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APK4120 Final

QuestionAnswer
What is main focus of clinical ex physio the interplay of exercise and chronic disease
Three main questions of clinical ex physio how does exercise influence the disease process, how does ex testing indicate the presence of disease and help diagnose, how role does ex play in treatment or pevention
4 main duties of a CEP analyze history to assess risk and prescribe rx, perform gxts and stress tests, measure BP/02/heart rhythm/health indicators, develop ex rx to im prove health
4 aspects of CEP knowledge anatomy, physiology, chemistry, psychology
CEP degree & knowledge requirements minimum bachelors, possibly masters, and a clinical internship
Most common work setting for CEPs cardiac rehab
Main work settings for CEPs hospitals, outpatient clinics, physician offices, research facilities
Designated CEP professional organization CEPA, clinical exercise physiology association
Scope of practice for a CEP it varies by organization, CEPA vs ACSM vs ACE vs CSEP
What does the CEPA define the scope of a CEP as master’s degree related to ex. science and/or licensed OR holds a clinical ex certification i.e. ACSM CEP
What is the one state that requires a state license of a CEP louisiana
Why is licensure important ensures the same knowledge and scope across practices to prevent variation
Main goals of licensure movements recognition of CEP as allied health, reimbursement for CEPs
Why is reimbursement important for CEPs most insurances do not cover the GXTs and needed info CEPs can provide on how ex can be health beneficial, so a lot of people cannot be referred to CEPs
Why are legal considerations important for CEPs scope of practice varies largely across states, so what they can/cannot do opens up legal problems
What is the CREP coalition for registration of exercise professionals
What is promotion use of behavioral strategies in assessing and counseling individuals about their physical activity behavior characteristics
What is the point of behavioral strategies to be used with supportive social and physical environments
What is human behavior, especially physical activity, shaped by its surroundings
4 main psychological goals a CEP should focus on during activity promotion understanding environment, understanding physical/social contexts, addressing barriers, providing insight on overcoming barriers
Two most common barriers to physical activity participation self efficacy, social support
What is self efficacy a person’s confidence to be able to ex under diff circumstances
How is self efficacy associated with activity positive association, more self efficacy leads to increase in participation
How does social support affect activity positive, increase support increased physical activity
Some examples of how a physical environment can be a barrier climate if its super hot all the time or always raining, what does/doesn’t the client have access to i.e. lack of sidewalks or bike trails or gyms far away/not present, neighborhood unsafe etc.
What is lifestyle based physical activity focused on less planned exercise and physical activity, more incorporation as apart of daily routine i.e. park further, stairs instead of elevator, walk to work instead of drive
Why is lifestyle focus important most common barrier is lack of time in the day
Premise of the health belief model personal beliefs or perceptions will influence health behavior
4 components of health belief model perceived seriousness, perceived susceptibility, perceived benefits of change, perceived barriers of change
What is the most predictive construct of behavior change perceived barriers to change
What has to occur for changes to be made to lifestyle patient must think/know that benefits outweigh barriers
What is perceived seriousness How severe is the disease if I were to contract it?
What is perceived susceptibility How likely is it that I will contract this disease?
What is perceived benefits of change Personal opinion of the value or usefulness of a new behavior to decrease risk of acquiring disease
What is perceived barriers to change Personal opinion of obstacles in the way of adopting a new behavior
What are the 6 stages of the transtheoretical model/stages of change precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, termination
Precontemplation is defined by no awareness or intention to change behavior
Contemplation is defined by aware of need for change + planning for it but not committed
Preparation is defined by beginning to plan change, committed to following through
Action is defined by implemented behavior changes
Maintenance is defined by maintaining changes and prevent termination
Termination is defined by failure to maintain changes
What is the premise of the ecological perspective most effective interventions occur across multiple levels, both intrapersonal and environmentally
5 levels of the ecological perspective intrapersonal, interpersonal, institutional, community, public policy
Intrapersonal level within the subject, psychological and biological variables and behaviors
Interpersonal levels social groups, outside support from friends, coworkers, significant others, etc.
Institutional levels organizations like health care facilities, schools, companies etc. i.e. how some companies have free gym memberships to promote activity in a sedentary job
Community levels networks within a defined area
Public policy laws at local, state, and national levels
What is education focused on when it comes to physical activity designed outcomes and understanding
What should patients understand about designed outcomes reasons for referrals and what we are forming an Rx for
What should CEPs help patients understand about physical activity both the fitness and health benefits of being active
What is the goals of the general interview reason for referral and to form a confidential baseline for ex rx
7 topics of the general interview reason for feral, demographic info, history of present illness (HPI), current meds/allergies, past medical history, family history, social history
Demographics we focus on in GI age, sex, ethnicity
Why is age important survival predictor in CV+R conditions
Why is sex and ethnicity important differences in onset
What is an example of a disease with sex differences osteopenia + rheumatoid arthritis in postmenopausal women due to estrogen depletion
What is HPI history of present illness
What should we be looking for in HPI any information that led to the referral, including the chief complaint and manifestations in symptoms
Different in objective vs subjective in HPI objective is present in medical record and shows in signs, subjective comes directly from the patient especially when it comes to symptoms
How do we characterize symptoms in HPI OPQRSTA
O in OPQRSTA onset
P in OPQRSTA provocation/palliation
Q in OPQRSTA quality
R in OPQRSTA region/radiation
S in OPQRSTA severity
T in OPQRSTA timing
A in OPQRSTA associated s/s
Onset when did the s/s of the chief compliant start and how?
Provocation/Palliation when does chief symptom increase/decrease, are there triggers?
Quality verbs describing the type of pain i.e. sharp, dull, numb
Region/Radiation specific location of pain, does it move/radiate
Severity scale of 1-10
Time consistency and changes since onset
Associated S/s anything associated that is not the principle
4 Main questions of current medications name (especially if generic vs name brand), dosage and units, administration route/how it is taken, time and frequency it is taken
2 main questions for allergies the name of the specific allergy i.e. food vs meds vs environmental components, reactions + severity of reactions
Why are medications and allergies important to note (3 reasons) drug purpose, desired/side effects, medical reconcilation
Drugs are not meant cause ______ _____; instead they have some sort of effect on existing responses new functions
Knowing the ___ ___ of meds is important because they may affect physiological readings, ex reactions, and cause symptoms side effects
What is medical reconciliation comparing the medications a patients stakes they are taking vs. their medical records, especially when it comes to consistency and frequency
Meds can affect ______ heart rate response
What happens to blood flow during ex significant redistribution
Main organ responsible for drug metabolism liver
Main organ for drug elimination kidneys
Main organ(s) for drug absorption GI tract
How does exercise effect medication effects in the blood blood is shunted away from visceral organs towards muscles, which can affect drug absorption and metabolism/metabolic sites of drugs
What is important to note about transdermal meds bflow increases to skin during ex, can affect pathology of meds
Three main focuses of medical history musculoskeletal, neurologic, and respiratory problems
What type of problems do we focus on in the medical history issues that may affect ability to ex test or train
Examples of musculoskeletal problems that may affect ex lower back pain, gout (posture/walking issues), joint issues
Examples of neurologic problems that may affect ex cerebrovascular diseases, stroke, dementia
Examples of respiratory problems that may affect ex asthma, COPD
What is family history limited to 1st degree relatives, nuclear family, parents, siblings, kids, SOMETIMES grandparents
Important thing to note in family history heritable disorders, especiall CVD
Important things to note in social history drugs, nutrition, sleep/snoring, leisure, ex history and habits
3 other important factors during interview that can effect exrx marital status, transportation availability, occupation+nature of occupation
What do we look for in general state overall view, anything abnormal, patient complaints
General observation of patients looks at comfortable or stressed/anxious, healthy or frail, nourishment status, how do they PHYSICALLY present
6 main s/s of CMR angina or pain possibly from myocardial ischemia, shortness or breath at rest or mild exertion i.e. walking to the car, dizziness/syncope, orthopnea/paroxsymal nocturnal dyspnea, ankle edema, palpitations/tachycardia
What is syncope loss of consciousness
What is orthopnea dyspnea at rest lying vertically only alleviated by sitting up or standing
What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea random bursts of shortness of breath during sleep
What do orthopnea/paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea indicate left ventricular dysfunction
What causes syncope loss of brain perfusion due to issues in cardiac output
What do we measure in the general examination BP, HR, Res[iratory rate
tachycardia >100 bpm
bradycardia <40 bpm
Elevated bp sbp>120 + dbp <80
Stage 1 hypertensions sbp>130 or dbp 80-89
Stage 2 hypertension sbp>140 or dbp>90
Hypertensive crisis sbp>180 and/org dbp>120
How do beta blockers affect HR decrease RHR by 10-15
tachypnea RR > 20/min
bradypnea RR<8/min
hypoxia blood O2 saturation <95%
7 components of general exam general state, BP/HR/RR, body fatness, CV system, musculoskeletal system, pulmonary system, functional fitness/balance
7 possible measures of body fatness height/weight/BMI, waist-to-hip ratio circumferences, skinfolds, BIA, hydrostatic weighing, bodpod, DEXA
BMi is a estimate of body fatness
What is the assumption of BMI weight is proportional to height
BMI formula kg/m^2
Normal bmi 18.5-24.9
Obese bmi >30
Waist to hip ratio (WHR) based on fat distribution using circumference
android apple shaped
gynoid pear shaped
Which shape is the unhealthier type apple
Healthy whr <0.86(F) or <0.95(M)
WHR formula waist (cm)/hip(cm)
What is the skinfold assessment based on thickness of several skinfolds across the body
What is the premise of skinfolds fat levels correlate highly to total body fat
Where are the skinfold measurements completed right side
What is bia bioeletrical impedance analysis
What does a higher BF correlate with in BIA higher resistance and impedance, so less electricity flow
Most accurate form of body fatness dexa scan
What do we do in the pulmonary portion of the examination auscilate (stethescope) the anterior and posterior chest surfaces for breath sounds and charactize them
What are we examining in the CV system portion palpating cardiac pulse, as well as in wrist and feet, skin temp, and looking for peripheral edema
What does cold/clammy skin indicate poor perfusion
What is the swelling of extremities a sign of coronary heart failure
What are we examining during the musculoskeletal portion gait, joints, any lower back pain
What are the different characterizations of gait normal, antalgic/limping, hemiplegic, shuffling, wide, etc
What is hemiplegic gait a sign of stroke
What are some issues we may see with joints redness, warmth, swelling, tenderness
What would redness at a joint during the general exam possible indicate arthritis
What are 3 examples of functional fitness tests 6 min walk test, Time Up and Go (TUG), Short Physical Performance Battery (SPPB)
What is Time Up and Go often used for older individuals
What can we use to assess balance berg balance scale
Why is balance important to assess potential risk for falls
The general exam is important for collaboration between the CEP and referring physician to determine if ex is safe and to form a baseline for the ex as well as patient education
3 general uses of a GXT diagnostic, prognostic, therapeutic
Diagnostic uses of a GXT identify abnormal responses
Prognostic uses of a GXT identify future responses and effects w/ disease
Therapeutic uses of a GXT impact of intervention
Low risk defined as <2 CV risk factors
Moderate risk defined as 2+ CV risk factors
High risk defined as 1+ s/s of CMR, any history of CMR
Who needs a GXT moderate and high risk individuals
Age risk factor criteria >45 years(M) or >55 years(F)
Family history risk factor criteria MI, coronary revascularization, sudden death, in first degree relative
Cigarette smoking risk factor criteria current or <6 mon to quit or environmental exposure
Physical inactivity risk factor criteria improper participation for at least 3 months
Obesity risk factor criteria bmi>30, waist> 102cm/40in (M) or 88cm/35in (F)
Hypertension risk factor criteria sbp>120 and/or dbp>80 on 2 separate times, OR ANTIHYPERTENSIVE MEDS
Dyslipidemia risk factor criteria LDL >130 mg or HDL<40 or total cholesterol >200 lipid lowering meds
Diabetes risk factor criteria fasted glucose >125 or 2hr glucose>200 or Hemoglob >6.5%
What is the only negative risk factor high HDL levels
Criteria for negative risk factor HDL >60
5 common interchangeable terms/types of a gxt stress ekg, reg stress test, cardiac stress trest, GXT, s/s limited gxt
The purpose of a gxt is always physician referral
6 elements of a gxt pretest considerations, appearance/quantification of symptoms (not signs, self reported from patient), test termination, rest/ex/recovery EKG abnormalities, functional capacity assessment, interpretation of findings/final summary
6 components of pretest considerations testing personnel, informed consent, general interview and examination, pretest likelihood of CHD, pretest instructions/preparation for EKG, selection of ex protocol and modality
Testing personnel things to think about how many techs? (normally 1, should be 2), do we need a physician in case of an event, who interprets the initial data before it gets to the final destination
Who is always completing the final interpretation of test data a physician
What should be included in informed consent reason for test, the procedures, explanation of major and minor risks, and patient verbalization
What is important to ensure on the day of GXT when overlooking the general interview and exam no changes in the clinical status
What are indications the reasons for a GXT
5 indications for a GXT assess symptoms to help diagnosis CHD or other condition, identify future risks or prognosis/functional capacity for the future, evaluate pacemaker/hr/bp response to ex, evaluate if someone meets return to work or disability, determine the effectiveness
What are the 7 absolute contraindications
4 relative contraindications left main coronary stenosis, several arterial hypertension @ rest (>200 sbp or dbp>110), tachy cardia @ rest/ marked abnormal bradycardia, uncontrolled metabolic disease/electrolyte abnormality
Relative vs absolute contraindication in absolute, no activity should be done until cleared by a physician due to extremely high risk; in relative, there should be caution with proceeding if BENEFITS outweigh RISK
Pretest instructions for subject prep remain in comfortable workout gear, medication information, food/water
What substances should be avoided pre-gxt alcohol, cigs, weed, recreational drugs, caffeine
How do we prep the skin for ekg placement no oils, minimize hair i.e. shave if needed
When do we alter site the standard lead electrode placement when there is a pacemaker or ICD
How should we select a protocol something repeatable and common
Categories of protocols we can select for gxt steady state vs ramp i.e. increasing intensity, maximal vs submaximal
What should we try to match in gxts work rate increments (in METS) to patient capabilities matching ADLs
Recommended gxt test duration 8-12mins
Main modalities of gxt treadmill, bike, cycle ergometer, arm ergmometer
Athletes should have a test that matches specificity of training
Two most common protocols balke, bruce
Things we monitor in appearance and quantifactions of symptoms regular communication with a thumbs up or down, RPE, handrail use, language translation
BORG rpe 6-20
Borg modified rpe 1-10
When do we terminate a submaximal gxt when a predetermined met level is met
When do we terminate most gxts onset of symptoms
What are the scales we use for angina, dyspnea, and PVD 1-4
What are 4 resting abnormalities we may see on an EKG left bundle branch block, right bundle branch block, premature heart contraction/pre-excitation syndrome, ST-T wave length changes (>1mm depression)
4 abnormalities on EKGs seen during exercise ST segment depression, ST segment elevation, T wave changes, arrhythmia
What abnormalities on an EKG causes us to stop the test immediately ST segment elevation
What does ST segment depression indicate subendocrdial ischemia
When are t wave changes a concern paired w st segment changes
What are the 3 things we assess for functional capacity ex duration, estimated METs, VO2max
How does vo2 max change with age avg 1% per year, 10% per decade; active individuals see about ½ this decrease
6 items to address when interpreting an ex test angina status, ekg findings on ischemia, ekg findings on arrhythmia, functional capacity, hr response, bp response
What are we addressing with angina status typical v. atypical v. none, time to onset, how it affected test, was it resolved
What are we addressing with ekg status on ischemia is there st segment depression
What are we addressing with functional capacity peak MET level compared to normal, and why we stopped
What are we addressing with HR and BP before, during, after
What do we do if a patient cannot exercise stress ekg w/imaging
Two types of stress ekgs we can complete EKG+echocardiogram/stress echo, EKG+radionuclide imaging/nuclear stress test
What does a stress echo assess wall motion abnormalities
What does a nuclear stress test assess distribution of blood flow
How do stress ekgs mimic exercise chemically inducing HR and BP increases
What is the name of the drug used in EKG stress and imaging dobutamine
The brighter the glow on the nuclear means more blood flow
Ex Rx does/does not require the approval of a physician does not
Purpose of ex rx provide a valid and safe ex guide for patient to improve health and physical activity
Common goals of ex rx improve appearance/QOL, weight management, pre-comp, general health, decrease disease burden
What type of goals are we setting with ex rx SMART goals
What does SMART goals stand for specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, timely
Specificity principle train for specific adaptations
Overload principle magnitude of stimulus/volume of ex and benefits gained
Reversibility principle if you don’t use it, you lose it
What does FITT stand for frequency, intensity, time, type
Intensity could be measured by vo2, HR, calories, watts, RPE
Type is synonymous with mode
Questions to ask about specificity specific goals (health/fitness vs performance), do you want to ex more, do you wanna do ADLs, do you wanna do something you cant
Questions to ask about mode what type of ex do you like best or least, what equipment do you have access to
Questions to ask about intensity how many days/week do you have available
Questions to ask about intensity are your goals around health or fitness improvement, do you have any possible impairments
Questions to ask about time how much time do you have a day, whats the best time, can you get up early/take a break/incorporate it somewhere else
Proper ex training sequence (4) warmup, aerobic session and/or resistance training, static stretching (not ballistic)
General recommendations for cardiac endurance dynamic large muscle activities, mimic ADLs
General recommendations for resistance full ROM, proper breathing (out during lift, in during recovery) and form (no back arch), control the movement especially during eccentric
3 types of flexibility training static, ballistic, PNF
Which type of training is not recommended for clinical populations ballistic
Static stretching stretching the muscles surrounding a joint without movement
Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) stretching isometric contraction, relax, then stretched again
Ballistic stretching rapid moving a muscle to stretch and relax quickly for several reps
ACSM recommendations are not realistic
Summary of acsm recommendations 3-5x a week, 20-60mins, 40-89% HRR/vo2max, moderate 40-59 or vigorous 60-89
Summary of acsm recs for deconditioned 2x a week, 10 mins a session, 40% HRR
Garder recommends to start with a ______ program and then ___ doable, progress
Minimum program requirements CR- 10min/bout, 2-3 times a week; Resistance- 2-3x; Flexibility/balance- as often as possible, can be done every day
Important things to monitor in ex BP before during after, s/s of intolerance, and partner training
What is diabetes mellitus a group of metabolic diseases
What is diabetes characterized by inability to produce sufficient insulin OR inability of insulin to function properly
What is the result of diabetes hyperglycemia, elevated blood sugar
What are the reasons diabetes is becoming an epidemic increase overweight/obesity, ore sedentary lifestyles, poor eating practices
Where does insulin come from beta cells in the islets of langerhans
What is the main organ associated with insulin production the pancreases
What is the function of insulin promoting tissues to remove and store glucose from the blood, as well as amino acids and fats
What is the main mechanism of t1d lack of insulin production, so there is nothing to regulate blood sugar
What is the main mechanism of t2d insulin is produced in smaller amts, remaining amts are not accepted and do not function properly so blood sugar cannot be properly regulated
What type of diabetes is preventable t2d
Type types of t1d immune mediated/juvenile onset, idiopathic
What causes immune mediated/juvenile onset t1d beta cells that create insulin are destroyed because they are wrongly targeted by immune system, leads to insulin deficiency
What type of diabetes is considered an autoimmune disease t1 immune mediated/juveline onset
What causes idiopathic t1d unknown
When does idiopathic t1d occur anytime
What is the cause of t2d multifactorial, combo of genetic predisposition and poor lifestyle choices
What are the 2 causes in t2d peripheral tissue becomes less sensitive and eventually resistant, beta cells decline in function leading to a loss of insulin secretion
Why is t2d no longer adult onset children have been developing t2 because of diabetes
What is the most common form of diabetes t2
What is the temporary type of diabetes gestational diabetes mellitus
when/how is gestational diabetes diagnosed 2nd/3rd trimester via oral glucose challenge
Gestational diabetes has an increased risk of t2d
What is the primary issue in diabetes hyperglycemia
Uncontrolled diabetes is characterized by being above the patients glycemic goal
s/s of uncontrolled diabetes dehydration, polyuria, headache, weakness, fatigue
How can uncontrolled diabetes be treated/managed hydration, bsugar monitoring, meds
What can happen if diabetes is not controlled diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome
What is diabetic ketoacidosis poor control that leads to the formation of ketones from ineffective fat metabolism
What is a ketone chemical byproduct from fat breakdown that causes an increase in blood acidosis
Which type is more prone to ketoacidosis t1
What is hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome a prolonged state of hyperglycemia due to illness/stress/no diagnosis
What are the s/s of Hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome severe dehydration, decreased mentation, possible coma
What type is Hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome more common in t2
What is the secondary important complication of diabetes hypoglycemia
What causes hypoglycemia too much insulin, too little carbs, missed meals, excessive ex
What are the 3 levels of complications macrovascular, microvascular, neuropathy
What are macrovascular complications disease in large vessels that supply the coronary arteries, cerebrum, and peripheries that leads to symptoms of PAD like IC and ex intolerance
What are the microvascular complications disease in smaller vessels that supply the eyes and kidneys
What is the effects of microvascular complications blindness, renal failure
What are the peripheral neuropathic complications loss of sense in periphery especially hands and feet
What are the autonomic neuropathic complications nerve damage that disrupts the ANS regulation of the systems i.e. abnormal HR, BP, etc
Why are diabetics are high risk for amputations multifactorial limb dysfunction
s/s of diabetes polydipsia, polyuria, weird weight loss, slow healing, blurry vision, fatigue
Important things needed in the med history for diabetics ex history, bw/bmi, blood sugar/nutrient/hemoglobin values, any other issues
What should we look for in the physical exam for diabetics poor eyesight, neuropathy, limb dysfunction/issues
3 criteria for prediabetes prediagnosis fasted b.s around 5,6-6.9mmol, two-hour bs 7.7-11.0mmol, a1c 5.7-6.4%
What is IFG impaired fasting glucose
What is IGT impaired glucose tolerance
What is characterized by IFC and IGT pre-diabetes
3 criteria for diabetes diangosis fasted bs >7mmol, two hr glucose >11.1, a1c>6.5
5 main forms of treatment for diabetes exercise, medical nutrition therapy (MNT), self monitor blood sugar, diabetes self management education, medication
What does MNT focus on for diabetes weight loss from meal replacement or bariatric surgery, only for extreme cases
Who can deliver diabetes self management education a certified diabetes educator, seperate certification
Blood glucose goals for diabetics fast 4.4<x<7.2, 2hr post <10, a1c<6.5-7%
When is ex testing necessary for diabetics when they are not well controlled and have other major risk factors
When is ex testing not necessary for diabetics when they have it well-controlled and no other major risk factors
When is ex testing beneficial for diabetics when vigorous training is planned or to develop a baseline for exrx
What is the recommended ex testing mode for diabetes treadmill or ergometer
What should a CEP ask a diabetic about prior to ex testing or training glucose levels, food intake, medications
How can chronic complications influence a diabetics gxt heart/peripheral disease can affect peripheral neuropathy i.e. decreased flow and feeling in limbs; can also decrease BP HR and redistribute blood flow
Acute benefits of ex for diabetics improve bsugar levels, more glucose control, better skeletal muscle use of glucose to decrease plasma glucose
Chronic benefits of ex for diabetics improved metabolic control, reduce hypertension, better bloop lipid, weight loss/management, prevention of t2d, psychological
Why is consistency important when exercising with diabetes insulin effects are loss if not training is not consistent
Definition of obesity excessive fat accumulation that is a risk to health
How is obesity rated using bmi
When do most obesity occurences occur 70 percent in adulthood
5 factors that affect obesity decreased physical activity, increased food intake, societal influence, individual psychology, biology
In regards to energy, obesity is the result of longstanding energy imbalance/positive energy balance, where More calories are consumed than expended over a long period of time
Obesity increases the risk of every comorbidity
s/s of of obesity fatigue, dyspnea, physical activity difficulty
What should you do at every visit with an obese patient review physical factors, assess ex history and progress
What is important to determine with obese patients before continuing with gxt and ex rx their readiness to change in the transtheoretical/stages of change model (based on 6 month blocks)
5 general treatments for obese patients diet therapy, behavioral therapy, exercise, pharmacotherapy, surgical
What is surgery reserved for severely obese patients
What is the treatment goal for obese patients bmi>25
Common percentage goal for obese patients 35% of current weight
What is important ot consider when developing obese patient goals SMART goals, especially with timeline and expectations, remain realistic
When should obese patients go to a more intensive strategy any CV risk factors or a CMR, weight loss failure, >25 lb/10% goal loss
When is meal replacement and pharmaco therapy introduced bmi>30
What is the basis of diet therapy calorie reduction based on RMR and physical activity
What is needed for 1 lb of fat weight loss -3500 deficit
Hypocaloric diet extreme diet with only 500-750 kcal/day
Two types of meal replacement diets partial or complete
Complete meal replacement is also very low calorie diet, VLCD
What is the goal of behavior therapy for the obese using behavior change theories to promote exercise adherence
Four theories/practices used for obese behavioral therapy stages of change, cognitive restructuring, individual/group therapy, lapse/relapse planning
What is cognitive restructuring changing the way someone thinks about ex to avoid an all or nothing success or fail mindset based on strict numbers
Weight loss is fastest in individuals when combined with diet and exercise behavior change
Weight loss drugs are recommended for what bmi >30
Most common weight loss drug glp1 agonists
Two types of glp1 agonists ozempic/wegovy/semaglutides, zepbound/tirzepatide
What is the fastest growing area of obesity treatment surgery
Restrictive effect of surgery stomach size reduction
Malabsorptive effect of surgery changing the GI to absorb fewer calories (gastric bypass)
What is/are metabolic syndromes a collection of interrelated cv/m risk factors that are present in a person more frequent than expected
Most common demographic of metabolic disease obese individuals
What risk is increased w/ metabolic syndrome atherosclerotic CV disease
Issues that combine and cause metabolic syndrome obesity/abdominal adiposity, insulin resistance, mitochondrial dysfunction
5 components of metabolic syndrome abdominal obesity, high fasted glucose, low HDL levels, hypertension, high triglycerides
What does metabolic syndrome normally lead to t2d and ascvd
Triglyceride criteria for metabolic syndrome >150
BP for metabolic syndrome SBP>130 or DBP>85
Blood glucose criteria for metabolic syndrome >100
How many of the component criterias reflect metabolic syndrome 3+
Main treatment goals for metabolic syndrome similar to obesity, weight loss, physical activity, improve diet, medications, or surgery
Is ex testing needed for obesity no
Is ex testing needed for metabolic syndrome no
What do we do when testing an obese individual w/ difficult walking different mode
Goal for ex rx for obesity/ms 2000+ kcal expended/week, combining aerobic and resistance to prevent sarcopenia
When should we focus on balance with obese ex rx extreme weight loss due to a shift in center of gravity
What is important for successful weight management a multifactoral approach
What should not be underestimated as an CEP when trying to develop programming and educate obese patients psychology, especially behavior therapy
3 layers of the myocardium epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
How does the myocardium receive blood coronary arties
What is an MI myocardial infarction, a blockage in coronary blood flow resulting in cell damage
How does ex training affect MI protects against heart damage
What is hematocrit percent of blood composed by RBCs
4 components of blood plasma, rbcs, wbcs, platelets
What % of blood is hematocrit 42
Formula for MAP DBP+0.33(SBP-DBP)
How does the pns regulate the heart via the vagus nerve, slow HR via SA/AV inhibition
What happens with a decrease in parasympathetic tone HR increase
What causes increase in HR at ex start parasympathetic withdrawal, then SNS simulation
What is heart rate variability time between heart beats, should be wide
What does low HRV mean low mortality
What is edv end diastolic volume, volume of blood in ventricles at end of diastole/preload
What is the frank starling mechanism increase edv means bigger contraction
What is edv dependent on venous return
How is venous return increased venoconstriction, skeletal muscle pump
How is sv regulated edv, avg aortic bp, contracility
What increases co increases hr and sv
At the same o2 uptake, ___ work causes higher hr and bp arms
What 4 diseases are included in cvd CHD, heart failure, hypertension, stroke
What is the leading cause of death in the US CVD
What % of cvd deaths are from chd 50
CHD is caused by acute coronary syndromes (ACS)
3 diseases of ACS unstable angina pectoris/chest pain, acute myocardial infarction/heart attack, potentially sudden cardiac death
What causes chest pain ischemia
What is ischemia decreased blood flow/oxygen
What is an acute MI death of cardiac muscle cells due to prolonged ischemia
What time of ___ causes acute MI occlusion; 60+ mins
What is potentially sudden cardiac death abrupt loss of heart function from electrical disturbances, normally triggered by an MI
4 layers of the artery endothelium, intima, media, adventitia
What layer is where athersclerotic lesions are formed intima
What is atherogenesis disease process that results in lesions that limit blood flow in important vessels
What are the 5 main vessels affected in atherogenesis epicardial coronary, carotid, iliac, femoral arteries, aorta
4 steps in the pathophysiology of atherogenesis endothelial injury, inflammatory response, endothelial dysfunction, plaque formation
In atherogenesis endothelial injury is ___ and/or ____ chronic, excessive
What are 5 causes endothelial injury LDL cholesterol, hypertension, glycated substances (side effect of diabetic hyperglycemia), infectious agents, tobacco smoke/irritants
What is the inflammatory response of atherogenesis a product of chronic/excessive injury
Components of the inflammatory response in atherogenes platelet aggregation, monocyte accumulation, LDL/foam cell accumulation
What causes endothelial dysfunction chronic endothelial injury
3 mechanisms of endothelial dysfunction increased adhessiveness of platelets/monocytes to artery, increase lipoprotein permeability, impaired vasodilation/increased vasospasm
How do plaques form in atherogenesis platelets cause the growth, lesion starts at intima and goes to other layers that causes a narrowing of the lumen
Physical description of plaque firm, pale gray plaque and a fibrous cap
How does atherogensis progression vary based on size/volume of lesions and its stability
Why is there a risk of embolus in atherogenesis plaque rupture of fibrous cap can dislodge and cause obstruction
How do we diagnose acute coronary syndromes via clinical assessments
What do we look for in ACS clin. assessment symptoms history, a painless MI, dyspnea (labored breathing), and atypical symptoms
Things to look for in the physical exam for ACS bp variations, diaphoresis, sinus tachycardia @ rest, tachypnea, heart murmurs, lung crackling
What is diaphoresis excessive sweating
What is tachypnea rapid breathing
4 testing mechanisms for ACS ekg, echocardiogram, chest xray, lab results
What manifests on an EKG that indicates ACS ST elevation/STEMi, T wave abnormalities
Echos can show area of heart damage
Chest xrays can show heart size and pulmonary edema
Lab results can show the presence of ___ in ACS cardiac troponin cTn
What do elevated cTn levels indicate heart muscle is damaged, likely NSTEMI or STEMI
Two classifications of an acute MI NSTEMI, STEMI
NSTEMI vs STEMI one has st elevation, one does not; NSTEMI is only partial and less damage
Triad variables of acute mi >30 min chest pain, ST seg/T wave changes on EKG, biomarkers of myocyte necrosis (cTn)
How many variables are needed for acute MI diagnosis 2 of 3
STEMI is classified by extensive damage from a completely occluded coronary artery
NSTEMi is classified by less damage due to clot dissolution
Most common treatments for acs, especially most MI antiplatelets, beta blockers, ace inhibitors, statin
What is a non-medication treatment for acs reperfusion therapy
Two types of reperfusion therapy percutaneous coronary intervention/coronary catheterization, coronary artery bypass graft surgery (CABG)
What are the 4 factors associated w/ poor prognosis LVEF <35 percent or CHF, <5 met ex capacity, proof of bad ischemia during ex/pharmacy testing, complications like renal failure or stroke
What is CHF congestive heart failure
What is lvef left ventricle ejection fraction
Benefits for ex testing after MI evaluate s/s and ischemia, determine need for angiography, effectiveness of meda, assess the future, determine ex capacity
What bp has bad prognosis failure of SBP to increase >10mm
3 locations for ex rx for acs inpatient rehab, initial home rx, outpatient cardiac rehab
What are the goals of inpatient rehab 2-3 days to discharge, get mobile and active asap, prevent a 2nd coronary episode
In inpatient rehab, how is 2ndary coronary prevention promoted med adherence, diet, ex, stop smoking
What should intensity be for acs patients below the ischemic threshold (where ischemia comes on) via using RPE instead of HRR
What should be an extra focus of acs patients chest stretching post open heart surgery
What is the 3 purposes of heart revascularization restore myocardial bflow, symptom reflief, improve life prognosis
4 heart revascularization procedures angiography, percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), stent therapy, coronary artery bypass surgery (CABG)
What is a coronary angiography a catheter is inserted in leg up to aorta, stops at LCA, put in a contrast agent to show location of stenosis
What is a PTCA revascularization completed by inserting a catheter to the site of the coronary lesion to compress, redistribute, or remove plaque
3 types of ptca’s balloon angioplasty, atherectomy, laser angioplasty
Balloon angioplasty balloon catheter inflated to stretch vessel and increase diameter
atherectomy plaque removal via a blade catheter
Laser angioplasty beam used to vaporize plaque into water+gas
PTCAs are recommended for people who (2) 1-2 vessels, especially coronary, that are narrowed/blocked; Ejection Fraction equal to or greater than 55%
Why is ejection fraction around 55% and <2 vessels recommended PTCA less severe damage, so less invasive surgery compared to CABG to restore function
What is stent therapy revascularization by reducing acute closures, restenosis of coronary arteries after PTCA
What should precede stent therapy a ptca
What is restenosis re-narrowing of an artery after it has been treated
What causes restenosis scar tissue or rebuilding of plaque
What is the old method of stents bare metal coiled + oral anticoagulation
What is the new method of stents steel mesh, drug eluting sten + oral anticoagulation meds
Which method of stents are latticed new
What is endothelial hyperplasia overgrowth of endothelial/muscle tissues inside an artery where a stent was placed
What causes endothelial hyperplasia over-healing response from the endothelium that causes the narrowing of the stent
What does endothelial hyperplasia lead to restenosis
What are future stents hoping to be made of biodegradable polymer resins
How do the new future stents affect restenosis reduce endothelial hyperplasia and late stent thrombosis
What is late stent thrombosis formation of a blood clot inside a stent
Coronary artery bypass surgery (CABG) revascularization of the heart via a venous graft from arm/leg or an arterial graft to create a bypass (like a detour) around the damaged vessel
Who is cabg reserved for ptca failure, patients who cant get an angioplasty but have vessels that can preserve left systolic function, multivessel disease not fixable by angioplasty or stenting, technically difficult lesions
example(s) of technically difficult lesions on the curve, distal location
Order of least to most invasive surgeries ptca, stents, cabg
Where do thoracotomies occur side of chest thru the ribs
What is a sternotomy surgical incision down the midline of the sternum
Conventional sternotomy most invasive, open chest
Two types of minimal incision surgeries right anterior thoracotomy, mini sternotomy
Which surgery does not require splitting the sternum right anterior thoracotomy
CABG is highly invasive
What is the size of the incision in a sternotomy CABG 8-10in
When and what is a heart lung machine used for cabg open sternotomy, to move blood away from the heart
How is the heart revascularized in a cabg a healthy vein or artery is used to make a new path around the blocked artery
How is the breastbone closed wire
What predicts the success rate of a revascularization procedure severity of lesion, location of lesion, comorbidities, age
Post cardiac revascularization, what ex begins immediately mobilization and cardiac rehab
What is the educational focus on for cardiac revasc patients meds, home activity, following up
What should ex focus on once out of the hospital for cardiac revasc patients improve cardiac performance (rest and ex), improve ex capacity, improve angine-free ex tolerance
How is angina free exercise tolerance increased peripheral muscular adaptations
What is the primary issue with ptca restenosis
What are we always looking for in ex with ptca patients angina s/s
When should outpatient ex programs begin for ptca patients post discharge
What are the primary concerns with exercise for cabg patients incision healing, sternal stability (if open heart), soreness/stiffness, hypovolemia, low hemoglobin
What is hypovolemia loss in blood volume post surgery
How does hypovolemia affect ex decreased cardiac output
What causes low hemoglobin concentrations blood loss during surgery
How does low hb limit ex less o2 carrying capacity which limits exercise ability and causes faster fatigue
What is peripheral artery disease (PAD) blockage of leg arteries from plaque that leads to a narrowing of arteries in the lower extremities
What is the result of PAD decreased blow to leg muscles
What % of PAD patients have intermittent claudication 35-40
What % of PAD patients experience critical limb ischemia 1-2
Most common risk factors for pad diabetes, smoking, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, increased blood viscosity
What do pad patients have an increased risk of CV and cerebrovascular disease
PAD has the same pathophysiology as atherogenesis
Number one sign of pad intermittent claudication
What is intermittent claudication basically angina in leg, pain cramping aching
Provocation and palliation of PAD increases with physical exertion, decrease with rest
Most common location of IC calf
Why is the calf the most common IC location gastrocnemius has an increase in 02 consumption during walking, but PAD cannot deliver o2 to lower extremities
What does IC in the thighs/butt indicate pad in profunda femoris, more risk of critical limb ischemia
What is critical limb ischemia chronic ischemia at rest from severe pad
Side effects of chronic limb ischemia ischemia at rest, even when lying down, foot ulcers/sores that dont heal due to lack of blood, gangrene
What is gangrene tissue necrosis
What does chronic limb ischemia normally lead to when untreated amputation
3 types of assessments for pad scales, imaging, hemodynamic
2 scales used to asses for pad fontaine, rutherford
What is the fontaine scale I, IIa, IIb, III, IV
Fontaine stage I asyomptatic due to incomplete blood vessel obstruction
Fontaine stage IIa mild claudication in limb
Fontaine stage IIb moderate to severe limb claudication
Fontaine stage III ischemic pain at rest in feet/beginnig of critical limb ischemia
Fontaine stage IV ulcers, necrosis of limb
Rutherford scale scale of 1-6 with objective criteria
Rutherford Category 0 asymptomatic
Rutherford Category 1 mild claufication, ankle pressure > 50 but >20 lower than resting
Rutherford Category 2 more than 1 but not meeting 3
Rutherford Category 3- cant complete standard treadmill, ankle pressure <50
Rutherford Category 4 ischemic rest pain, ankle pressure <40, flat/barely there ankle pulse volume recording, transmetatarsal pressure < 30
Where is transmetatarsal pressure taken across foot, just behind toes
Rutherford Category 5 minor tissue loss, nonhealing ulcers, ankle pressure <60 at rest, toe pressure <40
Rutherford Category 6 same as 5, but non salvageable foot
Two types of imaging for pad assessment ct angiography, mri angiography
What do imaging studies provide for pad anatomic detail
What is the first choiceof imaging for pad ct angiography
What does ct angiography do detailed imagine of blood vessels/tissue via an iodine contrast injection
Which imaging technique can be used with/without contrast MRI angiography
How does mri angiography get an image radio frequency waves to give an image of the vessels
Disadvantage of ct angio ionizing radiation and nephrotoxic contrast
Disadvantage of mri angiography more cost, complicated, cant be used w pacemakers, hard to see stents
What do hemodynamic studies show functional info via pressure measurements
4 types of hemodynamic studies used to diagnose pad ankle-brachial index (ABI), toe pressure/toe-brachial index, segmented limb pressures, transcutaneous O2 pressure
What is the most common hemodynamic test to diagnose pad ankle brachial index
What is the ankle brachial index assessment of the pressure differences between the brachial artery and dorsalis pedis/posterior tibial arties using BP cuffs and a ultrasound probe
What are the two anatomical locations at the ankle used for the ABI dorsalis pedis arteries, posterior tibial arteries
What are segmental limb pressures bp measures at diff segments of the leg
What is transcutaneous o2 pressure a skin sensor that detects o2 delivery to tissue
Two categories of PAD treatment optimal medical treatment, revascularization
What are the components of pad optimal medical treatment minimizing risk factors, antiplately agents, improve claudication
What drug is shown to improve IC cilostazol
What drug could possibly improve IC ace inhibitors
Two categories of vascularization techniques for pad surgical bypass or endovascular
What are the 4 types of revascularization procedures for cad the same as those treating acs, ptca, stents, atherectomy, bypass
____ may persist in pad patients after treatment claudication
What needs to be measured before and after testing in pad patients ABI
What is the goal of ex testing in pad patients define their functional limitations, especially walking/prosthetics
What are we examining with cardio testing in pad patients is there IC, at what point in time and intensity does it appear
PAD ex testing protocol treadmill at a constant 2mph, 2% grade increase every 2 mins, end at intolerance
What is abnormal pre/post abi for pad ex testing ankle pressure drop by >30 or >20% of baseline, taking >3min to normalize
What is the alternative ex testing to the modified treadmill for pad testing 6 min walk
What is the purpose of a 6min walk test for pad patients to predict functional capacity based on distance
___ percent of PAD patients cant complete treadmill walking 16
Alternative modalities for pad patients arm/leg ergometry, recumbent stair stepping
low/high intensity training is beneficial for pad patients low
What guides intensity ex rx for pad patients IC symptoms
What type of training is preferred for pad patients supervised
What should ceps focus on as intensity increases with pad patients potential cvd symptoms due to high rates of comorbid cad
Benefits of ex for pad patients increased walk distance, higher ischemic threshold/time to IC onset increases, decrease risk of CV event
What is the primary goal of training for pad patients increase walking distance
What are the benefits of increase walking distance in pad patients increased angiogenesis and circulation, increase blow, increase o2/substrate filtration from improved metabolism, increased pain tolerance, increased endothelial function, decreased blood viscosity and severity of atherosclerosis
Common age for pacemakers >65 yrs
Why is the number of pacemakers growing more elderly ppl
Normal pathway of an electrical conduction SA to AV to bundle of His to right/left ventricular branches to Purkinje fibers
2 main Types of cardiac electrical problems sick sinus syndrome, AV conduction block
Sick sinus syndrome (SSS) heart rhythm disorder at the SA node that causes the inability to generate a heartbeat/increase HR as a response
What does SSS result in bradycardia, long HR pauses, irregular heart beats
Symptoms of SSS heart palpitations, angina, fatigue, light headness, ex intolerance, syncope
SSS on an EKG will display long pauses between HR, then abnormal beats
AV conduction block loss of AV synchrony, more serious, same s/s as SSS
What is the goal of the pacemaker regulate HR, synchronize the heart, defibrillate if there is an arrhythmia
Pacemakers are pulse generators
3 components of a pacemaker metal case (circuit), lithium battery, 2-3 pacing leads, and an activity sensor on the circuit
Pacemaker implantation is fast and noninvasive
Where are pacemakers placed just below skin, inferior to left clavicle
3 types of pacemakers temporary external pacemakers, permanent pacemakers, AICD
When do we use temporary external pacemakers in emergency or ICU cases as a temporary fix until permanent pacemaker is placed
Where are the pacemaker leads placed in the superior vena cava
Physiological pacing sequence and timing of contractions between atria and ventricles to overcome chronotropic incompetence
What is chronotropic incompetence the inability of the heart to increase its rate appropriately during ex/stress
What are the two types of physiological pacing fixed rate vs rate responsive
Av timing interval signals ventricles to contract
Optimal av delay how fast ventricle contracts optimally, should be 150ms from beg of atrial depolarization
Maximal tracking rate highest pacing rate allowed, normally 110-150bpm
Single chamber 1 lead to RA
When is single chamber pacing used bradycardia without av block
Dual chamber 1 lead to rv, 1 lead to ra
When is dual chamber pacing used bradycardia w av block
Max number of letters in a pacemaker code 5
First letter of pacemaker code chamber paced
4 options for 1st pacemaker code letter A, V, D, o
What does D mean in pacemaker coding both atria and ventricle
What chamber side do pacemakers always regulate right
2nd letter of pacemaker code chamber sensed
The 2nd letter of pacemaker code has the same options as the first letter
4 options for 3rd letter of pacemaker code T, I, D,o
Third option of pacemaker code represents how the pacemaker responds
What does the T in the 3rd letter of pacemaker code represent triggered
What does the I in the 3rd letter of pacemaker code represent inhibited
What does the D in the 3rd letter of pacemaker code represent dual, pacemaker can trigger or inhibit
Fourth letter of pacemaker code programmable features
4 letter options on 4th letter of pacemaker code P, M, R, o
What does the P in the 4th letter of pacemaker code represent rate/output
What does the M in the 4th letter of pacemaker code represent multiprogrammable
What does the R in the 4th letter of pacemaker code represent rate responsive
Fifth letter of pacemaker code multisite pacing/dual function
4 letter options on 5th letter of pacemaker code P, S, D, o
What does the P in the 5th letter of pacemaker code represent pacing
What does the S in the 5th letter of pacemaker code represent shock
What does the D in the 5th letter of pacemaker code represent dual, both pacing and shock
Ex testing with a pacemakers requires _____ for optimal functional response adjustment
For pacemaker patients, ex testing determines anginal threshold
Formal ex testing for pacemaker bruce protocol
Informal ex testing for pacemaker Chronotropic assessment exercise protocol
What is a Chronotropic assessment exercise protocol a stress test to evaluate hr increase, can just be a modified bruce to monitor hr
Why is it important to know about the type of pacemaker fixed rate operates differently than rate responsive
Difference between fixed rate vs rate reactive fixed rate fires at one constant hr and does not adjust, stressing SV during ex; rate response fluctuates based on body sensors that detect activity and adjust properly
What should you expect to happen to hr with a fixed rate hr stay the same
What can happen with abrupt hr decreases and pacemakers side effects of a quick drop like dizziness, lightheadness, fall risk
Type of rate responsive sensor can cause variations based on mode
What type of modes cannot be used in ex rx contact sports because there is a risk of direct pacemaker contact
What is an AICD automatic internal cardioverter defibrillator
Who gets an AICD high risk candidates with high MI risk from previous event
How is an AICD different from a standard pacemaker includes a shock when life threatening arrhythmia is there
What do you need to avoid with an AICD threshold hr that would cause a shock
How should we adjust hr for aicd patients train at least 20 bpm below preset shock hr
COPD a disease characterized by the presence of airflow obstruction from either chronic bronchitis or emphysema
Two main components of copd chronic bronchitis, emphysema
What is chronic bronchitis the presence of a productive cough, most days, 3 consecutive months in each of 2 years
Emphysema is a pathological/anatomical diagnosis marked by 1, permanent enlargement of the respiratory bronchioles/alveoli and 2, destruction of the lung parenchyma w/out obvious fibrosis
Two defining factors of emphysema permanent bronchiole/alveoli enlargement, lung parenchyma destruction
What happens to bronchioles in copd lose their shape and become clogged w mucus
What happens to the alveoli walls in copd become destroyed, decrease alveoli number but increases their size
Most common copd sign cachexia
What is cachexia a substantial loss of muscle mass and strength
3 main causes of copd smoking, environment, Alpha-1antitrypsin deficiency
What percent of copd cases are from cigarette smoking 85-90
How can the environment cause copd long term exposure to pollutants
What is the genetic deficiency that causes copd alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Pathophysio of chronic bronchitis excessive cough and phlegm, enlarged bronchioles, obstructed airflow from mucus and inflammation
What happens to smooth muscle with chronic bronchitis smooth muscle hypertrophy
7 mechanisms of emphysema pathophysiology alveoli lose parenchymal tethering, loss of lung elasticity/recoil, reduced expiratory airflow, increased work to breathe, lungs hyperinflated, flattened diaphragm, barrel chest
What happens when alveoli lose parenchymal tethering they collapse
Why do lungs hyperinflate air gets stuck, dead air
Why does the diaphragm flatten lungs hyperinflate and press against the diaphragm
Why does barrel chest occur lungs are hyperinflated permanently and push out against the ribs
Chronic bronchitis and emphysema have ___ causes similar
Why does the lumen of the airways become obstructed mucus hypersecretion
How do we clinically test lung function spirometry
What does spirometry measure airflow over time during respiratory maneuvers
What do we compare copd values with predicted normal values based on age and sex
How is fev1 affected in copd FEV1/forced expiratory volume in one second is reduced
What is fev1 a predictor of survival
How is the forced vital capacity (FVC) affected in copd reduced
How is total lung capacity (TLC) affected in copd increased
How does the flow volume tracings of a copd patient compared significantl reduced inspiratory and expiratory values
5 common comorbidities of copd hypoxemia/hypercapnia, cvd, limb muscle atrophy/muscle contractile dysfunction, physical inactivity/deconditioning, malnutrition
s/s of copd cough, pus mucus production, dyspnea, fever, wheezing
What history of pack years suggest copd 70+
What is a pack year x amount of packs a day/years been smoking
What are the most common measurement to assess presence and severity of copd lung volume measurements fev1, fvc, fev1/fv, tlc
What are other ways to assess copd arterial blood gasses, chest xray, computed tomography
What branch of copd will show in a chest xray emphysema, enlarged lungs
What comorbidities affect ex testing with copd frailty, inactivity, cv disease, malnutrition
What happens with exercise for copd patients abnormal responses
What shows as decreased in copd patients peak work rate, o2 consumption, hr, ventilation; ventilatory reserve, arterial pO2 and o2 saturation
What increases in copd patients hrr
What occurs at a lower work rate in copd patients lactate threshold
What is absent in copd patients during ex ventilatory threshold
Tests of functional capacity in copd patients 6min walk test, sit to stand
Why are alternative tests of functional capacity preferred in copd patients predictive, easier access, can use in gerontology
4 main treatments for copd smoking cessation, O2 therapy, medications, pulmonary rehab
How much O2 therapy increases survival rates >15hrs
What is the goal of O2 therapy arterial pO2 >60 or HgbO2 >90
What is the goal of pharmacy treatment in copd reduce symptom and complications, especially inflammation, bronchoconstriction and inflections
How does pulmonary rehab treat copd decrease functional impairment to improve quality of life
Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder
What causes recurrent asthma episodes airway hyperresponsiveness that leads to airflow obstruction
Symptoms of asthma wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, coughing
Most common time for asthma episodes night or early AM
How are asthma episodes resolved spontaneously or with treatment
Asthma episodes are ____ unlike copd reversible
When does asthma normally begin childhood
What populations have higher asthma incidence innercity blacks
What causes the bodys predisposition to airway hyperresponsiveness genetics and innate immunity/factors of the host
What promotes inflammation and how cd4 lymphocytes, they activate eosinophils and mast cells
What causes airway hyperresponsiveness environmental stimuli/pathogens or cold air
Acute process of asthma inflammation causes bronchoconstriction, mucus secretion, and swelling that obstructs the airflow
Asthma attacks are episodic
Chronic process of asthma results in (4) damaged airway epithelium, fibrosis from collagen deposition, smooth muscle hypertrophy/hyperplasia, angiogenesis
What can impede asthma diagnosis intermittent episodes i.e. not constantly occurring
Possible asthma attack stimuli allergens, season rhinitis (runny nose), dust mites, smoke/fumes, cold air, exercise
3 main things we use to diagnose asthma medical history, physical chest exam/lungs, spirometry
What fev1 value do asthmatics display <80 percent of predicted
What fev1/fvc value do asthmatics display <65 percent predicted
What happens to the flow volume loop in asthmatics altered, does not meet predicted values
What are the other clinical assessments of asthma xray, phlegm production, possible other causes of symptoms like pneumonia or pneumothorax
What is ex testing used for in asthmatics to assess a decline in tolerance unrelated to airflow limitation
What type of gxt do we use for asthmatics symptom limited incremental test
What do we measure during ex test of asthmatics HbO2 saturation, ekg, Vo2 cart
Contraindications for ex testing in asthmatics acute bronchospasm, exercise induce bronchoconstriction, chest pain, elevated shortness of breath, severe deconditioning, orthopedic limits
Asthma treatment is focused on prevention of future episodes rather than reversal
How to prevent exercise induced bronchospasms mask/scarf from cold, or medications BEFORE EXERCISE
Exposure to what should be minimized to prevent eib cold hair, low humidity, air pollutants
What ex is better for asthmatics intermittent ex, low-intensity sports in warm, humid air
Asthma is airway _____ then airway _____ narrowing, inflammation
arthritis a generic term for conditions that involve inflammation of 1+ joints
How many different forms of arthritis are there 100+
What characterized the diff types of arthritis various degrees of joint damage, movement restriction, functional limits, and pain
3 main branches of arthritis osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis
What is the leading cause of disability in the US arthritis
How does arthritis affect social functioning isolation, stress, depression, decreased QOL
What is the most common form of arthritis osteoarthritis
What is most affected by osteoarthritis hands, feet, spine, weight bearing joints
What is the secondary issue of osteoarthritis loss of strength due to reduced movement
Osteoarthritis is characterized by continuous abnormal remodeling of joint tissues
What does osteoarthritis result in loss of cartilage, bone on bone, periarticular muscle loss, strained/weak ligaments, pain
Osteoarthritis leads to decreased ____ because of decreased movement strength
What does bone on bone lead to inflammation
What is periarticular muscle loss muscle atrophy around ligaments
6 steps of osteoarthritis cartilage becomes damaged/rough, bone thickens to reduce load, synovial membrane swells + increase fluid, ligaments thicken, joint space narrows, cartilage is lost w/ bone on bone inflammation and ligaments are weak
Bone spurs form in osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis a chronic autoimmune disorder that leads to systemic inflammation and symmetrical polyarthritis
What is symmetrical polyarthritis affecting joints, 2 on each side and symmetrical
Who is systemic arthritis more common in women
What is the principal target of rheumatoid arthritis synovial joints
What is synovitis inflammation of the synovial joint
Effects of rheumatoid arthritis muscle loss, increase fat, fatigue, cvd and md, t2d, osteoporosis
5 steps in the process of rheumatoid arthritis chronic immune dysfunction that attacks tissue and joints, synovitis from excess fluid + synovial cell hyperplasia (overgrowth), pannus, cartilage/bone erosion, joint destruction and ankylosis
What is pannus abnormal tissue layers over the joint
What is ankylosis the stifferning of the joints that restricts movement
Which type of arthritis is more wear and tear oa
Which type of arthritis is asymmetric oa
Which type of arthritis occurs more often in younger populations ra
Which type of arthritis has obvious inflammation ra
What is ankylosing spondylitis chronic autoimmune disorder that effects the spine and sacroiliac joint, as well as synovitis in peripheral joints
What gender is AS more common men
Process of ankylosing spondylitis chronic autoimmune, lower spine ligament inflammation, bone spurs within ligaments, bridge formation between vertebrae that leads to fusion, lower back pain and immobility
Where are bone spurs most common AS and OA
What does arthritis have secondary effects on exercise tolerance, strength, endurance, aerobic capacity, ROM, biomechanics, proprioception, social functioning
3 stages of arthritis acute/mild, chronic/moderate, severe
Acute arthritis reversible s/s
Chronic arthritis stable but irreversible structural damage
Severe arthritis increased pain, decrease ROM and function
s/s with related joints pain, stiffness,effusion, joint locking, synovitis, deformity, crepitus, bone spurs
What is effusion water/fluid around the joint
What is crepitus abnormal popping/cracking
What is synovitis inflammation of synovial joint membrane
Is there a genetic component of arthritis yes
What can be useful to diagnose specific type of arthritis extra articular features
Examples of extra articular features redness, swelling, pain, heat
What is the test/marker for arthritis none exists
What can help in arthritis type differentiation serum/synovial fluid tests
What tests can assess severity and abnormalities joint imaging, mri, ultrasound
What type of arthritis is at risk for cvd ra
What type of arthritic individuals are at risk for CMR disease sedentary
______ and _____ testing can be performed to make a baseline for ex rx change musculoskeletal, ROM
How should intensity be done in arthritis small increases
When should treadmill be used in arthritis minimal to mild joint impairment
When should cycle ergo be used in arthritis mild/moderate lower extremity joint impairment
When should arm ergo be used in arthritis severe lower extremity impairment
What is the main emphasis of arthritis treatment emphasizing both ex and medication to control disease
4 main goals of arthritis treatment promote activity, control symptoms/improve function, healthy body comp, reduce comorbid risk
Non pharmacologic treatments for arthritis education, pt/ot, braces/bandages, canes/walk aids, shoe mods/orthotics, ice/heat, weight loss, avoid repeat motion jobs, joint irrigation/surgery
What do pharmacy treatments vary based on for arthritis severity and form
Most common meds for arthritis NSAIDs, analgesics, corticosteroids
What are DMARDs disease modfying antirheumatic drugs
What do DMARDs treat RA and AS
Main ex rx goals for arthritis maintain physical function, improve body comp/weight, reduce inflammation/pain, prevent contractures and deformities
Ex rx for arthritis should avoid ____ ____ high impact
What time of day should ex avoid in arthritis morning stiffness or the cold
Why do some patients avoid water with arthritis chlroine can cause rash/inflammation
How does footwear/orthotics help more support to perform adls
AS leads to ____ which may require a ___ ___ bad posture, back brace
Corticosteroids are important to consider as they may cause long term bone loss and atrophy because of cortisol mimicking
KAATSU study showed that lower load training with blood flow restriction leads to less joint stress
How did the s/s of arthritis improve in the KAATSU study decreased inflammation via increased blood flow to problematic areas to remove and filter inflammation better
osteoporosis skeletal disorder characterized by compromised bone strength that increases fracture risk
Criteria for osteoporosis bone mineral density (BMD) 2.5 std dev below mean/t score -2.5
osteopenia less severe form of osteoporosis
Criteria for osteopenia BMD t score between -2.5 and -1
When is a majority of bone mass made childhood
When is peak bone mass 20-30 years
What hormone inhibits bone resorption/breakdown estrogen
When does osteoporosis prevention begin childhood
What influences bone development genetics, physical activity, diet, hormone balance
What is bone remodeling a naturally occurring cycle of bone resorption and bone formation
What is bone resorption breakdown of bone by osteoclasts
What is bone formation production/mineralization of bone by osteoblasts
What happens what resorption>formation bone loss
s/s of osteoporosis asymptomatic, maybe a fracture
Risk factors for osteoporosis sedentary, diet, post menopausal
What is the biggest red flag for osteoporosis an abnormally caused fracture
Signs of vertebral frx height loss, protruding abdomen, hyperkyphosis, posture changes
What is hyperkyphosis excessive rounding of upper back/thoracic spine
What to look for in history/exam for osteoporosis fracture risk (FRAX), fall risk, physical state, posture
What is the frax fracture risk assessment that looks at 10 year probability based on algorithms and other risk factors like glucocorticoids or history
What is the minimum age to use frax 40 years
What is the diagnostic tool used for osteoporosis bone mineral density
What method gathers bmd dxa scan
What location is used for the diagnosis of osteoporosis/10 year risk femoral hip bmd
What location bmd can assist diagnosis lumbar spine
How does ex affect bone mass can increase or maintain bone mass
What vitamins can increase bone mass or slow loss calcium, vitamin D
What decreases osteoclast activity biphosphonates
What hormones decrease osteoclast activity calcitonin, estrogen
What increases bone turnover parathyroid hormone
Contraindications of osteoporosis there are none
What type of ex should be avoided with osteoporosis high impact skeletal loading like jumping
Goals of osteoporosis ex rx reduce fractures via fall prevention, reduce bone loss, promotre spine-sparing strategies aka proper form
What type of exercise is osteogenic load bearing, high load, few reps
4 progressions of fall prevention reduce base support (close feet to 1 foot), shift weight, reduce support contact, change sensory input (close eyes)
8 examples of fall prevention ex heel lifts, single knee lift, alternate step march, leg extension, knee curl, sit to stand, walking, heel to toe walking
gerontology study of the aging process from maturity to death
geriatrics branch of clinical medicine that includes diagnosing/managing older individuals
Why is there a pressure on health care bc of geriatrics costs 4-5x to expend and maintain, esp >80
What causes severe functional limitations in older individuals intrinsic aging, comorbidities, deconditioning
Aging increases the risk of pretty much every comorbidity
Why does peak vo2 decline max hr decline 1bpm/year, decreased avO2, deconditioning, muscle disease
Most common s/s of older individuals arthritis pain, dyspnea from deconditioning or cv/lung disease
What should ceps look specifically at for older ppl typical conditions of aging and medication use as well as cognition
In old ppl, who can begin ex without a test? What type? healthy older adults, low to moderate intensity
In old ppl, who needs an ex test? high risk or wanting to do high intensity vigorous
What should be tested before older ppl do resistance training strength and ROM
Common pretraining evals for adults chair stand, step ups, walking speed, tandem walk, one leg stand, functional reach, timed up and go, ROM
polypharmacy taking many medications
Why is polypharmacy important need to understand how meds interact and their effect on ex measures
What type of ex is encouraged in older individuals group classes
Why are warm ups and cool downs important in older individuals bodies take longer to reach/recover homeostasis following changes
How often can fall prevention ex be completed every day
pediatrics branch of medicine concerned w children and their diseases
children infancy/birth to adolescence, puberty until growth stops
Who is not considered a clinical population children
Why is aerobic fitness difficult measure in kids increased physical activity but not a resulting in increased aerobic capacity
How is hr affecting in children wider variation in response
How do children perceive intensity compared to adults see it as less difficult
Kids have a higher/lower vo2 max lower
Common diseases increasing in number in kids t2d, hypertension, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome
What is causing increased amt of ex testing in kids increase in obesity
When are ex evaluations used in kids only if absolutely necessary
What is ex evaluation dependent on in kids s/s to help diagnose or develop treatment plan
6 common reasons for pediatric gxt evaluate specific s/s that happen in ex, find abnormal ex responses in kids w/ cmr orders, especially MI and arrhythmias, assess efficiency of medical/surgical treatment, asses functional capacity, evaluate prognosis, find baseline for rehab
What is the goal of a kids history and physical exam ensure testing benefits outweigh risk
Why do kids have problems with equipment its designed for adults, not their body size
How may kids peak performance be affected may be poor
What issues occur with long protocols short attention spans, poor motivation
What are the 5 modifications we can make for kids ex test safe environment, 2 testers/spotters, explain test to kid and parent, modify equipment for proper size, motivate/encourage the kid
What are the two primary modalities for kids treadmill, cycle ergometer, arm only if population equipment
Contraindications for terminated gxt in kids diagnostic findings have been found, s/s indicate possibility of adverse event
What are the three levels of training goals in kids basic, intermediate, athletics
Exrx aerobic training in kids b- movement/play, i- fitness principles/higher intensity/sports, a-structured sport training
Benefits of resistance training in kids improve strength/endurance, enhance motor skills, injury protection, psychological benefits
Exrx resistance training in kids b- use bw and large muscles, i- machines and overload, a- sport/multi joint specific and progressive overload
What is the key to proper technique supervision
Exrx ROM/stretching in kids b- static major stretch, i- static+ dynamic, a- sports specific and dynamic
What declines as kids age flexibility
What should we use to measure intensity in kids omni rpe
Kids have greater risk of heat related illness and dehydration
Kids have higher/lower sweat rate lower
Kids bodies cool faster/slower in water faster
What is it important to consider with meds and kids many drugs are not developed for kids, so may have different interactions and side effects
Who do kids rely on for meds adherence their parents
Kids should be exercising every day
Two types of stroke ischemic, hemorrhagic
What gender has a higher stroke risk women
Why do women have a higher risk of stroke longer life, increase cvd risk w menopause
Ischemic stroke loss of blow to a region caused by buildup of atherosclerotic plaque in cerebrovascular arteries
Most common type of stroke ischemic
Process of ischemic stroke blood flow to brain blocked by a clot formation in a vessel
Two categories of ischemic stroke thrombotic, embolic
What occurs in a thrombotic stroke blood clot/thrombus blocks flow of blood in brain
What occurs in a embolic stroke fatty plaque or blood clot/embolism breaks away and flows to brain where it blocks an artery
Stroke has the same pathophysiology beginnings as cvd and pad
Hemorrhagic stroke excessive bleeding in a cerebral artery that prevents blood from flowing to brain cells down the stream
What type of stroke has a higher chance of death hemorrhagic
Process of hemorrhagic stroke bflow to brain blocked via a leak/rupture of vessel
Two types of hemorrhagic stroke subarachnoid, intracerebral
Subarachnoid stroke bleed into subarachnoid space and the meninges (tissue that covers brain)
What normally causes a subarchnoid stroke an aneurysm, where the blocked vessel weakens and bursts
Intracerebral hemorrhage within the brain and brain tissue, normally caused by hypertension that weakens the vessel
What type of hemorrhagic stroke is more common intracerebral
What are the risk factors for stroke same as cvd and pad
s/s of stroke memory loss, paralysis on opposite side of body
s/s of right brain damage vision issues, awakward/inappropriate
s/s of left brain damage speech/language issues, extremely cautious
Acute stroke s/s numbness/weakness in face arm and leg, confusion speech issues and cognitive defect, impaired bi/unilateral vision, impaired coordination/walking, headache
BEFAST balance, eyes, face, arms, speech, time
What is the main sign iof stroke n the physical exam hemiplegic gait
What is commonly presented in stroke patients cad
Types of imaging used to identify stroke occlusion ultrasounds, MRI< angiography, non contrast CT, diffusion weighted MRI
What is the standard for hemorrhagic stroke noncontrast CT
What is the standard for ischemic stroke diffusion weighted MRI
What is a diffusion weighted MRI mri that assess restriction to movement of water molecules that are then detected by the mri and appear as white spots where there is occlusion
3 types of revascularization procedures for stroke carotid endarterectomy, mechanical thrombectomy w stenting, cerebral bypass
Carotid endarterectomy surgery to remove plaque from carotid
Mechanical thrombectomy w stenting physical blood cot removal then placing a stent
2 types of cerebral bypass extracranial intracranial (EC-IC) or intracranial intracranial (IC-IC)
ECIC cerebral bypass outside skull artery to sinde skull artery
ICIC cerebral bypass 2 arteries within brain to bypass a blocked section
Medication treatments for stroke tPA (tissue plasminogen activator, Activase), anticoagulants, antiplatelets, ACE inhibitors
What are the supportive treatments for stroke pt, ot, speech therapy, RD, counseling
Why do stroke survivors need therapy many cannot walk, highly influence QOL
What is the overall goal of supportive treatment for stroke victims restore balance, movement, coordination, and qol
What is an important assessment needed in stroke gxt pre ex BP, especially hypertension, and angina as ischemic stroke normally has CAD
Most stroke patients need a _____ ____ to assess functional capacity modified gxt
Protocol for modified gxt on stroke self selected speed, 2 percent grade every 2 min with appropriate mode
How to assess strength in stroke victims hand grip dynamometer or 10rm test
What does handgrip dynamometer assess in stroke victims difference between paretic/affected and unaffected sides
Main goal of ex rx in stroke patients improve functional capacity fc
What is the min functional capacity for independent living 20ml/kg/min
What is the avg functional capacity of a stroke patient 14.4 ml/kg/min
What is highly correlated with functional capacity reduced muscle mass
Loss of ___ is common in stroke patients flexibility
What is the overall goal with exrx in stroke patients a comprehensive rx that addresses cv, resistance, and flexibility training
Movements with stroke victims should focus on mimicking ADLS
Special attention should be given to ____ ___ in stroke victims paretic limbs
Examples of training stroke victims can use standing leg lifts, seated marching, knee flexion
How often can stroke victims practice flexibility to decrease muscle spasticity every day
Created by: isabellamulet
 

 



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