List four sources of drugs used in veterinary medicine.

animal products, plant materials, minerals, and synthetic products.

What are four components of a drug regimen?

dose, the route of administration, the frequency of administration, and the duration of administration.

Discuss the conditions that must be met before a valid veterinarian–client–patient relationship can be shown to exist.

(1) the veterinarian assume responsibility for making clinical judgments (2) the veterinarian must have recently seen the animal and be acquainted with its care, and (3) the veterinarian must be available for follow-up care of the animal.

Describe the difference between a prescription (legend) drug and an over-the-counter drug.

A legend drug is a prescription drug on the order of a licensed veterinarian. They have a potential of toxic effects and abuse An OTC drug can be purchased by anyone, without a prescription. safe; low concentration of an active ingredient.

Discuss the responsibilities of a veterinary technician in the administration of drug orders.

read the drug label 3x to ensure that the proper drug is being administered, correct dose by the correct route, aware of the expected effects and the potential side effects to monitor the patient. large animal practice-w/drawl times and residue problems.

Describe the sequence of events that a drug undergoes from administration to excretion.

bloodstream-bind with plasma protein/exist freely-capillary-leaves circ-interstitial fluid- bathes cell and enters/binds w/ cells surface receptors. Exits cell-interstitial fluid-reenters circulation- liver for metabolism-metabolite-kidneys for excretion.

List 11 possible routes for administering a drug to a patient

(1) oral route (2) Subcutaneous (3) intramuscular (4)intravenous (5) intraperitoneal (6) intraarterial (7) intracardiac (8) intramedullary (9) inhalational (10) topical (11) intradermal

List some of the factors that influence drug absorption.

(1) method of absorption, (2) pH of the drug and its ionization status, (3) absorptive surface area, (4) blood supply to the area, (5) solubility of drug, (6) dosage form, (7) status of the gastrointestinal tract, and (8) interactions with other drugs.

What are six items that must be included on a drug label?

drug names (generic and trade), the drug concentration and quantity, the name and address of the manufacturer, the controlled substance status, the manufacturer’s control or lot number, and the drug’s expiration date.

Why do many veterinary clinics dispense rather than prescribe most of the drugs that they use?

dispense rather than prescribe drugs because of the profit earned from selling the products.

Describe the marketing of animal health products.

purchased directly from the manufacturer, from distributors, or from generic mail order companies. In some instances, drugs may be sold under one label to graduate veterinarians and under another as an over-the-counter product.

What is the purpose of FARAD?

provides resources concerning the avoidance of drug residues in animals.

Extralabel veterinary drug use was made legal (under prescribed circumstances) by what act of Congress?

Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA)

Drug compounding is a process of combining, mixing, or altering two or more drug ingredients to create a medication in a different dosage form to accommodate a patient’s needs.

What are the potential dangers of residues in animal products?

Drug residues in animal products may cause allergic reactions or neoplasia in people, and they may cause the development of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.

List three classes of drug interactions.

Pharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic, pharmaceutic

Define “ethical product.”

An “ethical” product is one sold only through veterinarians as a policy of the manufacturer rather than by FDA requirement.

List the six practices recommended by the AVMA for the safe disposal of unwanted drugs.

(1)Incinerate if possible.(2) Send unwanted drugs to the landfill if incineration isn't possible.(3) Never flush down the toilet/drain(4) Maintain close inventory control.(5) Follow state and federal guidelines. (6) Educate clients on proper disposal.

Name four common drug preparations.

Drugs for oral administration, drugs for parenteral administration, drugs for inhalation, drugs for topical administration

Name the six rights of drug administration.

Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time and frequency, right documentation

Name six items that should be recorded in the controlled substance log.

Date, owner’s name, patient’s name, drug name, amount dispensed or administered, name(s) of personnel administering the drug to the patient

Why should drugs given by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before administration?

The plastic syringe may absorb the drug, which may cause it to be less effective.

List four types of syringe tips that are available for use.

Luer-Lok, slip-tip, eccentric, catheter-tip

What is meant by the term “enteric coated tablets?”

Enteric coatings have an acid resistant coating to protect from exposure to stomach acid, and to prevent them from dissolving in acid environments (stomach). Some types of drugs can be destroyed by acid. They are only activated when they are in alkaline e

Describe the difference between an elixir and an emulsion.

An elixir is an alcohol-based liquid that contains flavoring, sweeteners, etc. to help mask the taste of a drug. An emulsion is a mixture of two or more liquids that do not readily mix. These liquids should be shaken to resuspend before being administered

Explain the difference between an IV bolus and an IV infusion.

An IV bolus is administering a specific amount of drug, one time, intravenously and an IV infusion is given at a slower rate over an extended period of time using an infusion pump.

interpret the drug order: 2 gtt AD TID × 7d

2 drops in the right ear three times a day for 7 days

interpret the drug order: 1t PO EOD PRN

1 teaspoon by mouth every other day as needed

interpret the drug order: Amoxicillin 100 mg tabs PO BID × 10d

1 100 mg tablet of amoxicillin by mouth twice a day for 10 days

What is the maximum amount of time that an indwelling catheter can be left in the vessel?

72–96 hours should not be exceeded depending on the catheter type. Proper hygiene prior to insertion along with a sterile technique will aid in preventing infections. Catheters must be monitored and maintained to prevent complications and infections.

An in-hospital patient receiving IV fluid therapy should be monitored every 15 to 30 minutes. What parameters are monitored to ensure safety of the patient?

Evaluating the drip rate, ensuring the IV catheter is still placed, IV tubing not kinked, chewed out or dislodged from the catheter. The bandaging clean and dry; the area inspected to ensure there is no swelling and the patient is not in discomfort.

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Pharmacology Review

Test questions

Question	Answer
List four sources of drugs used in veterinary medicine.	animal products, plant materials, minerals, and synthetic products.
What are four components of a drug regimen?	dose, the route of administration, the frequency of administration, and the duration of administration.
Discuss the conditions that must be met before a valid veterinarian–client–patient relationship can be shown to exist.	(1) the veterinarian assume responsibility for making clinical judgments (2) the veterinarian must have recently seen the animal and be acquainted with its care, and (3) the veterinarian must be available for follow-up care of the animal.
Describe the difference between a prescription (legend) drug and an over-the-counter drug.	A legend drug is a prescription drug on the order of a licensed veterinarian. They have a potential of toxic effects and abuse An OTC drug can be purchased by anyone, without a prescription. safe; low concentration of an active ingredient.
Discuss the responsibilities of a veterinary technician in the administration of drug orders.	read the drug label 3x to ensure that the proper drug is being administered, correct dose by the correct route, aware of the expected effects and the potential side effects to monitor the patient. large animal practice-w/drawl times and residue problems.
Describe the sequence of events that a drug undergoes from administration to excretion.	bloodstream-bind with plasma protein/exist freely-capillary-leaves circ-interstitial fluid- bathes cell and enters/binds w/ cells surface receptors. Exits cell-interstitial fluid-reenters circulation- liver for metabolism-metabolite-kidneys for excretion.
List 11 possible routes for administering a drug to a patient	(1) oral route (2) Subcutaneous (3) intramuscular (4)intravenous (5) intraperitoneal (6) intraarterial (7) intracardiac (8) intramedullary (9) inhalational (10) topical (11) intradermal
List some of the factors that influence drug absorption.	(1) method of absorption, (2) pH of the drug and its ionization status, (3) absorptive surface area, (4) blood supply to the area, (5) solubility of drug, (6) dosage form, (7) status of the gastrointestinal tract, and (8) interactions with other drugs.
Drugs usually produce their effects by combining with specific cellular ______________________.	Receptors
What are six items that must be included on a drug label?	drug names (generic and trade), the drug concentration and quantity, the name and address of the manufacturer, the controlled substance status, the manufacturer’s control or lot number, and the drug’s expiration date.
What are three government agencies that regulate the development, approval, and use of animal health products?	FDA, EPA, and USDA.
Why do many veterinary clinics dispense rather than prescribe most of the drugs that they use?	dispense rather than prescribe drugs because of the profit earned from selling the products.
Describe the marketing of animal health products.	purchased directly from the manufacturer, from distributors, or from generic mail order companies. In some instances, drugs may be sold under one label to graduate veterinarians and under another as an over-the-counter product.
What is the purpose of FARAD?	provides resources concerning the avoidance of drug residues in animals.
Extralabel veterinary drug use was made legal (under prescribed circumstances) by what act of Congress?	Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act (AMDUCA)
Define compounding.	Drug compounding is a process of combining, mixing, or altering two or more drug ingredients to create a medication in a different dosage form to accommodate a patient’s needs.
What are the potential dangers of residues in animal products?	Drug residues in animal products may cause allergic reactions or neoplasia in people, and they may cause the development of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria.
List three classes of drug interactions.	Pharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic, pharmaceutic
Drug interaction can be anticipated when two drugs are given that are both metabolized by the ______________________.	liver
Define “ethical product.”	An “ethical” product is one sold only through veterinarians as a policy of the manufacturer rather than by FDA requirement.
Once a drug has been biotransformed, it is called a ______________________.	metabolite
An(a) ________ is a reason to use a drug.	indication
List the six practices recommended by the AVMA for the safe disposal of unwanted drugs.	(1)Incinerate if possible.(2) Send unwanted drugs to the landfill if incineration isn't possible.(3) Never flush down the toilet/drain(4) Maintain close inventory control.(5) Follow state and federal guidelines. (6) Educate clients on proper disposal.
The __________ of a drug represents the degree to which a drug produces its desired response in a patient.	efficacy
Name four common drug preparations.	Drugs for oral administration, drugs for parenteral administration, drugs for inhalation, drugs for topical administration
Boluses are used in the treatment of large animals and are administered with a ______________________.	balling guns
Name two types of parenteral injection forms.	Injections, implants
Vials may be either ______________________ dose or ______________________ dose.	Single-, multi-
All used needles should be discarded in a ______________________.	sharps container
Name the six rights of drug administration.	Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time and frequency, right documentation
Oral drugs should never be administered in animals that are ______________________.	vomiting
Intravenous administration of drugs allows the most ______________________ and effective drug administration.	rapid
If you are having difficulty administering oral medications by hand to a cat, what device can be used as an effective method of delivery?	pilling gun
A Simplex (i.e., gravity set) IV system is used to administer fluids to ______________________ animals.	large
Name six items that should be recorded in the controlled substance log.	Date, owner’s name, patient’s name, drug name, amount dispensed or administered, name(s) of personnel administering the drug to the patient
Why should drugs given by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before administration?	The plastic syringe may absorb the drug, which may cause it to be less effective.
List four types of syringe tips that are available for use.	Luer-Lok, slip-tip, eccentric, catheter-tip
A tuberculin syringe holds up to _________________ mL of medication.	1
What type of syringe is divided into units rather than milliliters?	Insulin syringe
What is meant by the term “enteric coated tablets?”	Enteric coatings have an acid resistant coating to protect from exposure to stomach acid, and to prevent them from dissolving in acid environments (stomach). Some types of drugs can be destroyed by acid. They are only activated when they are in alkaline e
Describe the difference between an elixir and an emulsion.	An elixir is an alcohol-based liquid that contains flavoring, sweeteners, etc. to help mask the taste of a drug. An emulsion is a mixture of two or more liquids that do not readily mix. These liquids should be shaken to resuspend before being administered
Explain the difference between an IV bolus and an IV infusion.	An IV bolus is administering a specific amount of drug, one time, intravenously and an IV infusion is given at a slower rate over an extended period of time using an infusion pump.
All controlled substances must be inventoried, at least once every ___________.	2 years
What controlled substance classification indicates a drug having the highest abuse potential?	C-1
A veterinarian who orders, dispenses, prescribes, or administers controlled substances must be registered with the _______________; this registration is valid for a period of ______years.	(DEA); 3 years
interpret the drug order: 2 gtt AD TID × 7d	2 drops in the right ear three times a day for 7 days
interpret the drug order: 1t PO EOD PRN	1 teaspoon by mouth every other day as needed
interpret the drug order: Amoxicillin 100 mg tabs PO BID × 10d	1 100 mg tablet of amoxicillin by mouth twice a day for 10 days
interpret the drug order: Baytril 2.5 mg/kg IM	1 2.5 mg of Baytril given IM
What is the maximum amount of time that an indwelling catheter can be left in the vessel?	72–96 hours should not be exceeded depending on the catheter type. Proper hygiene prior to insertion along with a sterile technique will aid in preventing infections. Catheters must be monitored and maintained to prevent complications and infections.
An in-hospital patient receiving IV fluid therapy should be monitored every 15 to 30 minutes. What parameters are monitored to ensure safety of the patient?	Evaluating the drip rate, ensuring the IV catheter is still placed, IV tubing not kinked, chewed out or dislodged from the catheter. The bandaging clean and dry; the area inspected to ensure there is no swelling and the patient is not in discomfort.
Describe two different techniques in which liquid medications can be administered orally to a large animal patient.	A dose syringe to administer small and large amounts of liquids; stomach tube to administer large amounts of oral liquid medication in large animals. In horses, a stomach tube is passed via the nasogastric route to ensure reliable delivery of the entire d
1. 150 mg = ___________________ g	0.15 g
2 L = ______________________ mL	2000 mL
3. 2250 mg = __________________ g	2.25 g
4. 5 g = ______________________ mg	5000 mg
5. 3000 mL = __________________ L	3 L
6. 2 kg = ______________________ g	2000 g
7. 0.5 kg = ____________________ g	500 g
8. 5000 mg = __________ kg	0.005 kg
9. 1.25 mg = __________________ g	0.00125 g
10. 0.004 g = ______________ mg	4 mg
11. 2050 μg = _________ mg	2.05 mg
12. How many grams would you administer if the veterinarian ordered 10 mg of acepromazine?	0.01 g
13. If the medical order is for 0.5 L of sodium chloride 0.9%, how many milliliters would be administered?	500 mL
14. How many liters would you give to the patient if the order called for 750 mL to be administered?	0.75 L
15. If the veterinarian orders 300 μg of vitamin B12, how much is this in milligrams?	0.3 mg
16. If the order is for 2.5 mg of vitamin B12, how many micrograms are administered?	2500 μg (mcg)
17. A 1% solution of ivermectin contains how many micrograms per milliliter?	10,000 μg (mcg)
18. How many millimeters wide is a lesion 0.5 cm in diameter?	5 mm
19. What is the weight in grams of a parrot weighing 0.9 kg?	900 g
20. How many kilograms does a 20g mouse weigh?	0.02 kg
1.5 qt = _____________________ pt	3 pt
12 pt = ______________________ gal	1.5 gal
3 tsp = ______________ Tbsp	1 Tbsp
3 qt = _______________ cups	11.83 ~ 12 cups
12 cups = ____________________ pt	6 pints
2 oz = _________________ Tbsp	4 Tbsp
1 gal = ________________ oz	126.2 oz
1 pt = ______________________ oz	15.8 ~ 16 oz
6 pt = ______________________ qt	3 qt
48 oz =______________________ lb	3 lb
1 pt = ______________________ mL	473 mL
2 Tbsp = ____________________ mL	30 mL
15 mL = _____________________ cc	15 cc
2 cups = _____________________ oz	16 oz
6.5 mL = ____________________ pt	0.014 pt
125 mL = ____________________ tsp	25 tsp
1.5 oz = _____________________ mL	45 mL
15 kg = ______________________ lb	33 lb
250 mL = ___________________ pt	0.53 pt
5 oz = ______________________ mL	150 mL
35 lb = ______________________ kg	15.91 kg
3 cups = _____________________ mL	720 mL
4 Tbsp = ____________________ oz	2 oz
90 mL = ____________________ oz	3 oz
260 mg = ____________________ gr	4 gr
The order is for 500 mg of amoxicillin, and tablets on hand are 250 mg. How many tablets will be administered?	2 tablets
The order is for 15 mg of prednisone, and 10-mg (scored) tablets are on hand. How many tablets will be administered?	1.5 tablets
The order is for enrofloxacin to be given once daily at 5 mg/kg to a 10-lb cat for 7 days. How many 22.7-mg tablets should be dispensed to the client?	7 tablets
The veterinarian prescribes 15 mg of prednisone every other day for 10 days. The tablets on hand are 10 mg. How many tablets per dose will be administered? How many tablets will be dispensed?	1.5 tablets; 7.5 tablets
The veterinarian prescribes (Albon) for Coccidia. Your puppy weighs 8 lbs and needs tx for 21 days. Dose: Albon is a 25-mg/lb loading dose and 12.5-mg/lb maintenance dose to be given once daily (s.i.d.). supplied at 250 mg/5 mL.How many mg does your patie	200 mg; 100 mg; 50 mg/mL; 4 mL; 2 mL; 44 mL
The veterinarian orders 4.4 mg/kg of carprofen for pain control divided into two equal daily doses for a 50-lb dog. On hand are 100-mg scored tablets. How many tablets are administered each morning and afternoon?	0.5 tablets each morning and afternoon
The veterinarian prescribes 2.5 mg of acepromazine three times a day (t.i.d.) for 3 days, and tablets on hand are 5 mg (scored). How many tablets will be administered? How many will be dispensed?	0.5 tablets; 4.5 tablets
The vet prescribes aminophylline to be given t.i.d. for 14 days to a 15-lb dog. Dose is 10 mg/kg.How many kg does your patient weigh? How many mg have to be administered to your patient? tablets on hand are 100 mg (scored), how many tablets per dose will	6.82 kg; 68.2 mg; ∼ 0.75 tablet; 31.5 tablets
A farmer has 10 calves that weigh 100 lbs each. A microscopic fecal reveals Coccidia. The veterinarian chooses to treat all 10 calves with Corid powder (20% amprolium) by drenching daily for 10 days. To make a drench solution, mix 3 oz of Corid powder in	100 oz or 3.125 qt (containing 3 oz powder per quart of water)
The veterinarian orders clenbuterol syrup for a 200-lb foal. The dosage is 0.8 mcg/kg twice daily for 3 days. The syrup contains 72.5 mcg/mL. How many milliliters is given at each dose?	1.0 mL
The veterinarian orders an injection of desoxycorticosterone pivalate (Percorten-V) for a 20-lb dog at the dosage rate of 2.2 mg/kg. The concentration of desoxycorticosterone pivalate is 25 mg/mL. How much of the drug should be injected?	0.8 mL
The veterinarian orders phenylbutazone to be administered to a 1500-lb horse at a dose of 5 mg/kg intravenously. The vial is labeled 200 mg/mL. How many milliliters will be administered?	17.05 ~ 17 mL
The veterinarian orders penicillin G procaine for a 25-lb dog to be administered at a dose of 40,000 U/kg IM. The vial is labeled 300,000 U/mL. How many milliliters will be administered?	1.5 mL
The veterinarian orders cefazolin to be given to a 23-lb dog at a dosage of 20 mg/kg IV for surgical prophylaxis. The concentration of cefazolin on hand is 100 mg/mL. How much (mL) of the drug should be given?	2.09 ~ 2.1 mL
A microscopic fecal examination reveals a Giardia infection in a 500-g African gray parrot. The veterinarian chooses to treat the infection with injectable metronidazole at a dosage of 30 mg/kg daily for 3 days. How many milligrams will the parrot receive	15 mg
A 45-lb dog is to be treated for lymphosarcoma with vincristine sulfate, 1 mg/mL. The dose is 0.5 mg/m2.How many square meters of body surface area does this patient have?How many milligrams will be given to the patient?How many milliliters?	0.744 m2; 0.37 mg; 0.37 mL
The veterinarian orders lincomycin HCl for a 500-lb Yorkshire boar. The dosage to be administered is 5 mg/lb/day intramuscular (IM) for 5 days. The medication on hand is 100 mg/mL in a 50-mL multidose vial. How many milligrams will be administered to the	2500 mg; 25 mL; 2.5 bottles
The veterinarian orders 7 mEq of potassium chloride to be added to the IV fluids. The vial is labeled 20 mEq in 10 mL. How many milliliters will be added to the fluids?	3.5 mL
The veterinarian orders testosterone propionate for a 475-lb Landrace boar. The dose to be administered is 1 mg/10 lb. The label on the vial is 25 mg/mL. How many milligrams will be administered? How many milliliters will be administered?	47.5 mg; 1.9 mL
The veterinarian orders 15 mg of vitamin K1. The vial is labeled 10 mg/mL. How many milliliters will be administered?	1.5 mL
The order is for meloxicam at 0.2 mg/kg to control postsurgical pain in a 4.5-kg cat. The concentration of the drug is 5 mg/mL. What volume of the drug should be given?	0.18 mL
A rabbit weighing 12 lb is to be given 0.02 mg/kg of buprenorphine subcutaneously for pain control. The concentration of the drug is 0.3 mg/mL. How much of the drug should be given?	0.37 mL
The veterinarian orders enrofloxacin at 5 mg/kg IM for a 7-kg python with respiratory disease. The product contains 100 mg/mL. How much should be injected?	0.35 mL
The order is for an injection of metoclopramide at 0.4 mg/kg for a 15-kg dog. The concentration of available product is 5 mg/mL. How much should be injected?	1.2 mL
The order and the stock are provided. 0.5 g IM 250 mg/mL What amount should you give?	2 mL
The order and the stock are provided. 20 mEq IV 40 mEq/10mL What amount should you give?	5 mL
The order and the stock are provided. 0.75 mg IM 0.50 mg/mL What amount should you give?	3. 1.5 mL
The order and the stock are provided. 150 mg IM 0.2 g/5mL What amount should you give?	3.75 mL
The order and the stock are provided. 25 mg IM 100 mg/mL What amount should you give?	0.25 mL
The order and the stock are provided. 0.5 mg IM 0.5 mg/2mL What amount should you give?	2 mL
The order and the stock are provided. 0.3 mg IV 0.4 mg/mL What amount should you give?	0.75 mL
The order and the stock are provided. 300,000 U SC 40,000 U/mL What amount should you give?	7.5 mL
The order and the stock are provided. 0.3 mg IM 0.5 mg/mL What amount should you give?	0.6 mL
The order and the stock are provided. 55 mg SC 250 mg/mL What amount should you give?	0.22 mL
1. Order: 100 mL of 10% formalin solution. On hand: formaldehyde 37% (considered as 100% formalin) and water. Amount needed: ______________	V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 100 = 100 × 10 V1 × 100 = 1000 V1 = 10 10 mL 37% formaldehyde +90 mL water
2. Order: 1000 mL 0.9% NaCl and 5% dextrose. On hand: 1000 mL 0.9% NaCl and 500 mL 50% dextrose. Amount of each needed: _____________	V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 50 = 1000 × 5 V1 × 50 = 5000 V1 = 100 100 mL 50% dextrose +900 mL 0.9% NaCl
3. Order: 100 mL 5% dextrose. On hand: 500 mL 50% dextrose and 250 mL sterile water for injection. Amount needed: __________________	V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 50 = 100 × 5 V1 × 50 = 500 V1 = 10 10 mL 50% dextrose +90 mL water
4. Order: 2000 mL lactated Ringer’s solution and 2.5% dextroseOn hand: two containers of 1000 mL lactated Ringer’s solution and 250 mL 50% dextroseAmount of each needed: _____________	V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 50 = 2000 × 2.5 V1 × 50 = 5000 V1 = 100 100 mL 50% dextrose +1900 mL lactated Ringer’s solution
5. Order: 500 mL 2.5% dextrose and 0.45% NaCl. On hand: 1000 mL 0.45% NaCl and 500 mL 50% dextrose. Amount of each needed: ___________	V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 50 = 500 × 2.5 V1 × 50 = 1250 V1 = 25 25 mL 50% dextrose +475 mL 0.45% NaCl
6. Order: 1000 mL of 10% glyceryl guaiacolate solution. On hand: packets containing 50 g guaifenesin (GG) powder and 1000 mL sterile water for injection. Amount of each needed: ___________	Remember: 10% solution = 100 mg/mL packets containing 50 g = 50,000 mg V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 50,000 = 1000 × 100 V1 × 50,000 = 100,000 V1 = 2 Two packets of 50 g GG powder +1000 mL water
7. Order: 8% thiamylal sodium solution. On hand: one 5-g vial of powder and 1 mL of sterile water for injection. Amount of sterile water needed: ______________	Remember: 8% solution = 80 mg/mL One 5-g vial contains 5000 mg V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 1 × 5000 = V2 × 80 5000 × V2 = 80 62.5 = V2 62.5 mL needs to be added to one 5-g vial to prepare an 8% solution
8. Order: 5 mL of 2% cyclosporine ophthalmic solution. On hand: 50 mL cyclosporine (Sandimmune Oral Solution) 100 mg/mL and 16 oz of extra virgin olive oil. Amount of each needed: ___________	Remember: 2% solution = 20 mg/mL V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 100 = 5 × 20 V1 × 100 = 100 V1 = 1 1 mL of cyclosporine (Sandimmune) + 4 mL virgin olive oil
9. Order: 50 mL of 2% formalin for Knott’s heartworm test. On hand: 100% formaldehyde and water. Amount of each needed: ______________	V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 100 = 50 × 2 V1 × 100 = 100 V1 = 1 1 mL 100% formalin +49 mL water
10. Order: Prepare 1 L of a 1:32 sodium hypochlorite (bleach) solution. On hand: distilled water and 5% sodium hypochlorite (bleach) Amount of each needed: ___________________	V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 5 = 1000 × 3.1 V1 × 5 = 3100 V1 = 620 620 mL bleach +380 distilled water
11. Order: Prepare 50 mL of a 0.5 mEq/mL KCl solution. On hand: sterile water for injection and KCl (2 mEq/mL) Amount of each needed: ____________________	V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 2 = 50 × 0.5 V1 × 2 = 25 V1 = 12.5 12.5 mL KCl +37.5 mL sterile water
12. Order: Prepare 15 mL of a 5 mg/mL enrofloxacin solution. On hand: 22.7 mg/mL enrofloxacin and sterile water for injection. Amount of each needed: __________________	V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 22.7 = 15 × 5 V1× 22.7 = 75 V1 = 3.3 mL 3.3 mL enrofloxacin +11.7 mL sterile water
1. What drip rate will you use to administer 500 mL of lactated Ringer’s solution over a 3-hour period with a standard (15 gtt/mL) administration set?	42 gtt/min or approximately 0.7 gtt/sec
2. What drip rate would you use to deliver 120 mL 0.9% NaCl over a 2-hour period using a microdrip (60 gtt/mL) administration set?	60 gtt/min or 1 gtt/sec
3. What drip rate would you use to deliver 1.2 L of Normosol over a 10-hour period using a standard (15 gtt/mL) administration set?	30 gtt/min or 1 gtt/2 sec
4. What drip rate would you use to deliver 8 mcg/kg/min of drug C (500 mg/250 mL) to an 83-lb dog using a microdrip (60 gtt/mL) administration set?	0.15 mL/min or 9 gtt/min
5. What drip rate would you use to deliver 10 mcg/kg/min of dopamine (0.2 mg/mL) to a 22-lb dog using the microdrip (60 gtt/mL) administration set?	0.5 mL/min or 30 gtt/min
6. Using the formula. how much nitroprusside (25 mg/mL) would you add to 1000 mL of 5% dextrose to deliver 2 mcg/kg/min of nitroprusside at a delivery rate of 12 mL/h to a 3.8-kg dog?	1.52 mL
7. Using the formula. how much dobutamine (12.5 mg/mL) would you add to 100 mL of a 5% dextrose solution to administer 15 mcg/kg/min to a 28-kg dog at a delivery rate of 10 mL/h?	20.16 mL
8. How much furosemide (10 mg/mL) would you add to a 250-mL fluid bag to deliver 3 mcg/kg/min to a 5-kg patient with the fluid pump set at 15 mL/h?	1.5 mL
9. How much morphine (15 mg/mL) would you add to a 250-mL fluid bag to deliver 0.2 mg/kg/h to a 10-kg animal with the pump set on 10 mL/h?	3.3 mL
Define the difference between an agonist and an opioid antagonist.	An agonist is a drug that combines with a receptor to bring about an action, whereas an antagonist combines with a receptor and blocks the action. An opioid antagonist blocks the effect of opioids by binding with the opiate receptors and preventing furthe
Define neurotransmitter.	A neurotransmitter is a chemical substance released by a nerve ending at the synapse. It acts on the adjacent neuron to stimulate, inhibit, or change its activity.
Most CNS drugs act by __________________ or ______________________ the effects of neurotransmitters.	Interrupting the generation or conduction of nerve impulses; interfering with
What are the primary neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptors?	Epinephrine and norepinephrine
List the four primary ways in which drugs affect the ANS.	Mimicking neurotransmitters; interfering with neurotransmitter release; blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors; and interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters
List five indications for the use of cholinergic agents.	To control vomiting, to treat urinary retention; to stimulate gastrointestinal activity; to treat glaucoma; act as an antidote; and to aid in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate, and aminopentamide are examples of what specific drug class?	Cholinergic blocking agents (anticholinergic)
Propranolol is an example of what category of drug?	Beta blocker
What are some adverse side effects of xylazine, and what drug may be used to antagonize its effects?	Bradycardia and hypotension may be antagonized by using atropine; respiratory depression or excessive CNS depression may be antagonized by using yohimbine.
Why would you be concerned about using a thiobarbiturate to induce anesthesia in a very thin dog?	Thiobarbiturates are very soluble in fat, which acts like a sponge to take the barbiturate out of the circulation and away from the CNS. Thin animals have reduced fat levels, which means that more of the thiobarbiturate remains in the bloodstream and may
What are some of the characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine?	Analgesia, increased muscle tone, maintenance of pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, muscle tremors, and loss of the blink reflex
List some of the signs of a narcotic overdose.	Respiratory depression, cardiac depression, agitation, excitement, or seizures
List two narcotic antagonists.	Naloxone and nalorphine
Why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use?	Because of its tendency to precipitate out of solution when stored
Why are euthanasia solutions that contain only pentobarbital classified as Class II controlled substances, whereas those that contain pentobarbital and other substances are classified as Class III controlled substances?	Some pentobarbital euthanasia agents have a red dye added to distinguish them from pentobarbital agents that may be used for anesthesia. Because these agents are easily identified as euthanasia agents, they have less potential for abuse.
All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their effects by altering ____________________ activity in the brain.	Neurotransmitter
Dissociative agents, such as ketamine and tiletamine, may cause ____________________ at the injection site.	Burning
A hypnotic (anesthetic) known for its very short duration and its white color is ______________________.	Propofol
A benzodiazepine that is used as an antianxiety medication and as an appetite stimulant in cats is ______________________.	Diazepam
An example of a tricyclic antidepressant used in veterinary medicine for separation anxiety in dogs is ______________________.	Clomicalm (clomipramine)
______________________ is used to treat old-dog dementia.	Anipryl (selegiline)
The ____ nervous system is under voluntary control.	somatic
The neurotransmitter for cholinergic sites is ______.	acetylcholine
The direct-acting cholinergic metoclopramide is ordered for a 50-lb dog to control vomiting and promote gastric emptying. The dosage of metoclopramide is 0.25 mg/kg and the concentration of the drug is 5 mg/mL. How many milliliters would you prepare?	1.1 mL
Dexmedetomidine will be given to an 8-lb cat as a preanesthetic at a dosage of 30 mcg/kg. The concentration of Dexdomitor is 0.5 mg/mL. What quantity would you draw up?	0.22 mL
1. What structures would a molecule of oxygen pass over or through as it travels from the environment to the alveoli?	Nostrils, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles
2. What are the four primary functions of the respiratory system?	The four functions of the respiratory system are oxygen–carbon dioxide exchange, regulation of acid–base balance, body temperature regulation, and voice production.
3. Describe the function of the three basic defense mechanisms of the respiratory system.	Structures in the nasal passages filter, warm, and humidify inspired air. The cough, sneeze, and reverse sneeze attempt to remove foreign material that has entered the respiratory system. The mucociliary mechanism also removes foreign material from the re
4. What are three important principles of respiratory therapeutics?	The three important principles of respiratory therapeutics are control of secretions, control of reflexes, and maintenance of normal airflow.
5. Expectorants are indicated when what type of cough is present?	Productive
6. Mucolytics decrease the viscosity of respiratory mucus by what mechanism?	Through the breakdown of disulfide chemical bonds
7. What is the term for administering a liquid drug into a mist so it can be more easily inhaled into the lungs.	Nebulization or aerosolization
8. Name the category of drug A.Guaifenesin	Expectorant
B. Mucomyst	Mucolytic
C. Albuterol	Beta-2-adrenergic agonist
D. Butorphanol	Antitussive
E. Theophylline	Methylxanthine
F. Dopram	Respiratory stimulant
9. What is the mechanism of action of most antitussives used in veterinary medicine?	Through depression of the cough center in the brain
10. List three mechanisms that can cause smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles.	Release of acetylcholine, release of histamine, and blockade of beta-2-adrenergic receptors
11. List two bronchodilators that are beta2-adrenergic agonists.	Epinephrine, pseudoephedrine/pyrilamine, isoproterenol, clenbuterol, terbutaline, metaproterenol, and albuterol
12. The bronchioles terminate in small, saclike structures in the lung called __________ which are arranged in grape-like clusters.	Alveoli
13. The methylxanthines bring about bronchodilation by inhibiting what cellular enzyme?	Phosphodiesterase
14. __________ is used as an antitussive, an antipruritic, and an antiinflammatory drug.	Temaril-P
15. List two potential uses for antihistamines in veterinary medicine.	Treatment of insect bites pneumonia, feline asthma, and treatment of heaves in horses
16. What suffix is found at the end of many antihistamine names?	-amine
17. List two potential uses for Dopram.	Treatment of respiratory depression associated with anesthesia and stimulation of respiration in newborn animals
18. Maxi Jones is being treated for canine infectious tracheobronchitis. Dr. Ladd has instructed you to dispense Hycodan tablets at 0.22 mg/kg b.i.d. for 7 days. Maxi weighs 50 lb and 5-mg tablets are available. What dose of Hycodan does Maxi require? How	22.73 kg × 0.22 mg/kg = 5 mg 5 mg × 1 tab/5 mg = 1 tab × 2 = 2 tabs/day × 7 days Dispense 14 tablets
19. List two uses of acetylcysteine in veterinary medicine.	1. As a mucolytic agent2. As an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity
20. What are some examples of methylxanthine?	Aminophylline, Theophylline, Caffeine, Theobromine
21. Particles of what size are capable of reaching the alveoli?	1 to 5 microns
22. Give an example of a beta2-adrenergic agonist bronchodilator.	Albuterol, epinephrine, pseudoephedrine/pyrilamine, isoproterenol, clenbuterol, terbutaline, metaproterenol
23. _____ are drugs that inhibit or suppress coughing.	Antitussives
24. _______________ is used for the relief of chronic nonproductive coughs in dogs, and for analgesia and preanesthesia in dogs and cats.	Butorphanol tartrate
25. An 8-lb cat with feline asthma will be treated with Singulair at a dosage of 0.5 mg/kg daily for 3 days. Singulair tablets (4 mg) are available. How many tablets will you dispense? ______________________	8 pounds = 3.64 kg × 0.5 mg/kg = 1.82 mg 1.82 mg × 1 tab/4mg = 0.45 ~ 0.5 tab 0.5 tab × 3 days = 1.5 tablets
1. What structures constitute the urinary system?	Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra
2. Name two drugs that are contraindicated in uremic patients.	Rompun and Ketaset
3. Renal damage may be categorized as ______________________, ______________________, or ______________________.	Prerenal, renal, postrenal
4. Explain how diuretics work.	Diuretics work by removing excess extracellular fluid, by increasing urine volume and sodium excretion, and by decreasing hypertension.
5. What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics?	Potassium (K)
6. What drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic?	Spironolactone or triamterene
7. What is an osmotic diuretic?	Mannitol
8. ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to ______________________.	Angiotensin II
9. Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of ______________________ uroliths.	Struvite
10. The renal cortex produces_____________________; thus chronic renal failure can cause an absolute or relative ______________________ in its production.	Erythropoietin, decrease
11. Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretic?	Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium
12. Name a beta-adrenergic blocker drug that is used to control mild to moderate hypertension associated with chronic renal failure?	Propanolol
13. Enalapril is a(n) __________.	Ace inhibitor
14. Where is ADH secreted? _________________	Posterior pituitary gland
15. The ureters originate ____.	originate from the kidneys and connect to the urinary bladder
16. Persistently high blood pressure is known as _____.	hypertension
17. Diuretics are used to remove ____ fluid.	extracellular
18. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is normally secreted by the _______ pituitary gland.	posterior
19. What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics?	Potassium
20. Urinary acidifiers are used to produce acid urine, which assists in dissolving and preventing the formation of ____.	uroliths
21. Patients with renal failure are at a lesser anesthetic risk than patients with normal renal function.	False
22. Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of ______.	sodium
23. A border collie named Sam is presented to the veterinarian and diagnosed with CHF, chronic kidney failure, and clinical signs of pulmonary edema. Sam weighs 40 lb and the veterinarian prescribes furosemide at 3.5 mg/kg once a day for a month. The phar	64 mg/day; furosemide (50 mg × 30 tablets) and furosemide (12.5 mg × 30 tablets). So, 40 lb = 18.18 kg × 3.5 mg/kg = 64 mg/day
24. The veterinarian orders a prescription of furosemide at 2.5 mg/kg b.i.d. for a patient that weighs 55 lb. How many milligrams should the patient receive for one dose?	62.5 mg. So, 55 lb = 25 kg × 2.5 mg/kg = 62.5 mg
25. A dog weighing 33 lb with protein-losing nephropathy is presented to the veterinarian who orders enalapril 0.5 mg/kg PO once daily. What is the dose this dog requires?	7.5 mg daily. So, 33 lb = 15 kg × 0.5 mg/kg = 7.5 mg
1. Why is the heart considered to be two pumps functionally?	The right atrium and right ventricle serve functionally as one pump for ejecting blood to the lungs, and the left atrium and left ventricle pump blood to the systemic circulation.
2. Cardiac cells are connected by intercalated disks and a fusion of cell membranes to form a ______________________________.	Syncytium (interconnected mass)
3. Depolarization of cardiac cells is characterized by a rapid influx of ______________________ ions, a slower influx of ___________________ ions, and the outflow of __________________ ions.	Sodium (Na+), calcium (Ca2+), potassium (K+)
4. A relatively long ______________________ is important to cardiac cells to prevent a constant state of contraction from recycling impulses.	Refractory period
5. Define chronotropic and inotropic effects in relation to the heart.	Chronotropic refers to the rate of contraction, whereas inotropic refers to the force or strength of contraction.
6. Define preload and afterload in relation to the pumping mechanism of the heart.	Preload is the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole (the amount of blood that must be pumped out). Afterload is the resistance in the arteries that the ventricle must overcome to pump blood.
7. List the four basic compensatory mechanisms of the cardiovascular system.	Increasing the heart rate, increasing the stroke volume, increasing the efficiency of the heart muscle, and heart enlargement
8. List five objectives of treatment for heart failure.	Control rhythm disturbances, maintain or increase cardiac output, relieve fluid accumulations, increase the oxygenation of blood, and provide oxygen/sedatives
9. List four beneficial effects and one potential toxic effect of the use of the cardiac glycosides.	Beneficial effects include improved cardiac contractility, decreased heart rate, antiarrhythmic effect, and decreased signs of dyspnea. Toxic effects include anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, and various arrhythmias.
10. _______________ is the preferred drug to be given during cardiac arrest because it provides stimulation for heart contractions and supports the circulatory system.	Epinephrine
11. List five factors that may predispose the heart to arrhythmias.	Conditions that cause hypoxia; electrolyte imbalances; increased levels or sensitivity to catecholamines; certain drugs such as digitalis, barbiturates, and others; and cardiac trauma or disease
12. List six categories of antiarrhythmic drugs and give an example of each.	Class IA—quinidine, procainamide; class IB—lidocaine, tocainide, and mexiletine; class II—propranolol, atenolol; class III—bretylium, amiodarone, and sotalol; class IV—diltiazem, verapamil.
13. List four vasodilator drugs and classify each as arteriolar dilator, venodilator, or mixed.	Hydralazine—arteriolar dilator; nitroglycerin—venodilator; prazosin—mixed; nitroprusside—mixed; enalapril, benazepril, captopril, lisinopril, and ramipril—mixed
14. Why is Lasix sometimes called a loop diuretic?	Lasix is called a loop diuretic because it inhibits reabsorption of sodium in the loops of Henle.
15. List five ancillary methods of treatment for cardiovascular disease.	Bronchodilation, oxygen therapy, sedation, aspiration, and centesis
16. ______________________ is characterized by the rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell through channels, the slower influx of calcium ions, and the outflow of potassium ions.	Depolarization
17. ______________________ results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that sodium and water are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output.	Congestive heart failure
18. ACE causes the conversion of ______________________ to ______________________.	Angiotensin I to angiotensin II
19. Nitroglycerin is supplied as an ointment. List the precautions that should be taken when applying.	Wear gloves; rotate application sites; do not pet the animal at the application site; measure the dosage in inches; and contact the veterinarian if a rash appears at the application site.
20. What is hypokalemia?	An abnormally low potassium level in the blood
21. What are the primary goals of the dietary management of heart disease?	The primary goals are (1) sodium restriction and (2) maintenance of good body weight and condition (reduction of obesity or cachexia). In some instances, specific nutrient deficiencies, concurrent disease, and/or electrolyte disorders may need to be addre
22. List three effects of administration of catecholamines.	(1) Increased force of contraction; (2) an increase in blood pressure; (3) elevated blood glucose levels
23. Gloves do not have to be worn when applying nitroglycerin.	False
24. A 50-lb dog with moderate heart failure will be treated with enalapril 0.5 mg/kg twice a day for 14 days and then reevaluated. Enacard tablets (10 mg) are available. How many will you dispense?	50 lb = 22.73 kg × 0.5 mg/kg = 11.37 mg × 1 tab/10 mg = 1.14 tablets ∼1 tablet × 2 (twice daily) = 2 tabs/day × 14 days = 28 tablets
25. A 10-lb dog with advanced heart failure will be treated with furosemide at 8 mg/kg IV. Salix injection (50 mg/mL) will be used. How much will you draw up?	10 lb = 4.55 kg × 8 mg/kg = 3.64 mg × mL/50 mg = 0.73 ~ 0.7 mL
1. List three general functions of the GI tract.	Entry of food and fluid into the body, absorption of nutrients, and excretion of waste products
2. List three examples of monogastric animals.	Dogs, cats, and primates
3. What is the GI configuration of ruminant animals?	Ruminants have a system of forestomachs, including the reticulum, rumen, and omasum, which allows them to digest coarse plant material, as well as a true stomach (abomasum).
4. What is the difference between vomiting and regurgitation?	Regurgitation is a normal process of ruminants that permits them to bring up partially digested foodstuff for rechewing. Vomiting is the forcible expulsion of gastric contents and is generally considered to be pathologic.
5. Ruminants are animals that use ______________ to digest coarse plant material.	Microorganisms in the rumen
6. What are the three basic control mechanisms of the GI tract?	The autonomic nervous system, hormonal control, and chemical control (e.g., histamine, prostaglandin, and others)
7. What is the significance of the presence of bacterial endotoxins in the GI tract?	Bacterial endotoxins may increase the permeability of intestinal blood vessels, resulting in increased fluid loss. They also may induce fever and initiate shock.
8. The CRTZ stimulates vomiting when activated by ______________________.	Chemical substances (digitalis compounds, urea, ketone bodies, and others) and impulses from the inner ear
9. List two examples of centrally acting emetics and two examples of peripherally acting emetics.	Centrally acting: apomorphine and xylazine; peripherally acting: hydrogen peroxide, syrup of ipecac and mustard
10. Drugs that inhibit vomiting are called ______________________.	Antiemetics
11. List two H2 receptor antagonists.	Cimetidine, famotidine, nizatidine, and ranitidine
12. What are the two types of intestinal motility patterns?	Peristalsis (a wave of contraction) and segmentation (a mixing action)
13. Acute vomiting and diarrhea in dogs and cats often respond to conservative management such as ______________________.	Withholding of food for 12–24 hours
14. List two species that do not vomit.	Rats and horses
15. What is the mechanism of action of saline/hyperosmotic laxatives?	By retaining water osmotically in the gut, these agents cause softening of the stool.
16. Direct cholinergic drugs stimulate the GI tract by what mechanism?	By mimicking the effect of acetylcholine
17. List four products used as dentifrice/oral cleansing agents.	C.E.T., Nolvadent, Oral Dent, and Oxydent
18. What is the difference between peristalsis and segmentation?	Peristalsis refers to a wave of contraction that moves contents along, and segmentation refers to intestinal constrictions that mix contents.
19. Stimulation of the parasympathetic portion of the ANS decreases intestinal motility.	False
20. About what percent of the stomach’s contents do emetics usually remove?	80%
21. How does sucralfate work to treat/prevent gastric ulcers?	By forming a pastelike barrier over the surface of gastric ulcers
22. The crop in birds is used for ______.	food storage
23. ________ are substances that loosen bowel contents and encourage their evacuation.	Laxatives
24. A 20-lb puppy will be given a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of metoclopramide over 24 hours for vomiting. The dosage is 2 mg/kg and the Reglan solution contains 5 mg/mL. How many milliliters of Reglan will you draw up to add to the IV fluids?	20 lb = 9.09 kg × 2 mg/kg = 18.18 mg × mL/5 mg = 3.64 ~ 3.6 mL
25. A 1200-lb horse will be treated with omeprazole for gastric ulcers at 4 mg/kg once daily for 2 weeks. GastroGard oral paste is available in syringes containing 2.28 g. How many syringes will you dispense?	1200 lb = 545.45 kg × 4 mg/kg = 2181.8 mg × syringe/2280 mg (there are 1000 mg in 1 g) = 0.96 syringe ∼1 syringe/day × 14 days = 14 syringes
1. Describe the relationship between hormonal releasing factors, trophic hormones, and the hormones produced by specific tissues or glands.	Releasing factors (RFs) are messengers made by the hypothalamus in response to its detection of hormone levels in the blood. RFs send messages to the pituitary to stimulate this gland to manufacture trophic hormones. Trophic hormones, in turn, stimulate a
2. List the major endocrine glands.	The major endocrine glands are the pituitary, the thyroid, the ovaries, the testicles, the adrenals, and the pancreas.
3. What are the reasons for using hormonal therapy in veterinary medicine?	To correct a deficiency and to obtain a desired effect
4. Endogenous hormones are those that are produced _______________________, whereas exogenous hormones come from _______________________ sources.	In the body; external
5. Describe the difference between a negative and a positive feedback control mechanism in the endocrine system.	A negative feedback mechanism occurs when the hypothalamus senses a high level of a specific hormone in the blood and in response reduces the amount of releasing factor (RF) for this hormone. A reduced amount of RF causes a decreased amount of trophic hor
6. Hormonal products with “gest” in their name are classified as _______________________.	Progestins
7. List three potential uses of the prostaglandins in veterinary medicine.	Estrus synchronization, induction of abortion, and induction of estrus
8. Human skin contact or injection with prostaglandins can be a serious health risk to _______________________ women and individuals with _______________________.	Pregnant; asthma
9. What precautions should be taken before oxytocin is administered?	The reproductive tract should be examined for blockage or torsion, and it should be verified that the cervix has dilated.
10. What two active hormones are produced by the thyroid gland?	Triiodothyronine (T3) and tetraiodothyronine (T4)
11. List two drugs used in the treatment of hypothyroidism.	Soloxine and Synthroid
12. List the three major classes of insulin.	Short-acting (regular), intermediate-acting (NPH/Lente), long-acting (PZI/Glargine/detemir)
13. Which form of insulin is used in the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis?	Regular
14. What are some signs of insulin overdose?	Weakness, ataxia, shaking, and seizures
15. Growth promoters generally should not be used in animals intended for _______________________.	Breeding purposes
16. Why are anabolic steroids classified as controlled substances?	Because of the potential for abuse by human athletes
17. Which insulin product should be shaken thoroughly prior to use?	Vetsulin
18. What precautions should be taken by pregnant women when Regu-Mate is administered?	Wear gloves and/or avoid getting the drug on the skin
19. Why was synthetic DES banned from use in food-producing animals?	Residues of DES were shown to have a likely link to cervical cancer in women.
20. A _______________________ hormone is one that results in the production of a second hormone within a target gland.	trophic
21. Androgens are female sex hormones produced in the ovaries, adrenal cortex, and testicles.	False
22. Corticosteroids are produced by the _____________.	the adrenal cortex
23. Pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism in dogs may be treated with ______________.	Lysodren & Vetoryl
24. A 1100-lb mare will be given altrenogest at 0.044 mg/kg daily to maintain pregnancy. The concentration of altrenogest (Regu-Mate) is 0.22%. What quantity will you give daily?	1100 lb = 500 kg × 0.044 mg/kg = 22 mg × mL/2.2 mg = 10 mL. Remember, 0.22% = 2.2 mg/mL
25. A 13-lb diabetic cat with a blood glucose of 450 mg/dL will be treated with ProZinc (U-40) at a dosage of 0.5 U/kg twice a day. How many units will you give with each dose?	13 lb = 5.91 kg × 0.5 Units/kg = 2.96 ~ 3 units
1. Mydriatic agents are used to ___________________ the pupils.	Dilate
2. Atropine is contraindicated in________________ and ______________________.	Glaucoma, keratoconjunctivitis sicca
3. Miotic agents produce __________________________________ constriction.	Pupillary
4. Why are ophthalmic stains used?	Ophthalmic stains are used as diagnostic aids for detecting disease in both the anterior and posterior segments and in the nasolacrimal system.
5. ______ stain is the most commonly used dye for the detection of corneal epithelial defects.	Fluorescein
6. Patients with ear mites, whose ears are left untreated, often experience _______________ hematomas caused by excessive shaking of the head.	Aural
7. What type of administration is the most common method of treating disorders of the eye?	Topical ophthalmics (e.g., ointments, drops)
8. Why do most topical ophthalmic medications require several applications per day?	Because the eye secretes tears, the medication may be quickly diluted; thus reapplication becomes necessary.
9. What is Proparacaine used for?	To provide local anesthesia to the eye
10. The appearance of fluorescein stain at the nostril opening is an abnormal finding when a fluorescein stain test is performed.	False
11. The nictitating membrane is also known as ________.	third eyelid
12. Mydriatic agents are used to ________________ the pupils.	dilate
13. Atropine ophthalmic agents are used to produce ___________________.	mydriasis
14. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are useful in treating _________-angle glaucoma.	open
15. Sympathomimetic drugs are used to ____________ (increase, decrease) intraocular pressure.	decrease
16. Which one of the following is an ocular fluoroquinolone used to treat gram-negative corneal infections?	Ciprofloxacin
17. Fluorescein stain is used commonly to diagnose _____________.	corneal ulcers
18. _______________ have very strong palpebral muscles, and it may be necessary to have another person assist when one is applying ophthalmic drugs.	Equines
19. It is acceptable to use corticosteroid-type ointments in patients with corneal ulcers.	False
20. ____________________ has been developed for the treatment of Otodectes spp.	Acarexx
21. Clotrimazole and miconazole are _______________ drugs used to treat Malassezia infections in the ear.	Antifungal
22. Ceruminolytic agents should not be used in patients with _________________________.	Ruptured ear drums
23. How many milligrams of tropicamide are in a 0.5% solution?	0.5% = 5 mg/mL = 5 mg
24. If the veterinarian prescribes amphotericin B in a 0.15% solution for ocular administration at a rate of 0.2 mL in the eye every 4 hours for 14 days, how much solution should be prepared for the patient?	0.2 mL × 6 (times daily) = 1.2 mL/day × 14 days = 16.8 mL
25. A veterinary ophthalmologist must perform fluorescein staining on 21 dogs in a 1-week period. How many fluorescein strips need to be on hand to accomplish this task for a month?	21 dogs × 4 weeks = 84 strips
1. The skin consists of _____________________ layers and is part of the __________________ system.	Three, integumentary
2. ______________________ is essential for healthy skin.	Proper nutrition
3. Name seven functions of the skin.	Protection, temperature regulation, storage, immunoregulation, secretion, vitamin D production, and sensory perception
4. Shampoos are more effective if left on the skin about __________ to ________ minutes before rinsing.	5 to 10
5. Keratolytics and keratoplastics are known as ______________________ agents.	Antiseborrheic
6. Name the four stages of wound healing.	Inflammatory, debridement, repair, maturation
7. What does an astringent do to the skin?	Has drying and cleansing properties
8. Patients are commonly presented for skin problems when in reality they may have a ________________ illness.	Systemic
9. Why are behavioral-type drugs used in treating skin illness?	To keep the animal from excessive self-licking and/or mutilation
10. All patients presented for dermatologic problems have an underlying systemic illness.	False
11. Increased skin irritation may result in hyperpigmentation of the skin.	True
12. Humans have multiple hairs per follicle, but animals have one hair per follicle.	False
13. The maturation phase marks the beginning of wound healing.	False
14. What is produced by fibroblasts so that the wound can begin to bind tissues?	Collagen
15. Define and give an example of primary intention healing.	Primary intention healing occurs when there is no area for the body to fill with granulation tissue. Example: Clean, uninfected, surgical incision that can be approximated by sutures.
16. Define and give an example of secondary intention healing.	Secondary intention healing occurs when there is a wound that cannot be opposed by sutures and granulation tissue must form to fill the opening. Example: Large open wound.
17. Skin scrapings are commonly used to identify what type of mites?	Sarcoptes, Demodex, and Cheyletiella
18. What tests are utilized as diagnostic procedures for dermatophytes?	Fungal cultures (DTM/Fungassay), Wood’s lamp, and direct microscopic exam of hair and skin (cellophane tape test)
19. Which product is an antiseptic commonly used as a surgical scrub?	Chlorhexidine
20. What products contain fipronil or fipronil/(S)-methoprene as an active ingredient?	Frontline Gold products and Virbac EFFITIX and EFFIPRO
21. What products can be used to treat seborrhea oleosa?	Sulfur, salicylic acid, coal tar, benzoyl peroxide
22. Federal law prohibits the use of _______________ products in any food-producing animal.	Nitrofurazone
23. Nitenpyram is the active ingredient found in which product?	Capstar
24. Revolution contains the active ingredient selamectin which is used to treat what type of external and internal parasites?	Fleas, ticks, ear mites, sarcoptic mange and heartworm
25. Seresto collars are used to kill and repel fleas and ticks on dogs for how many months and explain water resistance of the collar.	8 months protection from fleas and 4 months for control of ticks. The active ingredient is contained in the collar matrix and will not be released into water. Seresto will quickly replenish the active ingredient and be protected again. Seresto is water re
It took 6 hours and 27 minutes for a dog to deliver her pups. How long was this is minutes?	387
Divide the following decimal numbers and provide the answer with up to two decimal places: 30.23/0.455	66.44
A stray dog was rescued almost two months ago and seen by you and the veterinarian of the clinic. The day of the examination, the dog weighed 10 kg. After eight weeks of nutritional care, she weighed 15 kg. What was the percent change in her weight after	0.5
Multiply the following and express as a mixed or whole number 4 7/8 x 1 2/5	6 23/40
In human medicine, what type of medication order has utility for patients in long-term care facilities where a physician may not be readily available?	standing order
A pharmacy has 1L bag of IV fluid containing 50g of dextrose each. HOw many mg of dextrose are in 12.5 mL of the IV fluid?	625
Drugs in which of the following controlled substances schedules has the lowest potential for abuse?	V
Which of the following is an example of a combination drug?	Buprpion/naltrexone
When recording information regarding a drug administered, which of the following are time designations recommended by the FDA?	1200 hr
Understanding and accurately using dose frequency designations such as b.i.d. are important for adhering to which of the six "rights" of medication administration?	Right documentation
Prednisone will be administered orally to a 1.2 kg rabbit using a dosage of 0.7 mg/kg once daily for 7 days. The clinic has 1 mg tablets available. How many 1 mg tablets are needed for the full 7 days?	7
What's the first step in converting a mixed number to an improper fraction?	multiply the denominator by the whole number
What type of information is included in the section of prescription drug labels regarding drug interactions?	Other drugs that cause concern if taken in combination with the drug
Rimadyl can't be given to dogs with active hepatic disease. What's the term included on drug labels that would be associated with the hepatic disease condition?	Contraindication
The weight of a female sugar glider presented to the clinic is 125 g. What's the weight in pounds?	0.275
The dosage of amoxicillin for a client's dog is 15 mg/kg. How many mg is this per ounce?	0.43
Reduce the fraction 36/224 to its lowest term.	9/56
The flow rate of an IV infusion is 3 mL per minute. What's the rate in mL per hour?	180
Convert 4 2/7 to an improper fraction	30/7
You need to administer atropine to an 8 lb cat at a dose of 0.027 mg/kg. How many mg will the cat receive?	0.1
A cat weights 4 kg. He will receive 10 mg/lb bid for 5 days. The amoxicillin has a strength of 250 mg/5 mL. The client wants to know the daily dose in tsp. What will you tell her?	about 3/4 of a tsp
According to instructions on a prescription diet, a dog is to be fed three measuring cups of the food per day. How much is this daily serving in pints?	1.5
A 10 lb dog needs to be fed 3.25 ounces of food per day. What is this in grams?	97.5
Gray-bellied pygmy mice in a pet store have an average weight of 14 g. What is this weight in kg?	0.014
A 12 kg dog will receive 15 mg.kg of levetiracetam po q8h. How many grams of drug will the dog receive per day?	0.54
In many medical settings, the term 'cc' is used to refer to volume. How many cc are in 15 mL?	15
You must administer cephalexin to a dog. The strength of the cephalexin is 200 mg per 5 mL. The patient needs a dose of 360 mg daily. What volume of the suspension in ounces will the dog need per day?	0.3
A dog ran 50 yards before showing signs of respiratory distress. What is the distance run by the dog in meters?	45.7
Treatment of a 750 kg cow with foot rot will be accomplished with a single injection of Nuflor at 40 mg/kg. How many ounces of the Nuflor will the cow receive?	1
A cat now weighing 8 kg gained 2 kg six months after she was sprayed. What was her weight in pounds before being spayed?	13.2
A horse weighed 900 kg a month ago but lost 30 kg due to illness. How much does the horse now weigh in pounds?	1914
A 22 kg Siberian Husky will receive a drug via IV infusion at a rate of 0.4 mg/kg/hr. How many mg of the dose will the patient receive in 4 hours?	35.2
A cockatiel has a 0.1 cm wound on a left wing web. How long is the wound in mm?	1
A dog taken to the clinic at 1400 hours accidentally ingested an organophosphate pesticide at 8:30 am according to the dog's caregiver. How many hours transpired from the proposed time of pesticide ingestion until arrival at the clinic?	5 hours 30 minutes
The veterinary doctor's order indicates that a hospitalized cat receive an injection of enrofloxacin at 1500 hours. When is this in standard (12 hour) time?	3:00 PM
The average daily volume of water consumption for a mouse is 4 mL. What is this in tsp?	0.8
A 900 g guinea pig presented to the clinic was found to have hypovitaminosis C and will be closed with 12 mg/kg daily. How many mg will the guinea pig receive in a week?	75.6
Owners of a poultry farm add enramycin to the feed at 75 g per 900 kg of feed. How many mg of enramycin in 1 lb of feed?	37
The average blood volume of a cat is 55 mL/kg. How many liters of blood are in a cat that weighs 6 kg?	0.33
You need to treat a dog for a bite wound that is 1.25 cm long. What is the length of the wound in inches?	a half inch
1 cc is equal to ________ mL	1
When measuring liquid, the amount of liquid is read at the level of which part of the meniscus?	bottom
40 ounces is equal to ________pounds	2.5
6 grams of medication were ordered, but it only comes in mg. What's the mg dose?	0.006
You need to administer medication to a cat weighing 13 lb. The dose for the medication is 4 mg.kg. How many milligrams do you administer?	24 mg
2 kilograms is equal to __________ grams	2000
5 cups are equal to _______ ounces	40
A patient needs to drink 3 pints of liquid. How many cups is that?	6
A cat has lost 3 lb. following your weight loss program. how much is this in kilograms?	1.3 kg
A cat weighs 8 lb., 9 oz. What does that equal in kg?	3.89
How many tsp are in 1 cup?	48
Which of the following is the largest unit of measure?	Kilogram
What's the value of 30 cups in mL?	7200 mL
32 ounces is equal to __________ quarts.	1
A dog weighing 16 kg has received intravenous fluids at a rate of 50 mL/kg/24 hour. The infusion has been running for two days, What's the total volume of fluid that dog has received?	1600 mL
48 pounds are equal to approximately	22 kg
How many milligrams are in 18 grams?	18,000
Convert 15 lb. into kg.	6.8 kg
2 pints is equal to ___________________ milliliters	940
What's the value of 29 pounds in kilograms?	12.72
What's the value of 2,200 kg in pounds?	4,840
Drugs in liquid form are measured by	volume
1 microgram is equal to ___________________ grams.	1/1,000,000
What's the value of 2,000 mcg in grams?	0.002
What't the value of 22 pounds in kilograms?	10 kg
An owner thinks her pet is drinking excessively. She has measured its intake, and it's drinking 4 pints daily. How much is this in millilleters?	1880 mL
Drugs in dry form are most often measured by ______________	weights
An owner brings her puppy to you to be weighed 4.3 kg. The owner wants to know what this is in pounds.	9.47 lb
48 pounds are equal to approximately	22 kg
A dog measures 4 feet 2 inches from the nose to the tail. How many centimeters is that?	127
A patient comes in with an 84 mm laceration, how long is the laceration in inches?	3.3 inches
What's the value of 200 grams in kilograms?	0.2 kg
Flunixin meglumine will be administered to a 280 kg donkey at 0.5 mg/lb/day. It's supplied as 50 mg/mL. How many mL will the donkey need for two daily doses?	12.4 280 kg x 2.2 lb/1kg x 0.5 mg/lb x 1 mL/50 mg = 6.2 mL per day and 12.4
What volume of a drug must be added to 100 mL of fluids to be delivered by IVPB so that a 21-kg dog receives 7 mg/kg of drug per hour? The stock drug has a strength of 20 mg/mL and the flow rate is 50 mL/hr.	14.7 mL
A 23 kg Golden Retriever will be dosed with 2 mg/lb of carprofen one time per day. What's the total daily dose that the dog will receive?	101.2
A rabbit will receive 20 mg of a drug in two divided doses daily pr. The strength of the drug is 5 mg/mL. How many mL will the rabbit receive each day?	4
What's the flow rate for an order for 1.4 g of ampicillin per hour via IV infusion using an ampicillin solution of 100 mg/mL?	14 mL 1400 mg/hr x 1 mL/100 mg = 14 mL/hr
Isocal dietary formula will be given to a patient via nasogastric tube at a rate o 40 mL/hour for 7 hours. How many mL per minute will the patient receive according to this order?	0.67
Which volume is an appropriately rounded volume?	0.46 mL
Four vials of the same medication have different concentrations expressed on the label. One is 250 mg/5 mL, one is a 2% solution, one is 75 mg/mL, and the other is 2.5g/100 mL. Which has the lowest strength?	The 2% Solution
There's often a need to round up or down a calculated dose volume before drawing it into a syringe. Which of the following descriptions represents the large increase in dose?	0.456 mL round up to 0.5 mL
The stock of methylprednisolone sodium succinate has a strength of 40 mg/2mL. How many mg are in 45 mL?	900
What would be the infusion pump setting for an order for 1.5 L of LRS via continuous IV dosing for 24 hours?	62.5 mL/hr
A 260 g marmoset will receive IV fluid at a rate of 90 mL/kg/hr. The infusion set delivers fluids at a rate of 60 gtt/mL. How many drops will the marmoset receives per minutes to get the volume ordered per hour?	23 gtt/min
Using a 50 mg/mL stock solution, how would you make 35 mL of a 1% solution?	Add 7 mL of stock solution to 28 mL of diluent.
An order for a patient indicates that she is to be administered 500 mL of NS in a 12 hour period. What would be the volume received by the patient per minute?	0.7 mL
What insulin concentration is the standard in the US?	U-100
Dicloxacillin sodium will be administered to a patient iwth 125 mg po tid for 5 days. The drug strength is 75 mg/5 mL. There's 250 mL of the drug in stock. How much of the drug will be left after providing the 5-day supply to the patient?	125 mL
A person with BSA of 1.51 m2 will be given methotrexate at a dose of 50 mg/m2. Calculate the number of scored 15 mg tablets needed for three doses of methotrexate.	15
Which of the following needle sized is the thickest?	18
A young adult will begin chemotherapy. The drug is dosed based on body surface are (BSA). Convert her weight of 48 kg and height of 5'4" to BSA.	1.47
An antibiotic suspension for oral administration has a final volume of 15 mL after adding 10.6 mL of water. What's the displacement factor for this medication?	4.4 mL
An 8-lb. cat needs amoxicillin 20 mg/kg twice daily. 125 mg/5 mL strength. How many mL will you give at each dosing (round to nearest hundredth)?	2.91 mL
A 12 kg dog receives IV fluids at a rate of 40 mL/kg/day. How much is that per minute? (Round answer to the nearest hundredth of a mL)	0.33 mL
A _____________ is a directive to the pharmacist for a drug to be given to a patient who is being seen in a medical office or clinic or is being discharged from a healthcare facility.	Drug prescription
A patient weights 60 kg and must receive medication at the rate of 5 mcg/kg/min. How many mcg/min should the patient receive?	300 mcg/min
Drugs in liquid form are measured by	volume
A dog weighs 22 lbs. What's the dog's weight in kilograms?	9.98 kg
How much fluid would a 7 kg cat receive in 10 hours if fluid was given at a rate of 20 mL/kg/day? (Round to the nearest tenth)	58.3 mL
Which syringe is calibrated in units rather than milliliters?	Insulin Syringe
The ____________ is a hollow cylinder that holds the medication in a syringe	barrel
A daily dosage decreases from 5 tablets to 4. What's the fraction of change and percentage in daily dosage?	1/5 or 20%
_____________ medications are drugs that can be obtained without a prescription.	Over-the-counter
A patient weighs 225 pounds. WHat's the patient's weight measured in kilograms? (Round to a whole number)	102 kg
A patient gained 15 pounds in the last year. On average, how many pounds were gained per month?	1.25 lbs
Hoe many grams of solute would be needed to prepare 2 liters of a 1:4 solution? The solute is supplied in powdered form	500 g
Dosages based on body weight are generally measured in _____________ per ______________.	milligrams; kilograms
If an animal is 5 feet 3 inches in length, that length is equal to approximately __________ centimeteres.	160
A cat weighs 4600 grams. Convert this to pounds and ounces.	10 lbs. 2 oz.
Write the ratio 1:10 as an equivalent fraction with 150 in the denominator.	15/150
A patient needs to take 2.5 ounces of cough syrup per day. How many teaspoons would be equivalent to this dosage?	15.1
A solution was diluted 120, and the final concentration was 30%. What was the original concentration?	600%
A patient received 6 tsp of a solution in one day. How many milliliters of the drug did the patient receive? Round to a whole number	30 mL
The _____ of an infusion is the volume of fluid that enters the patient over a period.	flow rate
A medication cup contains 30 milliliters of a solution. How many tablespoons are in the medication cup? Round to the nearest tablespoon.	2T
You weight out 6 lbs of dry cat food. How much is this in grams?	2721.55 g
What's the process of adjusting the dosage of a medication based on patient response?	Titration
A patient is to receive 4 ounces of a medication. How many milliliters will the patient receive?	120 mL
A patient weighs 60 kilograms. How much does the patient weigh in pounds ?	132 pounds
An insulin pump is a beeper-like, external, battery-powered device that delivers rapid-acting insulin continuously for 24 hours a day through a ______________ inserted under the skin.	cannula
Which of the following is not one of the five stages of the medication administration process?	scheduling an appointment
Heparin sodium and heparin flush solutions are different and should __________ be used interchangeably.	never
_____________ can be used to determine the amount of solute in a given amount of a solution of known strength.	Dimensional analysis
A client's bird weighs 10 oz. Convert this to grams (round to the nearest tenth)	283.5 g
A patient needs to receive 2 teaspoons of a medication per day for one week. How many milliliters of the medication must be dispensed in total?	70 mL
A 60 kg dog needs 20 mL/kg over 10 hours. What's the flow rate per hour?	120 mL/hr
The ___________ of the needle refers to the thickness of the needle and varies from 18 to 28.	gauge
What are the preferred units of measure for volume?	milliliters (mL)
A patient must receive a tube- feeding of 180 milliliters in 120 minutes. Calculate the flow rate in mL/hr	90 mL/hr
What process includes developing a list of all current medications that a patient is taking, making a list of medications to be prescribed, comparing the lists, making clinical decisions based on the comparison, and communicating the new list to appropria	medication reconciliation
A dog's head circumference is 410 mm. What's the measurement in inches? Round to the nearest tenth of an inch.	16.1 in
Find the BSA of an adult who is 165 cm tall and weighs 90 kg	2.03 m2
Convert 4 ounces per day to an equivalent rate in ounces per week.	28 oz
A decimal number less than 1, such as 0.7, is read as _____________	seven; 7/10
Atropine can be given to a dog prior to anesthesia and surgery to decrease respiratory tract secretions. The drug works by preventing the action of acetylcholine. Which of the following terms describes the pharmacological action of this drug	antagonist
Toxicity of acetaminophen in cats is due to lower glucuronidation of the drug for elimination. What pharmacokinetic action is associate with the handling of acetaminophen in cats?	biotransformation
How many mg of potassium chloride are needed to make 50 mL of a 0.3% solution?	150
What are the AVMA's six recommended practices for the disposal of unwanted pharmaceuticals?	Incinerate unwanted drugs, sent to the landfill, Never flush unwanted pharmaceuticals down the toilet or drain, Maintain close inventory control, Always follow federal and state guidelines, Educate clients on proper disposal
What is an example of a proprietary name of a drug often used in hw prevention?	heartguard
Pharmacological research data on a new drug intended to be marketed for renal disease in cats has a therapeutic index of 1.1. What can be said regarding the safety of this drug candidate?	it has a narrow margin of safety
Propylene glycol is commonly added to injectable drug solutions. What's the main function of this additive?	Increases solubility
Careful and slow administration of an oral amoxicillin dose in a weak and debilitated cat is essential. Rapid administration that doesn't allow time for swallowing can lead to what complication?	Aspiration pneumonia
A drug has an LD50 of 1000 mg/kg and ED50 of 5 mg/kg in a dog. What's the therapeutic index of this drug?	200
Extralabel use of drugs is often permitted by veterinarians under appropriate circumstances. A number of human drugs can also be used in veterinary medicine. What federal legislation provides these permissions?	Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act
What describes a 1:6 solution?	3 mL of a drug added to 15 mL of solvent
A 13 kg dog is to be administered one subcutaneous injection of 0.09 mg/lb of meloxicam that's supplied as a 5 mg/mL solution for injection. What volume of the supplied meloxicam must be given to the dog?	0.5 mL
Drug A will be given to a horse bid for 7 days by a parenteral route. Which of the following forms of administration can qualify for this treatment method?	Intramuscular injection
What's the weight in kilograms of a 22 lb. dog	9.9
A client was dispensed an antibiotic to be given to his cat twice per day for 7 days. He only gave the drug to the cat once every other day, and the ca't condition didn't improve. Which of the following pharmacokinetic conditions were not met for the trea	Distribution equilibrium
Dosing food-producing cows with chloramphenicol is prohibited because drug remaining in the meat is associated with the risk of aplastic anemia in humans. The chloramphenicol and other drugs that would remain in animal meat and consumed are...	residues
Vincristine is commonly used to treat transmissible, venereal tumors in dogs. It's very irritating to the tissues and can cause tissue sloughing if not properly administered. Which of the following routes of administration is appropriate for this drug?	intravenous
The number of online pharmacies used frequently by animal caregivers is ever increasing. What's a certification program that validates appropriate licensing of online pharmacies?	Vet-VIPPS
Buprenorphine can activate certain opioid receptors in the brain but with a lower degree of response than that seen with morphine. What type of effect is exerted by buprenorphine in this case?	partial agonist
The upper-right corner of a drug label has a code containing a capital letter C with a Roman numeral. What does this code indicate?	controlled substance
Extra-label use means:	using a drug in a way not specified by the label
The drug name that is chosen by the manufacturer and that is the exclusive property of that company is called _____________.	proprietary
What are the requirements of establishing a VCPR?	The vet takesresponsibility for making clinical judgments about the animal's health, need for treatment, and the client has agreed to follow instructions. The vet has knowledge of the animal(s) to issue a diagnosis. The vet has seen the animal recently an
substances that have the ability to become habit forming for humans are labeled:	controlled substances
A hub, shaft, and bevel are part of which of the following?	Needle
What are some conditions where compounding of a drug would be permitted ?	Existence of a valid VCPR, too long a time interval for securing the drug to treat a condition, and identification of a legitimate veterinary medical need.
1 grain (gr) = ___________mg	65
Most drug excretion occurs via what organ?	kidneys
What legislations made extra label use of approved veterinary drugs legal under specific conditions?	Animal Medicinal Drug Use Clarification Act
What is a Frick speculum?	An instrument used to help with the passage of a stomach tube
What is the fundamental unit of measurement used for weight?	gram
A 30 lb dog needs 1800 mL of 0.9% NaCl over the next 24 hours. Calculate the fluid drip rate using a standard administration set.	19 drops/min
You've noticed that drug X produces much better pain relief in a certain dog than drug Y does. What is the degree to which a drug produces its desired effect in this dog?	Efficacy
Some liquid medications can precipitate and should be gently shaken before being injected into a patient. What is descriptive of the word precipitate?	Settle out
Which agency is not an area of government that regulates animal health products?	NDC
As you're using a butterfly catheter to administer an intravenous drug, swelling begins to show at the injection site. This is likely a case of?	extravascular injection
Two forms of parenteral drug preparations are	implants and injections
Which form of drug administration typically provides local effects instead of systemic effects?	Topical
Doxycycline has been chosen as a treatment for a 1-kg Amazon parrot at the rate of 25 mg/kg b.i.d. for 7 days. The tablets on hand are 50 mg (scored). How many tablets will be given for each treatment? How many tablets will be dispensed?	0.5 tablets; 7 tablets
What fluid drip rate will you use to administer 800 mL of LRS over a 12-hour period using a micro-drip administration set?	1 drop/sec
What's a behavioral pharmacologic agent used to control anxiety and urine spraying that doesn't possess anticonvulsant or sedative effects?	Buspirone
A compound used in horses to prolong anesthesia but that has expectorant effects is ?	Guaifenesin
Xylazine is a common anesthetic used in dogs that can cause vomiting. What's the autonomic nervous system mechanism of the antidote for xylazine overdose?	Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
What's a methylxanthine drug used for bronchodilation that also has cardiac stimulatory effects?	Aminophylline
What adjunctive treatment is used to reduce the risk of thrombus formation in cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?	low-dose aspirin
Nebulized mucolytics are often used in vet medicine to reduce the thickness of respiratory secretions. Which mucolytic is used most often for this purpose, while also usable as an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?	Acetylcysteine
The dissolution and prevention of struvite uroliths in the urine can be facilitated with what change in urine quality?	increased acidification
A cat with pleural effusion was diagnosed with cardiomyopathy. What angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor can be used to treat cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?	Enalapril
A combination of acepromazine and morphine can be used to provide tranquilizing and strong analgesic effects to relieve surgical pain. What's the name for this type of drug combination?	Neuroleptanalgesic
After terminating orthopedic surgery in a cat, profound respiratory depression was noted and supported with the injection of a CNS stimulant. What is the common drug used in situations such as this.	Doxapram
Surgery to remove an intestinal foreign body is to be performed in a two-year-old dog. Induction of anesthesia will be achieved using a short-acting hypnotic, and isoflurane will be used to maintain anesthesia. What corresponds to the compound for anesthe	Propofol
As part of a workup to assess the cause of colic in a horse, the veterinarian first plans to administer the horse an anticholinergic quaternary ammonia compound to reduce peristalsis. What's used for this purpose?	Propantheline
A six-year-old Shih Tzu will begin treatment to prevent seizures that have been occurring for several months. Choose the commonly prescribed drug in tablet form that can be used alone for seizure prevention.	Phenobarbital
What value is a measure of inhalant anesthetic potency?	MAC
Chronic renal failure is associated with a reduction in erythropoietin production, which is necessary to stimulate RBC production by the bone marrow. What's a treatment that can promote RBC production with renal-failure-induced anemia?	Testosterone enanthate
Dormosedan Gel is a brand of detomidine given to horses by the sublingual route for analgesia and sedation. What's a possible adverse effect of this drug?	Bradycardia
A six-month old dog has had diarrhea for two days and shows signs of mild dehydration. The dog was prescribed the narcotic diphenoxylate. What's a possible adverse effect that can occur with this antidiarrheal agent?	Constipation
What are two primary goals of dietary management of heart disease in animals?	Dietary sodium restriction and weight control
As pet caregivers become more aware of the importance of animal dental care, more products with a variety of methods to improve dental health are available. what method helps to reduce or prevent calculus buildup on teeth?	dry kibble
Chlopromazine is phenothiazine-derivative that blocks dopamine in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CRTZ). What clinical sign can be relived with this drug?	Vomiting
1. Different types of bacteria can be distinguished with the use of a ______________________ stain.	Gram
2. Gram-positive bacteria will stain what color?	Blue
3. Gram-negative bacteria will stain what color?	Red
4. ______________________ is approved for use in lactating dairy animals.	Naxcel
5. ______________________ can cause staining of teeth in young animals.	Tetracyclines
6. ______________________ should never be given intravenously to horses.	Tetracycline
7. Some aminoglycosides may be __________________toxic and/or ______________________ toxic.	Oto-, nephro-
8. Griseofulvin is used to treat ________________.	Dermatophytosis
9. A drug’s ______________________ of activity is the range of bacteria affected by its action.	Spectrum
10. Aerobes are bacteria that require oxygen to live. True or False	True
11. A fungicidal agent inhibits the growth of fungi. True or False	False
12. A bacteriostatic agent inhibits the growth of bacteria. True or False	True
13. Penicillin-G benzathine is a long-acting antibiotic that is approved for use in dairy animals. True or False	False
14. Doxycycline is classified as a(n)_____________.	tetracycline
15. Enrofloxacin is a _______________________.	fluoroquinolone
16. Describe the difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic.	Disinfectants are antimicrobial agents used on inanimate objects to destroy microorganisms. Antiseptics are antimicrobial agents used on living tissue to inactivate or destroy microorganisms.
17. What is the term for an agent that kills bacteria?	Bactericidal
18. What class of antibiotic drug should only be given to adult (mature) animals as administration in young animals can result in alterations in cartilage growth?	Fluoroquinalones
19. What drug would be contraindicated in an animal with otitis interna and renal disease?	Aminoglycosides
20. What is a good antibiotic choice for treating stomatitis?	Clindamycin
21. Some bacteria produce an enzyme called __________ that degrades penicillin.	Beta-lactamase
22. A bacteria can mutate or develop resistance to drugs due to what factors?	overuse of an antibiotic, low doses of antibiotics, not following the full course of antibiotics
23. Monitoring tear production may be indicated when a patient is on long-term treatment of which antibiotic?	Sulfonamides
24. A Border collie weighs 15 lb . The dog is infected with Isospora canis. The vet orders sulfadimethoxine to tx. The dosage is 55 mg/kg PO on the first day, then 27.5 mg/kg PO for 9 days. On hand are 250-mg tablets. How many tablets should be dispensed	10.5 tablets; Day 1: 15 lb = 6.82 kg × 55 mg/kg = 375.1 mg × tablet/250 mg = 1.5 tablets; remaining 9 days: 6.82 kg × 27.5 mg/kg = 187.55 mg × 1 tablet/250 mg = 0.75 tabs ∼1 tablet/day × 9 days = 9 tablets; 1.5 tablets + 9 tablets = 10.5 tablets
25. A Holstein cow w/ bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV) needs tx The vet orders tilmicosin at a dosage of 10 mg/kg SC. On hand is a parenteral prod. w/ a concentration of 300 mg/mL. If the cow weighs 900 lb, how many mL for treatment?	13.6 mL; 900 lb = 409.09 kg × 10 mg/kg = 4090.9 mg × mL/300 mg = 13.6 mL
1. Name five types of symbiotic relationships.	Predator–prey, commensalism, mutualism, phoresis, and parasitism
2. What is parasitiasis?	Parasitiasis occurs when an animal is infected with parasites, but no clinical signs can be observed.
3. What is parasitosis?	Parasitosis occurs when an animal is infected with parasites, and clinical signs can be observed.
4. What are ectoparasites?	Ectoparasites infest the outside of the body.
5. What are endoparasites?	Endoparasites infect the inside of the body.
6. An animal with endoparasites is said to be __________________, and an animal with ectoparasites is said to be ______________________.	Infected; infested
7. What is an anthelmintic?	An anthelmintic is administered to rid the body of endoparasites.
8. ______________________ dips should never be used on cats.	Organophosphate
9. IGR is an acronym for ___________________.	Insect growth regulator
10. Praziquantel is a drug that is used to rid the body of ______________________.	Tapeworms
11. Explain the difference between an anthelmintic that is a vermicide and a vermifuge.	A vermicide kills the parasite and a vermifuge paralyzes the parasite and gets expelled from the gastrointestinal tract into the feces.
12. What is the name of the antidote used for organophosphate poisoning?	Atropine
13. Drontal plus contains what three ingredients to remove roundworms, hookworms, tapeworms, and whipworms?	Praziquantel, pyrantel pamoate, and febantel
14. Ivermectin, moxidectin, and doramectin are in the _______________ class.	avermectin
15. All the following are monthly heartworm preventives, except ________________.a. milbemycin oxime b. selamectin c. Heartgard Plus d. diethylcarbamazine	diethylcarbamazine
16. _________________ is a topical solution that controls ascarids, hookworms, and tapeworms in felines.	Emodepside/praziquantel (Profender)
17. An arsenic compound administered by deep intramuscular injection in the lumbar region is _____.	melarsomine dihydrochloride
18. Albendazole is the active ingredient found in _________.	Valbazen
19. An organophosphate is a substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting the enzyme cholinesterase. True or False	True
20. Advantage has greater efficacy against ____, and Frontline has greater efficacy against ____.	fleas; ticks
21. _________ are parasitic worms, including intestinal roundworms, filarial worms, lungworms, kidney worms, heartworms, and others.	Nematodes
22. When a dog has heartworm disease, what is meant by the term Wolbachia?	Wolbachia are gram negative intracellular bacteria living in the body of the immature and adult worm. They play an important role in the worm’s survival of the disease.
23. A 1700-lb Angus bull needs to be dewormed with albendazole liquid. On hand in the pharmacy is albendazole (113.6 mg/mL). The dose is 10 mg/kg PO. How many milliliters should be obtained to treat this bull?	68 mL; 1700 lb = 772.73 kg × 10 mg/kg = 7727.3 mg × 1 mL/113.6 mg = 68 mL
24. A heifer-calf weighs 120 lb has Eimeria zurnii. The vet orders amprolium. On hand is Corid liquid (9.6%). The dosage is 10 mg/kg PO-5 days. Then, The dosage is 5 mg/kg for 21 days. How many mL should be dispensed for prophylactic tx?	58.8 mL; 120 lb = 54.55 kg × 5 mg/kg = 272.75 mg × 1 mL/96 mg = 2.84 ~ 2.8 mL × 21 days = 58.8 mL
25. A dog has Dipylidium caninum. The dog weighs 22.4 lb. The dosage is 68 mg. On hand is the right drug to use, and it has a concentration of 34 mg per tablet. What drug should be used for this patient? How many tablets should be dispensed for one dose?	praziquantel; 2 tablets: 68 mg × 1 tab/34 mg = 2 tablets
1. Pain sensation arises in free nerve endings called ______________________.	Nociceptors
2. List some signs associated with pain in animals.	Increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, vocalization, guarding the painful site, restlessness, salivation, failure to groom, unresponsiveness, abnormal gait, abnormal stance, and rolling
3. NSAIDs that preferentially inhibit ____________ are thought to produce fewer GI side effects.	COX-2
4. What is the most common side effect of the NSAIDs?	Gastrointestinal irritation, leading to ulcerations and bleeding, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are the most common side effects. Other effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and bleeding tendencies.
5. Why are cats so susceptible to aspirin overdose?	Cats metabolize aspirin very slowly.
6. Phenylbutazone should be administered parenterally by the subcutaneous route only. True or False	False
7. What Class II opioid is administered via transdermal patch?	Fentanyl
8. Corticosteroid therapy involves treatment of the signs of disease and often cures the disease as well. True or False	False
9. What function do mineralocorticoids serve in the body?	These substances regulate electrolyte and water balance in the body.
10. List some principles that should be followed concerning corticosteroid therapy.	Alternate-day dosing may help prevent iatrogenic hypoadrenocorticism; admin. should be tapered off gradually; very large doses may be used in certain emergency situation; corticosteroids should be avoided when corneal ulcers are tx; aseptic for joint inj.
11. What does the term iatrogenic mean?	Caused by the treatment/doctor
12. Describe the side effects of short-term and long-term corticosteroid use.	Short-term effects of corticosteroid use include polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and delayed healing. Long-term effects include thinning of the skin, gastric ulcers, osteoporosis, and iatrogenic Cushing’s disease.
13. What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetic agents?	Local anesthetics prevent generation and conduction of nerve impulses by peripheral nerves.
14. What are some indications for the use of local anesthetics?	Local anesthetics are used for infiltrating into local areas for suturing wounds, for nerve blocks (lameness examination), for antiarrhythmic effects, for topical use, and others.
15. The body is able to produce its own opiate-like analgesic agents called _____________________.	endorphins
16. Flunixin meglumine is a(an) _____________.	NSAID
17. DMSO causes ___________ when applied topically.	vasodilation
18. List the four steps involved in the production of pain sensation.	Transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception
19. Define windup as it applies to pain production.	Central sensitization/hyperalgesia due to repeated stimulation of neurons of the spinothalamic tract
20. Pain resulting from tissue injury is called _________________________pain.	Pathologic
21. List a class of drug that would alter pain recognition and perception.	Opioids
22. Pain control that utilizes a combination of drugs acting at different sites in the pain production pathways is called _______________________therapy.	Multimodal
23. An 80-lb dog will be treated with carprofen for osteoarthritis at 4.4 mg/kg once a day. Rimadyl chewable tablets (100 mg) will be used. How many tablets will you give with each dose?	1.5 tablets; 80 lb = 36.36 kg × 4.4 mg/kg = 159.98 mg × tab/100 mg = 1.59 tablets ∼1.5 tablets
24. An 8-lb cat will be treated for postsurgical pain with buprenorphine at a dosage of 0.02 mg/kg. Buprenex injectable (0.3 mg/mL) will be given by buccal administration. How much Buprenex will you draw up?	0.23 mL; 8 lb = 3.64 kg × 0.02 mg/kg = 0.07 mg × mL/0.3 mg = 0.23 mL
25. Prep a morphine CRI (constant rate infusion) for a 30-lb dog. The morphine (15 mg/mL) will be dosed at 2 mcg/kg/min. It will be added to a 500 mL bag of saline at a rate of 30 mL/h. What V of morphine will add to the saline? Use the CRI formula	1.8 mL M = {D × W × V} {R × 16.67} M = 2 × 13.64 × 500/30 x 16.67 = 13,640/500.1 = 27.28 mg 27.28 mg × mL/15 mg = 1.82 ~ 1.8 mL
1. Define hyperkalemia.	Hyperkalemia is an excess of potassium in the blood.
2. Intravascular fluid (plasma) makes up approximately ______________________ of body weight.	5%
3. Explain the concept of a balanced solution for fluid therapy.	A fluid solution is balanced if it resembles extracellular fluid in composition.
4. What are three units of measurement used for quantifying electrolytes in fluids?	mEq/L, mOsm/L, and g/100 mL
5. Give examples of sensible and insensible fluid losses.	Sensible losses are primarily represented by urine losses. (In a research setting, fecal losses might be considered sensible because they can be measured.) Insensible losses include fecal, sweat, and respiratory losses.
6. Underestimation of the degree of dehydration is sometimes a problem in ________________ animals.	Obese animals
7. The three volumes that are calculated to arrive at the total fluid therapy volume are ______________________.	Hydration deficit, maintenance requirement, and ongoing losses
8. Calculate the total volume of fluid needed (in 24 hours) for a 44-lb dog that is 6% dehydrated and is losing 100 mL of fluid daily through vomiting. The maintenance fluid rate is 2 mL/kg/h.	2260 mL/day; see book for solution
9. What drip rate, in drops/min, should be used to deliver (over a 24-hour period) the fluid for the dog in question 8 (using a standard administration set)?	24 gtt/min; 2260 mL/day = 94.17 ~ 94 mL/h 24 h 94 mL/h × 15 gtt/mL = 1410 drops/h × 1 h/60 min = 23.5 ~ 24 gtt/min
10. Describe how you would set up the first bag of fluids for the dog in question 8.	clear sol. Intact cover, remove cover-don't contam. Close clamp, remove cover from spike. Wipe port w/ an alcohol, insert into port. Hang bag, fill line- no bubbles. Close flow clamp, attach adapt to IV- sterile tech. Open clamp, adj flow rate.
11. Tell how you would prepare 500 mL of 5% dextrose from a 50% stock solution.	Draw 50 mL from the bottle of 50% dextrose solution and add it to 450 mL of water.
12. What is the purpose of the lactate in lactated Ringer’s solution?	Lactate is added to help correct acidosis in a patient. Lactate is converted to bicarbonate (alkaline) by the liver.
13. Give an example of a balanced solution and an example of an unbalanced solution.	Balanced- Lactated Ringer’s solution, Normosol-R, and Plasma-Lyte. Unbalanced-0.9% Sodium Chloride (saline), Dextrose 5% in water, Dextrose 2.5% with 0.45% Saline, and half-strength Lactated Ringer’s solution with 2.5% Dextrose.
14. ______________________ is a determination of the osmotic pressure of a solution based on the relative number of solute particles in 1 kg of the solution.	Osmolality
15. What is the longest time an IV catheter should remain in place before it is replaced?	96 hours
16. What precaution should be observed when fluids are administered subcutaneously?	Avoid hypertonic or irritating solutions, and avoid placing so much fluid at one site that the skin is dissected from its blood supply, causing a slough of tissue.
17. Any product that contains the electrolyte ______________________ should be given by slow IV administration to prevent cardiac complications.	Calcium
18. ______________________ is decreased body pH caused by excess hydrogen ions in the extracellular fluid.	Metabolic acidosis
19. ______________________ are solutions containing electrolyte and nonelectrolyte substances that are capable of passing through cell membranes and therefore capable of entering all body fluid compartments.	Crystalloids
20. Vitamin A is an organic alcohol that is converted from plant substances called carotenoids in the intestine and liver and is stored primarily in the ______________________. It is needed for maintenance of visual pigments in the retina.	liver
21. An adult dog weighing 44 lb needs maintenance fluids given. A standard drip set will be used for infusion of fluids. What is the volume of fluids needed for one day? What is the drip rate in drops/minute? ___________________________________	960 mL/day, 10 gtt/min; Rule of thumb for maintenance in dogs is 2–6 mL/kg/h. Using the low end of maintenance as 2 mL/kg/h you can figure out the problem. See book for solution
22. What maintenance volume of fluid is needed for one day for an 11-lb cat that is 5% dehydrated? What flow rate in mL/h would you use? ___________________________________	490 mL/day, 20 mL/h; see book for solution
23. An 88-lb dog is vomiting/diarrhea and is 7% dehydration. The est fluid loss is 200 mL/day. What is the total fluid volume for a 24-hour period? Using a standard drip set, what is the drip rate in drops/second? ___________________________________	4920 mL/day, 1 gtt/sec: see book for solution
24. What is the total fluid volume needed for (24 hours) for a 9-lb puppy that is 5% dehydrated and losing 50 mL per day as diarrhea? A microdrip set will be used, what is the flow rate in mL/h that you would use? ___________________________________	456 mL/day, 19 mL/h: See book for solution
25. What is the fluid volume needed for 24 hrs for a 120-lb dog with 10% dehydration and no ongoing fluid loss? What fluid V in mL to deliver 1/4 of the total fluid V over a 24-hour period? W/ a standard drip set, what's the flow rate in drops/min?	2020 mL/day (1/4 of total volume), 21 gtt/min: see book for solution
1. Anemia in baby pigs can be treated by the administration of ______________________.	Iron compounds
2. A 10-year-old cocker spaniel is brought to the veterinary clinic with polyuria/polydipsia and mild anemia. What is a potential cause of these signs, and what may be used to treat the anemia?	Chronic renal failure; erythropoietin
3. Why are hematinics not indicated for cases of acute blood loss?	Because a patient’s response to hematinics does not occur quickly enough
4. What is the anticoagulant of choice for collecting blood for hematologic studies?	EDTA
5. How can you explain the fact that clots may form in the vascular system with no external trauma to blood vessels?	Because of the existence of an intrinsic clotting mechanism
6. You have accidentally cut the quick of a Rottweiler puppy’s nail. What would you use to stop the bleeding, and how does this agent work?	A silver nitrate stick; through coagulation of blood proteins
7. A 3-month-old Chow is brought to the pet emergency clinic because it has eaten a box of rat poison. What drug would the veterinarian use to treat this condition, and by what route would it be administered?	Vitamin K1; SC or IM. High dose vitamin K must be admin for sev weeks after exposure to replace. Depending, supportive care may need to include IV fluid therapy, blood transfusions. Clotting time tests must be performed after discont vitamin K.
8. An 8-year-old male Persian cat is brought in with an early onset of apparent rear leg paralysis and tachycardia. The veterinarian determines that there is a thromboembolism occluding the vessel. What agent may be used to treat this condition?	A fibrinolytic agent such as streptokinase
9. Briefly describe the phases of the cell cycle.	G0, resting; G1, presynthesis preparation; S, DNA synthesis; G2, RNA production; and M, mitosis
10. List the six categories of antineoplastic drugs.	Alkylating agents; anthracyclines; antimetabolites; antitubulin agents; corticosteroids; miscellaneous agents
11. A 12-yr old Labrador retriever has been diagnosed with melanoma, the owner has opted for the use of a BRM vaccine. What agent could be used in this case?	Canine Melanoma vaccine
12. List four indications for the use of immunosuppressive agents.	Treatment of autoimmune hemolytic anemia, treatment of lymphocytic–plasmacytic enteritis, treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, and treatment of lupus erythematosus
13 Why should you be very careful to avoid extravasation of antineoplastic drugs?	Because most antineoplastic drugs are very irritating to tissue and may cause sloughing
14. List eight precautions that should be taken when antineoplastic drugs are handled.	Desig. local. chemo gloves/gown/mask. close-syst drug transf. gloves admin PO. Sep biohaz/sharps. Label haz drugs. label chemo warn. Reconst. careful avoid aeros. date/time/concentr. Spill kit avail. area clean after. Chemo in F/U/V/blood; glove clean.
15. ______________________ digests fibrin threads and other clotting products to cause clot lysis and the release of fibrin degradation products into the circulation.	Plasmin
16. Which anticoagulant may be used to treat DIC?	Heparin
17. Why should heparin not be used as an anticoagulant when blood is collected for performance of a differential count?	It may distort the white blood cells, making identification difficult.
18. How does EDTA work as an anticoagulant?	It chelates (binds with) calcium.
19. On what dosage are most antineoplastic agents based?	Body surface area
20. Corticosteroids have a lympholytic action, which makes them useful for treating what type of neoplasia?	lymphoid neoplasia
21. Cardiomyopathy is a potential side effect of what antineoplastic agent?	Doxorubicin
22. Vitamin ______________________ is an antidote for warfarin or dicumarol toxicity.	K1
23. A 60-lb dog with a mast cell tumor is being treated with a protocol that includes vincristine at a dosage of 0.5 mg/m2. The concentration of the vincristine is 1 mg/mL. How many milliliters would you draw up?	0.45 mL: 60 lb = 27.27 kg ~ 27 kg × 0.909 m2 × 0.5 mg/m2 = 0.45 mg × mL/1 mg = 0.45 mL
24. A 10-lb cat with rodenticide toxicity needs vitamin K1 treatment at a dosage of 5 mg/kg. The concentration of the vitamin K1 is 10 mg/mL. How much would you draw up?	2.28 mL: 10 lb = 4.55 kg × 5 mg/kg = 22.75 mg × mL/10 mg = 2.28 mL
25. How many milliliters of heparin (1000 Units/mL) would you add to a 250-mL bag of saline to prepare a concentration of 5 Units/mL?	V1 × C1 = V2 × C2 V1 × 1000 Units/mL= 250 mL × 5 Units/mL V1 (1000) = 1250 V1 = 1.25 mL
1. Immunizations should never take the place of regularly scheduled ______________________.	Routine checkups
2. What six factors may determine an animal’s response to immunization?	Health/age; type of vaccine administered; route of administration; concurrent incubation of infectious disease; exposure to an infectious disease before immunity is reached; drug therapy
3. What is an inactivated vaccine?	An inactivated vaccine has organisms commonly treated by chemicals to kill the organism, but very little change occurs in the antigens that stimulate protective immunity.
4. What is a live vaccine?	A live vaccine is prepared from live microorganisms or viruses.
5. What is a modified live vaccine?	Modified live vaccine has organisms that have undergone a process (attenuation) to lose their virulence so that, when inoculated into the body, they cause an immune response instead of disease.
6. What is a toxoid?	A toxoid is a vaccine used in producing immunity to a toxin rather than to a bacterium or virus.
7. What is an antitoxin?	An antitoxin is a specific antiserum aimed against a toxin that contains a concentration of antibodies extracted from blood plasma of a hyperimmunized, healthy animal (usually a horse).
8. When a shipment of vaccine arrives at a veterinary facility, what should occur immediately?	The contents should be unpacked and placed in the refrigerator.
9. What is the difference between a core and noncore vaccine?	Core vaccines are recomm for most animals to protect from highly contagious diseases -widespread. Noncore vaccines are opt. vaccines that are considered for animals at risk for developing disease based on geographic location and lifestyle of the animal.
10. What are the recommended sites and routes of administration for feline distemper series, feline leukemia, and rabies vaccines?	Feline distemper series is given SQ on lateral right front leg. FeLV or FIV is given SQ on the lateral left hind leg, distal to the stifle. Rabies vaccine is given subcutaneous on the lateral side of the right hind leg distal to the stifle.
11. Explain how vaccines should be stored and handled.	All vaccines must be stored according to instruct. Most require frige. stored in original packaging to protect from sunlight/maintained at optimal temp. organized according to their expiration date with the earliest date in front of the others.
12. List some potential adverse vaccine reactions that may occur in the dog and cat.	Some animals- hypersensitivity, anaphylactic shock, vomit, salivation, dyspnea, incoord. Common reaction-slight fever, lethargy, soreness at inj site. Other reactions include vaccine-assoc fibrosarcoma in cats/immune-mediated hemolytic anemia in dogs.
13. What type of immunity protects newborn animals against disease?	Passive immunity
14. What is immunotherapy?	Using drugs to stimulate the body’s immune response to disease
15. ______________________ is a complex carbohydrate derived from aloe vera.	Acemannan
16. Vaccines are all that is needed to implement a comprehensive health care plan for animals. True or False	False
17. All the following are important factors in a patient’s response to vaccine, except _____. a. health and age b. the type of vaccine given c. the route of administration d. administering a medicated bath before vaccination to clean the skin’s surface	administering a medicated bath before vaccination to clean the skin’s surface
18. In the manufacture of _____ vaccines, organisms are treated most commonly by chemicals that kill the organisms, but very little change occurs in the antigens that stimulate protective immunity.	inactivated (dead)
19. A ______ vaccine is prepared from live microorganisms or viruses. These organisms may be fully virulent or avirulent. Few vaccines of this origin are in use.	live
20. In _________ vaccines, organisms undergo a process (attenuation) to lose their virulence so that, when introduced to the body via inoculation, they cause an immune response instead of disease.	modified live
21. A(an) _______ vaccine is a specific antiserum aimed at a toxin that contains a concentration of antibodies extracted from the blood serum or plasma of a hyperimmunized animal (usually a horse).	antitoxin
22. Most vaccines for small animals are most commonly administered by what route?	subcutaneous
23. All the following may be signs of anaphylaxis, except _____. a. vomiting b. blepharospasm c. salivation d. dyspnea	blepharospasm
24. Bordetella bronchiseptica is a vaccine administered to _____. a. equines b. dogs c. cats d. both a and b e. both b and c	both b and c
25. Borrelia burgdorferi is an example of a _________ vaccine.	recombinant
1. Glycosaminoglycans occur naturally in what part(s) of the body?	Articular cartilage and connective tissue
2. What role do glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) provide in the treatment of degenerative joint conditions?	GAGs act as chondroprotective agents.
3. Define nutraceutical. Give an example.	A neutraceutical is any nontoxic food component that has scientifically proven health benefits, including disease treatment and prevention. Glucosamine/chondroitin sulfate
4. A product usually is determined to be a drug if its label has a claim that indicates a therapeutic or preventive intent.True or False	True
5. What Act defined dietary supplements, such as vitamins, minerals, amino acids, herbal products, and substances that supplement the diet by increasing total dietary intake, as “food” and excluded them from FDA regulation?	The Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994
6. What is the purpose of the NASC and what do they provide to animal supplement manufacturers?	The NASC provides animal supplement manufacturers with guidelines for product quality assurance, adverse event reporting, and labeling standards. They help elevate and standardize the animal health supplement industry.
7. Cosequin and Glycoflex are tradenames for what type of supplement?	Glucosamine and Chondroitin supplements
8. What is the tradename for polysulfated glycosaminoglycans?	Adequan
9. Which supplement is used to support the cardiovascular system in domestic animals? a. Superoxide dismutase b. S-adenosylmethionine c. Fatty acids d. Coenzyme Q	Coenzyme Q
10. ______________________ supplementation has been shown to be useful in treating certain dermatology conditions in dogs and cats.	Omega-6 and omega-3 fatty acid
11. What are two possible side effects of using fatty acids as a dietary supplement?	Increased bleeding time and possible decreased immune function
12. Petroleum jelly is not recommended as a lubricant because it is not ______________________.	Water-soluble
13. A dietary supplement for support of normal structure and function of the liver is ______________________.	S-adenosylmethionine
14. Botanicals are available from suppliers in what three forms?	Dried bulk, dried extracts, and liquid extracts
15. __________ is a plant native to Africa and is used primarily to treat burns and skin inflammation.	Aloe
16. What factors should be discussed with clients about the use of herbal products?	herbal prod discuss w/ vet. purchase prod from manufacture approve by NASC. prod eval info-Consumer Lab website. follow dosage. Herbs can harmful interact w/ drugs. may cause bleeding during sx. Adverse SE- report Vet Botanical Medicine Assoc/ manufact.
17. __________ is used as a hemostatic to relieve bleeding in inoperable abdominal hemangiosarcoma.	Yunnan Bai Yao
18. Echinacea may be used concurrently via the intraarticular route to prevent infections resulting from possible contamination. True or False	False
19. Petroleum jelly (Vaseline) is an excellent choice for use in veterinary medicine because it is not easily rinsed from instruments and thereby prolongs the life of those instruments. True or False	False
20. The order for a 65-lb arthritic dog is 5 mg/kg of Adequan (100 mg/mL). What quantity would you draw up for IM injection?	1.48 mL; 65 lb = 29.55 kg × 5 mg/kg = 147.75 mg × mL/100 mg = 1.48 mL
1. What is inventory?	Inventory is the quantity of goods present in the veterinary facility.
2. Name the five principles used to control expenses:	Develop a budget; keep abreast of expenses on a regular basis; once a system has been put in place, keep it active; budget analysis should mirror the practice’s philosophy; analyzing expenses provides a comprehensive view of the condition of the practice
3. When dealing with inventory, it is crucial to remember that time is ______________________.	Money
4. Define the term “turnover.”	The number of times a product is used and replenished each year.
5. Calculate the turnover rate by using the following information: Yearly inventory expense = $125,000; average cost of inventory on hand = $31,250.	Four turns
6. Calculate the average cost of inventory on hand by using the following information: Year’s beginning inventory = $75,000; year’s ending inventory = $130,000.	$102,500
7. Name two objectives of an inventory control system.	Make sure items are on hand when needed, and minimize the expense of keeping items in stock.
8. What is a packing slip?	A packing slip is found in the carton in which freight is shipped. It documents how many of each item is shipped. It may or may not include the prices of the item(s), although most commonly it does not.
9. What is an invoice?	An invoice is documentation of an order shipped to the veterinary hospital. It may or may not accompany the packing slip in the shipping carton.
10. What is a statement?	A statement is most commonly mailed to the veterinary practice. It documents the items received by the hospital and the amount due on account. Commonly, it must be paid within 30 days so that no late fees are incurred by the business.
11. What is the reorder point?	The point at which a product is allowed to be sold or used in-house before new product is ordered
12. Why is recording the expiration date and serial number for rabies vaccine so important?	This number is included on the rabies certificate given to the client; also, rabies is a zoonotic disease, and the veterinarian must account for the expiration date of the vaccine and the serial number.
13. Once the reorder point is reached, a basic rule of thumb is to order a ______________________month supply.	one
14. List some rules for filling out a DEA form.	All information on the form must be correct, no cross outs are allowed, no liquid correction fluid or tape can be used, must have correct spelling, must have correct drug strength, and must have the veterinarian’s signature on the form.
15. Time = Money. True or False	True
16. A mean turnover rate of _____ is acceptable for most veterinary practices.	8
17. Inventory should be placed on pharmacy shelves in such a way so as to ensure _____.	FIFO
18. DEA forms are issued by _____.	the federal government
19. The expiration date and the serial number of rabies vaccine administered must be recorded on each pet’s rabies certificate. True or False	True
20. When a DEA form is used to order a controlled substance, it is acceptable to draw a line through a misspelled word and then write it correctly beside the mistake. True or False	False
21. The percent difference between the actual cost of an item and the price the item sold for is called:	Markup
22. Why is it important to perform an actual physical inventory of items?	Monitoring overstock, accurate inventory of items on hand, and identifying expired items. Also accounts for discrepancies (lost or stolen inventory), and inventory that needs to be purchased.
23. Why is it important to have the person who placed the order also unpack the freight order?	The person that placed the order will know immediately if the order is incorrect.
24. What process should be used when stocking shelves with newly received items?	Stock should be rotated with newly received items being placed behind older items so that older items are used before the expiration date.
25. Inventory reports printed off from the practice management software system can be used for what purpose?	The inventory reports can be used to compare quantities actually on hand with what should be on hand, reorder points, up-to-date amounts of each item sold, and sale trends during certain months of the year.
1. What is the goal of triage in an emergency?	The goal is to identify the most serious life-threatening conditions first, so that immediate medical attention can be initiated.
2. List emergency drugs that are commonly stocked in a crash cart?	Atropine/aminophylline/theophylline diph/dobutamine/digoxin, dopamine/doxapram/dextrose/epi, albuterol, furosemide, mannitol, hydralazine, nitroglycerin, lidocaine, procainamide, propanolol, atenolol, vasopressin, prednisolone, dex, Na bicarb, reversals
3. How often should a crash cart be checked to be sure it is fully stocked and no medications are expired?a. Every 6 months b. Monthly c. After each use d. Both a & b	after each use
4. A 2-year-old beagle has clinical signs of lead toxicity and a history to support the diagnosis. Which agent would be the drug of choice for treating this condition?	Calcium EDTA
5. Which of the following is a central nervous system stimulant used in emergency situations during or after anesthesia where respirations are decreased and on apneic neonates? a. Doxapram b. Aminophylline c. Dobutamine d. Dopamine	Doxapram
6. Which emergency drug is given to a patient in cardiac arrest?	Epinephrine
7. What diuretic is administered to an animal with cerebral edema associated with head trauma?	Mannitol
8. Which inotropic drug is used to increase the force of cardiac muscle contractions with little or no increase in heart rate?	Dobutamine
9. Yohimbine HCl is a reversal agent for _____.	Rompun
10. Name four drugs that naloxone effectively reverses.	Oxymorphone, Torbugesic, Talwin-V, and Nubain and other opioids
11. BAL has been admin to a 4-year-old dog for arsenic poisoning. Which of the laboratory tests should be monitored closely? a. Packed cell volume (PCV) b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. White blood cell count (WBC) d. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)	blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
12. What is activated charcoal used for?	To prevent or reduce the systemic absorption of ingested drugs or toxins
13. In veterinary medicine, calcium EDTA is used primarily for the treatment of ______________________.	Lead poisoning
14. ______________________ is a narcotic antagonist used for the treatment, prevention, or control of narcotic depression.	Naloxone
15. Grain alcohol may be used to treat what poisoning?	Ethylene glycol (antifreeze)
16. It is permissible to use calcium EDTA in anuric patients. True or False	False
17. Calcium EDTA can be administered orally. True or False	False
18. __________ is a central-acting CNS depressant and is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus.	Diazepam
19. The antidote for organophosphate poisoning is:	atropine
20. Methylene blue should not be used in cats. True or False	True
21. Sodium bicarbonate is contraindicated in the treatment of metabolic acidosis. True or False	False
22. Naloxone reverses the effects of butorphanol, pentazocine, and nalbuphine. True or False	True
23. A 48-lb dog needs treatment for postanesthetic respiratory depression with naloxone (0.4 mg/mL). The dosage ordered is 0.02 mg/kg. What quantity (in milliliters) would you give?	1.1 mL; 44 lb = 21.82 kg × 0.02 mg/kg = 0.44 mg × mL/0.4 mg = 1.1 mL
24. A 455-kg horse requires reversal of xylazine sedation with yohimbine (2 mg/mL). The reversal dosage for yohimbine in horses is 0.075 mg/kg. How many milliliters would you draw up?	17 mL; 455 kg × 0.075 mg/kg = 34.13 mg × mL/2 mg = 17.1 ~ 17 mL
25. Prepare an injection of phytonadione (vitamin K1) for an 80-lb dog that has ingested rodenticide. The dosage ordered is 2 mg/kg and the concentration of the K1 solution is 10 mg/mL. What quantity will you draw up?	7.3 mL; 80 lb = 36.36 kg × 2 mg/kg = 72.72 mg × mL/10 mg = 7.27 ~ 7.3 mL
Alkylating agent examples	Alkylating agents: cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan), chlorambucil (Leukeran), melphalan (Alkeran), Nitrosoureas, lomustine, carmustine, dacarbazine, ifosfamide (Ifex)
anthracycline examples	anthracyclines: doxorubicin (Adriamycin), bleomycin (Blenoxane), dactinomycin (Cosmegan), mitoxantrone (Novantrone)
antimetabolite examples	antimetabolites: methotrexate (Mexate), cytosine arabinoside (Cytarabine), 5-Fluorouracil (Adrucil)
antitubulin agent examples	antitubulin agents: vinblastine (Velban), vincristine (Oncovin), vinorelbine (Navelbine)
corticosteroid examples	corticosteroids: prednisone
miscellaneous antineoplastic agent examples	miscellaneous agents: cisplatin (Platinol), carboplatin (Paraplatin), asparaginase (Elspar)
What's a behavioral pharmacologic agent used to control anxiety and urine spraying that doesn't possess anticonvulsant or sedative efects?	Buspirone
A compound used in horses to prolong anesthesia but that has expectorant effects is	guaifenesin
Xylazine is a common anesthetic used in dogs that can cause vomiting. What's the autonomic nervous system mechanism of the antidote for xylazine overdose?	Alpha-adrenergic antagonist
What's a methylxanthine drug used for bronchodilation that also has cardiac stimulatory effects?	Aminophylline
A dog w/ generalized demodicosis was tx w/ amitraz. He began to show signs of sedation & dilated pupils. Further exam revealed a slowed HR & decreased body temp. What can be admin. to address this?	Yohimbine
Benzoyl peroxide is a topical antimicrobial agent that can be used in animals for a # of skin conditions. In which of the following situations can a benzoyl peroxide shampoo be useful?	Schnauzer comedo syndrome
A 2 yr old cat was presented to the clinic b/c of self-inflicted lesions on various aspects of the ear pinnas & frequent ear scratching. A PE showed bilateral presence of dark-colored ceruminous exudate & otitis externa. Which drug can tx this in a cat?	Cerumite 3x
The canine product Advantage Multi contains imidacloprid with moxidectin. What's the action of moxidectin in this product?	serves as an anthelmintic
A dog came in b/c he was nearly obese w/o an increase in appetite. After PE and diagnostic work, the dog was diagnosed w/hypothyroidism. Which drug would be an appropriate choice for treatment?	Levothyroxine
Gonadotropin drugs mimic the actions of endogenous gonadotropins such as gonadotropin-releasing hormone, luteinizing hormone, or follicle-stim hormone. What drug is a gonadotropin used to tx cryptorchidism assoc. w/ low testosterone levels in males?	hCG injection (Chorulon)
Why is it best to use an Elizabethan collar in cats tx with lime sulfur for dermatophytosis?	to prevent oral and GI side effects from lime sulfur ingestion
A feline patient with hyperadrenocorticism will be prepared for an adrenalectomy. What drug is most appropriate for this cat for pre-surgery treatment?	Metyrapone
What antiglaucoma drug should be avoided in cats with asthma?	Brinzolamide
One of your clients reported her hose repeatedly begins to rub his left eye on his leg every few months or so. There's lacrimation, and the tissue around the eye becomes swollen. What's a drug that can be useful for the horse?	Lodoxamide tromethamine
What is the reason that stranozolol is a Class III controlled substance?	Potential for abuse by athletes
Dermoscent ATOP 7 is a topical essential fatty acid product with anti-inflammatory and antipruritic properties. Which of the following molecules is affected in the body by this type of product?	Arachidonic acid
The vet team will evaluate a male dog that was presented b/c of a week-old, superficial, corneal lesion of the right eye that appears to be an ulcer. What substance can be used in an ophthalmic exam to help assess the corneal lesion?	Fluorescein stain
What's the topical opthalmic agent ommonly used to treat dogs with keratitis caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?	Gentamicin sulfate
Zymox Tropical Spray is an enzymatic product used for skin infections due to microorganisms such as Pseudomonas app. and Malassezia spp. Which of the following is found in topical enzymes?	Lysozyme
What's a current use for melatonin in vet medicine?	it shouldn't be used in cats
What antiglaucoma drug should be avoided in cats with asthma?	Timolol
Oral hypoglycemic agents are rarely used in dogs. However, some vets have used these in cats with some positive effects. What is an oral drug that can be used in cats to treat type II diabtetes?	Metformin
Which type of microorganisms is Trifluridine used for?	Viruses
What is the diagnostic procedure called that evaluates tear production?	Schirmer test
___________________ causes uterine contractions	Oxytocin
Fipronil is found in which of the following commonly used flea control products in dogs?	Frontline Plus
________________ are mainly used to treat Malassezia (yeast) otitis?	antifungals
Miconazole is classified as a topical	antifungal
What drug is used topically to treat KCS and increases tear production?	Cyclosporine
All of the following drugs are used to treat hypothyroidism except A. thyromed B soloxine C Tapazole D synthroid	Tapazole
All of the following are ocular antifungal agents except A. natamycin B itraconazole C. amikacin D. amphotericin B	Amikacin
Which hormone is involved with the neurohormonal reflex?	Oxytocin
In which species is atropine very long acting and dilation may last for days to weeks?	horses
___________ stimulate uterine smooth muscle and can be used to induce parturition.	Prostaglandins
The tympanic membrane of the ear is also called the what?	ear drum
What's a correct statement regarding hyperadrenocorticism in cats?	Metyrapone is used especially for stabilization of patients before adrenalectomy
Which of the following drugs is used to treat hyperthyroidism in cats?	Methimazole
's syndrome?	Phenylephrine
Agents that promote the removal of excess keratin and loosening of the outer layer of the skin are called	keratolytics
Which topical antimicrobial ointments is approved by the FDA for the tx of bacterial skin infections and superficial pyoderma?	Muricin
A 1200-lb Holstein cow will be tx for an ovarian cyst with 100 mcg of Cystorelin. Cystorelin containes 50 mcg/mL. How much of the product will you draw up?	2 mL
If proparacaine anesthetizes the cornea for 8 minutes at the usual dose of 2 drops, how many drops will need to be administered if an ophthalmic procedure takes half an hour?	7.5 drops
Epinephrine (adrenaline) is responsible for all of the following except_______a. communication w/ stem cells in the bone marrow b. can cause an increase in metabolic rate c. constrict blood vessels in the skin d. can cause an increase in HR & CO	communication with stem cells in the bone marrow
What type of drug toxicity is acetylcysteine an antidote for?	Acetaminophen
The amount of blood pumped from the heart per minute is the	cardiac output
Cimetidine, Ranitidine, and Nizatidine are all types of drugs to treat	ulcers
What is the anesthetic group recommended primarily for diagnostic procedures, restraint, and minor surgery?	Dissociative
What is a pure opioid antagonist? A. buprenorphine B. naloxone C. antisedan D. Yohimbine	Naloxone
What species has no gallbladder?	Equines
__________ are considered to be the most effective drugs in the treatment of equine chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.	Corticosteroids
H2 receptor antagonists promote the healing of GI ulcers by ______________	reducing the secretion of hydrochloric acid by gastric mucosal cells
Antiarrhythmic drugs work in various ways to control arrhythmias. Which class of drugs would be most useful to treat atrial fibrillation?	Class IA
What is a beta blocker used to treat glaucoma?	Timolol
Your hospital is out of digitalis liquid and the client needs a refill immediately. All you have in stock is digitalis pills. The dose for digitalis pills would probably need to be	increased for pills to be effective
Diuretic drugs are administered to help remove excess	extracellular fluid
CHF results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that Na and H2o are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequ CO. Its assoc w/ everything but____ a. ascites b exercise intolerance c pulmonary edema d diaphragmatic hernia	diaphragmatic hernia
Atipamezole is a reversal agent for ______	Dexmedetomidine
An inhibitory neurotransmitter that is widely distributed in the brain is called__________	GABA
Joyce says cows have 3 forestomachs. Chet says cats and dogs are monogastric. Who is correct?	Both
What diet would be most beneficial for a poodle with congestive heart failure?	sodium restricted with adequate levels of protein
Bacteria such as E. Coli or Clostridium perfringens act to cause diarrhea through which mechanism?
A 1000-lb horse will be treated with detomidine at a dosage of 10 mcg/kg IV for abdominal pain. The concentration of detomidine is 10 mg/mL. What quantity will you prepare?	0.46 mL
Nitenpyram can be given in tablet form to dogs and cats to kill fleas. What is true regarding its action?	Its effects begin within 30 minutes, and is a neonicotinoid chemical class. It kills adult fleas and is safe for pregnant or nursing dogs and cats
Which of the four groups (generations) of cephalosporins is effective against Pseudomonas and other gram-negative bacteria?	Third-generation. 1st-gen are active against gram-positive, 2nd have a broader spectrum and 4th are more resistant to hydrolysis and B-lactamases
Tramadol has alpha-2-agonist properties because it inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and seratonin. What additional CNS-related analgesic effect does this drug have?	It's an opioid agonist by binding to opioid mu receptors
Many NSAIDs inhibit the cylooxygenase enzyme (COX). What NSAID is commonly used in horses to provide pain relief in colic cases?	Flunixin meglumine- it also is used for endotoxic shock in horses
An open wound involving a bone fracture was neglected in a stray dog. When rescued, the dog had oseomyelitis caused by Straphylococcus aureus. What antimicrobial agent is used to treat this?	Clindamycin
What ingredient in Drontal Plus is effective against liver flukes?	Praziquantel + pyrantel pamoate, and tebantel
Three pigs on a farm have diarrhea that's light brown in color and contains jelly-like mucus Fluorescent antibody test on fecal smears indicate swine dysentery. What drug is used to treat pigs with this disease?	Tiamulin- also treats pneumonia
Zithromax is a human-label drug used to treat Bordetella in dogs. What's the main mechanism of action of this drug and others in its class?	Inhibiting protein synthesis, penetrates the cell walls of bacteria and bind to 50S ribosomal subunits
Due to Lufenuron's mechanism of action, what statement is true about it's effectiveness?	Its a monthly oral flea control product administered monthly, controls fleas by preventing the development of chitin (needed to develop flea exoskeleton- since they can't, they die.)
Treatment of a dog using dietary modification and urine alkalinization for cystine urolithiasis hasn't resulted in improvement. What drug is useful as an alternative?	Tobramycin sulfate injection
Insect growth regulators mimic the natural IGRs of insects. When used, the resultant high level of IGRs interferes with flea larva development. What's an example of an IGR product or ingredient?	Methoprene, fenoxycarb, pyriproxyfen found in pet sprays, premises sprays, and flea collars.
What drug can be used to treat adverse effects of imidocarb dipropionate in a cat treated for cytauxzoonosis?	Atropine
Why is butorphanol an opioid agonist-antagonist?	It's an opioid kappa receptor agonist but antagonizes opioid mu receptors
There are a number of mechanisms by which corticosteroids can protect cells from inflammatory trauma. These include:	inhibiting interleukin synthesis, stabilizing cell membranes to prevent them from being broken down, interfering with histamine synthesis, preventing release of degradation enzymes from lysosomal membranes, and reducing exudative processes.
COX-1-sparing NSAIDs provide anti-inflammatory effects with limited GI adverse effects. What drug in this class is used to treat osteoarthritis in dogs and cats?	Robenacoxib
An otic preparation that's effective for Pseudomonas otitis is	Ticarcillin/Clavulanate
Local anesthetics such as lidocaine and bupivacaine have additional pharmacological effects including:	epidural anesthesia, nerve blocks, arrhythmia treatments, and topical treatments of the eye, ear, and larynx
A cattle owners cows have had aborted fetuses, stillbirths, and fetal membranes showing signs of infections. Further exam indicates Brucellosis infection. What is used to treat this disease?	Minocycline- usually in conjunction with aminoglycosides
L-Lysine Powder-Pure is capable of suppressing feline herpesvirus (FHV-1) infections. What's the mechanism of action of this drug?	competes with arginine and interferes with incorporation into herpes viruses
Exercise intolerance in a dog was found to be caused by a heartworm infection. The infection is moderate and tx was recommended. What immiticide is available that is NOT associated with risk of liver toxicity?	Melarsomine dihydrochloride- an arsenic compound that has better efficacy than Caparsolate and does not cause hepatic necrosis.
What ingredient used to treat ear mites is also toxic to fish?	Rotenone
What FDA-approved aminoglycoside is used for intrauterine infusion in mares?	Amikacin
Fleas, ticks, and mites are all examples of	ectoparasites
What is not true about the use of antimicrobial drugs?	Use a broad-spectrum antibiotic if the infective organism is sensitive to a specific antibiotic
What parasites have zoonotic potential?	Toxoplamsa gondii, Ancylostoma caninum, Toxocara canis
Long-term treatment with which antibiotic may require monitoring of the patient's tear production?	Sulfonamides
NSAIDs work by inhibiting which enzyme?	Cyclooxygenase
____________ is the most commonly used formamidine in vet medicine.	Amitraz
_____________ may be used in equine medicine to diagnose lameness by administering it to an area and observing abatement of lameness.	Nerve blocks
What product is used for the treatment of fleas, ticks, heartworm prevention, ear mites, and sarcoptic mange in dogs?	Revolution
What are important factors that increase antimicrobial resistance?	sub-therapeutic dosing, over use of an antibiotic, preemptive use, and not following the full course of treatment
______________ may cause teeth to discolor in young animals	Tetracyclines
An anti-infective drug that is prohibited in all food-producing animals is	Chloramphenical
The trade name for pyrantel pamoate is	Nemex
__________ pain can be beneficial in that it can allow the animal to avoid damaging stimuli.	Physiologic
What is a physiological sign an animal may be in pain?	heart rate increases, increased respiratory rate, mydriasis, salivation, vocalization, changes in facial expression, aggressive behavior, guarding of the painful site, restlessness, unresponsiveness, failure to groom, abnormal gait, abnormal stance.
A calf weighs 120 lb is found to have Eimeria zuernii. The vet orders amprolium for tx of the calf. They have Corid liquid (9.6%). The dosage is 10 mg/kg SID PO for 5 days. What is the dose? How many mL should be dispensed?	5.7 mL; 56 mL
If an owner saw roundworms in their dog's stool and wanted to purchase an OTC dewormer for roundworms they would choose	Piperazine
Previcox is prescribed for a 44 kg dog for PO at a dosage of 5 mg/kg SID. It's available in 227 mg tablets; the box has 60 chewables. How many tablets will you give per dose? How many doses will one box provide?	1 tablet; 60 doses
What classification of anti-ineffective agent can cause impaired cartilage development when given to young growing animals?	Fluoroquinolones
Clients should purchase herbal products from reputable manufacturers approved by _______	The National Animal Supplement Council
A toy poodle presents with a collapsing trachea,. Which of the following drugs would be used as a bronchodilator?	Aminophylline
Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of __________	benzodiazepines
What is classified as a catecholamine that increases the strength of cardiac muscle contractions with little or no increases in heart rate?	Dobutamine
Which fluid type contains large molecular weight particles used to hold fluids in the vascular space?	Colloids
The American Society of Anesthesiology recommends that patients should discontinue all herbal medicines ___________ before elective surgical procedures are performed?	2-3 weeks
The term markup refers to	the difference between the actual cost of the item and the selling price
_____________ can be used for treatement of keratoconjunctivitis sicca and atopic dermatitis.	Cyclosporine
Which of the following is an immunostimulant used as an aid in the treatment of fibrosarcomas in cats?	Acemannan
Why is it important not to vaccinate very young animals when maternal antibodies are still present?	Because the neonate's immune system is not capable of producing an immune response because maternal antibodies are blocking it
Activated charcoal is used to adsorb certain drugs or toxins to reduce their systemic absorption from the upper GI tract. What reduces its adsorptive proerties?	Dairy products and mineral oils
Vitamin K is needed for synthesis of what clotting factors?	II, VII, IX, X
What is used to control vomiting and is contraindicated in animals with GI obstruction?	Meoclopramide
A patient is presented to a vet hospital in status epilepticus. What drug is used to control the seizures?	Diazepam
If the fluid rate slows or stops with a drip set, all of the following should be checked to restore fluid flow:	position of the limb with the catheter in it, fluid level in the luid source, catheter for patency, the flow clamp to see if it's open, and the tubing to determine if it's kinked or crimped
An 8-lb cat requires treatment at 0.2 mg/kg with atipamezole at 5 mg/mL for the reversal of Dexotomitor administration. What quantity in mL would you give?	0.15 mL
A 4-yr old cat, weighing 9 pounds, is prescribed aminophylline at 6.6 mg/kg PO SID for 2 weeks. Aminophylline is available in 100 mg tablets. How many tablets will be given for each dose? How many tablets will be needed for the entire treatment?	0.25 tablets, 3.5 tablets
A 26 lb golden retriever is prescribed diazepam at 0.5 mg/kg IV for seizures. Diazepam is available as a 5 mg/mL solution for injection. How many mL will you administer?	1.2 mL

Created by: jepitts87

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