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NMLS Safe Exam Pt 6

Red Flags, Fair Lending, Advertising & Oversight

QuestionAnswer
What is the Red Flags Rule? A rule under FACTA requiring financial institutions and creditors to develop identity theft prevention programs.
Who enforces the Red Flags Rule? The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) and banking regulators.
What are the three parts of a Red Flags Program? Identify red flags, detect them, and respond appropriately.
What is a red flag example? Suspicious documents, unusual account activity, or alert from a consumer reporting agency.
What is the purpose of the Equal Credit Opportunity Act (ECOA)? To prohibit discrimination in credit transactions.
Which regulation implements ECOA? Regulation B.
Who enforces ECOA? The Consumer Financial Protection Bureau (CFPB).
What are ECOA’s protected classes? Race, color, religion, national origin, sex, marital status, age, receipt of public assistance.
What disclosures are required by ECOA? Notice of action taken, appraisal rights, and ECOA notice.
When must the appraisal notice be given under ECOA? Within 3 business days of receiving application.
What is the Fair Housing Act? A law prohibiting housing discrimination in the sale, rental, and financing of dwellings.
Who enforces the Fair Housing Act? HUD (U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development).
What are the protected classes under the Fair Housing Act? Race, color, national origin, religion, sex, familial status, and disability.
What is the difference between ECOA and the Fair Housing Act? ECOA covers credit; FHA covers housing-related transactions and practices.
What is discriminatory lending? Offering different terms or denying loans based on protected class characteristics.
What is disparate treatment? Intentional discrimination based on a protected class.
What is disparate impact? Neutral policy that disproportionately affects a protected class.
What is overt discrimination? Obvious, intentional unequal treatment of protected classes.
What is steering in lending? Directing borrowers to different loan products or terms based on protected class or income.
What is redlining? Refusing to lend or limiting lending in certain geographic areas based on demographics.
What is reverse redlining? Targeting vulnerable communities for high-cost or predatory loans.
What does the MAP Rule stand for? Mortgage Acts and Practices Rule.
What does the MAP Rule regulate? Prohibits misrepresentation in mortgage advertising and commercial communication.
What is considered deceptive under MAP Rule? Misleading statements about loan terms, APRs, or qualification likelihood.
How long must MAP Rule advertising records be retained? 2 years.
What is Regulation N? Another name for the MAP Rule — governs mortgage advertising practices.
What is a trigger term in advertising? A loan term that requires additional disclosures (e.g., payment amount, interest rate).
What disclosures are required when a trigger term is used? APR, amount or percentage of down payment, and terms of repayment.
What is Regulation P? Implements the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) — governs the privacy of consumer financial information.
What are the key components of GLBA? Privacy Notice, Opt-Out Rule, and Safeguards Rule.
What is the Privacy Notice under GLBA? Informs customers of how their personal financial information is shared.
What is the Opt-Out Rule? Gives consumers the right to limit some sharing of their personal information.
What is the Safeguards Rule? Requires companies to implement security programs to protect consumer data.
When must a Privacy Notice be provided? At the beginning of a customer relationship and annually thereafter.
What is the FTC Disposal Rule? Requires proper disposal of consumer information to prevent unauthorized access.
What is the purpose of the FTC Safeguards Rule? To ensure companies protect customer information with a written plan.
What is Regulation V? Implements the Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA).
What does FCRA regulate? Collection, dissemination, and use of consumer credit information.
What is the purpose of the FACT Act? To improve consumer access to credit reports and reduce identity theft.
What is the role of the CFPB? To enforce federal consumer financial laws and protect consumers in the financial marketplace.
What is the role of state regulators? To enforce state-specific lending laws and oversee mortgage licensees within the state.
What is the role of the Federal Reserve? Regulates monetary policy and supervises certain banking institutions.
What is the role of the OCC? Office of the Comptroller of the Currency — regulates national banks and federal savings associations.
What is the role of the FDIC? Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation — insures deposits and regulates certain financial institutions.
What is the role of the NCUA? National Credit Union Administration — oversees credit unions.
What is the function of FinCEN? Financial Crimes Enforcement Network — combats money laundering and monitors suspicious activity.
What is a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR)? A report filed for suspected financial crimes — must be submitted to FinCEN.
When must a SAR be filed? Within 30 calendar days of identifying suspicious activity.
What is a CTR? Currency Transaction Report — required for transactions over $10,000 in cash.
Who must file a CTR? Financial institutions processing large cash transactions.
What is the purpose of a Currency Transaction Report (CTR)? To help detect and prevent money laundering involving large cash transactions.
What law requires CTRs? The Bank Secrecy Act (BSA).
What does AML stand for? Anti-Money Laundering.
What is an AML Program? A program required by the BSA to detect and report suspicious financial activity.
What is layering in money laundering? The stage where illicit money is moved through complex transactions to obscure its origin.
What is placement in money laundering? The stage where illicit money first enters the financial system.
What is integration in money laundering? The stage where laundered money is returned to the criminal as seemingly legitimate funds.
What does OFAC stand for? Office of Foreign Assets Control.
What does OFAC do? Enforces economic and trade sanctions against targeted foreign countries and entities.
What must lenders do before funding a loan? Screen all parties against the OFAC list.
What is a matched OFAC name called? A “hit” — requires further investigation and possibly blocking the transaction.
What is the USA PATRIOT Act’s impact on lending? Requires identity verification and anti-money laundering compliance.
What does CIP stand for? Customer Identification Program.
What must be collected under CIP? Name, DOB, address, and identification number (e.g., SSN or EIN).
What is the maximum penalty for a MAP Rule violation? $43,280 per violation.
What is blockbusting? Encouraging homeowners to sell by suggesting a demographic shift will lower property values.
What is steering under Fair Housing? Guiding buyers to certain areas based on race or ethnicity.
What is redlining under Fair Housing? Denying loans to entire neighborhoods based on racial or economic makeup.
What agency investigates Fair Housing complaints? HUD’s Office of Fair Housing and Equal Opportunity (FHEO).
What is ECOA Valuations Rule? Requires creditors to notify borrowers of their right to receive a copy of appraisals.
What is Regulation C? Implements the Home Mortgage Disclosure Act (HMDA).
What does HMDA require? Lenders to collect and report data to detect discriminatory lending.
What is the purpose of HMDA? To prevent redlining and monitor equal access to credit.
What form is used for HMDA reporting? The Loan/Application Register (LAR).
What are typical data points collected under HMDA? Race, gender, income, property location, loan type, and action taken.
What is the deadline to submit HMDA data each year? March 1st of the following year.
What is ECOA’s 30-day rule? Applicants must be notified of action taken within 30 days of a completed application.
What is Regulation B's record retention requirement? 25 months for denied applications.
What is the purpose of TILA’s right of rescission? Gives borrowers time to reconsider refinance transactions.
How long is the right of rescission period? 3 business days after closing.
Which transactions are covered by right of rescission? Refinance of a primary residence (not purchases or investment properties).
What is a “business day” under rescission rules? All calendar days except Sundays and legal holidays.
Can rescission be waived? Yes, in emergencies with a signed written request.
How long must advertising records be kept under TILA and MAP? 2 years.
What is a written list of service providers? A TRID-required list given when borrower can shop for services (e.g., title).
What must be included in the written list of service providers? At least one provider for each service the borrower can shop for.
What is the zero tolerance category under TRID? Fees that cannot change (e.g., lender fees, appraisal, credit report).
What is the 10% cumulative tolerance category? Third-party services borrower cannot shop for (e.g., title if not shopped).
What fees are not subject to tolerance limits? Prepaid interest, property insurance, escrow deposits, services borrower selects.
What happens if fees exceed tolerance limits? A tolerance cure must be issued within 60 days.
How long must CD records be retained? 5 years after consummation.
What are the four components of loan origination covered under TRID? Application, Loan Estimate, Intent to Proceed, Closing Disclosure.
What is the purpose of the Intent to Proceed? Confirms borrower agrees to move forward after receiving LE.
Can a lender charge upfront fees before Intent to Proceed? Only for credit report; all others must wait.
How long must LE records be retained? 3 years.
What triggers the need for a revised LE? Valid change in circumstance affecting terms or costs.
What is the “business day” definition for LE? Any day the creditor’s offices are open for business.
What is the “business day” definition for CD? All calendar days except Sundays and legal public holidays.
What is the role of the CFPB under Dodd-Frank? Primary enforcer of federal consumer financial laws.
What is UDAAP? Unfair, Deceptive, or Abusive Acts or Practices — prohibited under Dodd-Frank.
Created by: jenniferhudson
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