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SCI225-34
Pathophysiology QUIZ 1 & 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting muscle weakness and cardiac abnormalities. Laboratory tests indicate that she is hypokalemic. What could be the cause of her condition? | Laxative abuse (Losses of potassium from body stores are usually caused by gastrointestinal and renal disorders. Diarrhea, intestinal drainage tubes or fistulae, and laxative abuse also result in hypokalemia) |
| A 10-year-old male is brought to the emergency room (ER) incoherent and semiconscious. CT scan reveals that he is suffering from cerebral edema. This type of edema is referred to as: | Localized edema (Cerebral edema is a form of localized edema.) |
| A nurse is teaching the staff about antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which information should the nurse include? Secretion of ADH is stimulated by: | Increased plasma osmolality (ADH is secreted when plasma osmolality increases or circulating blood volume decreases and blood pressure drops.) |
| Which patient is most prone to metabolic alkalosis? A patient with: - Retention of metabolic acids - Hypoaldosteronism - Excessive loss of chloride (Cl) - Hyperventilation | Excessive loss of Chloride (Cl) (When acid loss is caused by vomiting, renal compensation is not very effective because loss of Cl stimulates renal retention of bicarbonate, leading to alkalosis.) |
| A 19-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting restlessness, muscle cramping, and diarrhea. Lab tests reveal that he is hyperkalemic. What could have caused his condition? | Acidosis (During acute acidosis, hydrogen ions accumulate in the ICF and potassium shifts out of the cell to the ECF, causing hyperkalemia.) |
| A 35-year-old male weighs 70 kg. Approximately how much of this weight is considered the total volume of body water? | 42 L (The total volume of body water for a 70-kg person is about 42 L or two thirds of 70 kg.) |
| Which of the following patients is the most at risk for developing hypernatremia? A patient with: - Vomiting - Diuretic use - Dehydration - Hypoaldosteronism | Dehydration (Dehydration leads to hypernatremia because an increase in sodium occurs with a net loss in water.) |
| A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is: | Alive, but less infectious (Attenuated vaccines are alive, but less infectious.) |
| When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as: | An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen (Hypersensitivity is an altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to the individual.) |
| A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from: | Anaphylaxis (Anaphylaxis occurs within minutes of reexposure to the antigen and can be either systemic (generalized) or cutaneous (localized).) |
| In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for: | Rh antigen (Blood transfusions must also be matched for the Rh antigen.) |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS? | HIV is a retrovirus (AIDS is an acquired dysfunction of the immune system caused by a retrovirus (HIV) that infects and destroys CD4+ lymphocytes (T-helper cells).) |
| A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. What diagnosis is most likely? | T-lymphocyte deficiency (DiGeorge syndrome results in decreased T cell #'s & function and is evidenced by abnormal development of facial features that are controlled by the same embryonic pouches; ex low-set ears, fish-shaped mouth, and other features |
| When a nurse notices that a patient has type O blood, the nurse realizes that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient’s body. | A and B (Type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies but not O.) |
| When a patient presents at the emergency department for an allergic reaction, the nurse recognizes the most severe consequence of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is: | Anaphylaxis (The most rapid and severe immediate hypersensitivity type I reaction is anaphylaxis.) |
| To express a polygenic trait: | Several genes must act together (Polygenic traits are those that result from several genes acting together.) |
| What type of mutation does not change the amino acid sequence and thus has no observable consequence? | Silent (Silent mutations do not change the amino acid sequence and therefore have no consequences.) |
| An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide? | Expressivity (Expressivity is the extent of variation in phenotype associated with a particular genotype. For neurofibromatosis, a variety of manifestations occur among individuals.) |
| Which of the following disorders is manifested primarily in males? - Cystic fibrosis - Neurofibromatosis - Muscular dystrophy - Klinefelter syndrome | Muscular dystrophy (Muscular dystrophy is manifested primarily in males.) |
| A patient, age 9, is admitted to a pediatric unit with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. When planning care, the nurse recalls the patient inherited this condition through a trait that is: | X-linked recessive (Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a relatively common X-linked recessive, not dominant, disorder.) |
| The gradual increase in height among the human population over the past 100 years is an example of: | A multifactorial trait (The gradual increase in height is an example of multifactorial traits influenced by genes and also by environment.) |
| A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart? | Turner syndrome (A condition with the presence of a single X chromosome and no homologous X or Y chromosome, so the individual has a total of 45 chromosomes, is known as Turner syndrome.) |
| A 52-year-old male suffered a myocardial infarction secondary to atherosclerosis and ischemia. Once blood flow is returned to the damaged heart, reperfusion injury occurs as a result of: | Oxidation stress (Reperfusion injury can result from oxidative stress. Oxidative stress causes the formation of radicals that cause further membrane damage and mitochondrial calcium overload) |
| A 55 y/o male w/ a 30-year hx of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway (bronchial) reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. What is this cellular adaptation: | Metaplasia (Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, sometimes a less differentiated cell type.) |
| A family presents to their primary care provider reporting headache, nausea, weakness, tinnitus, and vomiting. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation for these symptoms? | Carbon monoxide poisoning (Symptoms related to carbon monoxide poisoning include headache, giddiness, tinnitus (ringing in the ears), nausea, weakness, and vomiting.) |
| A 30-year-old female presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. This wound would be documented as a(n): | Contact range entrance (CRE) (CRE wound is a type of wound that happens when a gun is held so the muzzle rests on the skin surface; addition to the hole, there's searing of the edges of the wound from flame and soot or smoke on the edges of the wound.) |
| A 50-year-old female became infected with Clostridium bacteria and died a week later. Examination of her red blood cells revealed lysis of membranes. Which of the following was the most likely cause of her death? | Gas gangrene (Gas gangrene is a special type of gangrene caused by infection of injured tissue by one of many species of Clostridium.) |
| When a nurse is checking a urinalysis, the finding that would alert the nurse to cellular injury is the presence of: | Excessive protein (The presence of protein in the urine in significant amounts indicates cellular injury and altered cellular function.) |
| Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain because: | It is rich in hydrolic enzymes and lipids (Liquefactive necrosis is due to enzymatic action and because cells of the brain are rich in enzymes.) |
| Confirmation of somatic death is based on: | Comeplete cessation of respiration and circulation (The most notable manifestations are complete cessation of respiration and circulation.) |
| Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors? | Cells vary in size and shape. (Malignant tumors have cells that vary in both size and shape, and they grow rapidly. They are poorly differentiated and not encapsulated.) |
| A nurse is discussing preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing? | Cancer is situ (Early-stage growths that are localized to the epithelium and have not invaded are called cancer in situ. Cancer in situ is early-stage growth and not a tumor in differentiation but is more mature growth.) |
| Which statement indicates the patient has a correct understanding of metastasis? The most common route of metastasis is through the blood vessels and: - lymphatics - lung tissue - body cavities - connective tissue | Lymphatics (The most common route of metastasis is through the lymphatics, not lung tissue, body cavities, or connective tissues.) |
| A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes. A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage: | 3 (Cancer that has spread to regional structures, like lymph nodes, is S3. Cancer confined to the organ of origin is S1. Cancer that is locally invasive is S2. Cancer that has spread to distant sites, such as prostate cancer spreading to bone, is S4.) |
| A water test recently revealed arsenic levels above 200 mcg/L. Which of the following cancers would be most likely to develop in those who consistently drank the water? | Skin (Evidence indicates an increased risk of bladder, skin, and lung cancers following consumption of water with high levels of arsenic.) |
| When an oncologist is discussing the degree to which an organism’s development is contingent on its environment, which of the following is the oncologist explaining? | Developmental plasticity (Developmental plasticity is the degree to which an organism’s development is contingent on its environment.) |
| A patient develops skin cancer on the head and neck following years of sunbathing. What cancer is most likely? | Basal cell carcinoma (Basal cell carcinoma is related to UV radiation primarily from the sun.) |
| When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should the oncologist discuss? | Facilitating new mutations (Radiation induces genomic instability because it facilitates new mutations but it does not promote hypersensitivity.) |
| What is the origin of most childhood cancers? | Mesodermal germ layer (Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that gives rise to connective tissue, bone, cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, the gonads, the kidney, and the lymphatic system.) |
| A 40-year-old female developed adenocarcinoma of the vagina. Which prenatal event is the most likely cause of her cancer? | Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) (The patient with adenocarcinoma of the vagina most likely experienced prenatal exposure to DES, not an Rb gene mutation or exposure to solvents or radiation.) |
| The most common type of tissue cancer occurring between ages 15 and 19 is: | Carcinoma (The most common type of tissue cancer after adolescence is carcinoma, not sarcoma, squamous cell, or neuroma.) |
| The nurse explains to a parent that young children diagnosed with Down syndrome are at higher risk for developing: | Leukemia (One of the more recognized syndromes is the association of trisomy 21 and Down syndrome, with an increased susceptibility to acute leukemia, not nephroblastoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, or retinoblastoma.) |
| A nurse should document on the chart that chronic pain is occurring when the patient reports the pain has lasted longer than: | 3-6 months (Chronic or persistent pain has been defined as lasting for more than 3–6 months.) |
| A patient is undergoing a sleep lab test. When the sleep lab worker notices EEG patterns with brain activity similar to the normal awake pattern, which phase of sleep is occurring? | REM (REM sleep is called paradoxical sleep because the EEG pattern is similar to the normal awake pattern and the brain is very active with dreaming.) |
| A patient asks the nurse where nociceptors can be found. How should the nurse respond? One location in which nociceptors can be found is the: | Skin (Nociceptors are pain receptors and can be found in the skin. Nociceptors are not located in the spinal cord.) |
| When a patient has a fever, which of the following thermoregulatory mechanisms is activated? | The body’s thermostat is reset to a higher level. (Fever (febrile response) is a temporary “resetting of the hypothalamic thermostat” to a higher level in response to endogenous or exogenous pyrogens.) |
| A patient is admitted to the neurologic critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. When an intraventricular catheter is inserted, the intracranial pressure (ICP) is recorded at 24 mm Hg. How should the nurse interpret this reading? | Higher than normal (Normal ICP is 1–15 mm Hg; at 24 mm Hg, the patient’s ICP is higher than normal.) |
| A nurse notes that a patient walks with the leg extended and held stiff, causing a scraping over the floor surface. What type of gait is the patient experiencing? | Spastic gait (An individual who walks with the leg extended and held stiff, causing a scraping over the floor surface, is experiencing a spastic gait.) |
| A nurse recalls that neural systems basic to cognitive functions include _____ systems. (there are three) | - Attentional - Memory and language - Affective (attentional systems that provide arousal and maintenance of attention over time; memory & language systems by which info is communicated; affective/emotive systems that mediate emotions & intention.) |
| A patient with an addiction to alcohol checked into a rehabilitation center as a result of experiencing delirium, inability to concentrate, and being easily distracted. What term would be used to document this state? | Acute confusional state (Delirium and the inability to concentrate are characteristics of acute confusional state.) |
| Which assessment finding by the nurse characterizes a mild concussion? | Retrograde amnesia (Mild concussion is characterized by immediate but transitory confusion that lasts for one to several minutes, possibly with amnesia for events preceding the trauma.) |
| A 75-year-old patient experienced a lacunar stroke. When looking through the history of the patient’s chart, what would the nurse expect to find? | An ischemic stroke (A lacunar stroke is associated with occlusion of a single, deep perforating artery that supplies small penetrating subcortical vessels, causing ischemic lesions) |
| A 15-month-old child from Pennsylvania was brought to the ER with symptomology that includes fever, seizure activity, cranial palsies, and paralysis. Which form of encephalitis is best supported by the available assessment data? | Eastern equine encephalitis (The symptoms indicate encephalitis, and given the residence of the child and the symptoms, the diagnosis is Eastern equine encephalitis.) |
| Who is most at risk of spinal cord injury because of preexisting degenerative disorders? | The elderly (Elderly people are particularly at risk from minor trauma that results in serious spinal cord injury because of preexisting degenerative vertebral disorders.) |
| Which of the following would increase a patient’s risk for thrombotic stroke? | Dehydration (Dehydration is a risk factor because it increases blood viscosity and decreases cerebral perfusion.) |
| A nurse is preparing to teach about the most common defects of neural tube closure. Which one should the nurse discuss? | Posterior (Posterior neural tube defects are the most common. Neural tube defects associated with the other options are not as common.) |
| An infant has an anterior midline defect of neural tube closure. What term will the nurse observe written on the chart? | Cyclopia (Cyclopia is an example of an anterior midline defect that may cause brain and face abnormalities. In anencephaly, the soft, bony component of the skull and part of the brain are missing.) |
| A nurse is preparing to teach about brain tumors. Which information should the nurse include? The most common type of brain tumor in children is: | Astrocytoma |
| A baby is stillborn after 6 hours of labor. Autopsy reveals hydrocephalus caused by cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle and aqueductal compression. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Dandy-walker deformity (The Dandy-Walker malformation is a congenital defect of the cerebellum characterized by a large posterior fossa cyst, which communicates with the fourth ventricle, and an atrophic upwardly rotated cerebellar vermis) |
| A child is diagnosed with cerebral palsy, characterized by extreme difficulty in fine motor coordination and purposeful movement. Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is the child experiencing? | Dystonic (Dystonic cerebral palsy is associated with extreme difficulty in fine motor coordination and purposeful movements.) |
Created by:
csalvador