior occipital lobe |
| Hypothalamic harmatomas are associated with? | Gelastic sz |
| A patient who experiences epigastric rising followed by a 10 sec oral and/or manual automatisms, is unable to respond to verbal commands and has postictal confusion for several minutes most likely indicates: | Complex partial |
| Patient with microencephaly presents with flapping hand mvmnt, frequent laughing or unusual smiling and an unusual happy demeanor | Angelman syndrome |
| Ictal weeping and pelvic thrusting may indicate | Nonepileptic events |
| Which of the following is most common of temporal lobe sz? | Contralateral dystonia---? |
| Bicycling movements are most often seen in adult sz arising from the | Frontal lobe |
| In a patient with persistent coma or unexplained neurological deterioration, the most useful test is: | cEEG |
| Risks of video EEG monitoring related to medication withdrawal includes: | Skull fractures, Vertebral compression fractures, sz related falls, off video events and status |
| Based on the 2015 American red cross guidelines for CPR, compression rate for adults is | 100/min |
| Based on the 2015 American red cross guidelines for CPR, compression depth for adults is | At least 2 inches |
| Based on the 2015 American red cross guidelines for CPR, compression to breath ratio for adults is | 30 to 2 |
| Rhythmic occipital delta may commonly be seen in: | Children |
| Per ACNS guideline, an important aspect of montage design for LTME is to clearly separate activity from: | Basal temporal and 10/20 cortical deviations |
| In comparison to surface EEG, recording from ECOG will present | Faster frequencies and higher amplitude |
| Triphasic waves | Metabolic encephalopathy |
| What should always be monitored to assess the presence of after discharges? | ECOG |
| SI or SIRPIDS patterns are induced by: | Stimulus |
| ICU patients with a hx of hypoxic injury having an EEG characterized by monotonously continuous frontocentral alpha activity that is nonreactive: | Alpha coma |
| Subarachnoid hemorrhage causes EEG | EEG would show slowing |
| Which polarity and electrode signal generates from the motor cortex when doing evoked potential reversal mapping? | Positive polarity, P22 |
| One way to differentiate rhythmic epileptic sz from that of a rhythmic biologic artifacts is: | Identification of post ictal slowing |
| Lanadu-kleffner syndrome usually presents with | Temporal lobe sz |
| Changes in cEEG monitoring indicating cerebral ischemia: | Decreased fast activity and increased slowing |
| The typical latency for SSEP to upper extremity stim is: | 20msec |
| During functional brain mapping, a brief train of repetitive spikes following the stim at the electrode closest to the stim site represents: | After discharges |
| Periodic, rhythmic, pr ictal appearing discharges that are consistently induced by alerting stimuli | SIRPIDS |
| The best trend for evaluation of ischemia | Alpha variability |
| Accurate evaluation of language interruption during stimulation must have the absence of | After discharges |
| After discharges | Periodic or continuous epileptiform discharges |
| An EEG finding that can be seen with absence epilepsy: | OIRDA |
| Artifact that can be seen when an electrode is sitting over a blood vessel: | Pulse artifact |
| Glossokinetic artifact | Biological |
| What should be done in the case of the pulse artifact? | Slightly displace electrode |
| One way to differentiate rhythmic epileptic sz from that of rhythmical biologic artifact is: | Identification of post ictal slowing |
| The EEG pattern seen with Ohtahara syndrome: | Burst suppression |
| Vasospasm: | Arterial vessel constriction |
| Which of the following is most likely to be seen in the postictal EEG? | Delta activity in the region of seizure origin compared to before the sz |
| A marked decrease in body temp will have the following effect on sensorimotor cortical potential | Increased latency |
| EEG is altered by CBF below: | 20mL/100g/min |
| An effectively known treatment option for Hypothalamic Harmartomas is: | Gamma knife |
| The single most definitive localizing feature of the epiletogenic region is: | Ictal onset zone |
| Electrical status epilepticus during sleep (ESES) is linked to: | Landau-Kleffner Syndrome |
| Which of the following is an EEG pattern resulting from the treatment of status epilepticus? | Burst suppression |
| Automatisms are generally associated with activity generated from which lobe? | Temporal lobe |
| Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome: | Atypical absence |
| Continuous EEG is more sensitive for sz detection than routine EEG in in which population? | Infants |
| Therapeutic hypothermia is indicated for better outcome in adult patients with: | Cardiac arrest |
| Total suppression of the EEG followed by cardiovascular instability ca be an effect of: | Barbituates |
| The most effectively known treatment for Rasmussen's encephalitis is: | Functional hemispherectomy |
| This type of surgical treatment is most beneficial for patients who have epileptic zones arising from or overlapping with eloquent cortex: | Multiple subpial transection |
| Patients with Landau Kleffner may have difficulties with: | Comprehension, permanent language difficulties and ability to speak |
| Patients with Rasmussen's encephalitis will most likely present with: | Hemiparesis |
| Sz characterized by hypersalivation, oral facial apraxia and at times facial clonic activity originate: | Frontal operculum |
| A surgical treatment for Landau-Kleffner Syndrome is: | Multiple subpial transection |
| A typical surgical treatment that is considered for temporal lobe epilepsy; | Focal resection |
| West syndrome is linked to: | Lennox-Gastaut, Infantile spasms and hypsarrhythmia. |
| Delayed cerebral ischemia occurring after aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is a result of: | Vasospasm |
| Which of the following is primarily limited to selected catastrophic infant and early childhood epilepsies? | Hemispherectomy |
| A marked decrease in body temp will have the following effect on sensorimotor cortical potentials: | Increased latency |
| Per ACNS guidelines, epidural, subdural, intracerebral, foramen ovale impedance measurements can be safely performed with currents in the range of: | 10nA |
| Impedance measurements can be safely performed in intracranial electrodes; | Only if performed with low currents in the range of 10nA |
| Checking the impedance of intracranial electrodes poses a risk to the patient because: | Alternating current is passed through the electrodes |
| In the proposed 10-10 system what is the designation of the intermediate chain between the front polar and frontal leads? | Anterior frontal |
| Relative to P7, the P9 electrode placement is: | 10% lateral to P7 |
| Which of the following electrodes from the 10-10 system would be useful on a patient with suspected benign Rolandic epilepsy? | CP1 |
| T1 and T2 electrode placement: | 1cm superior to 1/3 of the distance from the external eye canthus and the trigs |
| EEG changes can be seen when cerebral blood flow falls below: | 25-30ml/100g/minute |
| Risks associated with invasive subdural grid electrodes include | Increased ICP, Stroke and infection |
| The homunculus is a: | Representation of motor and sensory cortex of the brain |
| Risks associated with foramen ovals electrodes includes: | Facial numbness |
| What kind of electrodes are used to record from the amygdala, hippocampus and areas of cortical dysplasia? | Depth electrodes |
| What kind of electrodes are MRI conditional for intracranial monitoring? | Platinum |
| Strip and grid electrodes are typically operated by inter-electrode distances of: | 0.5-1 cm |
| Subdural electrodes are commonly composed of: | Platinum |
| What part of the brain are sphenoidal electrodes used to cover? | Anterior tip of temporal lobe |
| Depth electrodes are used primarily in patients with what kind of epilepsy? | Mesial temporal lobe epilepsy |
| Strip electrodes are usually inserted through a: | Burr hole |
| In the 10-10 electrode system, which electrode is placed halfway between Fp2 and O2 when measuring the circumference? | T8 |
| The most feared complication of intracranial electrode placement: | Hemorrhage |
| ACNS guidelines recommends that the reference electrode for localization of sensorimotor cortex should be placed on? | Contralateral scalp or ear |
| Per ACNS guidelines, LTME equipment must be able to record video for a minimum of: | 24 hours |
| According to the ILAE 2015 guidelines for status epilepticus, SE treatment should begin after: | 5 minutes |
| According to the ILAE 2015 guidelines for status, Status can result in neuronal injury and functional deficits are likely after how long? | 30 minutes |
| Digital long term monitoring equipment must be able to record for a minimum how many hours? | 24 |
| Per ACNS guidelines, an important aspect of montage design for LTME is to clearly separate activity from the: | Basal temporal and 10/20 cortical derivations |
| ACNS guidelines recommends the following filter performance specifications: | LFF <= 1hz- HFF 70hz |
| ACNS guidelines recommends the following filter specifications: | LFF 0.5hz-HFF 70hz |
| Per ACNS guidelines, what is the minimum number of EEG channels required for LTME equipment capability? | 32-64 channels |
| What does LPD +R stand for in the 2012 ACNS EEG terminology? | Lateralized periodic discharges + superimposed rhythmic activity |
| How would you term generalized rhythmic delta activity + sharp waves, according to the 2012 ACNS EEG terminology? | GRDA +s |
| During functional mapping, after discharges are more likely to occur with intensities greater than | 10mA |
| How many channels are required to provide basic characterization of epileptic EEG events? | 16 |
| When monitoring for epilepsy SI refers to EEG activity that is: | Stimulus induced |
| Which neonatal population would be a good candidate for long term monitoring? | Patients that are high risk for acute brain injury |
| LPDs is the new terminology for what EEG term? | PLEDS |
| Which of the following is the best high frequency filter setting during invasive monitoring? | 150hz |
| In 59% of neonatal sz, electro clinical uncoupling occurs after antiseizure meds are given. What would you expect to see on a VEEG? | Subclinical sz continue |
| Cortical responses recorded over the primary somatosensory cortex to median SSEPs are | Negative near field responses |
| What is used to map the central sulcus? | Grid or strip electrodes |
| What function has the lowest risk of being affected if a temporal lobectomy is performed in the dominant hemisphere? | Supplementary motor deficits |
| What is the gold standard test for identifying the motor cortex? | Direct cortical stimulation |
| Cortical potentials for median nerve SSEPs are recorded from: | Contralateral parietal lobe |
| Cervical myelopathy may inhibit | Sensorimotor localization |
| Cross communication between blood vessels is called | Anastomosis |
| What type of seizure often consists of early and prominent motor activity? | Frontal lobe |
| The physiologic substrate of clinical seizure activity is: | Abnormal neuronal discharge |
| For stimulation of the median nerve SSEP, utilizing a pair of stem electrodes the cathode is placed where? | Distal? |
| In patients with intracranial grids, excessive widespread polymorphic slowing with attenuated waveforms raises the question of: | Cerebral edema under the grid |
| Landau-kleffner syndrome usually presents with what type of seizures? | Temporal lobe seizures |
| The central sulcus divides what areas in the cortex? | Frontal and parietal lobes |
| Autmatisms are generally associated with activity generated from which lobe? | Temporal |
| A marked decrease in body temp will have the following effect on sensiomotor cortical potentials: | Increased latency |
Created by:
hannahhenderson