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NHA Test Review

Review questions for ExCPT test

QuestionAnswer
DEA form 106 report of theft or loss of controlled substances
DEA form 41 request permission to destroy exp C-2
DEA form 224 Apply for a DEA registration number (to disp control)
DEA form 222 Order form for CI and CII substances. Must be kept for 2 years.
Medicare part A hospital insurance
Medicare part B -physicians services -diabetic services -specialty meds -medical equipment
Medicare part C provides supplemental coverage allow patients to participate in HMO/PPO for extra cost
Medicate part D Prescription drug coverage (insulin, vaccines..)
DAW 0 no product selection indicated, generic ok, pt ok
DAW 1 substitution not allowed by prescriber, fill exactly as written
DAW 2 substitution ok, but pt request that brand be disp'd
DAW 3 substitution ok, but pharmacy fills brand even though generic is available
DAW 4 Substitution allowed - generic drug not in stock
DAW 5 substitution allowed but pharmacy uses the brand
DAW 6 override
DAW 7 substitution not ok, brand mandated by state
DAW 8 substitution ok, brand disp'd because generic is not manufactured
DAW 9 other
Drug Utilization Review (DUR) (pharmacist's job) reviewing the patient's profile with medication to ensure safety
How many hours of CE are technicians required to complete? How often? 20 hours every 2 years
Adjudication submitting 3rd party insurance claim for payment
How are legend and controlled prescriptions filed? legend are filed together, c-ii are filed separately, and c-iii to c-iv are filed together
ad right ear
as left ear
au both ears
bu buccal
im intramuscular
it intrathecal (into the spine)
od right eye
os left eye
ou both eyes
po by mouth
pr rectal
pv vaginally
sub q subcutaneous
sl sublingual (under the tongue)
ac before meals
bid twice daily
hs at bedtime
pc after meals
prn as needed
qh every hours
qid four times daily
tid three times daily
aaa apply to affected area
gtts drops
ha headache
qs quantity sufficient
ung ointment
Patience Adherence pt taking meds exactly as directed and going to all doctor appointments and labs
Why do hospital pharmacies only give a 24 hour supply? reduces stealing, any qty after 24 hours would clutter the upper floor, its best to wait for pt's tests and results to come in
the basic layout of the pharmacy intake area, processing area, processed rxs area, out window
first in first out method for stocking medications, earlier exp date goes in the front
common refrigerator vaccines hepatitis B vaccine (all age groups) influenza vaccine (6 months/older) DTAP vaccine, tetinus, pertussis (11-18 y/o)
common freezer vaccines measles, mumps, rubella, varicella (MMRV) zoster
USP 800 handling hazardous drugs
Who releases medication recalls? the FDA
Class 1 medication recall serious adverse effects or death, customer level
Class 2 medication recall temporary adverse effect or a small chance of an adverse effect
Class 3 medication recall problem not likely to cause adverse effects
Department of transportation (DOT) regulates how medication waste should be shipped
P-listed acutely hazardous waste (epinephrine, nicotine, warfarin)
D-listed toxic, ignitable, corrosive (benzoyl alcohol, albuterol inhaler)
U-listed toxic (chemotherapy)
What is on a patient profile (basic demographic info) name, address, DOB, phone#, email
types of drug interactions drug-drug drug-age drug-health condition
NKDA no known drug allergies to all drugs
NKA no known allergies to anything
Trissel's Handbook on Injectable Drugs Provides information on the stability and compatibility of injectable drugs
post after, behind
peri around, surrounding
how to dispose of antibiotics mixed with coffee grounds or soaked in water
how to dispose of warfarin hazardous, so meant to be placed in a specific bin for professional disposal
how to dispose of chemotherapy yellow sharps container
how to dispose of fentanyl patches flush down toilet
USP United States Pharmacopeia: info about product, med quality standards, and info about legend + OTC
Pink book provides info about vaccines and diseases
The Merck Index lists chemical attributes of chemicals, meds, and biologicals
barbiturates central nervous center depressant, used to treat seizures and anxiety
medicaid health care coverage for low income children, adults, elderly, and people with disabilities
National Formulary (NF) list of officially recognized names of drugs that have an established usefulness
how often is the national formulary updated every 5 years
PDR (Physician's Desk Reference) The most widely used refernces for drugs in current use.
What Act created the FDA Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906
Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906 prevented the adulteration and mislabeling of foods and pharmaceuticals
The Joint Commission Independent non-profit organization, sets healthcare quality standards and protects patients and visitors, conducts inspections of healthcare facilities.
tort act that causes harm/injury to a person intentionally or negligently
Harrison Narcotic Act of 1914 curb the recreational use of opium, established that opiums cannot be purchased without an rxs
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 required all rx drugs to be labeled "caution: federal law prohibits dispensing without an prescription", created the distinction between legend and OTC
Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962 ensured that drugs be proven safe and effective, gave FDA authority to approve manufacturers marketing
Controlled Substances Act of 1970 enforced by the DEA, created the drug classes I-V
Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 Requires use of child-resistant containers for prescription and nonprescription drugs
what is required for non childproof lids patient's written consent
Drug Listing Act of 1972 implemented under the FDA, required that all drugs have an NDC code
NDC number number that identifies manufacturer, product, and package size
Orphan Drug Act of 1983 Provided incentives for the development of orphan drugs for treatment of rare diseases
Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 solidified legal supply channel of rx drugs from manufacturer to authorized distributors, prevent the selling of counterfeit drugs
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) law passed by the federal government that includes minimum standards for nursing assistant training, staffing requirements, resident assessment instructions, and information on rights for residents
OBRA '87 set requirements for facilities participating in medicare and medicaid
OBRA '90 - placed regulations on how to interact with patients - record keeping mandates, prospective drug reviews - counseling obligations - must review medicaid participants enire drug profile before prescribing medications
HIPAA Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
The Drug Addiction Treatment Act of 2000 Established to permit physicians to prescribe pre-approved C-III, C-IV and C-V medications
Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005 • Enacted to regulate the OTC sales of pseudoephedrine. • Identity and address of each purchaser to be kept for two years
daily limit of pseudoephedrine 3.6 grams
30 day limit of pseudoephedrine 9 grams
physicians can write up to how many c-ii prescriptions for a patient 3 ( allows the patient to get the drug filled over the course of 90 days)
how often does the DEA require inventory to be taken every 2 years
how long do c-ii invoices have to be kept 2 years
circumstances in which a c-ii rx can be given verbally physician determines that it is an emergency and there are no alternative treatments -physician is away from the office
how many times can a ciii-v be transferred to a different pharmacy only once
How many refills are allowed on CIII-V? 5 times in 6 months
Safety Data Sheet (SDS) info on all potentially dangerous chemicals used in the workplace, enforced by OSHA
required on a unit dose label drug name strength dosage form lot # manufacturer exp date
Category A pregnancy risk controlled studies in humans show no risk to the fetus
Category B pregnancy risk No controlled studies have been conducted in humans; animal studies show no risk to the fetus
Category C pregnancy risk Risk in animals; little human data; most drugs are here
Category D pregnancy risk Positive evidence of human fetal risk. Use only if no other choice
Category X pregnancy drugs Bosentan (anti-endothelin, anti-pulmonary hypetensive) Statins Warfarin
Category X pregnancy risk Risks involved in drug use clearly outweigh potential benefits, NEVER use by pregnant women
Medwatch This is the FDA reporting service for adverse effects that occur from use of approved drugs.
who can report to medwatch anyone
National Provider Identifier (NPI) Unique 10-digit code for providers required by HIPAA.
Yellow book CDC's standard resource on travel information
Red book provides the latest pricing information, including nationally recognized AWP's and suggested retail prices for OTC products
black box warning warning, required by FDA, to alert prescribers of serious adverse events that have occurred
USP 797 Guidelines for sterile compounding
USP 795 guidelines for non-sterile preparations
what drugs should be dispensed in original packaging Nitrostat(nitroglycerin) Pradaxa, anticoagulant birth control
NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) created by OSHA to help develop work safety standard
DEA 225 needed to manufacture or distribute controlled substances
dosage forms solids, semisolids, solutions
sublingual under the tongue
buccal between the cheek and gum
what are sublingual tablets meant to do dissolve fast, absorb directly into bloodstream w/out passing digestive tract
what are buccal tablets meant to do dissolve slowly, absorb into bloodstream w/out passing digestive tract
what are controlled release meds do med is released over extended amount of time to avoid concentrations in digestive tract/provides longer duration of action
LA long action
SA sustained action
SR sustained release
CR controlled release
ER extended release
TR time release
effervescent tab dissolve into water, fizzy
enteric coated tab protective out later so tab doesn't dissolve in stomach, dissolves in stomach
emulsions liquid mixture of oil and water
pastes stiff ointment that doesn't melt at body temp.
syrups concentrated mix of sugar and water with active ingredients
elixers water, alcohol, and flavoring
collodions liquids that dry as flexible films on skin
routes of administration enteral, parenteral, topical
enteral gastrointestinal/digestive tract
parenteral outside the digestive tract (injections)
intravenous major veins
intramuscular deltoid, vastus lateralis, ventrogluteal muscles
intradermal into the skin
subcutaneous under the skin of the abdomen
antiemetic a medication that is administered to prevent or relieve nausea and vomiting
Contraindications diseases, disorders, or conditions that make it unsafe for a pt to take a medication
intrathecal administered to the space surrounding the spinal cord
bisphophonate prevents bone loss in osteoporosis
otic ear
Opthamalic eyes
Tetracycline adverse effects upset stomach
-olol beta block
-pril ACE inhibitor
-dipine calcium channel blocker
anticonvulsant med to prevent and control seizures
antitussive prevent urge to cough (dextromethorphan, benzonatate)
when is a DEA number required when a controlled substance is being prescribed
most insurance require rx to be ____ used before refill 75%
BIN processor bank identification #
PCN processor control #
person code Identifies which household member is receiving services
EN each nostril
IVBP intravenous piggyback
UD, UT as directed
TOP topically
AMP ampule
EXPECT expectorant (cough med used to help clear muccus)
PULV powder
AB rating rating from FDA stating there is adequate evidence supporting bioequivalence of brand and generic
what insurance is typically billed first? Medicare
Medicare for those who are: older than 65 disabled and unable to work have end-stage renal disease
end-stage renal disease terminal disease
what two parts of medicare does the pharmacy focus on most part B(DME) and D(drugs)
DME durable medical equipment
COB coordination of benefits
proper sequence of COB medicare -> commercial insurance (BCBS, cigna etc) -> medicaid
Medicaid for those with low income, or with mental or physical disabilities
automated dispensing machines cabinets with various drawers for different medications
Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS) Program of the FDA, designed to monitor drugs that have a high risk compared to benefit ratio
what medications should be dispensed in its original container nitrostat(nitroglycerin) sublingual tab -pradaxa(dabigatran) disp to protect from degration and moisture -suspensions -zpak, medrol, accutane
teratogenic producing malformations (in the developing embryo)
insulin must be stored at (temp) 36-46 degrees farenheit
APAP Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
medication guide consumer info on safe use of high risk meds
antieoplastic chemotherapy (must use PPE to handle)
antiretroviral used to manage HIV infections
what is the first prescription # for a legend drug 6
what is the first prescription # for an OTC drug prescription # for an OTC drug 7
1lb = ____ oz 16 oz
1Tbsp = ___tsp 3 tsp
1tbsp=____ml 15 ml
1 fl oz = ___ mL 30 ml
20 gtt = ___ml 1 ml
1 cup = 8 oz = 1/2 pint = ___ml 240 ml
1 oz = ___g 30 g
2.2lbs = ____kg 1kg
1 in = ____cm 2.54 cm
temperature conversion equation 5F = 9C + 160
standard precautions created by the CDC to protect healthcare workers
Bloodborne Pathogen Standard federal law requiring that healthcare facilities protect employees from bloodborne health hazards
Garbing order shoe cover, hair cover, beard cover, mask, gown, gloves
how often should laminar hoods be cleaned -at the beginning of each shift -before each batch preparation -every 30 minutes during continuous compounding of a single CSP
how often should the ceilings be cleaned in compounding areas monthly
how often should counters and work surfaces be cleaned in compounding areas daily
how often should the floors be cleaned in compounding areas floors be cleaned in compounding areas daily
how often should storage bins be cleaned in compounding areas monthly
how often should the walls be cleaned in compounding areas monthly
media fill testing a quality assurance tool that uses a soy broth growth medium to detect pathogens in a compounded sterile product
low risk compounding mixing 3 or more sterile ingredients
medium risk compounding mixing non sterile or mixing in nonsterile environment
two types of syringes sliptip and luer-locking
as gauge increases, size of needle decreases (more fine)
two types of needles filter and vented
function of a filter needle draw up liquid from ampule
function of vented needle vent powders during reconstitution
two types of laminar flow hoods vertical and horizontal
vertical laminar flow hood airflow air goes from ceiling to DCA
horizontal laminar flow hood airflow air flows from the back of HEPA to DCA
ampule glass container storing sterile medications
beyond use date(BUD) date after which a product is no longer effective and should not be used
BUD for low risk Room temp: 48 hours Fridge: 14 days Freezer: 45 days
BUD for medium risk Room: 30 hours Fridge: 9 days Freezer: 45 days
BUD for high risk Room: 24 hours Fridge: 3 days Freezer: 45 days
Methotrexate chemotherapy, compounded in a biological safety cabinet
International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standards for compounded
ISO 5 standard that requires sterile airflow during compounding process
ISO 7 clean room
ISO 8 anteroom
how often should HEPA filters be inspected and certified every 6 months
HEPA filters remove bacteria from the air
BUD date for nonsterile, semisolid prep with h2O 30 days
critical site on a syringe during sterile compounding syringe plunger
what is used to dilute hydrocortisone ointment petroleum jelly
what must unit dose systems include -product identification -environmental exposure -usability -handling
what could be the reason that patients run out of medications faster than expected? (rf too soon) -prescriber has increased the dose but pt has not given the new prescription to the pharmacy -pt taking more than prescribed -pt misunderstands proper use of medicaiton -pt is diverting or abusing the med
what could be the reason why patients may be taking less medication than they should? -they cannot afford it -they experience side effects they do not like -the prescriber has reduced the dose but the new prescription has not been given to the pharmacy -pt may be forgetting to take their medications
why do SSRIs need to be dispensed with a medguide increased risk of suicidal thoughts in adolescents
why do NSAIDs need to be disp w/ medguide risk of GI bleeding
why does isotretinoin need to be disp w/ medguide risk of birth defects
why do fluoroquinolones need to be disp w/ medguide risk of tendinitis
why does eszopiclone need to be disp w/ medguide risk of sleep related activities you may not remember
why does metoclopramide need to be disp w/ medguide risk of tardive dyskinesia (face/body making irregular movements that you cannot control)
why does rosiglitazone need to be disp w/ medguide risk of heart failure
layout of hospital pharmacy pu window, data entry area, disp area, nonsterile compounding area, sterile compounding area
taking too much acetaminophen can result in liver toxicity, especially with alcohol intake
how stable are multidose vials for after they're opened 28 days
where to report adverse affects to vaccines Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS)
what do all antidepressants require a black box warning
laminar flow air hoods should run for ____mins before compounding 30 minutes
what program sponsored by the FDA regulates the disp of isotretinoin(accutane) for severe adverse effects iPledge
colace treats constipation
immodium treats diarrhea
mucinex treats congestion
which insurance allows a pt to see a specialist without a referral PPO
Examples of SSRIs fluoxetine (Prozac) sertraline (Zoloft) paroxetine (Paxil) fluvoxamine (Luvox)
V 5
X 10
C 100
L 50
D 500
M 1000
recommended age group for diphteria, tetanus, pertussis vaccine 6 weeks - 7 years
recommended age group for haemophilus influenza type B vaccine 6 weeks - 19 years
recommended age group for hepatitis A vaccine 12 months and older
recommended age group for hepatitis B vaccine all ages
recommended age group for zoster(shingles) vaccine all ages
recommended age group for zoster(shingles) vaccine 59 years and older
recommended age group for HPV(human papilloma virus) vaccine 9 - 27 years
recommended age group for influenza vaccine 6 months and older
recommended age group for measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine 12 months - 60 years
recommended age group for meningococcal vaccine 6 weeks and older
recommended age group for pneumococcal vaccine older than 6 weeks
recommended age group for pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine 2 years and older
recommended age group for rotavirus vaccine older than 1 month
recommended age group for varicella(chicken pox) vaccine 10 years and older
tincture A solution where a solute is dissolved into alcohol
API Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient
oleaginous base An ingredient used in compounding that does not dissolve in water
Trituration The process of grinding powders to reduce particle size
troches Flat, disk like tablets that dissolve between the gum and cheek
excipients inert ingredient added to compounds to achieve specific consistency
inert not medicinally active (ingredient)
difference between BUD date and expiration date BUD date is assigned by pharmacy while repackaging, expiration date is assigned by manufacturer
what is the BUD date of a solid repackaged drug either 1 year after it has been repackaged or the expiration date given by the manufacturer (whichever one comes first)
Class A balance sensitivity 6 g
common pet dosage forms beads/pellets, miniature tablets, transdermal sticks, treats
What are the indications for incompatibility in IVs? cloudy appearance, precipitation, discoloration
Is Tylenol an NSAID? no
Is Aspirin an NSAID? yes
OBRA 87 The federal law that was set to improve the life and care of those living in long term care by eliminating/making sure the patients are not taking any unnecessary medications
MDI metered dose inhaler
How long does a pharmacy have to fill the remaining amount on a partially filled C2? 72 hours
How long does a pharmacy have to fill the remaining amount of a partially filled C3-5? until the prescription expires (usually 6 months)
For how long is a DEA form 222 valid? 60 days
Created by: paulaee
 

 



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