Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Exam 3 Review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| __________________ is the normal physiologic response to microorganisms and proteins as well as conditions associated with an inadequate or excessive immune response. | Immunity |
| What are the 3 first lines of defense in innate immunity? | 1. Skin 2. Mucous membranes 3. Secretions of skin |
| What are the 4 2nd lines of defense in innate immunity? | 1. Phagocytic leukocytes 2. Antimicrobial proteins 3. Inflammatory response 4. Fever |
| What are the 3 3rd lines of defense in adaptive immunity? | 1. Lymphocytes 2. Antibodies 3. Memory cells |
| ___________ ______________can be viewed as comprising four types of defensive barriers: 1. anatomic (skin and mucous membrane) 2. physiologic (temperature, low pH, and chemical mediators) 3. endocytic and phagocytic 4. inflammatory | Innate immunity |
| - What you are born with - it involves barriers that keep harmful materials from entering your body. Nonspecific - it is not stimulated by specific antigens. | Innate immunity |
| - Acquired from an exposure to the disease organism through infection with the actual disease. - Vaccine-induced immunity is acquired through the introduction of a killed or weakened form of the disease organism through vaccination. | Adaptive immunity |
| -The body makes an immune response that can prevent future infection from the microorganism. - Examples: - Monoclonal antibody infusions for Covid - Convalescent plasma | Passive Acquired Immunity |
| Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils, mast cells, natural killer cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells mediate the ____________ immunity. | innate |
| Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils, mast cells, natural killer cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells provide the _______ of defense | first |
| The _________ immune system refers to an antigen-specific defense mechanism that takes several days to develop but provides long-lasting protection. | adaptive |
| The _____________ immune system includes B cell-mediated humoral immunity and T cell-mediated cellular immunity, both of which are directed towards the specific antigens. | adaptive |
| Macrophages and dendritic cells are unique subsets that have both _________ and __________ immune cell traits. | innate |
| adaptive | |
| As professional antigen-presenting cells, macrophages and dendritic cells are critical in the induction of _____________ immunity by presenting the antigens to antigen-specific T and B lymphocytes. | adaptive |
| ______________-____________ ____________ reaction is stimulated when a new antigen invades the body. | Antibody-mediated immunity |
| immunization greatly increases the speed at which _______ immunity happens. | herd |
| __________ immunity occurs from the antibodies - whether they are created from vaccination or previous exposure to the pathogen | Herd |
| ______________ immunity is also called antibody-mediated immunity. | Humoral |
| The ____________ immune system deals with antigens from pathogens that are freely circulating, or outside the infected cells. | humoral |
| In __________ immunity, antibodies produced by the B cells will bind to antigens, neutralizing them, or causing lysis (dissolution or destruction of cells by a lysin) or phagocytosis | Humoral |
| ___________ immunity occurs inside the infected cells and is mediated by T lymphocytes. | Cellular |
| When a body lacks sufficient white blood cells or antibodies, the immune system is considered ______________ | Suppressed |
| A _______________ immune system is weakened to the point that it cannot mount a proper immune response to protect the body from pathogens, such as bacteria, viruses, and other infectious microorganisms. | Suppressed |
| a child that has had recurring infections, like an ear infection, over the course of a year may have _____________________ | immunosuppression |
| Children after age 4 with frequent ear infections (more than 4 in a year) with no anatomical cause may have a __________ _____________ ______________ | suppressed immune system. |
| _____________ reactions are exaggerated or inappropriate immunologic responses occurring in response to an antigen or allergen. | Hypersensitivity |
| Type I, II and III hypersensitivity reactions are known as _____________ hypersensitivity reactions because they occur within 24 hours of exposure to the antigen or allergen. | immediate |
| The most life-threatening complication of Type I hypersensitivity is ______________ | anaphylaxis |
| During an anaphylactic reaction, the patient may experience... (7 things) | 1. hypotension 2. difficulty in breathing or hypoxia 3. circulatory failure (distributive shock). 4. pruritus 5. erythema 6. nasal mucus secretions 7. conjunctival mucus secretion. |
| During anaphylaxis, ___________ reactions may occur so these clients must be observed carefully! | Rebound |
| "Cytokine" is a hormone of the ________ _________ | immune system |
| If a client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction they require immediate action, starting with quickly assessing the client's ______________ status | respiratory |
| Although the health care provider and the Rapid Response Team must be notified immediately, the nurse must _______ with the client. | stay |
| The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis, what 3 things would the nurse anticipate the HCP to order? | 1. Oxygen 2. Epinephrin 3. IV of NML saline |
| During anaphylaxis, The head of the bed should be ____________ if the client's BP is NML | elevated |
| During anaphylaxis, The head of the bed should be ____________ if the client's BP is hypotensive | Trendelenburg position |
| Many COVID-19 complications may be caused by a condition known as _________ ____________ _____________ | cytokine release syndrome |
| ____________ _____________ _____________ is when an infection triggers your immune system to flood your bloodstream with inflammatory proteins called cytokines. They can kill tissue and damage your organs. | cytokine release syndrome |
| Sometimes, the immune system makes a mistake and attacks the body's own tissues or organs. This is called _____________ | autoimmunity. |
| __________ ___________ _____________is an autoimmune disease. In this disease, the immune system of the body mistakenly attacks healthy tissue. It can affect the skin, joints, kidneys, brain, and other organs. | Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) |
| To help reduce fatigue in the client with SLE, the nurse should instruct the client to do what 5 things? | 1. sit whenever possible 2. avoid hot baths (b/c they exacerbate fatigue) 3. schedule moderate low-impact exercises when not fatigued 4. maintain a balanced diet 5. avoid long periods of rest b/c it promotes joint stiffness. |
| Primary immunodeficiency is ____________ | genetic |
| Secondary immunodeficiency is ...... | caused by another illness |
| What is the priority nursing intervention for clients who are immunodeficient? | Protecting them from infection |
| ______________ is a blood condition characterized by low levels of neutrophils, which are white blood cells that protect your body from infections | Neutropenia |
| Having ____________increases your risk for many types of infection. | neutropenia |
| Protective environment isolation is also referred to as _____________ ____________. | reverse isolation. |
| What 4 types of medications are used to intentionally suppress the immune system to treat autoimmune disorders? | 1. Corticosteroids 2. Chemotherapeutic agents 3. Irradiation 4. Anti Rejection drugs |
| ____________________ stop your immune system from damaging healthy cells and tissues. | Immunosuppressants |
| _____________________ therapy is initiated to inhibit optimal immune response | Immunosuppressant |
| _________________ is the invasion and multiplication of microorganisms in body tissues, which may be inapparent or the result of local cellular injury caused by competitive metabolism, toxins, intracellular replication, or antigen-antibody response. | Infection |
| The process of infection requires the following six elements, all of which must be present for the infection to develop: ? | 1. Pathogen 2. Susceptible Host 3. reservoir 4. Portal of exit 5. Mode of transmission 6 Portal of entry |
| One-celled organisms without a true nucleus or cellular organelles | Bacterial cells |
| Synthesize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), ribonucleic acid (RNA), and proteins and can reproduce independently | bacterial cells |
| Require a host for a suitable environment for multiplication | Bacterial cells |
| Cause cellular injury by releasing toxins that are either exotoxins (gram-positive bacteria into the host) or endotoxins (part of the bacterial cell wall of gram-negative bacteria that can cause damage to the host even if the bacteria are dead) | Bacterial cells |
| Diseases caused by bacterial invasion depend on the type of bacterial pathogen and the area of the body that is primarily invaded | Bacterial cells |
| Pathogen with a nucleic acid within a protein shell and requires invasion of a host for replication | Viral cells |
| May immediately cause disease or may remain relatively dormant for years | Viral cells |
| Causes cellular injury by blocking its genetically prescribed protein synthesis processes and using the cell's metabolic processes for the reproduction of the virus | Viral cells |
| Diseases develop as a result of interference of normal cellular functioning of the host, with destruction of the virus by the immune system also requiring death of the host cell | Viral cells |
| Microorganism belonging to the kingdom Fungi, which includes yeasts, molds, and mushrooms | Fungal cells |
| May grow as single cells (yeasts) or as multicellular filamentous colonies (molds or mushrooms) | Fungal cells |
| In the immunocompromised individual they can result in infections that lead to death | Fungal cells |
| Tinea pedis (athlete's foot) or ringworm, may also develop in the individual with a competent immune system | Fungal cells |
| Protozoa include a subcategory termed parasitic protozoa and, with few exceptions, generally infect individuals with compromised immune responses | Parasites |
| Typically found in dead material in water and soil and are spread by the fecal-oral route by ingesting food or water that is contaminated with the parasitic spores or cysts | Parasites |
| Disease may develop in an otherwise healthy individual when the spores invade organs and stimulate an immune response, interfering with normal functioning of the organ system | Parasites |
| What are 5 risk factors for infection? | 1. Age (very young, very old) 2. Lower socioeconomic class 3. Uninsured 4. Geographical residence 5. Chronic conditions |
| What are the most common causes of nosocomial infections? (6 things) | 1. Antibiotics 2. CAUTI 3. CLABSI 4. Ventilators 5. Surgical procedures 6. FAILURE TO FOLLOW STANDARD PRECAUTIONS! |
| _______________________ ________________is one of the most common preventable causes of nosocomial infections | Staphylococcus aureus |
| _________ is not only a leading cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea. | C. difficile-associated infection (CDI |
| ____._________ spores are known to remain viable on surfaces for weeks to months. | C. difficile |
| What are 5 risk factors for C. diff | 1. Abx Resistance 2. Older age 3. Recent hospital stay 4. Weakened immune system 5. Previous Hx of C.Diff |
| What are the 3 most common types of infection control precautions? | 1. Contact Precautions 2. Droplet Precautions 3. Airborne Precautions |
| ________________ is an immunologic defense against tissue injury, infection, or allergy. | Inflammation |
| A chronic inflammatory disorder affecting many joints, including those in the hands and feet. | Rheumatoid Arthritis |
| The body's immune system attacks its own tissue, including joints. In severe cases, it attacks internal organs | Rheumatoid Arthritis |
| What happens during stage 1 of Rheumatoid Arthritis? | The body mistakenly attacks its own joint tissue |
| What happens during stage 2 of Rheumatoid Arthritis? | The body makes the antibodies and the joints start swelling up |
| What happens during stage 3 of Rheumatoid Arthritis? | The joints start becoming bent and deformed, the fingers become crooked/ These misshapen joints can press on the nerves and can cause nerve pain as well. |
| What happens during stage 4 of Rheumatoid Arthritis? | If not treated, the disease will progress to the last stage, in which there's no joint remaining at all and the joint is essentially fused. |
| What are 5 treatment options for Rheumatoid Arthritis? | 1. Relieve symptoms 2. Maintain joint function 3. Minimize systemic involvement 4. Delay progression of disease 5. Drug and Non Drug measures |
| What are the 3 drugs of choice for Rheumatoid Arthritis? | 1. NSAIDs 2. DMARDs 3. Glucocorticoids |
| What are the 3 NSAIDS used in treating Rheumatoid Arthritis? | 1st generation NSAIDs - ibuprofen, naproxen 2nd generations NSAIDs - celecoxib |
| What are Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs? | DMARDS |
| ______________ slow progression of joint degeneration | DMARDs |
| ______________ Should have fewer symptoms during periods of emotional stress when treating Rheumatoid Arthritis. | DMARDs |
| ____________ have Improved range of motion after 3 months of therapy when used for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis | DMARDs |
| methotrexate, sulfasalazine, and hydroxychloroquine are examples of what forms of DMARDS? | Nonbiologic DMARDs (traditional DMARDs) |
| etanercept is also known as a ? | Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitor |
| abatacept, rituximab, tocilizumab, and anakinra are examples work as? | Biologics that target other molecules |
| etanercept, abatacept, rituximab, tocilizumab, and anakinra are all examples of...? | Biologic DMARDs |
| prednisone, prednisolone are both...? | Adrenal corticosteroids (Glucocorticoids) |
| Glucocorticoids are produced in the...? | adrenal cortex |
| Glucocorticoids can treat _____________ insufficiency | adrenocortical |
| Glucocorticoids work primarily by suppressing _____________? | inflammation |
| Glucocorticoids may be given for what 3 common things? | 1. Asthma 2. Rheumatoid arthritis 3. Organ transplants |
| Glucocorticoids can have _________ effects, especially in long-term use | toxic |
| What are the 5 physiologic effects of Glucocorticoids? | 1. Metabolic 2. Cardiovascular 3. Stress 4. Water & Electrolytes 5. Respiratory |
| what are the 2 pharmacological effects of Glucocorticoids? | 1. Metabolism & Electrolytes 2. Anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive - major clinical use |
| __________________ Interrupt inflammatory process & Inhibit synthesis of prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and histamine | Glucocorticoids |
| ______________ Reduce swelling, warmth, redness, and pain | Glucocorticoids |
| ______________ Suppress infiltration of phagocytes (Damage from lysosomal enzymes is averted) | Glucocorticoids |
| ___________________ Suppress proliferation of lymphocytes (Reduces the immune component of inflammation) | Glucocorticoids |
| _____________________ are more diverse than NSAIDs (Greater anti-inflammatory effects than NSAIDs) | Glucocorticoids |
| ______________ __________________ break down excess or worn out cell parts | |
| may be used to destroy invading viruses and bacteria | Lysosomal enzymes |
| With Glucocorticoids, high dose therapy is required to manage non-___________ conditions | endocrine |
| What are the adverse effects for Glucocorticoids? | Adrenal insufficiency, Osteoporosis Infection Glucose intolerance Myopathy Fluid & Electrolyte Imbalance Growth delay Psychological disturbances Cataracts and Glaucoma Peptic Ulcer Disease Cushing's Syndrome |
| What are 4 drug-interactions of Glucocorticoids? | 1. Potassium depleting diuretics 2. NSAIDs 3. Insulin and Oral Hypoglycemics 4. Vaccines |
| What are 2 contraindications of Glucocorticoids? | 1. Patients with systemic fungal diseases 2. Patients receiving live virus vaccines |
| What are 2 precautions of Glucocorticoids? | 1. Adrenal insufficiency 2. Glucocorticoid Withdraw |
| What are 3 nursing considerations when a patient is experiencing Glucocorticoid Withdraw? | 1. Taper dose 2. Hypotension, hypoglycemia, myalgia, arthralgia, fatigue 3. Minimize withdrawal symptoms by gradual dosage reduction and concurrent NSAID treatment |
| glucocorticoids promote ______________? | hyperglycemia |
| To maintain glycemic control for patients taking Glucocorticoids and who have diabetes, they may require ___________ doses of a glucose-lowering drug | increased |
| Because of their immunosuppressant actions, glucocorticoids can _________________ antibody responses to vaccines. | decrease |
| stopping glucocorticoids may produce a withdrawal syndrome. Symptoms include....? (5 S/S) | 1. hypotension 2. hypoglycemia 3. myalgia 4. arthralgia 5. fatigue |
| When providing patient education on glucocorticoids, warn the patient against abrupt _____________ of treatment. | discontinuation |
| When providing patient education on glucocorticoids, it is Important to take _____________ supplements and ____________ supplements, to prevent osteoporosis | calcium |
| Vitamin D | |
| When providing patient education on glucocorticoids, Inform patients about early signs of _____________? | infection |
| When providing patient education on glucocorticoids, Educate patients about the signs and symptoms of fluid retention which include...? | weight gain, swelling of the lower extremities |
| When providing patient education on glucocorticoids, Educate patients about the signs and symptoms of hypokalemia which include...? | muscle weakness, irregular pulses, cramping |
| The nurse is caring for a client who is on glucocorticoid therapy. The client states they have begun to have cloudy and blurred vision. What does the nurse suspect the client is experiencing as a result from the medication? | cataracts or glaucoma |
| metronidazole is the most common treatment for _____________ and _______________? | trichomoniasis and giardiasis |
| ___________________ drugs are directly lethal to bacteria at clinically achievable concentrations | Bactericidal |
| ___________________ drugs can slow bacterial growth but do not cause cell death | bacteriostatic |
| When a ________________ drug is used, elimination of bacteria must ultimately be accomplished by host defenses (i.e., the immune system working in concert with phagocytic cells). | bacteriostatic |
| Antimicrobial drugs have selective ______________? | toxicity |
| ____________ drugs are drugs that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis or activate enzymes that disrupt the cell wall | Antimicrobial |
| ________________ drugs (e.g., penicillins, cephalosporins) weaken the cell wall and thereby promote bacterial lysis and death. | Antimicrobial |
| penicillins and cephalosporins are examples of which drug category? | Antimicrobial drugs |
| __________________ is an antimicrobial drug that increases cell membrane permeability causing leakage of intracellular material | amphotericin B |
| ______________ is a drug that causes lethal inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis. We do not know why inhibition of protein synthesis by these agents results in cell death. | gentamicin (aminoglycosides) |
| _______________ cause nonlethal inhibition of protein synthesis. However, in contrast to the aminoglycosides, these agents only slow microbial growth | |
| they do not kill bacteria at clinically achievable concentrations. | tetracyclines |
| Drugs that inhibit bacterial synthesis of DNA and RNA or disrupt DNA function— | rifampin, metronidazole, and the fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin) |
| These drugs disrupt specific biochemical reactions. The result is either a decrease in the synthesis of essential cell constituents or the synthesis of nonfunctional analogs of normal metabolites. | Antimetabolites |
| Examples of antimetabolites include _______________ and ________________. | trimethoprim and sulfonamides |
| _______________ ____________ are drugs that work by mimicking the functioning of the sympathetic nervous system. | Adrenergic agonists |
| The ______________ _______________ _____________ causes the release of chemical messengers, such as noradrenaline and adrenaline from the adrenal glands. | sympathetic nervous system |
| The primary function of adrenaline and noradrenaline is to _______________ the blood vessels | constrict |
| Vasoconstriction causes what 5 things? | 1. increases blood pressure 2. Accelerates the rate and force of contractions of the heart 3. Opens the airways leading to the lungs 4. Stops bleeding 5. Increases the pupil size |
| _____________ __________ drugs are similar in structure to the chemical messengers, they mimic the actions of the chemical messengers. These drugs may also stimulate the release of adrenaline or noradrenaline. | Adrenergic agonist |
| As adrenergic agonist drugs mimic the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline, they are mainly used to treat: (7 Things) | 1. Bronchial asthma 2. Shock 3. Cardiac arrest 4. Conjunctival congestion (pink eye) 5. Nasal congestion 6. Emphysema (lung condition leading to shortness of breath) 7. Bronchitis |
| Adrenergic Agonists side effects include: (10 Things) | 1. Headache 2. Tremor 3. Irritation/burning in the eye 4. Blurred vision 5. Hypertension 6. Tachycardia (irregular heartbeat) 7. Palpitation 8. Dry mouth 9. Sedation 10. Anxiety |
| What is the most commonly used adrenergic agonists? | Epinephrine |
| _________________ block histamine release from histamine-1 receptors and are mostly used to treat allergies or cold and flu symptoms | Antihistamines |
| ______________-___ receptors are located in your airways (breathing tubes), blood vessels, stomach, and esophagus (throat area) | Histamine-1 |
| Allergens, such as pollen or pet fur can stimulate these receptors, causing the release of __________ | histamine |
| ______-___________ antihistamines (sedating antihistamines) can cross through the blood/brain barrier into the brain and act on these receptors, causing sleepiness (sedation), and drowsiness. | first-generation |
| ___________ can help relieve the symptoms of an allergic reaction, such as a rash or itchiness. | Antihistamines |
| Side effects of Antihistamines include: (5 things) | 1. dizziness, drowsiness, loss of coordination 2. dry mouth, nose, or throat 3. constipation, upset stomach 4. dry eyes, blurred vision or 5. day-time drowsiness or "hangover" feeling after night-time use |
| What is the most commonly used Antihistamine? | Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) |
| _______________ work by preventing the cross-linking of amino acid chains in the bacterial cell wall. | Penicillins |
| ________________ does not affect pre-existing bacteria, but newly produced bacterial cells have weak cell walls that easily rupture. | Penicillins |
| Penicillins may be used to treat a wide range of infections caused by susceptible bacteria, such as: (9 things) | 1. Dental abscess 2. Ear infections (eg, otitis media) 3. Gonorrhea 4. Pneumonia 5. Respiratory tract infections 6. Rheumatic fever 7. Scarlet fever 8. Skin infections 9. Urinary tract infections |
| The natural penicillins (______________ __ and _______________ __ are only active against gram-positive bacteria. | (penicillin G and penicillin V) |
| Penicillin V is ________ acid-resistant than penicillin G, which means it can be taken orally. | more |
| ________________ is used to treat many different types of infection caused by bacteria, such as tonsillitis, bronchitis, pneumonia, and infections of the ear, nose, throat, skin, or urinary tract. - Fairly safe - Commonly prescribed for children | Amoxicillin |
| _______________ are a large group of antibiotics derived from the mold Acremonium | Cephalosporins |
| ___________ are bactericidal (kill bacteria) and work in a similar way to penicillins | Cephalosporins |
| ________________ bind to and block the activity of enzymes responsible for making peptidoglycan, an important component of the bacterial cell wall. | Cephalosporins |
| _______________ are called broad-spectrum antibiotics because they are effective against a wide range of bacteria. | Cephalosporins |
| cephalosporins start with ______, ________, or __________ | cef, ceph, or kef. |
| Cephalosporins may be used to treat infections caused by susceptible bacteria, such as: (5 infections) | 1. Bone infections 2. Ear infections (eg, otitis media) 3. Skin infections 4. Upper respiratory 5. tract infections 6. Urinary tract infections |
| _______________ are not usually used as a first-choice antibiotic. They tend to be reserved for use when other antibiotics (often penicillins) cannot be used. | Cephalosporins |
| _____________ generation cephalosporins have optimum activity against gram + bacteria such as staphylococci and streptococci. They have little activity against gram-negative bacteria. | First |
| _______________ generation cephalosporins are typically used to treat infections caused by bacteria, including upper respiratory infections, ear infections, skin infections, urinary tract infections and bone infections. | first |
| What is an example of a first generation Cephalosporin? | Cephalexin |
| _____________ generation cephalosporins are More active against gram - bacteria, with less activity against gram-positive bacteria. | second |
| _______________ generation cephalosporins are typically used to treat many kinds of bacterial infections, including severe or life-threatening forms. Also used to prevent infection in people having certain types of surgery. | second |
| What is an example of a second generation cephalosporin? | Cefoxitin |
| ____________ generation cephalosporins are capable of killing aerobic gram - rods | Third |
| ____________ generation cephalosporins are used to treat pneumonia and meningitis | Third |
| What is an example of a third generation cephalosporin? | Cefotaxime |
| _______________ generation cephalosporins are broad-spectrum activity. Can penetrate the outer membranes of gram- bacteria. Many can cross the blood-brain barrier. | Fourth |
| What is an example of a fourth generation cephalosporin? | Cefepime |
| _______________ generation cephalosporins are broad-spectrum capable of treating infections with MRSA and many gram-, antibiotic-resistant enteric bacteria. | Fifth |
| What is an example of a fifth generation cephalosporin? | Ceftaroline |
| ______________ are active against many aerobic and anaerobic gram-positive and gram-negative organisms. | Carbapenems |
| ______________ are notable for their ability to inhibit beta-lactamase enzymes (also called penicillinase) - a type of enzyme that greatly reduces the activity of antibiotics such as penicillins and cephamycins. | Carbapenems |
| ________________ Possess the broadest spectrum of activity and the greatest potency against bacteria. Because of this, they are often reserved for more severe infections or used as "last-line" agents. | Carbapenems |
| ________________ inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to the penicillin-binding proteins and interfering with cell wall formation. | Carbapenems |
| ______________ are used in the treatment of: Lower URI UTI Abdominal infections Gynecologic infections Skin infections Bone/joint infections Bacteremia Endocarditis Polymicrobic infections | Carbapenems |
| What is a primary example of a Carbapenem? | Imipenem |
| ______________ is used for the treatment of potentially life-threatening infections when less toxic anti-infectives are contraindicated | Vancomycin |
| ____________ is used for treatment of the following: Endocarditis Meningitis Osteomyelitis Pneumonia Septiciemia Soft-tissue infections (MRSA or in patients w/ allergy to PCN) | Vancomycin |
| May be used to treat infections caused by susceptible microorganisms such as gram positive and gram negative bacteria, chlamydiae, mycoplasmata, protozoans, or rickettsiae. | Tetracyclines |
| Primarily bacteriostatic which means that they prevent bacteria from multiplying but don't necessarily kill them. | Tetracyclines |
| Emergence of bacterial resistance has limited their effectiveness and is of major concern. | Tetracyclines |
| Can cause tooth discoloration, bony growth retardation, C-diff, intracranial hypertension, fetal toxicity. | Tetracyclines |
| Can cause photosensitivity: Protect skin/eyes by using sunscreen, sunglasses, hats, long sleeves | Tetracyclines |
| Treats different bacterial infections of the skin, intestines, respiratory tract, urinary tract, GU, lymph nodes, and other body systems. It is often used in treating severe acne, or sexually transmitted diseases such as syphilis, gonorrhea, or chlamydia. | Short-Acting Tetracycline |
| ______________ is also used to treat infections you can get from direct contact with infected animals or contaminated food. | Tetracycline |
| Treats many different bacterial infections, such as acne, urinary tract infections, intestinal infections, respiratory infections, eye infections, gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, periodontitis (gum disease), and others. | Long-Acting Tetracyclines |
| Stops the growth of bacteria when treating bacterial infections and is also thought to have an anti-inflammatory action when used for other conditions | Long-Acting Tetracyclines |
| what is a primary example of a Long-Acting Tetracycline ? | Doxycycline |
| Inhibit protein synthesis in bacteria by reversibly binding to the P site of the 50S unit of the ribosome. | Macrolides |
| mainly affect gram-positive cocci and intracellular pathogens such as mycoplasma, chlamydia, and legionella. | Macrolides |
| What are 4 macrolides discussed in the module? | 1. Erythromycin 2. azithromycin 3. clarithromycin 4. roxithromycin |
| Their action is primarily bacteriostatic but may be bactericidal at high concentrations, or depending on the type of microorganism. | Macrolides |
| ______________ are typically used for: Respiratory tract infections Skin infections GU infections | Macrolides |
| Mainly in the treatment of aerobic gram-negative bacilli infections, although they are also effective against other bacteria including Staphylococci and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. | Aminoglycosides |
| They are often used in combination with other antibiotics. | Aminoglycosides |
| Thought to work by inhibiting protein synthesis inside bacteria | Aminoglycosides |
| Kill rates of bacteria are increased when higher concentrations of ___________________ are present | Aminoglycosides |
| the margin between a safe and a toxic dose is narrow and monitoring is often needed, although once daily dosing increases the safety window. | Aminoglycosides |
| Impairment of kidney function and hearing loss are the most common side effects of ________________. | aminoglycosides |
| ______________ tend to be used when other less toxic antibiotics are contraindicated or ineffective. | Aminoglycosides |
| ______________ are not well absorbed when given by mouth, so need to be given by injection by healthcare personnel. | Aminoglycosides |
| ________________ antimicrobials are bacteriostatic (stop bacteria from reproducing but don't necessarily kill them) | Sulfonamide |
| work by interfering with the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria, which is essential for nucleic acid formation and ultimately DNA and RNA. | Sulfonamides |
| _________________ antimicrobials may be combined with trimethoprim to make them bactericidal (kill bacteria), because trimethoprim acts on a different enzyme in the folic acid synthesis pathway. | Sulfonamide |
| What are 3 examples of sulfonamides used to treat bacterial infections? | 1. sulfamethoxazole 2. trimethoprim 3. sulfisoxazole |
| Which Sulfonamide can treat Crohn's disease? | sulfasalazine |
| Which Sulfonamide can treat Diabetes? | glyburide, tolbutamide |
| Which Sulfonamide can treat Fluid retention? | chlorothiazide, furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide |
| Which Sulfonamide can treat gout? | probenecid |
| Which Sulfonamide can treat High blood pressure | chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide |
| Kill bacteria by inhibiting their DNA gyrase and topoisomerase enzymes. | Fluoroquinolones |
| Associated with an increased risk for hyperglycemia, peripheral neuropathy, and tendon rupture. | Fluoroquinolonesx |
| ________________ treat the following types of infections: Skin Bone/joint Complicated intra-abdominal infections (in combination with metronidazole) UTI Chronic bacterial prostatitis Lower respiratory tract infections Acute bacterial sinusitis | Fluoroquinolones |
| What is a primary example of Fluoroquinolones? | Ciprofloxacin |
| Drug of choice for systemic mycoses (fungus) infections | |
| highly toxic. | Amphotericin B |
| Used to treat serious, life-threatening fungal infections. It is not for use in treating a minor fungal infection such as a yeast infection of the mouth, esophagus, or vagina. | Amphotericin B |
| Used to treat infections caused by fungus, which can invade any part of the body including the mouth, throat, esophagus, lungs, bladder, genital area, and the blood. | Fluconazole |
| Used to prevent fungal infection in people who have a weak immune system caused by cancer treatment, bone marrow transplant, or diseases such as AIDS. | Fluconazole |
| Used to treat a certain type of meningitis in people with HIV/AIDS. | Fluconazole |
| Only used to treat superficial mycoses such as with fungal nail infection. | Griseofulvin |
| Used to treat infections such as ringworm, athlete's foot, jock itch, and fungal infections of the scalp, fingernails, or toenails. | Griseofulvin |
| Only used for candidiasis (yeast fungal infection) of skin, mouth, esophagus, and vagina. | Nystatin |
| Oral ____________ is not absorbed into your bloodstream and will not treat fungal infections in other parts of the body or on the skin. | Nystatin |
| Antiviral drug that is used to treat symptoms of shingles, chickenpox, cold sores and genital herpes which are all caused by herpes viruses. | Acyclovir |
| It is also used to prevent having regular outbreaks of genital herpes | Acyclovir |
| _____________ will not get rid of the virus infection but does help sores heal faster and helps with pain relief. | Acyclovir |
| For topical application, use a finger cot/rubber glove, educate to wash the affected area with soap/water 3-4 times a day, and avoid sexual contact when lesions are present. | Acyclovir |
| Used for CMV infection. | Ganciclovir |
| Inhaled used for RSV infection in pediatrics, oral is used for Hepatitis C virus. | Ribavirin |
| Used to treat influenza. (3 drugs) | Oseltamivir, Zanamivir, and Peramivir |
| Used to treat influenza. Not effective if symptoms have persisted for more than 2-3 days. | Oseltamivir, Zanamivir, and Peramivir |
| Bone contains three types of cells: | osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts |
| most abundant cells in bone are transformed osteoblasts that are trapped or surrounded in osteoid | Osteocytes |
| They are the most numerous cells in bone | Osteocytes |
| Though imbedded in the bone matrix, osteocytes have important functions in directing bone remodeling. | Osteocytes |
| _____________ obtain nutrients from capillaries in the canaliculi, which contain nutrient-rich fluids | Osteocytes |
| One of the _____________ primary functions is to act as a mechanoreceptor, responding to changes in weight bearing or other stressors ("loading") on bone | osteocyte's |
| Once changes in bone, such as mechanical stress, hormonal imbalance, loading, or unloading, are detected by the _____________ mechanoreceptors, multiple molecular signals are produced and the process of bone remodeling begins. | osteocyte's |
| Which condition is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? SATA 1. Posion Ivy allergic reaction 2. Sarcoidosis 3. Myasthenia gravis 4. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) 5. System lupus erythematosus (SLE) | 1. Posion Ivy allergic reaction 2. Sarcoidosis |
| Which infection would the nurse monitor for in the toddler based on structural characteristics at this age? SATA 1. Bronchiolitis 2. Ear infection 3. Acute sinusitis 4. Laryngotracheobronchitis 5. Inflammation of the tonsils | 2. Ear infection 3. Acute sinusitis 4. Laryngotracheobronchitis 5. Inflammation of the tonsils |
| Which condition triggers humoral immunity? SATA 1. Tuberculosis 2. Atopic diseases 3. Bacterial infection 4. Anaphylactic shock 5. Contact dermatitis | 2. Atopic diseases 3. Bacterial infection 4. Anaphylactic shock |
| Which outcome is likely if the nurse palpates a client's joints during an acute episode of rheumatoid arthritis? A. Pain B. Swelling C. Nodule formation D. Tophaceous deposits | A. Pain |
| Which leukocyte is responsible for the allergic response? A. Basophils B. Monocytes C. Eosinophils D. Macrophages | A. Basophils |
| What nursing intervention is the priority when a client receiving chemotherapy develops a temperature of 102.2 F when the temperature 6 hours ago was 99.2 F? | Administer the prescribed antipyretic and notify the primary health care provider of this change |
| The nurse is teaching UAP about ways to precent the spread of infection. The nurse decides to emphasize the need to break the cycle of infection. Which teaching would be priority? | Hand washing before and after providing client care |
| Which clinical findings to a client diagnosed with SLE. would the nurse expect the client to exhibit? | A. butterfly facial rash C. Inflammation of the joints |
| Which finding would the nurse identify as normal inflammation versus an infection when assessing a client's wound that was sutured 72 hours ago? | A slight red border around the wound |
| Which type of hypersensitivity reaction does the nurse suspect on assessment of a healthy adult client reporting development of a skin rash A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV | D. Type IV |
| Which nursing intervention would prevent septic shock in the hospitalized client? | Use aseptic technique during all invasive procedures |
| A client has inflammation of the facial nerve, causing facial paralysis on one side. Which diagnosis from the medical record is consistent with this finding? A. Botulism B. Bell palsy C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome | B. Bell palsy |
| The nurse would include which instruction to the parents of a child being treated with oral ampicillin for otitis media? | Complete the entire course of antibiotic therapy |
| Which leukocyte releases vasoactive amines during a client's allergic reaction? A. Neutrophil B. Monocyte C. Eosinophil D. Macrophage | C. Eosinophil |
| Which assessment findings would the nurse identify in a client with clinical manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? | 2. Development of antinuclear antibodies 3. Inflammatory disease pattern 4. Bilateral involvement of metacarpophalangeal joints |
| The nurse is caring for a surgical client who develops a wound infection during hospitilization. Which classification would this infection belong to? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Superinfection D. Nosocomial | D. Nosocomial |
| Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV | C. Type III |
| Arrange the pathophysiological events of acne in the correct sequence | 1. Excessive sebum production 2. Alterations in follicular growth and differentiation 3. Colonization of propionibacterium acnes 4. Immune response and inflammation |
| Which recommendation would the nurse make to the family of a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis who has difficulty getting ready for school in the morning due to joint pain and stiffness? | D. Provide warm, moist heat to the affected joints before arising |
| Which factor explains why a client who experiences an acute episode of rheumatoid arthritis has swollen finger joints? | B. Inflammation in the joint's synovial lining |
| Which intervention is best when an adolescent has been admitted with a history of symptoms of fatigue, intermittent fever, weight loss, and arthralgia, and the diagnosis is systemic lupus erythematosus? | B. Education about diet, rest, and exercise |
| Which complication would the nurse monitor for in a client on strict bed rest for 3 days? SATA 1. Atelectasis 2. Hypotension 3. Constipation 4. Pressure injuries 5. Urinary tract infection | 1. Atelectasis 2. Hypotension 3. Constipation 4. Pressure injuries 5. Urinary tract infection |
| Which action would the nurse implement when a client develops an anaphylactic reaction? | 1. Initially, apply oxygen at 90% to 100% per nasal cannula 2. Call the rapid response team and have the crash cart retrieved 3. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees 5. Ensure emergency airway equipment is at the bedside |
| The client is on neutropenic precautions. From which direction does the protective environment isolation help prevent the spread of infection? | A. To the client from outside sources |
| Which finding in a urinalysis indicates a urinary tract infection? A. Crystals B. Bilirubin C. Ketones D. Leukoesterase | D. Leukoesterase |
| Arrange the steps involved in skin testing for an allergen casing a type I allergic reaction in their correct sequence | 1. Discontinue corticosteroid medication 2. Clean the inner side of the forearm with soap and water 3. Place drops of sera containing the known allergen on the skin 4. Use a skin testing needle |
| Which recommendation is essential for the nurse to include when providing counseling to a client with system lupus erythematosus (SLE) SATA | 1. Wear a large brimmed hat 2. Take your temperature daily 3. Balance periods of rest activity |
| Which client is an example of cell-mediated immunity? SATA 1. Tuberculosis (TB) 2. Graft rejection 3. Allergic rhinitis 4. Contact dermatitis 5. Anaphylactic shock | 1. Tuberculosis (TB) 2. Graft rejection 4. Contact dermatitis |
| Which category of isolation would the nurse implement for a client who is positive for clostridum difficile? A. Airborne precautions B. Droplet precautions C. Contact precautions D. Protective environment | C. Contact precautions |
| Which surgery is used as a prophylactic measure and as a palliative treatment for clients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) A. Osteotomy B. Arthrodesis C. Synovectomy D. Debridement | C. Synovectomy |
| Which information would be important for the nurse to include in the teaching plan of a client with systemic lupus erthematosus to reduce the frequency of exacerbations? | B. Techniques to reduce stress |
| The nurse is caring for a client who had an above-the-knee amputation 1 week ago. Which action would the nurse take to control edema of the residual limb? | C. Rewrap the elastic bandage as necessary |
| Which complication would the nurse recognize as associated with frequent episodes of otitis media in infants? SATA 1. Mastoiditis 2. Heart failure 3. Hearing loss 4. Gastroenteritis 5. Bacterial meningitis | 1. Mastoiditis 3. Hearing loss 5. Bacterial meningitis |
| Which education would the nurse provide the parent of a 2-month-old infant about home care in the event of an immunization reaction? A. Give aspirin for pain | A. Give aspirin for pain if swelling at the injection site develops, call the health care provider apply ice if the arm is inflammed C. Give acetaminophen for fever call the health care provider if the child exhibits marked drowsiness or seizures |
| Identify the clinical manifestation associated with the release of histamine during a type I rapid hypersensitivity reaction A. Pruritus B. Erythema C. Fibrotic changes D. Nasal mucus secretion E. Conjuctival mucus secretion F. Hematuria | A. Pruritus B. Erythema D. Nasal mucus secretion E. Conjuctival mucus secretion |
| Which potential immunological reaction may occur in a client who experiences localized edema and itching from an insect bite? A. Anaphylaxis B. Atopic reaction C. Goodpasture syndrome D. Systemic lupus erythematosus | A. Anaphylaxis |
| Which educational topic is a high priority for the nurse providing education to a client with systemic lupus erythematosus | A. Instructing about ways to protect the skin |
| Which action would the nurse instruct an older client to implement to ensure antibody-mediated immunity? SATA | 1. Obtain a shingles vaccination 2. Receive a tetanus booster injection 3. Obtain the pneumococcal vaccination 5. Receive an annual influenza vaccination |
| Which response would the nurse provide during an education session at the local community center to a question asking why influenza vaccines are needed annually? | C. The nature of the virus changes every year |
| Which findings noted during assessment would the nurse lead the nurse to determine that a client is at an increased risk for infection? SATA 1. Surgical incision 2. Urinary catheter 3. Antibiotic catheter 4. Intravenous access 5. Diminished appetite | 1. Surgical incision 2. Urinary catheter 3. Antibiotic catheter 4. Intravenous access |
| Which disorder would the nurse suspect in a client who reports hair loss, joint pain, and a facial rash and has a medical record showing the presence of a butterfly rash? | D. Systemic lupus erythematosus |
| Which cause would a nurse suspect is responsible for warmth, redness, and tenderness identified at a client's intravenous (IV) site? A. Rapid fluid delivery B. Phlebitis C. Allergic response D. Infiltration | B. Phlebitis |
| Which type of immunity would a 4-year-old child develop during the course of an infection with varicella? A. Active natural immunity B. Active artificial immunity C. Passive natural immunity D. Passive artificial immunity | A. Active natural immunity |
| Which function of leukocytes is involved in the inflammation process? SATA | 1. Destruction of bacteria and cellular debris 3. Release of vasoactive amines during allergic reactions |
| Which disease process places a client at increased risk for infection? SATA 1. Leukemia 2. Lymphoma 3. Emphysema 4. Schizophrenia 5. Osteoarthritis | 1. Leukemia 2. Lymphoma 3. Emphysema |
| A client who has rheumatoid arthritis participates in an individualized exercise program daily. Which statement from the client indicates to the nurse that the client understands the purpose of the program? | D. I do one set of exercises slowly after breakfast, then I space the rest of them throughout the day |
| Which response would the nurse give to a client taking ibuprofen for rheumatoid arthritis who asks the nurse if acetaminophen can be substituted? | D. Ibuprofen has-anti-inflammatory properties, and acetaminophen does not |
| Which intervention would the nurse anticipate incorporating into the plan of care for a client with bursitis of the left knee? | 1. Rest the affected joint 3. Use a compression splint 5. Take NSAIDS as needed for pain |
| Which clinical manifestation may indicate a client has SLE? SATA 1. Pericarditis 2. Esophagitis 3. Fibrotic skin 4. Discoid lesions 5. Pleural effusion | 1. Pericarditis 4. Discoid lesions 5. Pleural effusion |
| Which priority action would the nurse perform when caring for a client with suspected anaphylaxis? A. Obtain full set of vital signs B. Assess airway and oxygenation C. Determine level of consciousness D. Notify the client's health care provider | B. Assess airway and oxygenation |
| Which reaction is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? A. Anaphylaxis B. Serum sickness C. Contact dermatitis D. Blood transfusion reaction | A. Anaphylaxis |
| Which type of diet would the nurse expect the primary health care provider to prescribe for a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis? | D. Regular diet with vitamins and minerals |
| Which option is an example of actively acquired specific immunity? 1. Recovery from measles 2. Recovery from chickenpox 3. Maternal immunoglobulin in the neonate 4. Immunization with live or killed vaccines 5. Injection of human gamma immunoglobulin | 1. Recovery from measles 2. Recovery from chickenpox 4. Immunization with live or killed vaccines |
| A high-protein diet is recommended for a client recovering from a fracture. Which is the rationale for a high-protein diet for this client? | C. It promotes cell growth and bone union |
| Which leukocyte would the nurse include when teaching about antibody-mediated immunity? SATA 1. Monocyte 2. Memory cell 3. Helper T cell 4. B-lymphocyte 5. Cytotoxic T cell | 2. Memory cell 4. B-lymphocyte |
| Which leukocyte value determines the adequacy of a client's response to inflammation? SATA 1. Monocytes 2. Neutrophils 3. Plasma cells 4. T-helper cells 5. Macrophages | 1. Monocytes 2. Neutrophils 5. Macrophages |
| Which client receiving antibiotic therapy would the nurse identify as being at risk for Achilles tendon rupture? Client A medication: Gentamicin Client B medication: Ciprofloxacin Client C medication: Cefazolin Client D medication: Tobramycin | Client B medication: Ciprofloxacin |
| Which medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for a client reporting inflammatory lesions on the face and diagnosed with an anti-inflammatory disorder of the sebaceous glands? | 3. Clindamycin 4. Eryhromycin |
| Which class of medication would a nurse expect to be prescribed to prevent the development of cerebral edema after craniotomy to remove a brain tumor? A. Glucocorticoids B. Anticholinergics C. Anticonvulsants D. Antihypertensives | A. Glucocorticoids |
| Which action will the nurse take first when treating a client who is having an anaphylactic reaction? | A. Give epinephrine 0.5 mg IM |
| Which therapy is indicated for a client to the hospital after general paresis develops as a complication of syphilis? A. Penicillin therapy B. Major tranquilizers C. Behavior modification D. Electroconvulsive therapy | A. Penicillin therapy |
| A pregnant client with an infection tells the nurse that they have taken tetracycline for injections in the past and prefer to take it now. Which response would the nurse give regarding the avoidance of tetracycline administration during pregnancy | C. It alters the development of fetal teeth buds |
| Which mechanism of action applies to penicillin? A. Prevents reproduction of the pathogen B. Inhibits cell wall synthesis of the pathogen C. Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis of the pathogen D. Injures the cytoplasmic membrane of the pathogen | B. Inhibits cell wall synthesis of the pathogen |
| Which medication is the first-line medication used to treat a client with mild diarrhea who is diagnosed with a clostridium difficile infection? A. Rifaximin B. Fidaxomicin C. Vancomycin D. Metronidazole | D. Metronidazole |
| A new mother asks the nurse administering erythromycin opthalmic ointment to her newborn why her baby must be subjected to this procedure. Which is the best response by the nurse? | D. This antibiotic helps keep babies from contracting eye infections |
| Which topical medication is typically used to treat a client with acne vulgaris? SATA 1. Mupirocin 2. Gentamicin 3. Clindamycin 4. Eryhthromycin 5. Metronidazole | 3. Clindamycin 4. Eryhthromycin |
| Which cause would the nurse suspect when caring for a client who has an anaphylactic reaction after receiving intravenous penicillin? | C. Antibodies to penicillin developed after previous exposure |
| Which second-line medication would the nurse prepare to give after administering epinephrine to a client experiencing an anaphylactic reaction? SATA | 3. Dexamethasone 4. Diphenhydramine Hydrochloride 5. Hydrocortisone sodium succinate |
| How would the nurse reply when a client prescribed a tetracycline class medication asks why milk and antacids should be avoided before and after dosing? | D. This can lead to decreased absorption of the medication you need |
| Which assessment would the nurse perform before administering a dose of vancomycin to a client? SATA 1. Creatinine 2. Trough level 3. Hearing ability 4. Intravenous site 5. Blood urea nitrogen | 1. Creatinine 2. Trough level 3. Hearing ability 4. Intravenous site 5. Blood urea nitrogen |
| Which prescribed medication will the nurse probably prepare educational materials for when caring for a pregnant woman with a body temperature of 103 F and clinical manifestations of coccidioidomycosis? | D. Amphotericin B |
| A child recovering from a severe asthma attack is given oral prednisone 15 mg twice daily. Which intervention would be a priority for the nurse? | C. Preventing exposure of the child to infection |
| The nurse identifies which antimicrobial medications as safe during breast-feeding? SATA 1. Penicillins 2. Macrolides 3. Tetracycline 4. Cephalosporins 5. Chloramphenicol | 1. Penicillins 2. Macrolides 4. Cephalosporins |
| Which initial action would the nurse take when caring for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin who reports ringing in both ears? | C. Stop the infusion |
| A 5-year-old child is given fluoroquinolones. Which potential adverse effect unique to pediatric clients would the nurse anticipate? A. Tendon rupture B. Cartilage erosion C. Staining of developing teeth D. Central nervous system toxicity | A. Tendon rupture |
| Which adverse effect would the nurse monitor for in an infant receiving a sulfonamide? A. Kernicterus B. Gray Syndrome C. Growth Syndrome D. Discoloration of the teeth | A. Kernicterus |
| Which medication would the nurse anticipate adminsitering to a client who reports fever, cough, muscle aches, night sweats, and chest pain with a laboratory report indicating the presence of Coccidioides organisms in the respiratory tract? | B. Fluconazole |
| Which anti-infective agent may lead to blindness if not used correctly by the client prescribed amounts? A. Bromfenac B. Natamycin C. Trifluridine D. Gentamicin | D. Gentamicin |
| Which medication used to treat vaginosis may be responsible for a client's report of an unpleasant metallic taste, nausea, and vomiting? A. Tinidazole B. Miconazole C. Clotrimazole D. Metronidazole | D. Metronidazole |
| Which action would the nurse take when administering tetracycline? | C. Administer the medication at least an hour before ingestion of milk products |
| A client with adrenal insufficiency reports feeling weak and dizzy, especially in the morning. What should the nurse determine is the most probable cause of these symptoms? | 3 A hypoglycemic reaction |
| Which explanation would the nurse provide to a client with gastric ulcer disease who asks the nurse why the healthcare provider has prescribed metronidazole? | C. To treat Helicobacter pylori infection |
| A child is prescribed tetracycline. The nurse understands which possible medication-related reaction is associated with this medication? A. Kenricterus B. Gray syndrome C. Reye syndrome D. Staining of teeth | D. Staining of teeth |
| The nurse is teaching the parent of a child prescribed a high dose of oral prednisone for asthma. Which information is critical for the nurse to include when teaching about this medication? | B. It should be stopped gradually |
| Which medication of choice would be prescribed for a client who is diagnosed with chlamydia? A. Imiquimod B. Ceftriaxone C. Azithromycin D. Benzathine Penicillin | C. Azithromycin |
| Which instruction would the nurse provide a client prescribed oral extended-release ciprofloxacin therapy for a urinary tract infection? | D. Refrain from taking the tablet immediately after an antacid |
| Which medication may contribute to development of a peptic ulcer in a client receiving immunosuppressive therapy? A. Prednisone B. Azathioprine C. Cyclosporine D. Cyclophosphamide | A. Prednisone |
| The nurse notes an older adult's admission orders include gentamicin for the treatment of osteomyelitis. Which laboratory report would the nurse review before beginning the medication? SATA | 1. BUN and creatinine 2. Electrolytes and urnalysis |
| After completing a week of antibiotic therapy, an infant develops oral thrush. Which medication is indicated for treatment of this condition? A. Acyclovir B. Vidarabine C. Nystatin D. Fluconazole | C. Nystatin |
| Which action would the nurse take first for a client on intravenous medication who experiences an anaphylactic reaction? | A. stop the intravenous medication |
| Which steps would the nurse anticipate taking first when providing emergency care for a client who develops anaphylaxis after being stung by multiple bees? | B. Administer epinephrine |
| The nurse is caring for a pregnant client who has contracted a trichomonal infection. For which oral medication would the nurse anticipate preparing to provide education? A. Penicillin G B. Acyclovir C. Nystatin D. Metronidazole | D. Metronidazole |
| For which clinical manifestation would the nurse focus when assessing clients taking tobramycin? SATA 1. Throat sores 2. Blurred vision 3. Watery diarrhea 4. Hearing impairment 5. Decreased sense of smell | 2. Blurred vision 4. Hearing impairment 5. Decreased sense of smell |
| Which effect has resulted in the avoidance of tetracycline use in children under 8 years old? A. Birth defects B. Allergic responses C. Severe nausea and vomiting D. Permanent tooth discoloration | D. Permanent tooth discoloration |
| Which medication of choice would be prescribed for a pregnant adolescent diagnosed with syphilis during the first trimester? A. Penicillin G B. Doxycycline C. Tetracycline D. Erythromycin | A. Penicillin G |
| The nurse understands which medication class may cause kernicterus in neonates? A. Salicylates B. Tetracyclines C. Sulfonamides D. Glucocorticoids | C. Sulfonamides |
| Use of which medication would the nurse identify as a potential risk for hearing impairment in a child? A. Amoxicillin B. Gentamicin C. Clindamycin D. Ciprofloxacin | B. Gentamicin |
| Which hormone is responsible for altered serum calcium concentrations? SATA A. Calcitonin B. Thyroxine C. Glucocorticoids D. Growth hormone E. Parathyroid hormone | A. Calcitonin E. Parathyroid hormone |
| Which intervention would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with herpes zoster? SATA 1. Acyclovir 2. Silvadene 3. Gabapentin 4. Wet compresses 5. Contact isolation | 1. Acyclovir 2. Silvadene 3. Gabapentin 4. Wet compresses 5. Contact isolation |
| the nurse should seek clarification by the practitioner for which order? A. Discharge in the AM B. Blood glucose monitoring ac and bedtime C. Erythromycin 250 mg TIW D. Dalteparin 5000 international units SUb-Q BID | C. Erythromycin 250 mg TIW |
| Which medication used to treat syphilis is contraindicated in pregnancy? A. Amoxicillin B. Clotrimazole C. Tetracycline D. Metronidazole | C. Tetracycline |
| Which information would the nurse provide when administering the first dose of prednisone prescribed to a client with an exacerbation of colitis? | C. Prednisone is not curative but does cause a suppression of the inflammatory process |
| Which action would the nurse take to avoid red man syndrome when preparing to administer a vancomycin infusion? A. Infuse slowly B. Change the IV site C. Reduce the dosage D. Administer vitamin K | A. Infuse slowly |
| Which side effect would the nurse assess for in a child receiving prednisone? A. Alopecia B. Anorexia C. Weight loss D. Mood changes | D. Mood changes |
| Which medication would the nurse monitor the serum creatinine and BUN levels, when administering to a client receiving therapy for extensive burn wounds? A. Nitrofurantoin B. Mafenide acetate C. Silver sulfadiazine D. Gentamicin sulfate | D. Gentamicin sulfate |
| Which prescription would the nurse anticipate being written for a client experiencing vaginal discharge with a fishy odor who was diagnosed bacterial vaginosis? A. Tinidazole B. Miconazole C. Clotrimazole D. Metronidazole | D. Metronidazole |
| Which role would norepinephrine's mechanism of action perform in managing anaphylaxis? | C. norepinephrine functions as a peripheral vasoconstrictor |
| Which medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed to a pregnant adolescent reporting painful vesicles in the labia minora who is diagnosed with herpes simplex virus infection? A. Acyclovir B. Penciclovir C. Famciclovir D. Valacyclovir | A. Acyclovir |
| Which statement by the client indicates that the nurse's teaching was effective regarding intravenous gentamicin therapy? | D. I should report any hearing loss to the primary health care provider |
| Which client statement indicates to the nurse effective teaching regarding the administration of ciprofloxacin therapy for treatment of osteomyelitis? | D. I should contact my primary healthcare provider if white patches appear in my mouth |
| A parent complains that his child's teeth have yellowed. The nurse understands that with prolonged use, which medication may be responsible? A. Tetracycline B. Promethazine C. Chloramphenicol D. Fluoroquinolones | A. Tetracycline |
| Which medication is considered first-line therapy for an infant with congenital syphilis? A. Vidarabine B. Pyrimethamine C. IV Penicillin D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole | C. IV Penicillin |
| Which medication is useful in reducing the flulike syndrome associated with use of monoclonal antibody therapy? SATA 1. Sirolimus 2. Cyclosporine 3. Acetaminophen 4. Diphenhydramine 5. Methylprednisolone | 3. Acetaminophen 4. Diphenhydramine 5. Methylprednisolone |
| Which side effect would the nurse assess for after epinephrine is administered to an infant with severe bronchospasms? A. Tachycardia B. Hypotension C. Respiratory arrest D. CNS depression | A. Tachycardia |
| Which action would the nurse take when a client develops a maculopapular rash on the upper extremities and audible wheezing during the administration of IV vancomycin? | A. Stop the infusion |
| Which medication would the nurse expect to administer when caring for a client who is diagnosed with syphilis? A. Acyclovir B. Penicillin G C. Ceftriaxone D. Azithromycin | B. Penicillin G |
| Which statement by a client prescribed ampicillin 250 mg by mouth every 6 hours indicates to the nurse that teaching has been effective? | D. The medicine should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals |
| The clinic nurse is planning care for a client with chlamydia. Which treatment would the nurse anticipate implementing? | B. Administration of 1 g of azithromycin orally in a single dose |
| Which treatment strategy would benefit a client diagnosed with chlamydia? SATA 1. Penicillin G 2. Ceftriaxone 3. Clotrimazole 4. Doxycycline 5. Azithromycin | 4. Doxycycline 5. Azithromycin |
| To which of these four assigned clients with a mouth infection would the nurse anticipate administering nystatin as an oral suspension? Client A: Trench mouth Client B: Moniliasis Client C: Cold sores Client D: Parotitis | Client B: Moniliasis |
| Which client statement provides evidence that the client understands medication teaching for high-dose penicillin? | D. I must increase my intake of fluids while taking this medication |
| Which medication would be prescribed when a client reports vaginal itching and the primary health care provider confirms that the client has candidiasis? SATA 1. Tinidazole 2. Miconazole 3. Fluconazole 4. Clotrimazole 5. Metronidazole | 2. Miconazole 3. Fluconazole 4. Clotrimazole |
| Which hormones are involved in building and maintaining healthy bone tissue? SATA 1. Insulin 2. Thyroxine 3. Glucocorticoids 4. Growth hormone 5. Parathyroid hormone | 1. Insulin 3. Glucocorticoids 4. Growth hormone |
| Pt is prescribes azithromycin with a history of mucopurulent discharge and bleeding associated with cervicxal dysplasia, dysuria and dyspareunia. What sexually transmitted infection are these clinical findings and medication therapy commonly associated? | B. Chlamydial infection |
| Which substance history of a severe allergic reaction results in avoidance of the cephalosporins such as cefazolin, cefditroren, cefotetan, and ceftriaxone? SATA 1. Milk 2. Aspirin 3. Calcium 4. Penicillin 5. Strawberries | 1. Milk 2. Aspirin 3. Calcium 4. Penicillin |
| Which instruction would the nurse include when providing medication teaching to a client prescribed trimethorpim-sulfamethoxazole for cystitis? | A. Drink eight to ten glasses of water daily |
| An example of a physical barrier is: A. antibacterial fatty acids. B. earwax. C. lysozymes in tears. D. epithelial cells. | D. epithelial cells. |
| A biochemical substance that attracts leukocytes to the site of inflammation is a(n): A. carboxypeptidase. B. chemotactic factor. C. fibrin D. opsonin | B. chemotactic factor. |
| Which is a characteristic of mast cells? They: A. are not involved in allergic reactions. B. release histamine that causes inflammation. C. release histamine that causes vasoconstriction. D. are found only in blood vessels. | B. release histamine that causes inflammation. |
| Which is an acidic, sulfur-containing lipid that produces effects similar to histamine? A. Leukotriene B. Adhesion molecule C. Prostaglandin D. Phagocyte | A. Leukotriene |
| Which is a characteristic of neutrophils? | D. are the predominant phagocytes at the early inflammatory site. |
| Biochemical messengers produced by macrophages and lymphocytes in response to a pathogen are called: A. interferons. B. tumor necrosis factor. C. chemokines. D. interleukins. | D. interleukins. |
| Which cytokine is secreted by macrophages and mast cells and acts to induce fever? A. Interleukin-6 B. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha C. Interleukin-1 D. Interferons | B. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha |
| Barriers associated with innate immunity include: (Select all that apply.) 1. physical. 2. mechanical. 3. resistance. 4. inflammation. 5. Biochemical. | 1. physical. 2. mechanical. 5. Biochemical. |
| In a patient experiencing inflammation, observable characteristic(s) would include: (Select all that apply.) 1. coolness to the touch. 2. pain. 3. redness. 4. increased swelling. 5. numbness. | 2. pain. 3. redness. 4. increased swelling. |
| The activation of the complement system includes: (Select all that apply.) Select all that apply. 1. antibody. 2. classic. 3. antigen. 4. alternative. 5. lectin. | 2. classic. 4. alternative. 5. lectin. |
| The clotting system at the site of injury or inflammation includes the following function(s): | 1. providing a framework for future repair and healing. 2. preventing the spread of infection to adjacent tissues. |
| The proliferation phase of wound healing includes: (Select all that apply.) 1. Select all that apply. 2. fibroblast proliferation. 3. epithelialization. 4. collagen synthesis. 5. wound contraction. 6. neutrophil infiltration. | 2. fibroblast proliferation. 3. epithelialization. 4. collagen synthesis. 5. wound contraction. |
| Which is a characteristic of the immune response in humans? | A. Generation of clonal diversity occurs in primary lymphoid organs. |
| Which is characteristic of humoral immunity? A. Cells undergo differentiation and develop into subpopulations. B. Cytotoxic T cells attack and kill targets. C. Cells attack cancerous cells. D. Antibodies are primarily responsible for protection. | D. Antibodies are primarily responsible for protection. |
| Which is the portion of the antigen that is configured to recognize and bind? A. Immunogen b. Epitope c. Self-antigen d. Paratope | b. Epitope |
| Which is a function of cytotoxic T lymphocytes? a. Direct stimulation of B-cell maturation b. Activation of macrophages c. Processes isotype switching d. Direct killing of foreign and abnormal cells | d. Direct killing of foreign and abnormal cells |
| Inactivation or blocking of the antigen binding to the receptor is best described as: a. agglutination. b. precipitation. c. attenuation. d. neutralization. | d. neutralization. |
| Which statement best characterizes humoral response? | b. Becoming activated upon recognition of an antigen |
| The excessive production of cytokines and Th-cell activation and proliferation is a result of: a. lymphokine-producing cells. b. regulatory T cells. c. superantigen. d. Th1 cells. | c. superantigen. |
| An IgA antibody: | 1. is found in blood as IgA-1. 5. is primarily found in the body's secretions IUgA-2. 3. has dimers anchored together by a J chain. |
| It is true that aging affects self-defense mechanisms by: | 5. decreasing immune function. 4. diminishing T-cell function. 1. reducing antibody response to antigenic challenges. 3. decreasing thymic hormone production. |
| The IgE antibody is correctly described as: | 2. the only inflammatory cell that can damage a virus. 5. capable of protecting the host from parasites. |
| What is the term for the gelatinous material found in bone? a. Collagen b. Protein c. Ground substance d. Calcium | c. Ground substance |
| What are the major resorptive cells found in bone? a. Osteocytes b. Osteoclasts c. Osteoids d. Osteoblasts | b. Osteoclasts |
| What is the function of osteocalcin? | c. Plays a part in bone resorption by recruiting osteoclasts. |
| An elderly woman is diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which cells would be most active in her bones? a. Lacunae b. Osteocytes c. Osteoclasts d. Osteoblasts | d. Osteoblasts |
| Which statement regarding the different types of bone tissue is accurate? | c. The major difference between the types of bones is the organization of elements. |
| The phase of bone remodeling during which the osteoclasts resorb bone and leave a resorption cavity is referred to as: a. Phase 2. b. Phase 1. c. Phase 4. d. Phase 3. | a. Phase 2. |
| Which inorganic components are major elements of bone? (Select all that apply.) Select all that apply. 1. Sodium 2. Calcium 3. Phosphate 4. Potassium 5. Magnesium | 2. Calcium 3. Phosphate |
| Which terms are used to identify a stage of wound healing in bone? (Select all that apply.) Select all that apply. 1. Hematoma reabsorption 2. Remodeling 3. Hematoma formation 4. Callus formation 5. Procallus formation | 2. Remodeling 3. Hematoma formation 4. Callus formation 5. Procallus formation |
| Which term is used to describe a bone fracture that results in two or more fragments? a. Comminuted b. Oblique c. Complete d. Open | a. Comminuted |
| A transchondral fracture: | results in fragmentation and separation of a portion of the articular cartilage. |
| At what age does age-related bone loss begin? a. 30-40 b. 40-50 c. 20-30 d.50-60 | a. 30-40 |
| Which is a clinical manifestation of Paget disease? a. Impaired motor function b. Increased sympathetic nervous system discharge c. Increased lacrimation d. Decreased density of skull | a. Impaired motor function |
| A deficiency of which substances have been associated with osteoporosis? (Select all that apply.) 1. Magnesium 2. Calcium 3. Estrogen 4. Iron 5. Vitamin D | 1. Magnesium 2. Calcium 3. Estrogen 5. Vitamin D |
| this results in which therapeutic effect? a. Decrease in the intestinal absorption of calcium b. Increase in bone resorption of calcium c. Increase in renal calcium excretion d. Increase in plasma levels of phosphate | b. Increase in bone resorption of calcium |
| A nurse monitors the calcium level of a patient who has had a thyroidectomy. The nurse should notice which finding if the patient's calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL? | c. Lethargy and confusion |
| A nurse teaches a patient who is postmenopausal and is scheduled to start taking calcium carbonate as a dietary supplement. The nurse instructs the patient to avoid taking it with which food? a. Milk b. Carrots c. Potatoes d. Spinach | c. Potatoes |
| A patient who has Paget's disease is receiving calcitonin-salmon [Miacalcin] nasal spray. A nurse should expect the patient to have which therapeutic response if the medication is having the desired effect? | a. Decrease in bone pain |
| A nurse teaches a patient who takes raloxifene [Evista] for prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis to report which finding as an adverse effect of the medication? | a. Calf pain and leg swelling |
| A female patient is to start treatment with teriparatide [Forteo] for osteoporosis. The nurse assesses the patient's history for which of these disorders that would be a contraindication to treatment? | b. Bone cancer |
| A patient is ordered calcium gluconate for treatment of hypocalcemia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? | a. "I will take calcium 1 hour before eating." |
| A patient has been taking raloxifene [Evista] for treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which patient complaint requires immediate investigation by the healthcare provider? | b. Edema and tenderness in the left calf |
| A nurse should establish which outcomes when planning care for optimal bone health in a child? (Select all that apply.) | 1. Takes a multivitamin containing vitamin D. 2. Has daily exposure to sunlight. 3. Has a daily intake of cereal, cheese, and milk. 4. Has absence of skeletal deformities. |
| A nurse instructs a patient at risk of developing osteoporosis to implement which measures to maximize bone strength? (Select all that apply.) | 2. Engage in regular weight-bearing exercise. 3. Ensure a daily intake of calcium and vitamin D. 4. Have routine bone mineral density (BMD) tests. 5. Avoid smoking and excessive alcohol. |
| Lack of mobility in a child may interfere with which developmental milestone? a. Speech and hearing development b. Intellectual and psychomotor function c. Childhood play interaction d. Physiological bonding and growth | b. Intellectual and psychomotor function |
| A nurse observes a patient walking in the hall. Which assessment is the nurse able to complete? a. Speech and hearing b. Ability to follow directions c. Gait and balance d. Mental alertness | c. Gait and balance |
| Which nutrients are critical for the musculoskeletal development during infancy, childhood, and adolescence? a. Protein and calcium b. Fats and carbohydrates c. Vitamins and minerals d. Zinc and potassium | a. Protein and calcium |
| The nurse is reviewing skin care for immobilized patients with an unlicensed assistive employee. The nurse knows the employee understands the importance of skin care when making which statement? | c. "Proper care of the skin is important because the immobilized patient is at high risk for breakdown." |
| Patients who are immobile often experience which emotions? (Select all that apply.) Select all that apply. 1. Hunger 2. Anxiety 3. Anger 4. Improved self-worth 5. Helplessness 6. Increased communication | 2. Anxiety 3. Anger 5. Helplessness |
| Which statement by the nurse explains the reason clients prescribed corticosteroid therapy for a chronic health condition develop frequent infections? | A. They affect antigen-antibody immunity |
| Which condition is consistent with a clients report of posterior leg pain while walking that worsens upon rest? A. crepitus B. Ankylosis C. Contracture D. Tendonitis | D. Tendonitis |
| Which client receiving antibiotic therapy would the nurse identify as being at risk for Achilles tendon rupture? Client A medication: Gentamicin Client B medication: Ciprofloxacin Client C medication: Cefazolin Client D medication: Tobramycin | Client B medication: Ciprofloxacin |
| Which statement regarding mealtime administration by a client who has arthritis and is prescribed corticosteroid medication indicates that the teaching was effective? | A. This will decrease irritation |
| Which synovial joint movement is involved in turning a clients palm downward? A. Eversion B. Inversion C. Pronation D. Supination | C. Pronation |
| The nurse is completing the health history of a client admitted to the hospital with osteoarthritis. Which joint would the nurse expect the client to report as having been involved first? 1. Hips 2. Knees 3. Ankles 4. Shoulders 5. Metacarpals | 1. Hips 2. Knees |
| Which part of the clients body would the nurse assess to identify osteoporotic changes? A. long bones B. Facial bones C. Vertebral column D. Joints of the hands | C. Vertebral column |
| While assessing an immobilized client, the nurse notes that the client has shortened muscles over a joint, preventing full extension. Which is this condition known as? A. Osteoarthritis B. Osteoporosis C. Muscle atrophy D. Contracture | D. Contracture |
| Which findings are consistent with hypercalcemia after prolonged immobility? SATA 1. Bone pain 2. Convulsions 3. Muscle spasm 4. Tingling of extremities 5. Depressed deep tendon reflexes | 1. Bone pain 5. Depressed deep tendon reflexes |
| Which physiological change of the musculoskeletal system would the nurse associate with aging? SATA 1. Slowed movement 2. Cartilage degeneration 3. Increased bone density 4. Increased range of motion 5. Increased bone prominence | 1. Slowed movement 2. Cartilage degeneration 5. Increased bone prominence |
| Which change in the joint may result in joint pain for older adults? A. Dehydration of discs B. Loss of muscle mass C. Decreased elasticity in the ligaments D. Increased cartilage erosion | D. Increased cartilage erosion |
| Which food would the nurse recommend for a client who is at risk for developing osteoporosis? SATA 1. Canned tuna 2. Scrambled eggs 3. Chicken breast 4. Broiled beef steak 5. Baked sweet potato | 3. Chicken breast 4. Broiled beef steak |
| The nurse is assessing a client with a moon-shaped face and thin arms and legs. The nurse expects which other assessment findings? SATA 1. Weight loss 2. Gastric ulcer 3. Pain in bones 4. Poor appetite 5. Muscle weakness | 2. Gastric ulcer 3. Pain in bones 5. Muscle weakness |
| The primary health care provider prescribed medications to four clients with osteoporosis. Which client would the nurse instruct to remain upright for 30 minutes after receiving the medication? | Client A Medication: Alendronate |
| Which medication may have caused a clients admission to the hospital for treatment of a peptic ulcer, osteoporosis, and hypertension A. Everolimus B. Azathiprine C. Mycophenolate acid D. Methylprednisolone | D. Methylprednisolone |
| Which client is most at risk for osteoporosis? | B. A 66-year-old white woman, BMI 18 who is a paralegal |
| Which complication is a client with RA at risk for due to prolonged use of corticosteroids? A. Decreased white blood cells B. Increased C-reactive protein C. Increased sedimentation rate D. Decreased serum glucose levels | A. Decreased white blood cells |
| What hormone regulates blood levels of calcium? | Parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
| Why would the nurse provide for the reduction in dosage to a client who recently started receiving oral corticosteroids for a allergic reaction and is told the dosage will be reduced gradually until all medication is stopped at the end of 2 weeks? | B. Slow reduction of the medication will prevent a physiological crisis because the adrenal glands are suppressed |
| Which statements accurately describe the different medications available for the treatment of osteoporosis? SATA | 2. Individuals with an allergy to salmon cant take calitonin 3. Bisphosphonates inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption 4. Denosumab is a subcutaneous injection given once evry 6 months 5. Teriparatide is used for the |
| When teaching a client about their disease process, which term would the nurse use to describe bone loss greater than normal but less than that caused by osteoporosis? A. Osteopenia B. Osteomyelitis C. Osteomalacia D. Osteoarthritis | A. Osteopenia |
| Which times for the medication schedule would a nurse teach when corticosteroid therapy is prescribed for a client with an exacerbation of ulecerative colitis? | C. In the early morning with food |
| Which factors may have led to the development of flexion contractures in a client with OA? | C. Using large pillows under the knees or head |
| Which hormone promotes bone resorption in a client and potentially leads to decreased bone densities? A. Estrogen B. Calcitonin C. Growth hormone D. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) | D. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
| Which injury would the nurse suspect in a young adult client who reports that knee occasionally gives way, sometimes locks, and "clicks" when walking? A. Cracked patella B. Ruptured achilles tendon C. Torn cartilage D. Stress fracture | C. Torn cartilage |
| Which rationale describes why the nurse would advise a client to have a dental examination before beginning prescribed therapy with zoledronic acid? | D. To prevent maxillary osteonecrosis |
| Which food selection by the client with osteoporosis indicated that the nurse's dietary instruction was effective? A. Red meat B. Coffee C. Turnip greens D. Wheat bran | C. Turnip greens |
| Which factors contribute to the development of osteoporosis in female clients? SATA 1. Cigarette smoking 2. Moderate exercise 3. Use of street drugs 4. Familial predisposition 5. Inadequate intake of dietary calcium | 1. Cigarette smoking 4. Familial predisposition 5. Inadequate intake of dietary calcium |
| Which definition would the nurse use to explain osteoporosis? A. It is avascular necrosis B. It is caused by pathological fractures C. It is hyperplasia of osteoblasts D. It involves a decrease in bone substances | D. It involves a decrease in bone substances |
| After teaching a client about the use of calcitonin (nasal route) as treatment for osteoporosis, which client statement indicates effective learning? | D. I should not spray the medication into the same nostril on 2 consecutive days |
| The health care provider prescribed raloxifene for a client with osteoporosis. Which manifestation would the nurse monitor in this client? | C. Monitor liver function tests |
| Which medication is derived from a natural source and may be prescribed for the treatment of osteoporosis? A. Calcitonin B. Raloxifene C. Clomiphene D. Bisphosphonates | A. Calcitonin |
| Which medication increases the risk for upper GI bleeding? SATA 1. Aspirin 2. Ibuprofen 3. Ciprofloxacin 4. Acetaminophen 5. methylprednisolone | 1. Aspirin 2. Ibuprofen 5. methylprednisolone |
| The nurse provides moist heat for a client with cartilage degeneration. Which rationale explains the use of this nursing intervention? | D. To increase blood flow to the area |
| Which information from the clients history would the nurse identify as a risk factor for developing osteoporosis? | B. Receives long-term steroid therapy |
| A postmenopausal woman has been administered raloxifene for osteoporosis. Which parameter would the nurse assess to ensure the efficacy of the medication and continuation of use? | B. Bone density |
| Which action by a 70-year-old female client would best limit further progression of osteoporosis? | A. Taking supplemental calcium and vitamin D |
| A client with a diagnosis of malababsorption syndrome exhibits a symptom of spastic muscle spasms. Which electrolyte is responsible for this symptom? A. Sodium B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Phosphorus | B. Calcium |
| When treating clients for osteoporosis, Which medication has a side effect of atrial fibrillation when infused too quickly? A. Calcium-Vitamin D3-Vitamin K combination B. Raloxifene C. Alendronate D. Zoledronic acid | D. Zoledronic acid |
| Which action by a client taking alendronate requires correction? | 1. taking this medication twice a week 2. taking this medication before rising 3. taking this medication with breakfast 4. taking medication before bedtime 5. taking medication with apple juice |
| Which intervention would the nurse provide to an older adult client with a low BMI with osteoporosis? | C. Provide instruction relative to diet and exercise |
| Which client statement supports the nurse's conclusion that teaching about osteopororis was effective? | A. "I know that certain illnesses can affect my body's calcium level." |
| A nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with RA who has severe pain and swelling of the hand joints. Which details about ROM exercises would the plan include? | C. Applying heat or cold before the exercises |
| What should the nurse monitor for when a client is taking calcitonin-salmon? | Hypercalcemia |
| calcitonin-salmon inhibits __________ breakdown | bone |
| _______________ suppresses bone breakdown in female clients | estrogen |
| Raloxifene is a selective ____________ receptor. | estrogen |
| Raloxifene is only given to __________ clients | female |
| Denosumab decreases ______________ activity by binding to protein | osteoclast |
| Denosumab ___________ bone density | increases |
| Consume calcium (breakdown) (resorb) | Osteoclast |
| Build bone and calcium (lay down new bone) | Osteoblast |
| Regulate minerilization and bone matrix | Osteocytes |
| Responsible for muscle tissue regrowth | Satelite cells |
| makes + repairs skeletal tissues (cartilage, bone + fat found in bone marrow) | Mesenchymal stem cells |
| What nutrients are important for children & their musculoskeletal system? | Calcium & proteins |
| What age does bone loss begin? | 30-40 years old |
| How does immobility affect children? | intellectual and psychomotor function |
| What side effect causes immediate investigation for raloxifene? | Edema and tenderness in the left calf |
| Cells responsible for cartilage formation | chondrocytes |
| Excessive sodium causes ___________ calcium excretion | increased |
| S/S of Hypercalcemia (BACKME) | B- bone pain A- arrhythmias C- cardiac arrest K- kidney stones M- muscle weakness E- excessive urination |
| S/S of Hypocalcemia (CATS) | C: convulsions A: arrhythmia T: tetany S: spasm and stridor |
| _________________ are a category of medication most commonly used for respiratory tract infections, skin infections, and genitourinary infections | Macrolides |
| ________________ treats C. Diff infections, Gardnerella vaginalis (female genital infection), and H. Pylori-associated with peptic ulcer disease | Metronidazole |
| ______________ is the best treatment for MRSA | Vancomycin |
| An order for ________________ is issued to a client who is only 32 weeks pregnant and having regular labor contractions | Betamethasone |
| Monitoring of drug levels is required during the use of parenteral ________________ because this category of drugs may cause permanent hearing loss and kidney damage | Aminoglycosides |
| ________________ would be selected to treat a 2 month old child for oral candidiasis | Nystatin |
| ________________ places a client at risk for achilles tendon rupture | Ciprofloxacin |
| Kernicterus and blistering skin may occur in nursing infant if the breastfeeding mother takes medications in this category | Sulfomamides |
| Twenty minutes after taking amoxicillin, a client develops SOB and a cough. What medication should be administered STAT? | Epinephrine |
| The client should avoid taking ___________ with dairy products to help prevent chelation | Tetracycline |
| A 28-year-old client who is diagnosed with genital herpes simplex virus after unprotected sex with multiple partners would be prescribed this medication | Acyclovir |
| ______________ is most effective when begun within 2 days after flu symptoms onset | Oseltamivir |
| _________________'s are given to slow the progression of joint degeneration | DMARD |
| ________________ can reduce a child's resistance to certain infectious processes and, as an anti-inflammatory medication, masks infection | Prednisone |
| ____________ is your bod's first line of defense against infection | Skin |
| What should the nurse monitor for with a patient taking vancomycin? | Urine Output |
| Hypersensitivity is a(n) ________________ immune response | exaggerated |
| What diagnostic test are ordered for sepsis? | blood cultures |
| What drugs can cause duodenal ulcers? | NSAIDS |
| ________________ is a side effect of sulfonamides | photosensitivity |
| What is the number one intervention to break the chain of infection | Handwashing |
| What is appropriate drug therapy for MRSA? | Vancomycin |
| Hepatitis B & C & HIV are spread through what? | Blood |
| Teratogenic drugs can cause _______________ _______________ | Birth defects |
| What is a common bacteria that is antibiotic resistant? | MRSA |
| If a child has had frequent ear infections over the course of a year with no anatomical explanations, they may have ____________________ | immunosupression |
| If someone has immunodeficiency, what is the primary nursing intervention? | Infection prevention/control |
Created by:
nnonno