Question 1

With which medical condition would a nurse expect the health care provider to reduce the dosage of cimetidine due to potential accumulation of the drug?

Accepted Answer

Kidney disease
Accumulation of cimetidine may occur with renal impairment, and a dosage reduction is needed in these patients.

Question 2

Which outcome is anticipated as a result of histamine2 receptor blockers obstructing histamine2 receptors in the parietal cells in the stomach?

Accepted Answer

Decrease in hydrogen ions and gastric acid 
The concentration of both hydrogen ions and gastric acid is decreased when the histamine2 receptors are obstructed by histamine2 receptor blockers.

Question 3

Which teaching point will the nurse provide a patient who is newly prescribed cimetidine for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Accepted Answer

“Breast enlargement and a reduction in libido may occur with cimetidine.”
Antiandrogenic effects such as decreased libido and breast enlargement may occur with cimetidine. This is because cimetidine binds to androgen receptors. Discontinuation of therapy

Question 4

Which patient would a nurse determine will likely receive a dosage reduction in cimetidine for gastroesophageal reflux disease?

Accepted Answer

A 71-year-old patient with hypertension
A 71-year-old patient with hypertension will likely require a dosage reduction due to the age of the patient. Older adults have less gastric acid and therefore do not need as high of doses of histamine2 receptor bl

Question 5

Which patient can safely receive cimetidine?
a) An 8-year-old child with gastroesophageal disease (GERD)
b) A 51-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes
c) A 24-year-old patient who is breastfeeding
d) A 71-year-old patient with pneumonia
e) A 52-year-

Accepted Answer

A 51-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus may safely receive cimetidine.

A 52-year-old patient with a urinary tract infection
A patient with a urinary tract infection can safely receive cimetidine.

Question 6

Which effect would a nurse anticipate may occur if a patient with warfarin is given cimetidine?

Accepted Answer

Increased anticoagulant effect
When taken together, the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased. This increases the patient’s bleeding risk. The patient’s prothrombin time/international normalized ratio must be monitored more closely, as a dosage r

Question 7

Which teaching point will a nurse share with a 63-year-old male patient who has been prescribed cimetidine for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

Accepted Answer

“Cimetidine should be separated from administration of an antacid by at least 1 hour.”
Cimetidine administration must be separated by at least 1 hour from administration of an antacid because antacids can lower cimetidine’s histamine blocking ability.

Question 8

Which monitoring parameter would a nurse ensure is evaluated when a 73-year-old patient who is newly prescribed cimetidine returns for a follow-up? 
a) Lung sounds
b) Liver function
c) Renal function
d) Blood pressure (BP)
e) Mental status change

Accepted Answer

a) Lung sounds
Due to a risk for pneumonia, the older patient’s lung sounds must be assessed upon follow-up for initiation with cimetidine.
b) Liver function
Liver function must be assessed in this patient due to a risk for hepatotoxicity with cimetidi

Question 9

Which statement by the nursing student about the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) requires further intervention?

Accepted Answer

“PPIs work by blocking histamine2 receptors, which reduces gastric acid secretion.”
Histamine2 receptor blockers like ranitidine, not PPIs, work to block histamine2 receptors.

Question 10

In which time frame would a patient expect to experience effects from esomeprazole?

Accepted Answer

1 hour
Esomeprazole’s onset of action is 1 hour, which is when the patient can expect to experience some effects from the drug.

Question 11

Which statement regarding the pharmacodynamic profile of omeprazole is accurate?

Accepted Answer

The elimination half-life of omeprazole is 0.5 to 1 hour.
This statement is accurate. Omeprazole has an elimination half-life of 0.5 to 1 hour.

Question 12

Which medical conditions would a nurse recognize that oral esomeprazole may be used to treat?
a) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
b) Crohn disease
c) Duodenal ulcers
d) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced ulcers
e) Zollinger-Elli

Accepted Answer

a) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
GERD is an approved condition for treatment with esomeprazole.
c) Duodenal ulcers
Duodenal ulcers are an approved condition for treatment with esomeprazole.
d) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)-induce

Question 13

Which patients would a nurse determine require cautious use of or avoidance of esomeprazole?
a) A 70-year-old Asian patient with hypertension
b) A 73-year-old Caucasian patient with osteoporosis
c) A 29-year-old Hispanic patient who is breastfeeding
d

Accepted Answer

a) A 70-year-old Asian patient with hypertension
Both older adults and patients of Asian descent require cautious use of esomeprazole. Patients of Asian descent are at increased risk for dementia.
b) A 73-year-old Caucasian patient with osteoporosis
Ca

Question 14

Which outcome would a nurse anticipate from the drug interaction that may occur in a patient who is receiving diazepam and has been newly prescribed omeprazole?

Accepted Answer

Increase in serum concentration of diazepam
Diazepam’s half-life is increased by 130% when given concomitantly with omeprazole. Therefore the serum concentration of diazepam is increased.

Question 15

A patient who is receiving omeprazole has been prescribed clopidogrel following stent placement. Which outcome does a nurse alert the health care provider about resulting from the drug interaction?

Accepted Answer

Decrease in activation of clopidogrel
Evidence indicates that clopidogrel’s activation may be decreased when given with omeprazole. As a result, its antiplatelet effects may be reduced.

Question 16

A 93-year-old patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed esomeprazole. The patient is immobile in a skilled nursing facility, is frail, and experienced a stroke a year ago. Which adverse effects of esomeprazole will the nurse be con

Accepted Answer

b) Dementia
Dementia is a concern with PPI therapy, particularly in an older adult patient.
c) Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a concern with PPI therapy, particularly as this patient is immobile.
d) Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a concern with PPI therapy, es

Question 17

Which statement by the nursing student in regard to the pharmacokinetic parameters of calcium carbonate requires further intervention?

Accepted Answer

“The solubility of calcium is decreased in an acidic environment.”
This statement is inaccurate. The solubility of calcium is increased, not decreased, in an acidic environment.

Question 18

Which statement about the classification of antacids is accurate?
a) Magnesium hydroxide is a systemic antacid that can cause diarrhea.
b) Aluminum hydroxide is a non-systemic antacid that can cause constipation.
c) Calcium carbonate is a non-systemic

Accepted Answer

Aluminum hydroxide is a non-systemic antacid that can cause constipation.
The non-systemic antacid aluminum hydroxide may cause constipation.

Question 19

Which time frame can a nurse expect aluminum hydroxide to reach its peak concentration?

Accepted Answer

30 minutes
The time to reach the peak concentration for aluminum hydroxide is 30 minutes.

Question 20

Which phrases accurately describe the mechanisms of action exerted by antacids?
a) Raise gastric pH
b) Lower pepsin activity
c) Reduce acid secretion
d) Neutralize stomach acidity
e) Provide a protective barrier over an ulcer

Accepted Answer

a) Raise gastric pH
Antacids are effective in the treatment of heartburn and indigestion by raising gastric pH.
b) Lower pepsin activity
Antacids are effective in the treatment of heartburn and indigestion by lowering pepsin activity.
d) Neutralize st

Question 21

Which outcome would a nurse anticipate might occur when magnesium hydroxide is administered with phenytoin?

Accepted Answer

Decreased absorption and efficacy of phenytoin
When phenytoin and magnesium hydroxide are coadministered, the efficacy of phenytoin is decreased because the GI absorption of the phenytoin is impeded.

Question 22

Which effect would a nurse monitor for in a patient who is receiving glipizide, a sulfonylurea, and aluminum hydroxide?

Accepted Answer

Hypoglycemia
Hypoglycemia may occur when a sulfonylurea and aluminum hydroxide are taken together. The effect of the sulfonylurea may be chemically enhanced by the antacid due to the effects of pH.

Question 23

Which patients would a nurse determine have precautions to treatment with calcium carbonate?
a) A patient with osteoporosis
b) A patient with prostate cancer
c) A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus
d) A patient with hypoparathyroid disease
e) A pa

Accepted Answer

d) A patient with hypoparathyroid disease
Hypoparathyroid disease is a precaution for treatment with calcium carbonate, and the nurse should monitor the patient closely if the patient receives therapy.
e) A patient with renal dysfunction on dialysis
Re

Question 24

A nurse is caring for a patient who takes calcium carbonate and was recently prescribed ciprofloxacin, a quinolone, for a urinary tract infection. Which teaching point would the nurse share with this patient about administration of these drugs?

Accepted Answer

Take calcium carbonate 1 to 2 hours after ciprofloxacin.
Calcium carbonate should be taken 1 to 2 hours after ciprofloxacin has been administered. Taking them together can decrease the absorption of ciprofloxacin by 50%, thereby reducing its efficacy.

Question 25

A patient who takes an antacid frequently for persistent heartburn presents with confusion and extreme muscle weakness. The patient is also having difficulty speaking. Which antacid would a nurse suspect this patient may have been receiving in excess?

Accepted Answer

Aluminum hydroxide
The patient is experiencing signs and symptoms of aluminum toxicity. This is characterized by speech problems, muscle weakness, confusion, bone pain, and seizures. Therefore the potential causative agent is aluminum hydroxide, particul

Question 26

Which antiemetic can a nurse anticipate having the longest duration of action?

Accepted Answer

Scopolamine
Scopolamine has the longest duration of action of 72 hours.

Question 27

Which antiemetic is excreted in urine, feces, and bile?
a) Meclizine
b) Dronabinol
c) Ondansetron
d) Promethazine

Accepted Answer

b) Dronabinol
Dronabinol’s excretion occurs in urine, feces, and bile.

Question 28

Which statement regarding the pharmacodynamic parameters of intravenous (IV) ondansetron is accurate?
a) Its onset of action is 15 minutes.
b) It reaches its peak concentration in 30 minutes.
c) Its duration of action is 2 to 4 hours.
d) Its eliminati

Accepted Answer

d) Its elimination half-life is 3 to 5 hours.
IV ondansetron has an elimination half-life of 3 to 5 hours.

Question 29

Which time frame can a nurse expect dexamethasone to reach its peak concentration?

Accepted Answer

5 to 10 minutes
Dexamethasone reaches its peak concentration in 5 to 10 minutes.

Question 30

Which statement regarding the pharmacokinetic parameters of aprepitant is accurate?
a) The drug has an oral bioavailability of 25%.
b) Aprepitant is minimally protein bound (<5%).
c) The drug undergoes metabolism mostly by CYP3A4.
d) Excretion of apre

Accepted Answer

c) The drug undergoes metabolism mostly by CYP3A4.
Aprepitant undergoes extensive metabolism in the liver, mostly by CYP3A4.

Question 31

Which phrase describes how ondansetron works to treat nausea and vomiting?
a) Blocks dopamine2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone
b) Inhibits cholinergic stimulation of the vestibular and reticular systems
c) Blocks the serotonin receptors in

Accepted Answer

c) Blocks the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vagal nerve terminals in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract

Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist that inhibits serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vagal nerve t

Question 32

Which patients would a nurse determine cannot safely receive therapy with promethazine?
a) A 50-year-old patient with osteoarthritis
b) A 27-year-old patient with hypothyroidism
c) A 1-year-old child with profuse vomiting
d) A 31-year-old patient who

Accepted Answer

c) A 1-year-old child with profuse vomiting
Children under the age of 2 years should not receive therapy with promethazine because of a risk for fatal respiratory depression.
d) A 31-year-old patient who is breastfeeding
Women who are breastfeeding sho

Question 33

A nurse is caring for a patient who will be using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness. In addition to scopolamine, the patient is also taking diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, as needed for allergies. Which patient statement about scopolamine require

Accepted Answer

a) “I will apply the patch to my upper arm.”
This statement is inaccurate and requires further intervention. The patient should apply the scopolamine patch on a hairless area behind the ear, not on the upper arm.

Question 34

Which effect would a nurse anticipate might occur from the drug interaction between dronabinol and warfarin?
a) Increase in warfarin concentration
b) Decrease in warfarin concentration
c) Increase in dronabinol concentration
d) Decrease in dronabinol

Accepted Answer

a) Increase in warfarin concentration
The anticipated drug interaction between warfarin and dronabinol is an increase in the serum concentration of warfarin.

Question 35

Which electrolyte abnormality would a nurse monitor for in a patient receiving dexamethasone as an antiemetic who is also receiving furosemide, a loop diuretic?
a) Hypokalemia
b) hyperkalemia
c) Hyponatremia
d) hypernatremia

Accepted Answer

a) Hypokalemia
Glucocorticoids like dexamethasone can enhance the hypokalemic effects of loop diuretics such as furosemide.

Question 36

Which frequency would a nurse anticipate seeing promethazine prescribed for a patient with nausea and vomiting?

Accepted Answer

Every 4 to 6 hours
Promethazine is typically dosed every 4 to 6 hours for nausea and vomiting.

Question 37

Which explanation would a nurse provide a patient about the avoidance of alcohol while taking promethazine?

Accepted Answer

The combination may cause excessive central nervous system (CNS) effects such as sedation.

The combination of promethazine and alcohol can lead to excessive CNS depression such as sedation.

Question 38

Which patient has an indication to safely receive misoprostol?
a) A patient with severe diarrhea
b) A patient with diabetic gastroparesis
c) A patient with peptic ulcers who is pregnant
d) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking NSAIDs

Accepted Answer

d) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking NSAIDs

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is receiving NSAIDs may receive misoprostol to prevent the risk for NSAID-induced gastric ulcers.

Question 39

Which phrase describes the mechanism of action of sucralfate?
a) Inhibition of pepsin
b) Neutralization of acidity
c) Promotion of gastric motility
d) Reduction of acidic secretions

Accepted Answer

a) Inhibition of pepsin

Sucralfate works as a pepsin inhibitor. When combined with protein, it provides a thick covering that guards against pepsin and acid.

Question 40

Which time frame would a patient expect the effects of oral metoclopramide to last?
a) 1 to 2 hours
b) 3 to 4 hours
c) 6 to 8 hours
d) 1 to 2 days

Accepted Answer

b) 3 to 4 hours
Oral metoclopramide has a duration of action of 3 to 4 hours.

Question	Answer
With which medical condition would a nurse expect the health care provider to reduce the dosage of cimetidine due to potential accumulation of the drug?	Kidney disease Accumulation of cimetidine may occur with renal impairment, and a dosage reduction is needed in these patients.
Which outcome is anticipated as a result of histamine2 receptor blockers obstructing histamine2 receptors in the parietal cells in the stomach?	Decrease in hydrogen ions and gastric acid The concentration of both hydrogen ions and gastric acid is decreased when the histamine2 receptors are obstructed by histamine2 receptor blockers.
Which teaching point will the nurse provide a patient who is newly prescribed cimetidine for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?	“Breast enlargement and a reduction in libido may occur with cimetidine.” Antiandrogenic effects such as decreased libido and breast enlargement may occur with cimetidine. This is because cimetidine binds to androgen receptors. Discontinuation of therapy
Which patient would a nurse determine will likely receive a dosage reduction in cimetidine for gastroesophageal reflux disease?	A 71-year-old patient with hypertension A 71-year-old patient with hypertension will likely require a dosage reduction due to the age of the patient. Older adults have less gastric acid and therefore do not need as high of doses of histamine2 receptor bl
Which patient can safely receive cimetidine? a) An 8-year-old child with gastroesophageal disease (GERD) b) A 51-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes c) A 24-year-old patient who is breastfeeding d) A 71-year-old patient with pneumonia e) A 52-year-	A 51-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus may safely receive cimetidine. A 52-year-old patient with a urinary tract infection A patient with a urinary tract infection can safely receive cimetidine.
Which effect would a nurse anticipate may occur if a patient with warfarin is given cimetidine?	Increased anticoagulant effect When taken together, the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased. This increases the patient’s bleeding risk. The patient’s prothrombin time/international normalized ratio must be monitored more closely, as a dosage r
Which teaching point will a nurse share with a 63-year-old male patient who has been prescribed cimetidine for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?	“Cimetidine should be separated from administration of an antacid by at least 1 hour.” Cimetidine administration must be separated by at least 1 hour from administration of an antacid because antacids can lower cimetidine’s histamine blocking ability.
Which monitoring parameter would a nurse ensure is evaluated when a 73-year-old patient who is newly prescribed cimetidine returns for a follow-up? a) Lung sounds b) Liver function c) Renal function d) Blood pressure (BP) e) Mental status change	a) Lung sounds Due to a risk for pneumonia, the older patient’s lung sounds must be assessed upon follow-up for initiation with cimetidine. b) Liver function Liver function must be assessed in this patient due to a risk for hepatotoxicity with cimetidi
Which statement by the nursing student about the mechanism of action of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) requires further intervention?	“PPIs work by blocking histamine2 receptors, which reduces gastric acid secretion.” Histamine2 receptor blockers like ranitidine, not PPIs, work to block histamine2 receptors.
In which time frame would a patient expect to experience effects from esomeprazole?	1 hour Esomeprazole’s onset of action is 1 hour, which is when the patient can expect to experience some effects from the drug.
Which statement regarding the pharmacodynamic profile of omeprazole is accurate?	The elimination half-life of omeprazole is 0.5 to 1 hour. This statement is accurate. Omeprazole has an elimination half-life of 0.5 to 1 hour.
Which medical conditions would a nurse recognize that oral esomeprazole may be used to treat? a) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) b) Crohn disease c) Duodenal ulcers d) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced ulcers e) Zollinger-Elli	a) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) GERD is an approved condition for treatment with esomeprazole. c) Duodenal ulcers Duodenal ulcers are an approved condition for treatment with esomeprazole. d) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)-induce
Which patients would a nurse determine require cautious use of or avoidance of esomeprazole? a) A 70-year-old Asian patient with hypertension b) A 73-year-old Caucasian patient with osteoporosis c) A 29-year-old Hispanic patient who is breastfeeding d	a) A 70-year-old Asian patient with hypertension Both older adults and patients of Asian descent require cautious use of esomeprazole. Patients of Asian descent are at increased risk for dementia. b) A 73-year-old Caucasian patient with osteoporosis Ca
Which outcome would a nurse anticipate from the drug interaction that may occur in a patient who is receiving diazepam and has been newly prescribed omeprazole?	Increase in serum concentration of diazepam Diazepam’s half-life is increased by 130% when given concomitantly with omeprazole. Therefore the serum concentration of diazepam is increased.
A patient who is receiving omeprazole has been prescribed clopidogrel following stent placement. Which outcome does a nurse alert the health care provider about resulting from the drug interaction?	Decrease in activation of clopidogrel Evidence indicates that clopidogrel’s activation may be decreased when given with omeprazole. As a result, its antiplatelet effects may be reduced.
A 93-year-old patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed esomeprazole. The patient is immobile in a skilled nursing facility, is frail, and experienced a stroke a year ago. Which adverse effects of esomeprazole will the nurse be con	b) Dementia Dementia is a concern with PPI therapy, particularly in an older adult patient. c) Pneumonia Pneumonia is a concern with PPI therapy, particularly as this patient is immobile. d) Osteoporosis Osteoporosis is a concern with PPI therapy, es
Which statement by the nursing student in regard to the pharmacokinetic parameters of calcium carbonate requires further intervention?	“The solubility of calcium is decreased in an acidic environment.” This statement is inaccurate. The solubility of calcium is increased, not decreased, in an acidic environment.
Which statement about the classification of antacids is accurate? a) Magnesium hydroxide is a systemic antacid that can cause diarrhea. b) Aluminum hydroxide is a non-systemic antacid that can cause constipation. c) Calcium carbonate is a non-systemic	Aluminum hydroxide is a non-systemic antacid that can cause constipation. The non-systemic antacid aluminum hydroxide may cause constipation.
Which time frame can a nurse expect aluminum hydroxide to reach its peak concentration?	30 minutes The time to reach the peak concentration for aluminum hydroxide is 30 minutes.
Which phrases accurately describe the mechanisms of action exerted by antacids? a) Raise gastric pH b) Lower pepsin activity c) Reduce acid secretion d) Neutralize stomach acidity e) Provide a protective barrier over an ulcer	a) Raise gastric pH Antacids are effective in the treatment of heartburn and indigestion by raising gastric pH. b) Lower pepsin activity Antacids are effective in the treatment of heartburn and indigestion by lowering pepsin activity. d) Neutralize st
Which outcome would a nurse anticipate might occur when magnesium hydroxide is administered with phenytoin?	Decreased absorption and efficacy of phenytoin When phenytoin and magnesium hydroxide are coadministered, the efficacy of phenytoin is decreased because the GI absorption of the phenytoin is impeded.
Which effect would a nurse monitor for in a patient who is receiving glipizide, a sulfonylurea, and aluminum hydroxide?	Hypoglycemia Hypoglycemia may occur when a sulfonylurea and aluminum hydroxide are taken together. The effect of the sulfonylurea may be chemically enhanced by the antacid due to the effects of pH.
Which patients would a nurse determine have precautions to treatment with calcium carbonate? a) A patient with osteoporosis b) A patient with prostate cancer c) A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus d) A patient with hypoparathyroid disease e) A pa	d) A patient with hypoparathyroid disease Hypoparathyroid disease is a precaution for treatment with calcium carbonate, and the nurse should monitor the patient closely if the patient receives therapy. e) A patient with renal dysfunction on dialysis Re
A nurse is caring for a patient who takes calcium carbonate and was recently prescribed ciprofloxacin, a quinolone, for a urinary tract infection. Which teaching point would the nurse share with this patient about administration of these drugs?	Take calcium carbonate 1 to 2 hours after ciprofloxacin. Calcium carbonate should be taken 1 to 2 hours after ciprofloxacin has been administered. Taking them together can decrease the absorption of ciprofloxacin by 50%, thereby reducing its efficacy.
A patient who takes an antacid frequently for persistent heartburn presents with confusion and extreme muscle weakness. The patient is also having difficulty speaking. Which antacid would a nurse suspect this patient may have been receiving in excess?	Aluminum hydroxide The patient is experiencing signs and symptoms of aluminum toxicity. This is characterized by speech problems, muscle weakness, confusion, bone pain, and seizures. Therefore the potential causative agent is aluminum hydroxide, particul
Which antiemetic can a nurse anticipate having the longest duration of action?	Scopolamine Scopolamine has the longest duration of action of 72 hours.
Which antiemetic is excreted in urine, feces, and bile? a) Meclizine b) Dronabinol c) Ondansetron d) Promethazine	b) Dronabinol Dronabinol’s excretion occurs in urine, feces, and bile.
Which statement regarding the pharmacodynamic parameters of intravenous (IV) ondansetron is accurate? a) Its onset of action is 15 minutes. b) It reaches its peak concentration in 30 minutes. c) Its duration of action is 2 to 4 hours. d) Its eliminati	d) Its elimination half-life is 3 to 5 hours. IV ondansetron has an elimination half-life of 3 to 5 hours.
Which time frame can a nurse expect dexamethasone to reach its peak concentration?	5 to 10 minutes Dexamethasone reaches its peak concentration in 5 to 10 minutes.
Which statement regarding the pharmacokinetic parameters of aprepitant is accurate? a) The drug has an oral bioavailability of 25%. b) Aprepitant is minimally protein bound (<5%). c) The drug undergoes metabolism mostly by CYP3A4. d) Excretion of apre	c) The drug undergoes metabolism mostly by CYP3A4. Aprepitant undergoes extensive metabolism in the liver, mostly by CYP3A4.
Which phrase describes how ondansetron works to treat nausea and vomiting? a) Blocks dopamine2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone b) Inhibits cholinergic stimulation of the vestibular and reticular systems c) Blocks the serotonin receptors in	c) Blocks the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vagal nerve terminals in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract Ondansetron is a serotonin antagonist that inhibits serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone and vagal nerve t
Which patients would a nurse determine cannot safely receive therapy with promethazine? a) A 50-year-old patient with osteoarthritis b) A 27-year-old patient with hypothyroidism c) A 1-year-old child with profuse vomiting d) A 31-year-old patient who	c) A 1-year-old child with profuse vomiting Children under the age of 2 years should not receive therapy with promethazine because of a risk for fatal respiratory depression. d) A 31-year-old patient who is breastfeeding Women who are breastfeeding sho
A nurse is caring for a patient who will be using a scopolamine patch for motion sickness. In addition to scopolamine, the patient is also taking diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, as needed for allergies. Which patient statement about scopolamine require	a) “I will apply the patch to my upper arm.” This statement is inaccurate and requires further intervention. The patient should apply the scopolamine patch on a hairless area behind the ear, not on the upper arm.
Which effect would a nurse anticipate might occur from the drug interaction between dronabinol and warfarin? a) Increase in warfarin concentration b) Decrease in warfarin concentration c) Increase in dronabinol concentration d) Decrease in dronabinol	a) Increase in warfarin concentration The anticipated drug interaction between warfarin and dronabinol is an increase in the serum concentration of warfarin.
Which electrolyte abnormality would a nurse monitor for in a patient receiving dexamethasone as an antiemetic who is also receiving furosemide, a loop diuretic? a) Hypokalemia b) hyperkalemia c) Hyponatremia d) hypernatremia	a) Hypokalemia Glucocorticoids like dexamethasone can enhance the hypokalemic effects of loop diuretics such as furosemide.
Which frequency would a nurse anticipate seeing promethazine prescribed for a patient with nausea and vomiting?	Every 4 to 6 hours Promethazine is typically dosed every 4 to 6 hours for nausea and vomiting.
Which explanation would a nurse provide a patient about the avoidance of alcohol while taking promethazine?	The combination may cause excessive central nervous system (CNS) effects such as sedation. The combination of promethazine and alcohol can lead to excessive CNS depression such as sedation.
Which patient has an indication to safely receive misoprostol? a) A patient with severe diarrhea b) A patient with diabetic gastroparesis c) A patient with peptic ulcers who is pregnant d) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking NSAIDs	d) A patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking NSAIDs A patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is receiving NSAIDs may receive misoprostol to prevent the risk for NSAID-induced gastric ulcers.
Which phrase describes the mechanism of action of sucralfate? a) Inhibition of pepsin b) Neutralization of acidity c) Promotion of gastric motility d) Reduction of acidic secretions	a) Inhibition of pepsin Sucralfate works as a pepsin inhibitor. When combined with protein, it provides a thick covering that guards against pepsin and acid.
Which time frame would a patient expect the effects of oral metoclopramide to last? a) 1 to 2 hours b) 3 to 4 hours c) 6 to 8 hours d) 1 to 2 days	b) 3 to 4 hours Oral metoclopramide has a duration of action of 3 to 4 hours.

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Pharm II