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Under what category(ies) can all maintenance performed on naval aircraft be grouped?
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An accident-free naval career can best be achieved by following which of the following courses of action?
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AVIATION ELECTRICIAN
NAVEDTRA 14009, AVIATION ELECTRICIAN`S MATE 3 & 2; APP AI; Chap 2; CHAP 2, 4, 5,
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Under what category(ies) can all maintenance performed on naval aircraft be grouped? | Scheduled and unscheduled |
| An accident-free naval career can best be achieved by following which of the following courses of action? | Taking a common-sense approach towards safety |
| If electrical equipment is to be repaired, what action should you take before beginning the actual work? | Secure the main power switches in the open position and properly tag them |
| When an aircraft anticollision light is operating on the flight line, it warns personnel of what potential hazards? | Aircraft engines are operating |
| If you are working on high-voltage circuits or around wires having exposed surfaces, you should keep tools and equipment that have metal parts what minimum number of feet from the work area? | 4 feet |
| To prevent low-voltage shock, you should be careful handling equip- ment having what minimum circuit voltage? | 13 volts |
| The intensity of electrical shock is determined by which of the following properties? | Current |
| Which of the following is the primary reason why a person should not move about after receiving an electrical shock? | The heart is temporarily weakened |
| When fighting an electrical fire, you should use which of the following fire-extinguishing agents | Carbon dioxide (CO=) |
| If you swallow gasoline, which of the following actions should you take | Drink large amounts of milk or water and take 4 tablespoons of vegetable oil, if available |
| Which of the following statements describes the hazards of compressed air | 1. It can inject minute foreign bodies into the skin 2. It can rupture cell tissue and cause severe wounds 3. It can pass through clothing and may cause fatal injury |
| When using compressed air to clean out fixtures and jigs, you should observe the proper safety precautions. Also, you should maintain the air pressure below what maximum value | 30 PSI |
| When using tools, you should observe which of the following rules | 1.Use tools for their intended purpose 2.Maintain tools in good repair 3.Replace tools that are damaged or not working properly |
| Which of the following is the cause of most accidents in electrical and electronic work centers | Carelessness |
| If one of your tools becomes worn, damaged, or broken, you should report this fact to what person | Work center supervisor |
| What alley is used to make most nonmagnetic tools | Beryllium-copper |
| At the local level, you may insulate tools for use on what type of circuit | Low-voltage |
| When you find a damaged power tool electrical cord, what action should you take | Replace the cord |
| Which of the following is NOT a safety practice to follow when using a soldering iron | Shake the iron to get rid of excess solder |
| While using an electric drill, you experience an electrical shock. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause | An incorrectly grounded drill |
| What color is the safety ground wire for electrical tools | Green |
| You need to apply voltage to a power tool having a three-wire system. The receptacle is a two-wire type. To connect the tool to this voltage source, you should use an adapter with an external ground wire and connect it in which of the following configurat | Connect the safety ground to a good ground before plugging in the tool |
| Discrepancies found before, during, or after a flight require what type of maintenance | Unscheduled |
| You are troubleshooting an electrical device that is not receiving any power. What check should you make first | Check for visible indications of trouble |
| Which of the following meters should you use when troubleshooting an open circuit | Ohmmeter |
| What error did the AE commit, and why was his/her action incorrect | The oxygen line was removed and replaced; this action should have been done by an AME |
| Before replacing a major component in an aircraft, the AE should make which of the following determinations | Whether the component is defective |
| Before making an adjustment to any system, you should consult which of the following publications | MIM |
| An ammeter is connected into a circuit in which of the following ways | In series with the circuit |
| When a multimeter is not being used, the selector switch should be in which of the following positions | High ac volts |
| Which of the following conditions is the most probable cause for a grounded circuit | Frayed insulation on wiring |
| For precise resistance measurements, you should use which of the following instruments | Ohmmeter |
| What is the value of RX in the dc resistance bridge | 420 ohms |
| Which of the following types of meters are contained in the multimeter | Ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter |
| A permanent-magnet, moving-coil meter mechanism can be adapted to measure alternating current and voltage if it is used with which of the following devices | A rectifier |
| Which of the following is a standard feature of the Fluke Model 8100A digital multimeter | Each of the above |
| To test insulation for high resistance, grounds, and leakage, what meter should you use | Megger |
| A megger is prevented from exceeding its rated output voltage by the action of a | friction clutch |
| Which of the following values can be measured by using an oscilloscope | Each of the above |
| What term is used to define abnormal resistance or impedance that interferes with the normal signal flow | Discontinuity |
| What instrument should you use to troubleshoot fuel quantity coaxial cables | Time-domain reflectometer |
| The output of the phase detector in a phase-angle voltmeter is proportional to the signal amplitude multiplied by which of the following angles of phase difference | Cosine |
| Maximum deflection of the phase- angle voltmeter occurs when what phase relationships exists between the two signals | 0° or 180° |
| What type of voltmeter is a precision voltmeter that compares an unknown voltage with an internal reference voltage | Differential voltmeter |
| To be classified as a cable, a single conductor must have which of the following characteristics | Be insulated and have a metallic braided shield |
| To replace an aircraft electrical wire, you must determine the correct size and type of wire to use. To make this determination, what publication should you consult first | The aircraft MIM |
| Aluminum has the tendency to flow away from a point where pressure is applied. This tendency is known as | creep |
| When stamping wires or cables, the distance between markings should not exceed what maximum distance | 15 inches |
| You are reading a wire identification code. Which of the following types of information can you gain | Each of the above |
| Which of the following letters is NOT used to identify a wire segment | O |
| What letter suffix in the wire identification identifies the wire as being a ground | N |
| Heat-shrinkable tubing has which of the following advantages | Both 1 and 2 above |
| When used on aircraft electrical wiring, the recommended power rating range for general-use soldering irons is within which of the following ranges | 60 to 200 watts |
| Before reusing items of mounting hardware, what determination should you first make | That they are not damaged and exceed the specification for the items required by the IPB |
| You have temporarily installed suitable substitute mounting parts. When should these parts be replaced | When the required parts become available |
| Which of the following consider- ations should you observe when substituting mounting parts | Magnetic properties |
| Refer to figure 2-15 in your text. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the replacement of shock mounts | Those shown in view A can be individually replaced, and those in view B cannot be replaced |
| Refer to figure 2-15, view B, in your text. One vibration insulator is cracked. What corrective action should you take | Replace the complete shock mount assembly |
| What is the reason for moisture- proofing solder-type electrical connectors | To reinforce the connector |
| The preferred method for attaching cable terminals to terminal blocks requires the use of what items of hardware | An anchor nut and flat washer |
| Shielded conduit should be sup- ported by the use of what type of clamp | Bonded |
| When long runs of cable between panels need to be supported, which of the following types of clamps is preferred | AN 742 |
| When installing a cable through a lightening hole, you should use a grommet (rubber cushion) if the cables’s distance from the edge of the hole is less than what minimum distance | 1/4 inch |
| In addition to supporting and protecting electrical wires, what other advantage does conduit offer | It provides radio shielding |
| What type of safety wire should you use to secure an oxygen regulator | Seal wire |
| If an aircraft were improperly bonded, which of the following conditions would exist | An increased likelihood of fire and a noisy radio receiver |
| A primary objective of bonding is to provide an electrical path of | low dc resistance and low RF impedance |
| When using methyl chloroform to clean electrical equipment, you should remove the equipment from the solution within what maximum length of time | 5 minutes |
| A generator is not delivering its rated voltage or current. Before you remove this generator, you should check which of the following circuits | Each of the above |
| When a printed circuit is manufactured by the photoetching process, what portions of the plastic or phenolic sheet are actually photographically exposed | All areas covered by light- sensitive enamel not covered by the circuit template |
| Exposed copper is removed during the etching process, and the unexposed copper surfaces are protected by | enamel |
| What color paint is normally used for line test equipment | Yellow |
| Which of the following statements describes actions you should take when troubleshooting aircraft electrical equipment | Each of the above |
| The MA-2 Aircraft Electrical Power Test Set (stand) is NOT used to perform a complete test and check of which of the following components | Generator spline wear |
| The load bank of the MA-2 is capable of supplying dc loads from 0 to what maximum value | 500 amperes |
| When using the Huntron Tracker 1000, which of the following statements is a test requirement | All circuit power must be off |
| The Huntron Tracker 2000 quadrant 3 shows which of the following displays | Negative current and negative voltage |
| When using the Huntron Tracker 1000 or 2000, you should begin testing in which of the following ranges | Medium |
| When testing analog circuits or devices with a Huntron Tracker, you should use the low range of the tester for which of the following reasons | Defects will show easier, and the internal 54 ohm impedance makes it less likely that parts in parallel with the device under test will load the tester |
| In the SND mode of the Automatic Transistor Analyzer Model 900, a good device is indicated by the Sonalert when it beeps in what way | Out of phase with the amber light |
| When using the Automatic Transistor Analyzer Model 900 to test a transistor, you can connect the transistor to the tester in (a) what total number of ways of which (b) what total number are correct | (a) Six (b) two |
| You should use the jet ignition system tester to check the input/output of which of the following components | Each of the above |
| The test set can be used to test which of the following components | Each of the above |
| After the tachometer generator to be tested is. mounted on the tester, what component will control the speed at which it will be driven | A variable dc drive motor in the test set |
| When performing a functional ground test of the EGT system, heat for the thermocouples is provided by | heater probes |
| An external ac power supply is required to supply electrical power to a JETCAL analyzer that is being used to make which of the following checks | EGT indicators |
| Which of the following pulses is/are generated by the synchrophaser test set | Slave and master pulses |
| The gain test readout from the synchrophaser test set is provided by what front panel component | The feedback potentiometer |
| Which of the following test sets provides regulated pitot and static pressure for evaluating the performance characteristics of air data systems, aircraft pneumatic instruments, and other auxiliary equipment | TTU-205C/E |
| Of the following lists, which one gives the power requirements for the TTU-205C/E test set | 115 Vac, single phase, 400 hertz |
| The TF-20 liquid quantity test set can be used to perform which of the following functions’ | Each of the above |
| When using the AN/FSM-17A to dynamically test the transmitter of the angle-of-attack system, what type of energy is fed to the transmitter probe | Vacuum or air pressure |
| The AN/PSM-21A air-conditioning test set is used to troubleshoot and check which of the following systems | Each of the above |
| The basic configuration of a typical VAST station consists of which of the following components | A computer subsystem, a DTU, and a stimulus and measurement section |
| What component of the VAST system serves to synchronize instructions between the computer and the VAST system’s functional building blocks | DTU |
| What are the three levels of fault detection used in the VAST | Self-test, auto-check, and self- check |
| What test should you run on a VAST station before you apply power to a UUT | Continuity test |
| Programmed halts are used during VAST testing to permit the operator to manually intervene in order to perform which of the following procedures | Observations and adjustments |
| What is the lowest voltage that will destroy or damage an ESD-sensitive device | 20 volts |
| The generation of static electricity on an object by rubbing is known as the | triboelectric effect |
| Under which of the following conditions is generated static electricity decreased | Humid air |
| Which of the following is NOT an ESD prime generator | Carbon impregnated polyethylene |
| What is the minimum resistance for personnel ground straps | 250,000 ohms |
| Which of the following procedures should NOT be performed when working on ESD-sensitive devices | Perform dielectric strength tests |
| The minimum requirements for navigation lights on all military heavier-than-air aircraft are established by what agency | Federal Aviation Administration |
| Flight safety is the primary purpose of which of the following lights | Anticollision lights |
| Refer to figure 4-6 in your text. The actuation of what device releases the magnetic brake allowing the landing light to extend or retract | Mechanical linkage and retract- extend switch actuation |
| What type of light provides the landing safety officer with a visual indication of a carrier aircraft’s safe or unsafe landing configuration | Approach lights |
| Angle of attack is too low | Red |
| Angle of attack is too high | Green |
| Angle of attack is optimum | Amber |
| What lights provide the pilot with angle-of-attack information | Indexer lights |
| With reference to the indexer lights, an inverted V indicates to the pilot that the angle of attack is in which of the following positions | Very low |
| What is the landing configuration of an aircraft if the landing signal officer (LSO) observes flashing approach lights | The arresting gear is not fully extended |
| What is the function of the arresting gear override switch | It allows the approach lights to function properly while the arresting hook is up |
| The fuselage formation lights are connected in parallel with and controlled by the same switches as what other lights | The wingtip formation lights only |
| What is the purpose of the in-flight refueling probe light | To illuminate the probe of the receiver aircraft and the drogue of the refueling aircraft |
| When a controllable light is mounted in the nose of a helicopter, it has what total number of degrees of azimuth travel | 360° |
| When replacing aircraft interior lamps or light covers, you should make sure that replacements meet the same specifications as the originally installed units for which of the following reasons | Original specifications were based on scientific consider- actions of necessity and crew comfort |
| What are the advantages of the grain-of-wheat instrument lamps over other types of lamps used in instrument systems | Longer life, more rugged, and better illumination |
| What lighting feature is provided to aid crew member who is reading a chart | Extension lights |
| Which of the following statements describes the push-to-test feature on warning lights | It provides a means for checking the condition of the warning light bulb only |
| It indicates there is a requirement for immediate action | Red Legend-type Light |
| A malfunction is indicated | Yellow Legend-type Light |
| A safe or normal configuration is indicated | Green Legend-type Light |
| The condition or performance of equipment is indicated | Green Legend-type Light |
| In aircraft hydraulic systems, the AE maintains circuits that control the fluid____ | Flow |
| All hydraulic systems contain a minimum of which of the following basic components | Pump, selector valve, actuator, and reservoir |
| Which of the following components directs the fluid flow in a hydraulic sysytem | Selector valve |
| Hydraulic pressure is supplied to AFCS components by which of the following components of the hydraulic surface control booster sysytem | Engagement valve |
| When the hydraulic transfer valve is engaged, which of the following forces hold(s) the plunger mechanism in the center position | Both 2 and 3 above |
| The hydraulic surface control booster system operates in which of the following modes | Two--manual and AFCS |
| In the AFCS, what is the purpose of the modulator piston linear transducer | To send rate signals to the AFCS computer |
| Which of the following functions is common to both the left and right main gear torque-link switches | Preventing the throttles from being placed in the reverse propeller range while airborne |
| What component prevents the landing gear control lever from being placed in the wheel-up position when the weight of the aircraft is on the landing gear | An electrically operated but de-energized solenoid |
| Retraction of the arresting hook is electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated; however, extension of the hook is accomplished by the use of what means | Hydraulic power only |
| What is the purpose of the time-delay relay in the relay panel | To ensure that the arresting hook is fully up and locked before hydraulic pressure is removed |
| Controls hydraulic pressure to the steer-damper unit | Steering shutoff valve |
| Permits restricted hydraulic fluid flow to the bypass valve to dampen nosewheel shimmy | Unidirectional restrictors |
| Controls the flow of fluid to the actuator | Servo valve |
| Prevents system pressure from becoming excessive in the steer- damper unit | Fluid compensator |
| Contains a swivel disconnect switch to prevent reverse steering | Steering feedback potentiometer |
| Feeds a signal to the steering amplifier as the nosewheel is moved | Steering feedback potentiometer |
| Provides a nonlinear steering response as it is varied mechanically by the rudder pedals | Command potentiometer |
| Receives the turn signal ordered by the rudder pedals from the command potentiometer | Steering amplifier |
| The catapulting system’s launch bar warning light illuminates when which of the following conditions exist | Solenoid A is energized |
| The launch bar control switch is placed to retract, and the warning light remains on; What component failure is indicated | Selector valve |
| Which of the following is a description of a speed brake control switch | Speed brake extension will stop when the switch is released from the OUT position |
| To retract the speed brakes, the speed brake control switch is moved to the IN position, causing solenoid A and solenoid B to be in which of the following states | De-energized |
| Which of the following statements best describes the operational principle of the canopy selector valve | It is manually or electrically actuated and hydraulically operated |
| To close the canopy, which of the following conditions must exist | The control circuit breaker closed, the canopy switch closed, and solenoid 2 energized |
| To open the canopy, which of the following conditions must exist | The control circuit breaker closed, the canopy switch open, and solenoid 1 energized |
| Ensure the fluid in the hydraulic motor is not surging | Flow regulator |
| Simultaneously passes voltage to the hydraulic selector valve and dump valve | Pressure sensing switch |
| Protects the motor against reverse fluid pressure | Check valve |
| Enables accumulated moisture to escape from the air system | Dump valve |
| Which one is the principal cause of cabin temperatures rising above the level at which the crew can maintain top physical and mental efficiency | Ram-air friction |
| Temperature that is measured from a point at which there is no molecular motion is known as the | absolute temperature |
| Which of the following is a correct temperature equivalent | 100°C = 212°F |
| The cabin air-conditioning and pressurization system maintains the cabin air temperature and pressure at a comfortable and safe level by forcing which of the following kinds of air through cockpit diffusers | Dehumidified refrigerated air and Hot engine bleed air |
| In an aircraft, cabin air pressure is controlled by the operation of which of the following components | A safety valve and a manual dump control, A pressure regulator and a safety valve, and A manual dump control and a pressure regulator |
| With the cockpit switch in the ON position, the desired cabin temperature is maintained by which of the following means | Proportional amounts of engine bleed air and refrigerated air being mixed by the dual temperature control valve |
| When the cockpit switch is in the RAM AIR position, what are the conditions of the various valves | The dual temperature control valve is in the full hot position, the cabin bleed-air valve is closed, and the cabin ram-air valve is selected by the MAN/RAM AIR switch |
| Cabin temperature changes are anticipated by what component(s) | Cabin duct dual temperature sensor |
| At what altitude is cabin pressurization automatically initiated | 8,000 feet |
| Which of the following is the pressure schedule maintained by the cabin pressure regulator | UP TO 8,000 FEET, THE CABIN PRESSURE IS THE SAME AS AMBIENT; ABOVE 8,000 FEET, THE CABIN PRESSURE REMAINS AT THE 8,000-FOOT PRESSURE LEVEL UNTIL A DIFFERENTIAL OF 5-PSI EXISTS BETWEEN CABIN AND AMBIENT PRESSURES; BEYOND THIS ALTITUDE THE PRESSURE DIFFEREN |
| Under what set of conditions will the right forward and aft equipment compartments receive moist, cooled bleed air | When the equipment cooling valve is open, the ram-air valves are closed, and the temperature iS above 46°C |
| What is the function of the cabin duct limit bridge | To limit the temperature of the cabin inlet air |
| What is the purpose of the voltage from the feedback potentiometer in the cabin dual temperature control valve | To reduce the starting voltage once the valve actuator motor has started rotating |
| Windshield overheating is prevented by the combined actions of a shutoff valve and what other component | A thermostat |
| What is the location of the heating element for windshield anti-icing and defogging | Between the outer glass and the vinyl plastic core |
| What method is used to deice the empennage of P-3 aircraft | The leading edges of the vertical and horizontal stabilizers are electrically heated |
| Jet engine starters must have which of the following capabilities | High starting torque and high speed |
| What two sections make up the constant-speed drive/starter (CSD/S) unit | A turbine motor and a planetary differential transmission |
| The CSD/S is maintaining an output of 8,000 RPM from the engine input drive shaft; In what mode is the CSD/S operating | The constant-speed drive mode |
| The holding relay receives its positive potential after the start switch is momentarily pressed through the | normally closed stop switch |
| For a fire to occur, what elements must be present | Heat, oxygen, and a combustible material |
| In an electronic ignition system, what component develops the voltage that produces a spark | The exciter |
| In an electronic ignition system, ignition is discontinued when what percentage of the rated engine speed is reached | Between 45 and 65 percent |
| In turbine-powered aircraft, what relationship, if any, exists between engine power and turbine temperature | They are directly proportional |
| By what means does an engine temperature control system on turboprop engines control engine torque | Electronic fuel trimming |
| The fuel shutoff valve is electrically closed on engine shutdown by placing the condition lever in what position | Ground stop |
| The engine coordinators function to coordinate the power and condition levers along with what other component(s) | The fuel control, the propeller, and the electronic fuel trimming circuit |
| The discriminating device will complete the feather cycle when the condition lever is placed in feather and the power lever is placed in what position | In any position |
| The reference temperature and turbine inlet temperature signals sent to the temperature datum control indicate a difference greater than 1.9°C, and a control signal is sent to the temperature datum valve.With the power lever in the temperature controlling | range and the TEMP DATUM switch in the AUTO position, the control signal causes the temperature datum valve to...regulate the fuel flow to the engine being controlled |
| Engine speed is less than 94% and the engine coordinator is set above 66°. fit what temperature is the normal limiting temperature automatically set | 978°C |
| Dual unit thermocouples are radially mounted in what part of the engine | Turbine inlet case |
| By which of the following methods are thermocouples electrically connected to provide an average temperature | In parallel |
| An air turbine starter can be operated by compressed air from a GTC, an APU, or what other device | An operating engine |
| What is the function of the engine start system’s speed-sensitive control | To activate internal switches at predetermined intervals relative to the engine’s normal speed |
| The ignition exciter provides which of the following voltages | A stepped-up voltage for firing the ignition plugs |
| What behavior of the paralleling lamp indicates that the secondary element of a fuel pump has failed | It never illuminates |
| Along with the temperature datum valve, the fuel control functions to provide a starting fuel flow schedule and to | prevent engine overtemperature and compressor surge |
| At what percentage, if any, of the rated engine RPM does the fuel control shutoff valve open to permit fuel flow to the engine | None |
| The temperature datum valve is located in which of the following positions | Between the fuel control and the engine fuel nozzles |
| What is the function of compressor bleed-air valves | To reduce the compressor load during starts |
| The engine selector switch is placed in the engine No. 1 position, and the fuel and ignition switch for engine No. 1 is ON.What will happen to (a) the fuel control relay and (b) the temperature datum relay | (a) De-energize(b) energize |
| Which of the following conditions exists when the start control valve is energized | Each of the above |
| The yellow starter valve lights illuminate when which of the following conditions exists | The start control valve is open |
| Which of the following events occurs when approximately 65% RPM is reached | The fuel pumps will operate in series |
| Anti-icing air is fed to the engine when the solenoid is energized.Energizing the solenoid causes the pressure in the anti-icing valve to | decrease in the poppet valve body |
| For any slow-cycle operation, the timing cycle for propeller deicers is such that current is supplied to the heating elements for approximately what time period | 40 to 75 seconds |
| The propeller deice timer motor is changed from fast speed to slow speed by which of the following actions | Switching an additional fixed resistor in series with the variable resistor |
| Under what condition will a fire warning light illuminate | When the resistance of the sensing element decreases to a predetermined level due to an increase in temperature |
| What is the purpose of the short discriminator circuit in the fire warning system | To prevent the fire warning system from actuating when a short occurs in the circuit |
| Which of the following statements describes the means by which CF3Br extinguishes an aircraft engine fire | It displaces the air in the nacelle, making the air incapable of supporting a fire |
| What component controls the oil cooler door position when the oil cooler switch is in the automatic mode | A thermostat |
| On an aircraft, what control system serves to vary the exhaust escape area to obtain the desired thrust and to maintain safe operating conditions | Variable exhaust nozzle system |
| What VEN system components serve to schedule, compute, engine operation | ECA |
| When the throttle is moved to the idle POSition, the VEN area rapidly moves to almost full open. The full open VEN area has which of the and control following effects on engine performance | It allows higher idle speed;reduces acceleration time; Aids starting; lowers thrust |
| Decreasing the VEN area has what effect, if any, on EGT | Increases EGT |
| What component provides feedback to the ECA to ensure the VEN is positioned correctly | The VEN position transmitter LVDT |
| What is the function of the VEN power unit | To provide hydraulic pressure to the actuator to position the VEN |
| What is the function of the propeller governor | To control engine speed by varying the pitch of the propeller |
| The pitch of the propeller blade is varied by porting hydraulic fluid directly to which of the following parts of the propeller piston | Geared cam |
| The synchrophaser will function in which of the following modes | Normal and Synchrophasing |
| What is the function of the pulse generator in the synchrophaser system | To provide pulses for phase and speed control of the propellers |
| What is the purpose of the phase and trim control in the synchrophaser system | To set the phase relationship between master and slave propellers |
| What is the function of the speed bias servo assembly | To translate synchrophaser electrical signals into mechanical bias |
| The synchrophaser provides which of the following servomotor control voltages | An ac voltage in phase or 180° out of phase with the voltage applied to the reference |
| In the input windings of the magnetic modulator, what parameters of the current control the amplitude and phase of the modulator’s output | Amplitude controls magnitude, and phase controls direction |
| In a synchrophaser, what governoring mode is used to provide improved engine response to transient RPM changes | Normal mode |
| As the power lever is moved to decrease power, a more positive voltage is applied to the speed derivative circuit.What is the result of this action | Resetting of the mechanical governor towards a decrease in propeller pitch |
| In the synchrophaser, the speed derivative circuit senses changes in engine RPM and generates signals having what function | To dampen engine RPM changes |
| The magnitudes of the signal input to the No. 1 winding of the magnetic modulator vary as a result of the | frequency changes in the engine’s tachometer generator |
| When the synchrophasing mode of operation is used, all engines except the master engine operate with synchrophasing.With what does the master engine operate | Normal governing only |
| Of the sequences listed, which one results in the propellers of the synchrophasing system becoming synchronized | PULSES FROM PROPELLERS ARE FED TO THE SYNCHROPHASER, SLAVE PULSES ARE COMPARED WITH THE MASTER PULSES, ERROR VOLTAGES ARE ROUTED TO THE AMPLIFIER, THE SPEED BIAS SERVOMOTOR REACTS TO THE AMPLIFIER SIGNAL, AND THE SLAVE ENGINE SPEED CHANGES |
| During a propeller underspeed condition, V206A experiences which of the following input voltage changes | A sudden change from positive to negative |
| Zener diodes VR405 and VR408 function to connect the speed- error circuit to the summing point when an off-speed condition exists. What is their function, if any, during an on-speed condition | To prevent formation of transients in the speed-error circuit potentiometer |
| What synchrophaser circuit prevents the slave engine from following an overspeeding or underspeeding master engine | The 2% limiting circuit |
| What is the purpose of resynchrophasing | To correct for accumulated one- direction errors |
| What assembly maintains the minimum desired low-pitch angle | Low-pitch stop |
| What is the purpose of the Beta follow-up stop | To provide a secondary low-pitch stop |
| The function of the pitchlock mechanism in the propeller is to prevent which of the following conditions | Pitchlock is blocked out between blade angles of +57° and +86°.What action does this permit |
| If the fuel governor and the propeller pitchlock test switch were to be placed in the TEST position, what would be the result | The propeller governor RPM would be reset to permit ground check of pitchlock and fuel governor functions |
| When needed, the negative torque system functions in what way | To increase blade angle |
| If the negative torque system fails during in-flight unfeather operations, what system limits negative torque | Airstart blade angle |
| The process of aligning the propeller to the airstream to minimize drag during engine shutdown conditions is known as | feathering |
| The function of the feather pump pressure cutout override switch is to bypass the feather pressure switch to prevent which of the following occurrences | The late commencement of the minimum feather position |
| When is the automatic feathering system used | During takeoffs only |
| To activate the thrust signal device to cause autofeathering, what must be the condition of (a) the autofeathering arming switch and (b) the power lever quadrant switch | (a) Closed (b) closed |
| What condition is indicated when the four autofeather system indicator lamps are illuminated | All autofeather systems are armed |
| When the power levers (throttles) are set in the taxi range, the propeller blade pitch and engine fuel flow are controlled by which of the following means | The power levers control both the blade pitch and the engine fuel flow through the hydromechanical linkage |
| Which of the following is a function of the approach power compensator system | To control the engine power automatically during landing approaches |
| In the approach power compensator system, what component/aircraft system provides the computer with aircraft approach angle information | The angle-of-attack transducer |
| Which of the following statements describes the approach power compensator system | The computer provides no corrective signal to reposition the throttle as long as the acceleration is 1 g, and the angle of attack is optimum for landing approaches The system is capable of operating in three ambient temperature ranges to control engine pe |
| After spreading the blades on the H-60 helicopter, the bladefold actuators run in the fold direction to relieve the stress on what component | The segment gear in the bladefold actuator |
| At supersonic speeds greater than Mach 2, the variable inlet duct ramp system allows which of the following events to occur | Subsonic air to enter the engine only |
| Which of the following statements describes the earth’s atmosphere | The air molecules are closer together at the bottom of the atmosphere than at the topThe weight of the air pressing down from above determines the air pressure at any given altitude The air is more dense on the earth’ s surface than at an altitude of 1,00 |
| The altimeter is part of what aircraft system | Pitot-static |
| In the pitot-static system, the term pitot represents what type of pressure | Impact |
| In computing airspeed, the airspeed indicator uses which of the following pressures | The difference between static and impact pressure |
| The accuracy of the airspeed indicator readings may be affected by which of the following conditions | Temperature changes in the instrument Air turbulence around the pitot tube Imperfect scaling of the indicator dial Each of the above |
| .An aircraft’s Mach indicator reads 0.5 when the airspeed indicator shows 300 knots.If the airspeed were to double to 600 knots, which statement would reflect the aircraft’s speed and Mach indication | The aircraft is at the speed of sound, and the Mach indication is 1 |
| Which of the following is a meaning of the term altitude | Elevation.The distance above mean sea level (MSL)The distance above ground level (AGL)Each of the above |
| At what altitude does gravity acting on the atmosphere produce a pressure of 14.70 PSI and support a column of mercury to a height of 29.92 inches | MSL |
| The altitude reading of a properly calibrated altimeter referenced to 29.92 inches of mercury (Hg) is known as the | pressure altitude |
| If, at sea level, there is a barometric change of 0.03 inches, the altimeter reading would change by how many feet | 27 feet |
| At what altitude does the barometric pressure setting for aircraft altimeters change from the local barometric pressure to 29.92 inches | 18,000 feet |
| For the pilot to obtain the best performance from the aircraft engine, which of the following altitudes should be known | Density |
| If an aircraft is in level flight, what will the vertical speed indicator (VSI) pointer indicate | 0.0 |
| What is the purpose of the air data computer (ADC) | To sense the characteristics of the air surrounding the aircraft and correct the data to compensate for aircraft induced errors |
| What are the four data sense inputs to the ADC | Pitot pressure, static pressure, total temperature, and AOA |
| What symbol represents the correct impact pressure | Qc |
| Which of the following is the meaning of the term angle of attack | The difference between the leading edge of the wing and nose of the aircraft relative to the air through which it is passing |
| What is the purpose of the potentiometers in the angle-of- attack transmitter | To convert mechanical motion into proportional electrical signals |
| What is the purpose of the angle-of- attack system | To indicate the aircraft attitude with respect to the surrounding air mass |
| Static pressure errors become a significant factor in the accuracy of pressure indications at what relative speeds | Supersonic and transonic |
| There are two variables that cause the most significant errors in indicated static pressure as detected by the aircraft static ports. One of these is the Mach number (aircraft speed) and the other one is the | angle of attack |
| What is meant by impact pressure (Qc) | The force of the air against the aircraft |
| The two temperatures that make up the total temperature are the ambient temperature plus the | temperature increase created by the motion of the aircraft What is the function of the AICS |
| In the automatic altitude reporting system, position and altitude reporting is accomplished by which of the following components | Transponders |
| The automatic altitude reporting system provides the aircraft’s altitude in which of the following increments | 100 feet |
| What total number of dimensions is/are automatically displayed on a radar presentation by the semiautomatic air traffic control system | Three |
| Which of the following is the primary reason for the development of the AIMS system | To improve air traffic control within the United States |
| The maximum allowable difference between the aircraft’s altitude and the ground display altitude in the AIMS system is what total number of feet | ±125 feet |
| Most high-performance naval aircraft use which of the following altimeters as part of the AIMS system | AAJ-19/A |
| What are the operational limits for the CPU-46/A altitude computer | 80,000 feet altitude and Mach 2.5 |
| If the CPU-46/A altitude computer were to fail, what would happen to the AAU-19/A altimeter and the altitude reporting encoder | The altimeter automatically reverts to the pneumatic standby mode, and the encoder is deactivated |
| The AAU-19/A altimeter operates as a standard altimeter when it is placed in which of the following modes | Standby |
| What components in the AAU-24/A altimeter overcome the effects of the stop-and-jump friction | Vibrators |
| When turning the baroset knob on the AAU-24/A altimeter, what device drives the barometric counter | A spur gear |
| When used in naval aircraft, the angle-of-sideslip system is used along with which of the following systems | .Rocket firing system |
| The angle-of-attack indicating system operates by detecting | .airflow differential pressure |
| If the angle-of-arrack of an air- craft is changed, which of the following actions occur(s) in the self-balancing bridge circuit of the AOA system | An error voltage will exist between the transmitter and receiver potentiometers in the circuit A servomotor drives the receiver potentiometer to return the bridge circuit to null Both 1 and 2 above |
| If the red arrow on the pilot’s AOA indexer illuminates, which of the following conditions exist | The aircraft is nose low |
| On most naval aircraft, the stall warning system is activated by which of the following systems | Angle-of-attack system |
| Which of the following groups of general characteristics is the most desirable for an instrument gyroscope | Heavy weight for small size and high speed of rotation |
| For a gyro to have two degrees of freedom, the platform must have what total number of gimbals | Two |
| What are the two fundamental properties for gyroscopic action | Rigidity in space and precession |
| A spinning gyro precesses when subjected to a deflecting force. Which of the following actions will make the gyro precess at a faster rate | 1.A decrease in the speed of the rotor 2.An increase in the force applied 3.Both 1 and 2 above |
| What action does the gyro horizon have, relative to its case, to indicate aircraft attitude | The case revolves about the gyro |
| The sphere in the attitude indicator may be centered by a control on the face of the indicator to correct for which of the following flight attitudes | Pitch |
| In a turn-and-bank indicator, what factor(s) determine(s) the position of the ball | .Natural forces |
| In a flight-coordinated turn, the ball of a turn-and-bank indicator will be in which of the following positions | 1.The center 2.To the left showing a slip.Either 2 or 3 above, depending on the direction of the turn |
| As the aircraft turns, the turn-and- bank indicator frame moves to the side opposite the turn.However the indicator needle moves in the direction of the turn for which of the following reasons | The needle is connected to the frame in such a manner to cause the two to move in opposite directions |
| What instrument does the pilot use to reduce the possibility of damage to the aircraft from excessive stress | The accelerometer |
| What is the reading on the accelerometer of an aircraft weighing 40,000 pounds and traveling in straight-and-level flight | +1 g |
| An aircraft weighed 10,000 pounds and has a lift equal to 20,000 Pounds. Which of the following readings will the accelerometer show | +2 g |
| The standard Navy aircraft clock has what type of movement | 12-hour, 8-day |
| What is the purpose of filling the bowl of an aircraft direct-reading compass with a liquid | To slow the movement o+ the compass card |
| What is the purpose of the line on the direct-reading card lubber compass | To serve as a reference mark when reading the card |
| The standby attitude indicator is capable of displaying a maximum of how many degrees of roll | 360° |
| A jet engine’s tachometer is referenced to a percentage of what RPM | Takeoff |
| The indicator in a tachometer system is designed to respond to changes in | frequency |
| What is the principle difference between a two-pole and a four-pole tachometer generator | The polarity of their rotors |
| At high speeds, the armature of a synchronous motor is brought into synchronism by which of the following components | Hysteresis disk |
| What is the purpose of concentrating the flux near the outside edge of the drag disk | To provide the maximum torque to weight ratio |
| Which of the following are characteristics of the vertical scale indicator | Its compactness and easily readable scale |
| Activation of the test switch in a vertical scale indicating system will cause the RPM indicator to read what percentage of RPM | 80% |
| When the galvanometers in a Whetstone bridge thermometer indicates zero, which of the following circuit conditions exist | The combined resistance of X plus Y equals the resistance of Z, plus bulb resistance |
| Which of the following quantities is indicated on the meter scale | Temperature of the bulb |
| In normal operation, an unbalance in the radiometer bridge circuit is caused by a change of resistance in which of the following components | The thermometer bulb |
| Thermocouple indicators operate on which of the following principles | Dissimilar metal junctions produce an electromotive force when heated |
| A total of how many dual-unit thermocouples are mounted in each engine turbine inlet casing of the P-3 aircraft | 18 |
| What is the purpose of routing engine turbine inlet temperature thermocouple wiring through a separate harness to the TIT indicator | To prevent outside signals from changing the average voltage produced by the thermocouples |
| Thermocouples in an engine exhaust system convert exhaust gas temperature into which of the following units of measurement | Millivolts |
| In a fuel flow transmitter, the incoming fuel is directed against what component | Vane |
| What force moves component 4 of the fuel flow transmitter | The magnetic force of component 5 |
| When the input fuel pressure to the fuel flow transmitter becomes excessively high, the instrument is bypassed by what transmitter component | Relief valve |
| The fuel flow transmitter converts fuel flow into an electrical signal, which represents the fuel flow in pounds per hour. This signal is transmitted to what component in the system | The synchro receiver in the fuel flow indicator |
| In the fuel flow transmitter, what component eliminates the swirling motion of the incoming fuel | Straightening vanes |
| What quantity of fuel is remaining in the fuel cells | 9,990 pounds |
| In the fuel flow totalizer indicator, what component causes the pointer to deflect proportionally to the fuel being consumed | The magnetic drum and cup linkage |
| In a synchro oil pressure system, the movement of the indicator needle depends on which of the following conditions | 1.Oil pressure in the engine 2.Sensing the action of the oil pressure transmitter 3.Voltages set up in the synchro stators 4.Each of the above |
| What is the purpose of the vent on the fuel pressure transmitter | To allow the transmitter to accurately measure the differential pressure between the pump and the atmosphere |
| Movement of the transmitter potentiometer will have which of the following results | Applies a signal to the nozzle position indicator |
| The torquemeter system operates on the principle that engine loading will have which of the following results | Create a slight twist, which is detected by magnetic pickups and measured electronically |
| In what units of measurement do capacitive-type fuel quantity gauges indicate the fuel quantity in a tank | Pounds |
| The capacitance of the fuel gauge capacitor depends on which of the following factors | 1.The area of the plates 2.The distance between the plates 3.The dielectric constant 4.Each of the above |
| Which of the following conditions exists in the circuit as the fuel quantity increases | Tank unit capacitance increases, tank unit leg current increases, and transformer voltage and voltage across the voltmeter are in phase |
| The indicator’s motor direction of rotation is determined by a comparison of what characteristics of two voltages | Phase |
| As the fuel level varies, the balance of the bridge is maintained by the automatic adjustment of what variable resistor | R128 |
| If two or more fuel tank units are connected in parallel, the effects of what condition is minimized | Variations in aircraft attitude |
| Which of the following conditions will cause the dielectric constant and fuel density to deviate | Temperature and composition of the fuel |
| What unit of measurement is indicated by hydraulic pressure indicators in most naval aircraft | Pounds per square inch |
| In a dc position-indicating system, what is the purpose of the copper cylinder in the indicator | To dampen pointer oscillation |
| Which of the following procedures should you follow to ensure the accuracy of aircraft instruments | Periodically subject them to functional tests |
| What is indicated by a red mark on an instrument glass | A maximum limit |
| What is the purpose of the white index mark painted at the bottom center of all instruments color- marked for operating ranges | To show whether or not the glass cover has moved after the operating ranges have been marked |
| You should perform which of the following checks during the daily inspection of an aircraft’s instrument panel | 1.For the proper operation of caging and setting knobs 2.For the proper operation of lights 3.For loose or cracked cover glass 4.Each of the above |
| Which of the following statements about the lubrication of aircraft instruments is correct | Squadron personnel rarely lubricate any part of the instruments |
| To what publication should you refer for detailed information on aircraft tubing and tubing repair | NAVAIR 01-1A-8 |
| Rigid tubing in modern aircraft may be made from which of the following metals/alloys | 2.Aluminum alloy 3.Corrosion-resistant steel 4.Both 2 and 3 above |
| Where are identification markings located on rigid tubing used in naval aircraft | Near the fittings and in each compartment |
| When identification tape is used on rigid tubing in military aircraft, the function of the tubing is identified by the | color, wording, and symbols on 1-inch-wide tape |
| Of the following groupings, which one consists of material classified as physically dangerous and should have PHDAN printed on identifying tape or lines carrying the material | Carbon dioxide, gaseous oxygen~ nitrogen gas, and freon |
| What method is used to identify the specifications of flexible tubing installed on naval aircraft | A code of dots and dashes printed on the tubing |
| Which of the following statements about the replacement of high- and low-pressure flexible hose is correct | Low-pressure hose may be fabricated locally, and high- pressure hose must be obtained through supply |
| What action should you take to prevent flexible hose from being pulled loose from the engine due to engine movement during hose installment | Allow slack between the last hose support and the connection to the engine |
| The pointer on the fuel flow indicator swings to the side of the dial and a squeal is heard from the instrument. Which of the following conditions could cause this malfunction | 1.A short in the system 2.Power leads reversed to the stator 3. Both 1 and 2 above |
| When it is necessary to substitute one aircraft instrument for another, which of the following precautions should you take | Make sure that the instruments have the same stock number |
| What method should you use to dispose of containers in which instruments are received | Retain them for future use in packaging instruments |
| Which of the following statements describes the purpose of air navigation equipment | 1.It is used to measure distance and time 2.It is uses to determine aircraft position 3.It is used to determine the direction an aircraft must fly to reach its destination 4.Each of the above |
| The intended horizontal direction of travel | Course |
| The horizontal direction of one terrestrial point from another | Bearing |
| The horizontal direction in which an aircraft is pointed | Heading |
| The separation between two points measured in some scaler quantity | Distance |
| Planes that pass through the earth perpendicular to the earth’s rotational axis and intersect with the earth’s surface to form circles are known as | parallels |
| Relative to the earth’s surface, if an aircraft were at latitude 37° S and longitude 83° E, it would be at which of the following positions | 83° east of Greenwich, England, and 37° south of the equator |
| Convert the following coordinates from decimal form to degree/ minutes/seconds form: Latitude--47.7° N Longitude--131.45° E | 47°42' N and 131°27' E, respectively |
| An irregular line connecting points on a map of the earth, indicating where a compass points to true north | Agonic line |
| An irregular line connecting points on a map of the earth, indicating where there is the same variation from true north | Isogonic line |
| The angular difference between the directions of true north and magnetic north at a particular location | Variation |
| The angular difference between the direction of the earth’s magnetic field and the compass reading due to nearby electromagnetic influences | Deviation |
| If variation is 6° west and deviation is 1° west, the compass error is equal to | 6° + 1° = 7° west |
| If variation is (-) 3° and deviation is (+) 4°, the compass error is equal to | (-)3° + (+)4° = (+)1° or 1° eastThe difference between the direction of the earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal at any location on the earth’s surface is known as the |
| A line on a map that connects all places having equal dip angles is known as an | isoclinic line |
| The aircraft navigator is plotting the present position by using aircraft course and speed, last known position, elapsed time, and any changes in speed and course since the last known position. What type of navigation is the navigator using | Dead reckoning |
| Accelerometers in inertial navigation equipment are mounted on a platform that remains perpendicular to the earth’s gravitational field at all times to sense | gravity changes and vehicle accelerations |
| In the compass system, what unit senses the direction of the flux lines of the earth’s magnetic field | The flux valve |
| A displacement gyro provides which of the following electrical signals | Azimuth, pitch, and roll |
| Roll signals to the AFCS control amplifier | Roll control transmitter |
| Roll signals to indicators | Outer roll control transmitter |
| Pitch signals to the indicators | Pitch servo control transmitter |
| The directional gyro pitch gimbal is maintained perpendicular to the surface of the earth by a motor- generator that is driven by the amplified output of | the vertical gyro’s pitch servo control transmitter |
| The aircraft horizontal situation indicator will provide which of the following items of information | 1.The selected course to an electronic ground station 2.The aircraft’s deviation from a selected course 3.The pictorial bearing and the distance in nautical miles to an electronic ground station 4.Each of the above |
| The distance counter of the bearing- distance-heading indicator displays which of the following information | 1.Distance to base 2.Distance to target 3. Distance to a ground electronic station 4.Each of the above |
| Used in areas where the earth’s magnetic field is appreciably distorted | FREE |
| Used in normal conditions | SLAVED |
| Used when the displacement gyro’s signals are not reliable | COMPASS |
| Used when the flux valve signal is unreliable | FREE |
| What component provides the timing, switching, and voltages used for erection, monitoring, and leveling the AHRS displacement gyroscopes | Amplifier power supply |
| The compass adapter compensator provides correct heading information to the attitude indicator when it is operating in which of the following modes | 1.FREE 2.COMPASS 3.SLAVED 4.Each of the above |
| The latitude degrees control on the compass controller provides a signal to the directional gyroscope for compensation of | gyroscope rigidity |
| In which of the following modes of operation will the directional gyro provide only azimuth information to the indicator | FREE |
| The two basic categories of navigation are known as | position fixing and dead reckoning |
| Dead reckoning is the process by which position is calculated from what known data | Course, speed, elapsed time, and previous position |
| The inertial navigation system is a unique navigation system for which of the following reasons | It is independent of its operating environment |
| Every body continues its state of rest, or of uniform motion in a straight line, unless it is compelled to change that state by forces impressed upon it.This statement defines which of the following laws | Newton’s first law of motion |
| Acceleration is proportional to the resultant force and is in the same direction as that force.This statement defines which of the following laws | Newton’s second law of motion |
| Which of the following statements defines the terms velocity and acceleration | Velocity is a change in position, and acceleration is a change in velocity |
| What are the two processes used in an inertial navigation system (INS) to determine displacement | Detection and integration |
| What quantity does an INS derive when acceleration is integrated twice over a specific period of time | Displacement |
| Which of the following mathematical processes is used in an INS to derive displacement | Velocity is integrated over a specific period of time |
| f the integral of acceleration with respect to time is velocity, and the integral of velocity with respect to time is displacement, what is the double integral of acceleration with respect to time | Displacement |
| The mathematical process of summing all minute values of a variable function over a given time is known as | integration |
| An INS containing only a single-axis acceleration detecting device can detect which of the following quantities | Acceleration along a straight line parallel to the sensitive axis of the detector |
| When an object is undergoing a change in velocity (either positive or negative), the object is being subjected to which of the following forces | Acceleration |
| During INS operation, the first integrator (velocity) ceases to produce an output when which of the following conditions occur | The net sum of detected accelerations is zero |
| When the first and second integrators cease to produce outputs, the INS readout device should indicate that which of the following conditions exist | The readout has stopped |
| For a two-axis INS to keep track of a vehicle’s position on a plane, orientation of the two accelerometers must be such that their axes are maintained at what angular relationship to each other | Perpendicular |
| If a vehicle equipped with a two- axis INS travels along the x-axis while experiencing a 2-g acceleration, what values of acceleration will the x and y accelerometers detect | 2 g and 0,respectively |
| A vehicle is making a turn while moving at a constant speed.What acceleration is detected by the accelerometers in the vehicle | Centrifugal acceleration |
| The gyros in the stable element are used for what purpose | To provide stabilization signals for the stabilized platform |
| Which of the following components of the INS provides the primary data for the system | Accelerometer |
| What method is used to eliminate the effects of gravity on the accelerometers in an INS | Maintaining the accelerometers level to the horizontal plane |
| What total number of integrators is/are required to produce an output that corresponds to distance (displacement) if the input is acceleration | Two |
| What means is used to eliminate the gravitational effect from the vertical accelerometer’s output signal | The computer subtracts the gravity component from the output of the accelerometer |
| The stable element of an inertial platform is isolated from the angular motion of the aircraft by being mounted on what aircraft part | Gimbals |
| What means is used to stabilize the stable element in the INS | Two two-degree-of-freedom gyros |
| Any displacement of the stable element from its frame of reference is detected by | electrical pickoffs |
| Aircraft heading and attitude information is derived from the | angular relationship of the platform gimbals |
| What gyroscopic principle is used to maintain the stable platform horizontal to the earth | Precession |
| Which of the following terms defines a pendulum | A pivoted mass that is imperfectly balanced |
| When forces are equally applied in a simple pendulum, the angular motion that results will be less if which of the following conditions exists | The length of the pendulum is longer |
| A simple pendulum has its mass suspended at the center of the earth. With respect to the local gravity vector, what angular motion, if any, will the pendulum experience if the suspension point is accelerated horizontally with the earth’s surface | None |
| The process of torquing the platform to a position normal to the gravity vector as the stable element is transported over the earth is known as | Schuler tuning |
| The INS operates about which of the following frames of reference | A rotating frame horizontally aligned in a plane parallel to the surface of the earth and oriented to true north |
| What accelerometers supply the torquing signals to the gyros for leveling the stable element | X and y |
| The accelerometers must be maintained in a truly horizontal reference plane for which of the following reasons | The accelerometers cannot distinguish between horizontal acceleration and gravitational acceleration |
| By what means is the stable element maintained level to the earth during aircraft flight | By causing the gyros to precess |
| If an aircraft is flying west in the Southern Hemisphere, what direction of centripetal correction is needed | North |
| Coriolis corrections are necessary in an INS for which of the following reasons | The earth is a rotating reference for the system |
| What accelerometer and gyro combin- ations make up the north and east Schuler loops, respectively | North accelerometer and east gyro; east accelerometer and north gyro |
| If the integration processes in anINS are to be meaningful, what initial conditions must be known | Initial velocity and vehicle position |
| What three basic forms of external references are used when aligning an INS | Terrestrial, celestial, and inertial |
| What are the two modes used to align an INS | Coarse and fine alignment |
| Fine alignment is the process of aligning the platform axes with the computer axes. This alignment is done by placing the | X- and Y-accelerometer axes mutually perpendicular to the gravity vector |
| During leveling, the outputs of the accelerometers are applied to the gyro whose sensitive axis has what relationship to the sensitive axis of the accelerometer | Perpendicular |
| What reference is being used when a north-seeking platform is aligning itself to true north | The earth’s rotation |
| It is more difficult to align an aircraft INS at sea than the ship’s INS for which of the following reasons | The accelerometers on the ship, being remotely located from the aircraft, do not sense the same accelerations as those on the aircraft |
| In the analytic INS, the platform position is referenced to | a point in space |
| Which of the following types of an INS is most commonly used in naval aircraft | Semianalytic |
| Which of the following types of an INS is/are referenced to inertial space with the accelerometers remaining normal to the earth’s gravitational field | Geometric |
| Which of the following types of an INS is/are used primarily in spacecraft and ballistic missiles | Strap-down only |
| Which of the following types of an INS combines two navigation systems and retains the best characteristics of each to improve accuracy | Hybrid |
| What type of updating process compares the inertial ground velocities with the ground velocities of some other system | Damping effect |
| Compensators of the magnetic compass are adjusted during the process of swinging for which of the following purposes | To reduce deviation error |
| IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 9.54 THROUGH 9.56, ASSUME THAT YOU ARE SWINGING THE COMPASS OF AN AIRCRAFT AND NOTE THE FOLLOWING READINGS | North: 005° South:175.5° East:093.5° West:269.5° |
| What is coefficient C of the north- south deviation in the preceding information | -4.75° |
| What is coefficient B of the east- west deviation in the preceding information | -2° |
| What is coefficient A of the deviation in the preceding information | -7/8° |
| Compensations for coefficient B and C deviations in a direct-reading compass are made by moving the compensator magnets.What method is used to correct excessive coefficient A deviations | Turn the compass in its mount |
| What process is eliminated by using the calibrator set to calibrate an aircraft compass system | Rotating the aircraft on a compass rose |
| What is the accuracy of the electrical heading inputs provided by this calibrator test | 0.1° |
| Errors in the compass system are measured as the difference between the aircraft’s magnetic heading, as indicated on the aircraft’s compass, and the magnetic heading of | a simulated earth’s field |
| What is the purpose of the automatic flight control system (AFCS) | To reduce the pilots workload controlling the aircraft |
| Which of the following aircraft components are examples of airfoils | 1.Fuselages 2.Propellers 3.Wings 4.Each of the above |
| By what means does an airfoil produce lift | By creating low pressure on the rounded surface |
| A movable device attached to the trailing edge of an airfoil increases lift by | increasing the angle of attack |
| If the cockpit control stick of a fixed-wing aircraft were moved aft, what would be the result | The elevators would move up |
| What flight controls must be coordinated when banking an aircraft | Elevators and ailerons only |
| To compensate for an aircraft’s continuous right yaw condition, the pilot should take which of the following actions | Move the rudder trim tab to the right |
| What aileron control is necessary to return the aircraft to laterally level flight from a right bank | The left aileron must go down, and the right aileron must go up |
| The movement of the aircraft nose in the opposite direction of an intended turn is caused by aileron drag and is known as | adverse yaw |
| Which of the following is the major advantage of a helicopter over fixed-wing aircraft | It can fly at zero or very low airspeed |
| Operation of the collective control causes a change in the pitch angle of the | main rotor blades |
| In hovering flight only, helicopter heading is controlled by which of the following controls | Rudder pedals |
| Pitch and directional control of a rotary-wing aircraft is accomplished by the use of the | cyclic stick |
| What is the function of the amplifiers and computers in the AFCS | To determine the magnitude and direction of the correction needed |
| If the AFCS senses deviations from the reference flight conditions, it causes which of the following events to occur | 1.The ailerons to maintain a reference bank angle or heading 2.The elevators to maintain a reference pitch angle or altitude 3.The rudder to coordinate turns or provide yaw damping 4.Each of the above |
| The pilot controls the operatal modes of the AFCS through the use of | .a control panel |
| In what AFCS component are all sensor and command control signals combined and modified to develop output signals used when the AFCS is engaged | Air navigation computer |
| If the force sensor is generating a pitch signal that is used in the AFCS pitch channel, what switch closes | Pitch force |
| Pitch and bank reference information is furnished to the AFCS by a/an | vertical gyro |
| What is implied by the term vertical gyro | The gyro’s spin axis is continuously erected vertical to the surface of the earth |
| AFCS rate gyroscopes serve to detect which of the following rates for the AFCS | 1.Pitch 2.Yaw 3.Roll 4.Each of the above |
| A rate gyro’s output is the result of | third axis motion |
| A rate gyro is mounted in a flexible gimbal whose rotational freedom is restrained by a | torsion-restoring spring |
| Heading information for the AFCS is received from the | aircraft compass system/ inertial navigation system |
| What component of the AFCS corrects the amount of control surface deflection due to changes in airspeed | An airspeed gain control unit |
| The elevator channel of the AFCS is fed a nosedown signal when the flaps are lowered for which of the following reasons | To prevent the aircraft from gaining altitude |
| When the accelerometer is mounted correctly and subjected to a normal gravity force of 1 g, the sensitive element of the normal accelerometer is in what state | Mechanically biased to produce a zero output |
| The phase relationship between the excitation voltage and the signal voltage of the accelerometer transmitter is determined by | direction only |
| What is the purpose of the manual mode of operation of the hydraulic booster package | To provide hydraulic assistance to the pilot in moving the control surfaces |
| A follow-up signal that prevents control surface overshoots in the AFCS is provided by | a control surface position transmitter |
| What component of the hydraulic booster package supplies rate-of- movement information to the AFCS | The modulating piston |
| The final l amplifying link to move the flight control surfaces is supplied by | the servo loop and the flight control system |
| What type of signal is developed by the control surface position transmitter | Feedback signal |
| What type of signal brings the control surface back to the null position | Feedback signal |
| In high-speed aircraft, which of the following AFCS modes is considered to be most critical to safety of flight | STABILITY AUGMENTATION (STAB AUG) |
| What mode of operation functions as the basic hands-off mode of the AFCS | ATTITUDE HOLD |
| What operational mode allows the pilot to manually fly the aircraft without disengaging the AFCS | Control stick steering |
| What AFCS mode of operation enables the pilot to make a hands-off carrier landing | ACLS |
| The SAS 1 system provides electrical control signals that are proportional to sensor inputs to which of the following servo valve(s) | Pitch, roll, and yaw |
| With both SAS 1 and 2 engaged. is the percentage of control authority for flight control movement | 10.0% |
| When sensing a yaw rate, the SAS amplifier processes the signal to remove | long-term yaw rate signals |
| The stabilator system does NOT optimize trim attitudes for which of the following conditions | Descent |
| The primary purpose of the stabilator control system is to stop which of the following attitudes | Noseup |
| When is the stabilator control panel test push button operational | Below 50 KIAS |
| The inner loop control system is a function of the | DAFCS |
| In the pitch channel with the airspeed below 50 KIAS, the pilot can use which of the following means to change cyclic stick position | Trim Rel switch 2.Four-direction (beeper) trim switch 3. Both 1 and 2 above |
| The heading hold mode is only operational when which of the following modes is engaged | Yaw trim |
| What AFCS mode will take the helicopter to a cruise speed of 100 KIAS and 300 feet in altitude if selected by the pilot | Automatic depart |
| Which of following is a function of the ASE in a helicopter | To provide selective attitude retention in all flight axes and to improve handling characteristics |
| To engage the HOVER TRIM ENG button, the pilot must have the CYC CPLR switch in what position | DOPP |
| The ASE control panel has a number of specific control knobs with identifying shapes.What are the shapes of the drift and CG trim knobs, respectively | Bar-shaped and clover-shaped |
| To trim the heading of the helicopter, the pilot must adjust what control knob | Yaw trim |
| The pilot turns the ground-speed control knob for which of the following reasons | To preselect the forward or aft ground speed to be maintained by the couple |
| The pilot turns the drift set knob to | preselect lateral drift |
| The function of the CG trim knob is to let the pilot make small | incremental adjustments in pitch |
| What is the purpose of the four guarded toggle switches on the ASE channel monitor panel | To perform preflight testing and maintenance |
| To maintain the sonar cable perpendicular relative to the horizon, the operator should use what control panel | Cable angle |
| Which of the following signals is delayed by the dual-channel lag amplifier to ensure proper response in helicopter movement | 1.Vertical velocity 2.Cable angle 3.Roll stick position 4.Each of the above |
| During automatic transition from forward flight to hover, what two visual indications are displayed on the hover indicator | Speed drift and rate of descent |
| When the ASE is operating in mode A, which of the following indications appear on the hover indicator | A vertical pointer representing the altitude channel and a horizontal pointer representing the yaw channel |
| When the ASE is operating in mode D, horizontal bar movement represents which of the following conditions | Forward or aft velocityCable angle information is displayed on the hover indicator during what hover mode of operation |
| What are the sources of velocity information used in the inertial velocity system to develop velocity signals | The pitch and roll accelerometers, the vertical gyro, and Doppler system |
| The output voltage of the ASE altitude controller is proportional to | changes in barometric altitude relative to a reference altitude |
| When the pilot moves the cyclic stick in a given direction, what happens to the tip-path plane of rotation of the rotary-wing blades | The plane tilts in that direction |
| What is the function of the collective pitch lever | To change the pitch of all the rotary-wing blades simultaneously |
| What effect does pressing the (a) left and (b) right rudder pedals have on the rotary rudder thrust | (a) Increases(b) decreases |
| What is the function of the collective clutch | To null the position sensor output when the barometric altitude is disengaged |
| What is the function of the ASE rate gyros | To sense the helicopter’s rate of turn and to produce a proportional ac output signal |
| What is the function of the ASE servo valves | To convert pitch and roll error signals into mechanical output |
| What channels are contained in the basic ASE | Pitch, roll, yaw, and collective |
| What component is used to develop error signals that are proportional to the displacement of the fuselage from the horizon for the ASE pitch channel | Vertical gyro |
| A helicopter is at the selected altitude determined by the cyclic stick position.What happens to the gyro output signal and the pitch position sensor signal in the pitch channel | They cancel each other |
| When the ASE is operating in the cable angle mode, what angle(s) must be known to maintain the cable perpendicular to the horizon | The angle between the helicopter floor and the cable |
| .What system is used with the ASE to interpret aircraft movement during sonar operations | Inertial velocity systemWhat method should be used to engage the collective channel in the basic ASE |
| What method should the pilot use to change altitude while the barometric altitude (BAR ALT) is engaged | 2.Depress the BAR ALT button on the collective stick grip 3.Apply force on the collective 4.Both 2 and 3 above |
| During yaw open-loop operation, what action should the pilot take to prevent too much movement of the rudder pedals | Apply an opposing force to the rudder pedals |
Created by:
kyle.sanchez