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General Pharmacology
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| efficacy | the extent to which a drug causes the intended effects in a patient (how well the drug works or doesn't work) |
| drug | a substance used to diagnose, prevent, or treat disease |
| compounding | any manipulation (diluting, combining) performed to produce a dosage-form drug, other than the manipulations described in the directions for use on the labeling of an approved drug product |
| bioavailability | measure of the degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches systemic circulation |
| agonist | a drug that brings about a specific action by binding with the appropriate receptor |
| adverse drug reaction | an undesirable response to a drug by a patient, may vary in severity from mild to fatal |
| adverse drug event | Harm to a patient caused by therapeutic or preventive intervention. Could be due to a medication error or adverse drug reaction. |
| extra label use | the use of a drug that is not specifically listed on the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved label |
| first-pass effect | some orally administered drugs are rapidly metabolized in the liver; the concentration of the drug is greatly reduced before it reaches systemic circulation |
| half-life | the amount of time (usually expressed in hours) that it takes for the quantity of a drug in the body to be reduced by 50% |
| legend | legend drugs are required by law to be dispensed on or by the order of a licensed veterinarian or physician |
| loading dose | an initial higher dose of a drug given at the beginning of a treatment to rapidly achieve a therapeutic concentration in the body |
| manufacturing | the bulk production of drugs for resale outside of the veterinarian–client–patient relationship |
| metabolism (biotransformation) | the biochemical process that alters a drug from an active form to a form that is inactive or that can be eliminated from the body |
| over-the-counter drugs | a drug that can be purchased without a prescription; these drugs contain ingredients that are safe or have low concentrations of an active ingredient |
| parenteral | the route of administration of injectable drugs |
| partition coefficient | the ratio of the solubility of substances (e.g., gas anesthetics) between two states in which they may be found (e.g., blood and gas, gas and rubber goods) |
| prescription (legend) drug | drug that is limited to use under the supervision of a vet b/c of potential danger, difficulty of administration, etc. Legend that designates a prescription drug states: "Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed vet" |
| regimen | a program for administration of a drug that includes the route, the dose (how much), the frequency (how often), and the duration (for how long) of administration |
| residue | an amount of a drug still present in animal tissue or products (e.g., meat, milk, eggs) at a particular point (slaughter or collection) |
| therapeutic index | relationship between a drug’s ability to achieve the desired effect and its tendency to produce toxic effects |
| veterinarian-client-patient relationship | the set of circumstances that must exist between the veterinarian, the client, and the patient before the dispensing of prescription drugs is appropriate |
| withdrawal time | the period of time from when the last dose of medication is administered to when the animal can be slaughtered for food or milk and eggs can be consumed safely |
| pharmacokinetics | sequence of events that happen once a drug enters the body |
| 4 steps of pharmacokinetics | 1. absorption into the blood stream 2. distribution to location where it exerts its action 3. biotransformation; transformed into a form that can be eliminated (usually completed in the liver) 4. excreted from the body (usually the kidneys) |
| pharmacodynamics | the study of how drugs produce changes in the body |
| affinity | how well a drug binds the higher the affinity the better the drug efficacy |
| antagonist | blocks the receptor from binding |
| trade name | an exclusive property of a company that manufactures; patented |
| generic name | common name chosen by a company but don't have the exclusive right to the drug or the name ;unpatented |
| receptor | a group of specialized molecules on or in a cell that bind with a drug to produce an effect |
| List 4 sources of drugs used in veterinary medicine. | animal products, plant materials, minerals, and synthetic products |
| What are 4 components of a drug regimen? | the dose, the route of administration, the frequency of administration, and the duration of administration |
| What conditions must be met before a valid veterinarian-client-patient-relationship can be shown to exist? | - the vet must assume responsibility for making clinical judgments in relation to the health of the anima - the vet must have recently seen the animal and be acquainted with its care - the vet must be available for follow-up care of the animal |
| What are the responsibilities of a veterinary technician in the administration of drug orders? | - carry out vet’s orders - read drug label 3 times to ensure proper drug & administer correct dose by correct route - be aware of expected effects & potential adverse side effects - be aware of withdrawal times & potential residue problems |
| List the 11 possible routes for administering a drug to a patient. | - oral - subcutaneous (SQ or SC) - intramuscular (IM) - intravenous (IV) - intraperitoneal - intraarterial - intracardiac - intramedullary - inhalation - topical - intradermal |
| List some of the factors that influence drug absorption. | - method of absorption - pH of the drug and its ionization status - absorptive surface area - blood supply to the area - solubility of the drug - dosage form - status of the gastrointestinal tract - interactions with other drugs |
| Drugs usually produce their effects by combining with specific cellular _____. | receptors |
| What are 6 items that must be included on a drug label? | drug names (generic and trade) drug concentration and quantity name and address of the manufacturer controlled substance status manufacturer’s control or lot number drug’s expiration date |
| What are 3 government agencies that regulate the development, approval, & use of animal health products? | FDA, EPA, & USDA |
| Why do many veterinary clinics dispense rather than prescribe most of the drugs t hat they use? | because of the profit earned from selling the products |
| Describe the marketing of animal health products. | - veterinary pharmaceuticals may be purchased directly from the manufacturer, from distributors, or from generic mail order companies - drugs may be sold under one label to graduate veterinarians & under another as an over-the-counter product |
| What is the purpose of FARAD? | FARAD provides resources concerning the avoidance of drug residues in animals. |
| Extralabel veterinary drug use was made legal (under prescribed circumstances) by what act of Congress? | Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA) |
| What are the potential dangers of residues in animal products? | - may cause allergic reactions or neoplasia in people - may cause the development of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria. |
| List three classes of drug interactions. | - pharmacodynamic - pharmacokinetic - pharmaceutic |
| Drug interaction can be anticipated when two drugs are given that are both metabolized by the _____. | liver |
| define ethical product | one sold only through veterinarians as a policy of the manufacturer rather than by FDA requirement |
| Once a drug has been biotransformed, it is called a _____. | metabolite |
| List the 6 practices recommended by the AVMA for the safe disposal of unwanted drugs. | - incinerate when possible - send unwanted drugs to landfill when incineration is not possible - never flush drugs down the toilet or drain - maintain close inventory control - follow state & federal guidelines - educate clients on proper disposal |
| Name 4 common drug preparations. | drugs for oral administration drugs for parenteral administration drugs for inhalation drugs for topical administration |
| Boluses are used in the treatment of large animals and are administered with a __________. | Balling gun |
| Name two types of parenteral injection forms. | Injections, implants |
| Vials may be either _________ dose or _________ dose. | Single-, multi- |
| All used needles should be discarded in a ________. | Sharps container |
| Name the six rights of drug administration. | right patient right drug right dose right route right time and frequency right documentation |
| Oral drugs should never be administered in animals that are ___________. | Vomiting |
| Intravenous administration of drugs allows the most ___________ and effective drug administration. | Rapid |
| If you are having difficulty administering oral medications by hand to a cat, what device can be used as an effective method of delivery? | Pilling gun |
| A Simplex (i.e., gravity set) IV system is used to administer fluids to ___________ animals. | Large |
| Name six items that should be recorded in the controlled substance log. | date owner’s name patient’s name drug name amount dispensed or administered name(s) of personnel administering the drug to the patient |
| Why should drugs given by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before administration? | The plastic syringe may absorb the drug, which may cause it to be less effective. |
| List four types of syringe tips that are available for use. | luer-Lok slip-tip eccentric catheter-tip |
| A tuberculin syringe holds up to ________ mL of medication. | 1 |
| What type of syringe is divided into units rather than milliliters? | Insulin syringe |
| What is meant by the term “enteric coated tablets?” | - enteric coatings have an acid resistant coating to protect the medication from stomach acid & prevent them from dissolving in acid environments -they are only activated when in alkaline environments (small intestine) & will be dissolved and absorbed |
| Describe the difference between an elixir and an emulsion. | elixir- an alcohol-based liquid that contains flavoring, sweeteners, etc. to help mask the taste of a drug emulsion- a mixture of 2 or more liquids that do not readily mix, these liquids should be shaken to resuspend before being administered |
| Explain the difference between an IV bolus and an IV infusion. | IV bolus is administering a specific amount of drug, one time, intravenously IV infusion is given at a slower rate over an extended period of time using an infusion pump |
| All controlled substances must be inventoried, at least once every ___________. | 2 years |
| What controlled substance classification indicates a drug having the highest abuse potential? | C-l |
| A veterinarian who orders, dispenses, prescribes, or administers controlled substances must be registered with the _______________; this registration is valid for a period of ______years. | Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA); 3 years |
| Clearly interpret each of the following drug orders into Layman’s terms. ∗ 2 gtt AD TID × 7d ∗ 1t PO EOD PRN ∗ Amoxicillin 100 mg tabs PO BID × 10d ∗ Baytril 2.5 mg/kg IM | - place two drops in right ear three times a day for 7 days - give one tablet by mouth every other day as needed - give 1 tablet of Amoxicillin 100 mg by mouth twice a day for 10 days - give 2.5 mg/kg of Baytril intramuscularly |
| What is the maximum amount of time that an indwelling catheter can be left in the vessel? | - 72–96 hours should not be exceeded depending on the catheter type - proper hygiene prior to insertion along w/ a sterile technique will aid in preventing infections - catheters must be monitored & maintained to prevent complications & infections |
| An in-hospital patient receiving IV fluid therapy should be monitored every 15 to 30 minutes. What parameters are monitored to ensure safety of the patient? | - evaluating the drip rate - ensuring the IV catheter is still properly placed - IV tubing has not kinked, chewed or dislodged from the catheter - bandaging on the IV catheter is clean & dry; this area is inspected for swelling & patient discomfort |
| Describe two different techniques in which liquid medications can be administered orally to a large animal patient. | dose syringe- used to administer small & large amounts of liquid stomach tube- used to administer large amounts of oral liquid - horses, tube is passed via nasogastric route - cattle, tube is passed through a Frick speculum via orogastric route |
| blood-brain barrier | the barrier formed by capillaries that prevents certain substances from entering the brain from the blood |
| controlled substance | drugs or substances that have the potential for abuse and dependence in humans |
| conversion factor | a numerical value that relates 1 unit of measure to another |
| apothecary system | an older, rarely used system for volume and weight measurement in pharmacy |
| concentration | the amount of solute dissolved in a solvent (strength of a drug or substance) |
| milliequivalent | a unit of measure that expresses the combining power of a substance; often used for electrolytes |
| Define the difference between an agonist and an opioid antagonist. | |
| Neurotransmitter | A neurotransmitter is a chemical substance released by a nerve ending at the synapse. It acts on the adjacent neuron to stimulate, inhibit, or change its activity. |
| Most CNS drugs act by _____ or _____ the effects of neurotransmitters. | Interrupting the generation or conduction of nerve impulses; interfering with |
| What are the primary neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptors? | Epinephrine and norepinephrine |
| List the 4 primary ways in which drugs effect the ANS. | Mimicking neurotransmitters; interfering with neurotransmitter release; blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors; and interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters |
| List 5 indications for the use of cholinergic agents. | To control vomiting, to treat urinary retention; to stimulate gastrointestinal activity; to treat glaucoma; act as an antidote; and to aid in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis |
| Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate, and aminopentamide are examples of what specific drug class? | Cholinergic blocking agents (anticholinergic) |
| Propranolol is an example of what category of drug? | Beta blocker |
| What are some adverse side effects of xylazine, and what drug may be used to antagonize its effects? | Bradycardia and hypotension may be antagonized by using atropine; respiratory depression or excessive CNS depression may be antagonized by using yohimbine. |
| Why would you be concerned about using a thiobarbiturate to induce anesthesia in a very thin dog? | |
| What are some of the characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine? | Analgesia, increased muscle tone, maintenance of pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, muscle tremors, and loss of the blink reflex |
| List some of the signs of a narcotic overdose. | Respiratory depression, cardiac depression, agitation, excitement, or seizures |
| List 2 narcotic antagonists. | Naloxone and nalorphine |
| Why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use? | Because of its tendency to precipitate out of solution when stored |
| Why are euthanasia solutions that contain only pentobarbital classified as Class II controlled substances, whereas those that contain pentobarbital and other substances are classified as Class III controlled substances? | Some pentobarbital euthanasia agents have a red dye added to distinguish them from pentobarbital agents that may be used for anesthesia. Because these agents are easily identified as euthanasia agents, they have less potential for abuse. |
| All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their effects by altering ____________ activity in the brain. | Neurotransmitter |
| Dissociative agents, such as ketamine and tiletamine, may cause ____________ at the injection site. | burning |
| A hypnotic (anesthetic) known for its very short duration and its white color is _______________. | proporfol |
| A benzodiazepine that is used as an antianxiety medication and as an appetite stimulant in cats is ______________________. | diazepam |
| An example of a tricyclic antidepressant used in veterinary medicine for separation anxiety in dogs is _________________. | Clomicalm (clomipramine) |
| ________ is used to treat old-dog dementia. | Anipryl (selegiline) |
| The ______ nervous system is under voluntary control. | somatic |
| The neurotransmitter for cholinergic sites is ____________. | acetylcholine |
| The direct-acting cholinergic metoclopramide is ordered for a 50-lb dog to control vomiting and promote gastric emptying. The dosage of metoclopramide is 0.25 mg/kg and the concentration of the drug is 5 mg/mL. How many milliliters would you prepare? | 1.1 mL |
| Dexmedetomidine will be given to an 8-lb cat as a preanesthetic at a dosage of 30 mcg/kg. The concentration of Dexdomitor is 0.5 mg/mL. What quantity would you draw up? | 0.22mL |
| Aerosolization | the conversion of a liquid into a fine mist or colloidal suspension in air |
| Antitussive | a drug that inhibits or suppresses the cough reflex |
| Decongestant | a substance that reduces the swelling of mucous membranes |
| Expectorant | a drug that enhances the expulsion of secretions from the respiratory tract |
| Humidification | addition of moisture to the air |
| IgA | immunoglobulin A (IgA)- class of antibody produced on mucous membrane surfaces, such as those of the respiratory tract |
| Inspissated | thickened or dried out |
| Mucolytic | having the ability to break down mucus |
| Nebulization | the process of converting liquid medications into a spray that can be carried into the respiratory system by inhaled air |
| Nonproductive cough | a cough that does not result in coughing up of mucus, secretions, or debris (a dry cough) |
| Productive cough | a cough that results in coughing up of mucus, secretions, or debris |
| Reverse sneeze | aspiration reflex- short periods of noisy inspiratory effort in dogs |
| Surfactant | a mixture of phospholipids secreted by type II alveolar cells that reduce surface tension in pulmonary fluids |
| Viscid | sticky |
| What structures would a molecule of oxygen pass over or through as it travels from the environment to the alveoli? | nostrils, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles |
| What are the four primary functions of the respiratory system? | The four functions of the respiratory system are oxygen–carbon dioxide exchange, regulation of acid–base balance, body temperature regulation, and voice production. |
| Describe the function of the three basic defense mechanisms of the respiratory system. | Structures in the nasal passages filter, warm, and humidify inspired air. The cough, sneeze, and reverse sneeze attempt to remove foreign material that has entered the respiratory system. The mucociliary mechanism also removes foreign material from the re |
| What are three important principles of respiratory therapeutics? | The 3 important principles of respiratory therapeutics are control of secretions, control of reflexes, and maintenance of normal airflow. |
| Expectorants are indicated when what type of cough is present? | Productive |
| Mucolytics decrease the viscosity of respiratory mucus by what mechanism? | Through the breakdown of disulfide chemical bonds |
| What is the term for administering a liquid drug into a mist so it can be more easily inhaled into the lungs. | Nebulization or aerosolization |
| Match the drugs with the category. A. Guaifenesin _____ Respiratory stimulant B. Mucomyst _____ Antitussive C. Albuterol _____ Beta2-Adrenergic agonist D. Butorphanol _____ Expectorant E. Theophylline _____ Mucolytic F. Dopram _____ Methylxanthine | A. Expectorant B. Mucolytic C. Beta-2-adrenergic agonist D. Antitussive E. Methylxanthine F. Respiratory stimulant |
| What is the mechanism of action of most antitussives used in veterinary medicine? | Through depression of the cough center in the brain |
| List three mechanisms that can cause smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles. | Release of acetylcholine, release of histamine, and blockade of beta-2-adrenergic receptors |
| List two bronchodilators that are beta2-adrenergic agonists. | Epinephrine, pseudoephedrine/pyrilamine, isoproterenol, clenbuterol, terbutaline, metaproterenol, and albuterol |
| The bronchioles terminate in small, saclike structures in the lung called __________ which are arranged in grape-like clusters. | Alveoli |
| The methylxanthines bring about bronchodilation by inhibiting what cellular enzyme? | Phosphodiesterase |
| __________ is used as an antitussive, an antipruritic, and an antiinflammatory drug. | Temaril-P |
| List two potential uses for antihistamines in veterinary medicine. | Treatment of insect bites pneumonia, feline asthma, and treatment of heaves in horses |
| What suffix is found at the end of many antihistamine names? | -amine |
| List two potential uses for Dopram. | Treatment of respiratory depression associated with anesthesia and stimulation of respiration in newborn animals |
| Maxi Jones is being treated for canine infectious tracheobronchitis. Dr. Ladd has instructed you to dispense Hycodan tablets at 0.22 mg/kg b.i.d. for 7 days. Maxi weighs 50 lb and 5-mg tablets are available. What dose of Hycodan does Maxi require? How man | 22.73 kg × 0.22 mg/kg = 5 mg 5 mg × 1 tab/5 mg = 1 tab × 2 = 2 tabs/day × 7 days Dispense 14 tablets |
| List two uses of acetylcysteine in veterinary medicine. | 1. As a mucolytic agent 2. As an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity |
| Which of the following is not an example of a methylxanthine? a. Aminophylline b. Theophylline c. Caffeine d. Theobromine e. These are all examples of methylxanthines. | e. These are all examples of methylxanthines. |
| Particles of what size are capable of reaching the alveoli? | 1 to 5 microns |
| Give an example of a beta2-adrenergic agonist bronchodilator. | Albuterol, epinephrine, pseudoephedrine/pyrilamine, isoproterenol, clenbuterol, terbutaline, metaproterenol |
| _____ are drugs that inhibit or suppress coughing. a. Antitussives b. Decongestants c. Bronchodilators d. Expectorants | a. Antitussives |
| ____________ is used for the relief of chronic nonproductive coughs in dogs, and for analgesia and preanesthesia in dogs and cats. a. Hydrocodone bitartrate b. Butorphanol tartrate c. Temaril P d. Doxapram HCl | b. Butorphanol tartrate |
| An 8-lb cat with feline asthma will be treated with Singulair at a dosage of 0.5 mg/kg daily for 3 days. Singulair tablets (4 mg) are available. How many tablets will you dispense? | 8 pounds = 3.64 kg × 0.5 mg/kg = 1.82 mg 1.82 mg × 1 tab/4mg = 0.45 ~ 0.5 tab 0.5 tab × 3 days = 1.5 tablets |
| What are diuretics used for? | used to remove excess extracellular fluid by increasing urine output & sodium excretion, which helps to reduce high BP |
| What structures constitute the urinary system? | Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra |
| Name two drugs that are contraindicated in uremic patients. | Rompun and Ketaset |
| Renal damage may be categorized as ____________, ____________, or ____________. | Prerenal, renal, postrenal |
| Explain how diuretics work. | Diuretics work by removing excess extracellular fluid, by increasing urine volume and sodium excretion, and by decreasing hypertension. |
| What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics? | Potassium (K) |
| What drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic? | Spironolactone or triamterene |
| Which one of the following is an osmotic diuretic? a. Chlorothiazole b. Mannitol c. Furosemide d. Spironolactone | b. Mannitol |
| ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to ____________. | Angiotensin II |
| Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of ____________ uroliths. | Struvite |
| The renal cortex produces___________; thus chronic renal failure can cause an absolute or relative _____________ in its production. | Erythropoietin, decrease |
| Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretic? | Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium |
| Name a beta-adrenergic blocker drug that is used to control mild to moderate hypertension associated with chronic renal failure? | Propanolol |
| Enalapril is a(n) ______________. a. anticholinergic b. vasoconstrictor c. cholinergic agonist d. ACE inhibitor | d. Ace inhibitor |
| Where is ADH secreted? | Posterior pituitary gland |
| The ureters ______________________. a. originate from the urinary bladder and lead to the outside of the body. b. originate from the kidneys and connect with the urinary bladder. c. are found inside the nephrons. d. are found inside the glomerulus. | b. originate from the kidneys and connect to the urinary bladder |
| Persistently high blood pressure is known as _____________. a. hypertonus b. hyperkalemia c. hypertension d. atony | c. hypertension |
| Diuretics are used to remove _________________ fluid. a. intracellular b. extracellular | b. extracellular |
| Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is normally secreted by the _______________ pituitary gland. a. anterior b. posterior | b. posterior |
| What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics? a. Calcium b. Phosphorus c. Aluminum hydrochloride d. Potassium | d. Potassium |
| Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of ________________. a. calcium b. uroliths c. urinary casts d. bacteria | b. uroliths |
| T or F Patients with renal failure are at a lesser anesthetic risk than patients with normal renal function. | False |
| Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of ___________. a. calcium b. phosphorus c. sodium d. potassium | c. sodium |
| A dog weighs 40 lb & the vet prescribes furosemide at 3.5 mg/kg once a day for a month. The pharmacy has 50-mg, 20-mg, & 12.5-mg furosemide tablets. What is the dose he should receive each day? What mg tablets should be dispensed & how many? | 64 mg/day; furosemide (50 mg × 30 tablets) and furosemide (12.5 mg × 30 tablets). So, 40 lb = 18.18 kg × 3.5 mg/kg = 64 mg/day |
| The veterinarian orders a prescription of furosemide at 2.5 mg/kg b.i.d. for a patient that weighs 55 lb. How many milligrams should the patient receive for one dose? | 62.5 mg. So, 55 lb = 25 kg × 2.5 mg/kg = 62.5 mg |
| A dog weighing 33 lb with protein-losing nephropathy is presented to the veterinarian who orders enalapril 0.5 mg/kg PO once daily. What is the dose this dog requires? | 7.5 mg daily. So, 33 lb = 15 kg × 0.5 mg/kg = 7.5 mg |
| Why is the heart considered to be two pumps functionally? | The right atrium and right ventricle serve functionally as one pump for ejecting blood to the lungs, and the left atrium and left ventricle pump blood to the systemic circulation. |
| Cardiac cells are connected by intercalated disks and a fusion of cell membranes to form a _______________. | Syncytium (interconnected mass) |
| Depolarization of cardiac cells is characterized by a rapid influx of ____________ ions, a slower influx of _________ ions, and the outflow of _________ ions. | Sodium (Na+), calcium (Ca2+), potassium (K+) |
| A relatively long _____________ is important to cardiac cells to prevent a constant state of contraction from recycling impulses. | Refractory period |
| Define chronotropic and inotropic effects in relation to the heart. | Chronotropic refers to the rate of contraction, whereas inotropic refers to the force or strength of contraction. |
| Define preload and afterload in relation to the pumping mechanism of the heart. | Preload is the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole (the amount of blood that must be pumped out). Afterload is the resistance in the arteries that the ventricle must overcome to pump blood. |
| List the four basic compensatory mechanisms of the cardiovascular system. | Increasing the heart rate, increasing the stroke volume, increasing the efficiency of the heart muscle, and heart enlargement |
| List five objectives of treatment for heart failure. | Control rhythm disturbances, maintain or increase cardiac output, relieve fluid accumulations, increase the oxygenation of blood, and provide oxygen/sedatives |
| List four beneficial effects and one potential toxic effect of the use of the cardiac glycosides. | Beneficial effects include improved cardiac contractility, decreased heart rate, antiarrhythmic effect, and decreased signs of dyspnea. Toxic effects include anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, and various arrhythmias. |
| _______ is the preferred drug to be given during cardiac arrest because it provides stimulation for heart contractions and supports the circulatory system. | Epinephrine |
| List five factors that may predispose the heart to arrhythmias. | Conditions that cause hypoxia; electrolyte imbalances; increased levels or sensitivity to catecholamines; certain drugs such as digitalis, barbiturates, and others; and cardiac trauma or disease |
| List six categories of antiarrhythmic drugs and give an example of each. | Class IA—quinidine, procainamide class IB—lidocaine, tocainide, and mexiletine class II—propranolol, atenolol class III—bretylium, amiodarone, and sotalol class IV—diltiazem, verapamil |
| List four vasodilator drugs and classify each as arteriolar dilator, venodilator, or mixed. | Hydralazine—arteriolar dilator; nitroglycerin—venodilator; prazosin—mixed; nitroprusside—mixed; enalapril, benazepril, captopril, lisinopril, and ramipril—mixed |
| Why is Lasix sometimes called a loop diuretic? | Lasix is called a loop diuretic because it inhibits reabsorption of sodium in the loops of Henle. |
| List five ancillary methods of treatment for cardiovascular disease. | Bronchodilation, oxygen therapy, sedation, aspiration, and centesis |
| ___________ is characterized by the rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell through channels, the slower influx of calcium ions, and the outflow of potassium ions. | Depolarization |
| _________ results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that sodium and water are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output. | Congestive heart failure (CHF) |
| ACE causes the conversion of ___________ to __________. | Angiotensin I to angiotensin II |
| Nitroglycerin is supplied as an ointment. List the precautions that should be taken when applying. | Wear gloves; rotate application sites; do not pet the animal at the application site; measure the dosage in inches; and contact the veterinarian if a rash appears at the application site. |
| What is hypokalemia? | An abnormally low potassium level in the blood |
| What are the primary goals of the dietary management of heart disease? | (1) sodium restriction and (2) maintenance of good body weight and condition (reduction of obesity or cachexia). In some instances, specific nutrient deficiencies, concurrent disease, and/or electrolyte disorders may need to be addressed. |
| List 3 effects of administration of catecholamines. | (1) Increased force of contraction; (2) an increase in blood pressure; (3) elevated blood glucose levels |
| T or F Gloves do not have to be worn when applying nitroglycerin. | false |
| A 50-lb dog with moderate heart failure will be treated with enalapril 0.5 mg/kg twice a day for 14 days and then reevaluated. Enacard tablets (10 mg) are available. How many will you dispense? | 50 lb = 22.73 kg × 0.5 mg/kg = 11.37 mg × 1 tab/10 mg = 1.14 tablets ∼1 tablet × 2 (twice daily) = 2 tabs/day × 14 days = 28 tablets |
| A 10-lb dog with advanced heart failure will be treated with furosemide at 8 mg/kg IV. Salix injection (50 mg/mL) will be used. How much will you draw up? | 10 lb = 4.55 kg × 8 mg/kg = 3.64 mg × mL/50 mg = 0.73 ~ 0.7 mL |
| List 3 general functions of the GI tract. | Entry of food and fluid into the body, absorption of nutrients, and excretion of waste products |
| List 3 examples of monogastric animals. | Dogs, cats, and primates |
| What is the GI configuration of ruminant animals? | Ruminants have a system of forestomachs, including the reticulum, rumen, and omasum, which allows them to digest coarse plant material, as well as a true stomach (abomasum). |
| What is the difference between vomiting & regurgitation? | Regurgitation is a normal process of ruminants that permits them to bring up partially digested foodstuff for rechewing. Vomiting is the forcible expulsion of gastric contents and is generally considered to be pathologic. |
| Ruminants are animals that use ______________ to digest coarse plant material. | Microorganisms in the rumen |
| What are the 3 basic control mechanisms of the GI tract? | The autonomic nervous system, hormonal control, and chemical control (e.g., histamine, prostaglandin, and others) |
| What is the significance of the presence of bacterial endotoxins in the GI tract? | Bacterial endotoxins may increase the permeability of intestinal blood vessels, resulting in increased fluid loss. They also may induce fever and initiate shock. |
| The CRTZ stimulates vomiting when activated by ____________. | Chemical substances (digitalis compounds, urea, ketone bodies, and others) and impulses from the inner ear |
| List 2 examples of centrally acting emetics & 2 examples of peripherally acting emetics. | Centrally acting: apomorphine & xylazine peripherally acting: hydrogen peroxide, syrup of ipecac & mustard |
| Drugs that inhibit vomiting are called ____________________. | Antiemetics |
| List two H2 receptor antagonists. | Cimetidine, famotidine, nizatidine, and ranitidine |
| What are the 2 types of intestinal motility patterns? | Peristalsis (a wave of contraction) and segmentation (a mixing action) |
| Acute vomiting & diarrhea in dogs and cats often respond to conservative management such as ______________________. | Withholding of food for 12–24 hours |
| List 2 species that do not vomit. | Rats & horses |
| What is the mechanism of action of saline/hyperosmotic laxatives? | By retaining water osmotically in the gut, these agents cause softening of the stool. |
| Direct cholinergic drugs stimulate the GI tract by what mechanism? | By mimicking the effect of acetylcholine |
| List 4 products used as dentifrice/oral cleansing agents. | C.E.T., Nolvadent, Oral Dent, and Oxydent |
| What is the difference between peristalsis & segmentation? | Peristalsis refers to a wave of contraction that moves contents along Segmentation refers to intestinal constrictions that mix contents. |
| T or F Stimulation of the parasympathetic portion of the ANS decreases intestinal motility. | False |
| About what percent of the stomach’s contents do emetics usually remove? | 80% |
| How does sucralfate work to treat/prevent gastric ulcers? | By forming a paste like barrier over the surface of gastric ulcers |
| The crop in birds is used for ______. a. a stomach b. food storage c. feces storage d. a place where food goes to mix with hydrochloric acid to aid in the breakdown of foodstuffs | b. food storage |
| ___________ are substances that loosen bowel contents and encourage their evacuation. a. Protectants b. Adsorbents c. Antispasmodics d. Laxatives | d. Laxatives |
| A 20-lb puppy will be given a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of metoclopramide over 24 hours for vomiting. The dosage is 2 mg/kg and the Reglan solution contains 5 mg/mL. How many milliliters of Reglan will you draw up to add to the IV fluids? | 20 lb = 9.09 kg × 2 mg/kg = 18.18 mg × mL/5 mg = 3.64 ~ 3.6 mL |
| A 1200-lb horse will be treated with omeprazole for gastric ulcers at 4 mg/kg once daily for 2 weeks. GastroGard oral paste is available in syringes containing 2.28 g. How many syringes will you dispense? | 1200 lb = 545.45 kg × 4 mg/kg = 2181.8 mg × syringe/2280 mg (there are 1000 mg in 1 g) = 0.96 syringe ∼1 syringe/day × 14 days = 14 syringes |
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Savannah1118