Which of the following is not true of RNA? It contains ribose sugar. It contains adenine. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides.

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PHYS final study guide

Question	Answer
Peptide bonds join together molecules of:	amino acids
The amino group in an amino acid is:	NH3+
Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids?	Primary
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body	glycogen
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure?	Secondary
Which lipid acts as a “tissue hormone”?	Prostaglandin
Which of the following is not true of RNA? It contains ribose sugar. It contains adenine. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides.	All of the above are true of RNA.
Which of the following is not a function of adipose tissue?	Defends the body from microbes and injurious substances
Which cells form the blood-brain barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances in the blood?	Astrocytes
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain?	Microglia
Which is not a function of epithelial tissue?	Assimilation
Which of the following is not a function of the skin? Defense against disease organisms Synthesis of vitamin E Regulation of body temperature Excretion of water and salts	Synthesis of vitamin E
Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue? Forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body Is important in communication and control Covers and protects body surfaces Lines the interior of body cavities	Is important in communication and control
What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina?	Basement membrane
Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat?	Brown fat
Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles? Having one nucleus per cell Having intercalated disks Composing the walls of the viscera Usually not being under voluntary control	Having intercalated disks
Of the five epidermal cell layers, the only one that can undergo mitosis is the stratum:	basale.
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the:	bones.
Which is not a function of connective tissue?	Communication
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals?	Connective
Which of the following vitamins is(are) absorbed through the skin? Vitamin A Vitamin D Vitamin K	All of the above
One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe	False
Bones grow in diameter by the combined action of which two of the three bone cell types?	osteoblasts and osteoclasts
As the activity of osteoblasts increases, the	amount of calcium in bone increases. level of calcium in the blood decreases.
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the:	pelvic outlet.
The humerus articulates proximally with the	scapula.
The following are functions of bone except for support. protection. mineral storage. hematopoiesis.	All of the above are functions of the bone
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete	additional matrix.
Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone.	False
The ulna articulates proximally with the:	humerus.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? Made of spongy bone Cylindrical in shape Contain red bone marrow	Cylindrical in shape
Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood? Blood clotting Transmission of nerve impulses Contraction of cardiac muscle	All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood.
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when	complex calcium salts are deposited in the matrix.
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years.	35 and 40
In intramembranous ossification, the process of appositional growth refers to the:	addition of an outside layer of osseous tissue on flat bones.
Please select the bone positioned most superiorly on the human skeleton Group of answer choices frontal mandible vomer xiphoid process	frontal
Thick myofilaments extend the length of the:	A-band.
Which structure functions to temporarily store calcium ions?	Sarcoplasmic reticulum
The opposite of dorsiflexion is: dorsiextension. abduction. plantar flexion.	plantar flexion.
Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains the cross-bridges? Myosin Actin Tropomyosin Troponin	Myosin
The contractile unit of a muscle cell is the	sacromere
An example of a hinge joint is(are) the:	interphalangeal joints.
Kicking a football is accomplished by knee:	extension.
The rotator cuff muscles and tendons form a cufflike arrangement around the _____ joint.	shoulder
The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to:	replenish energy supply.
All of the following are characteristics of smooth muscle except: there are no striations. there are no T-tubules. thin and thick filaments are aligned in sarcomeres like skeletal muscles. the sarcoplasmic reticula are loosely organized.	thin and thick filaments are aligned in sarcomeres like skeletal muscles.
White fibers are also called _____ fibers.	fast
Three phases of the twitch contraction are the	latent period, contraction phase, and relaxation phase.
Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called:	dorsiflexion.
The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is:	myosin.
Which muscle group extends the vertebral column and also flexes the back laterally and rotates it a little?	erector spinae
When current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse conduction is called:	saltatory conduction.
Stimulus-gated channels open in response to:	sensory stimuli.
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second.	130
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential.	local
Which is true of an action potential? plasma membrane is impermeable to Na, K ions. Na ions move extracellularly. charges become equal the outside, inside of the membrane. outside of the membrane is negatively charged, inside is positively charged.	The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged.
Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to:	receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct an impulse that is how much faster than the slowest fibers in the body?	Almost 300 times faster
Within the nervous system, coding for the strength of a stimulus is accomplished through:	the frequency of nerve impulses.
Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of:	amines.
The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period.	refractor
Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as:	none of the above.
Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as:	catecholamines.
There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse.	chemical
Which of the following is not used by the body as a neurotransmitter? Nitric oxide Acetylcholine Carbon monoxide	All of the above are used by the body as neurotransmitters.
When an impulse reaches a synapse:	chemical transmitters are released.
The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased.	False
The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the:	hypothalamus.
If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway.	sensory perception
The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: coordinates control of muscle action. helps control posture. controls cardiac function. controls skeletal muscles to maintain balance.	controls cardiac function.
Parasympathetic stimulation has no effect on any of the following areas except: sweat glands. skin blood vessels. the liver. the urinary bladder.	sweat glands
The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic.	True
Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? Production of hormones “Go between” of the psyche and the soma Appetite center Regulation of motor activity	Regulation of motor activity
Blood vessels in both digestive organs and skeletal muscles are dilated by sympathetic stimulation.	True
What is the difference between a somatic reflex and an autonomic reflex?	A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of skeletal muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle or secretions of glands.
A mixed nerve is one that:	carries both sensory and motor fibers.
Danielle has sustained an injury that has reduced her ability to complete simple tasks such as lifting a pencil, manipulating eating utensils, and brushing her hair. The injury has affected the _____ motor pathways _____ the central nervous system (CNS).	voluntary; outside
Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? Constriction of the bronchioles Decreased secretion of the pancreas Constriction of the urinary sphincters Dilation of skeletal muscle blood vessels	Constriction of the bronchioles
Which of the following statements is not true?	The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system.
The vomiting reflex is mediated by the:	medulla.
Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate.	vagus
The type of cells that secrete ACTH are:	corticotrophs.
Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland? It is located on the dorsal aspect of the diencephalon. Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight. It produces melatonin.	Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight.
Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as:	visual acuity
The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with:	smell.
The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is:	malleus, incus, and stapes.
The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is:	protein kinases activate other enzymes.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system? Chemical messenger travels a short distance. Effector tissues include virtually all tissues. Receptors are located on the plasma membrane or within the target cell.	Chemical messenger travels a short distance.
The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the:	Ruffini corpuscles.
All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except: oxytocin. calcitonin. cortisol. glucagon.	cortisol.
Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? It is produced by the delta cells of the pancreas. It inhibits the secretion of glucagon. It stimulates the secretion of insulin.	It stimulates the secretion of insulin.
Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the	crista ampullaris.
One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is:	oxytocin.
Which of the following is not true of a receptor potential? It follows the all-or-none law. graded response. occurs when an adequate stimulus acts on a receptor. can stimulate an action potential in the axon of a sensory neuron.	It follows the all-or-none law.
All following true except: at least 16 different prostaglandins. first prostaglandin identified in semen. aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis. PGFs have been used to induce labor, accelerate delivery of baby.	aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis.
The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including:	touch temperature pain
What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium?	Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium.
Starling’s law of the heart states that, within limits, the longer, or more stretched, the heart fibers are at the beginning of the contraction, the	stronger the contraction.
The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure is called	pulse pressure.
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is	erythropoietin
Blood pressure is measured with the aid of an apparatus known as a(n)	sphygmomanometer.
All of the following are components critical to coagulation except prothrombin. thrombin. fibrinogen. fibrin.	none of the above; all of these components are critical to coagulation.
The chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies are particularly sensitive to:	hypercapnia.
Which are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart?	aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors
A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called	leukopenia.
Which of the following is not true of ventricles? They are the pumping chambers of the heart. The myocardium of the ventricles is thicker than that of the atria. The myocardium of the left ventricle is thicker than that of the right ventricle.	All of the above are true of the ventricles.
The functions of the lymphatic system include:	transporting interstitial fluid back to the bloodstream. providing immunological defenses. transporting absorbed fats from the intestine to the blood. houses and develops lymphocytes.
_____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens.	Species resistance
Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes?	immunoglobulin M
Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it? cytotoxin phagotoxin lymphotoxin granulotoxin	lymphotoxin
The functions of the lymph nodes are	defense and hematopoiesis.
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of	detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor.
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? sebum mucus enzymes hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa	all of the above
_______ is the only antibody class with the ability to cross the placental barrier, providing passive immunity to the developing fetus during pregnancy.	IgG.
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form	effector T cells and memory cells.
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body.	thymocytes
The function of which antibody is basically unknown?	IgD
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called	diapedesis.
What is the function of the spleen? tissue repair hematopoiesis red blood cell and platelet destruction blood reservoir	all of the above
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are	innate and adaptive immunity
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called	lymphokinetic activities.
The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to the preinspiration volume is called:	elastic recoil.
Which of the following would you expect to happen to cellular respiration during exercise?	Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause an increase in respiration rate.
External respiration can be defined as:	the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung. pulmonary ventilation.
During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes:	a decrease in alveolar pressure
The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg.	160
Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature.	inversely; constant
The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the:	inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume.
Which of the following constitutes total lung volume? Residual volume and vital capacity Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume Residual volume and tidal volume Vital capacity and tidal volume	Residual volume and vital capacity
The function of surfactant is to:	prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration.
If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml.	150
Which of the following is not a true statement?	Raising the ribs decreases the depth and width of the thorax.
The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is:	as bicarbonate ions.
Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture.	directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and
Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? Transport of gases Gas exchange in lungs and tissue Control of cell metabolism rate Pulmonary ventilation	Control of cell metabolism rate
Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood? As oxyhemoglobin Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–) Dissolved in the plasma	Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–)
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a:	monosaccharide
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as:	amylase
The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen.	passively out of
The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called:	gastric inhibitory peptide.
Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? Moistening the food Changing food from large to small particles Propelling food through the digestive tract	Moistening the food
Which of the following is a disaccharide? Glucose Starch Sucrose Glycogen	Sucrose
The process of swallowing is known as:	deglutition.
The purpose of peristalsis is to:	propel food forward along the GI tract.
The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is:	secretin
Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food? Intestinal phase Cephalic phase Gastric phase	Cephalic phase
Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control?	Oral stage
The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the:	small intestine.
Hydrolysis refers to:	using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones.
Which of the following is not true of enzymes? They accelerate chemical reactions. They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction. They are vital to chemical reactions. Many contain vitamins in their structure.	They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction.
Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus?	Deglutition Peristalsis
What is the most abundant cation in extracellular fluid?	Sodium
Edema may occur when:	sodium is retained in the extracell fluid result of incr aldosterone secret or after renal disease such as acute glomerulonephritis. incr in capillary bld pressure occurs. decr in the concentration of plasma proteins normally retained in blood occurs.
Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the _____ fluid.	extracellular
If the pH of the blood were 7.23, it would be	slightly more acidic than normal.
The pH of the blood is maintained at approximately:	7.4
The regulation of acid-base balance in the body fluids refers to the control of _____ ion concentration.	hydrogen
In accordance with the physical laws governing filtration and osmosis, which of the following statements is true?	Blood colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid back into the capillaries.
Which of the following is not considered a “transcellular fluid”? Lymph Cerebrospinal fluid The humors of the eye Joint fluid	Lymph
Which of the following substances is released by the juxtaglomerular cells? Cortisol Antidiuretic hormone Aldosterone Renin	Renin
Ketone bodies are associated with cellular metabolism of:	fats
In young adults, the percentage of body weight composed of water will average about _____ for males and _____ for females.	60%; 50%
Which of these is true about the metabolism of glucose? Aerobic metabolism produces lactic acid. Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid. Anaerobic metabolism produces carbonic acid.	Anaerobic metabolism produces lactic acid.
What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid?	Potassium
Which body location is not one that is usually impacted by edema?	Kidneys
A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to:	stimulate increased respirations.
Functional sterility results when the sperm count per milliliter falls below _____ million.	25
Which of the following is true of the essential organ in the reproductive system? It produces gametes. It is called the testis in the male. It is called the gonad in both sexes.	All of the above are true.
Which of the following hormones causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts, making it accessible for the infant? Progesterone Oxytocin Prolactin Estrogen	Oxytocin
Which of the following statements is not true about the mechanism controlling lactation?	Prolactin stimulates the ejection of milk into the ducts of the mammary glands.
The phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between the expulsion of the ovum from the ovary and the onset of menses is the _____ phase.	luteal
Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli cells? They produce testosterone. They produce androgen-binding protein. They form the blood-testis barrier.	They produce testosterone.
What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail?	Epididymis
The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is the same as the:	postmenstrual phase.
The male gland that secretes a fructose sugar used as an energy source for sperm is the:	seminal vesicle.
The hormone that causes the follicle to rupture and the egg to be expelled is:	luteinizing hormone (LH).
Intrinsic control:	is sometimes called autoregulation.
Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? Environment Stress Lifestyle	All of the above
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback.	positive
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Effector mechanism Transmitter Sensor Integrating center	Transmitter
Negative-feedback mechanisms:	minimize changes in blood glucose levels. maintain homeostasis. are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature.
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions?	Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions.
If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be:	GATCCGAC.
Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called:	essential amino acids.
The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component.	carbohydrate and protein; protein
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? They both contain glycerol. They both contain fatty acids. They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.	They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.
The element that is present in all proteins but not in carbohydrates is:	nitrogen
Unsaturated fats:	will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms.
Which lipid is part of vitamin D?	Steroids
Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics?	Both have a ring structure in their molecule.
The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories?	Structural and functional
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue.	connective epithelial
The area referred to as true skin is the:	dermis
Which of the following is not a characteristic of muscle tissue? Cells are specialized to contract Produces movement for the body Generates heat for the body Cells are separated by a large quantity of extracellular matrix	Cells are separated by a large quantity of extracellular matrix
Areolar tissue usually contains which types of cells in the greatest number?	Fibroblasts
Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate?	Epithelial
A tissue is:	a group of similar cells that perform a common function
Which of the following epithelial functions is a primary activity of glandular epithelium? Protection Secretion Sensation Excretion	Secretion
Small cells that synthesize and secrete a specialized organic matrix are	osteoblasts
Due to how the clavicle articulates with the scapula, all shoulder movements involve the sternoclavicular joint.	True
An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture.	True
An age-related skeletal disease that is characterized by loss of bone mineral density and increased bone fragility is	osteoporosis
Before childbirth, the symphysis pubis softens.	True
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the:	red bone marrow.
In bone formation, the cells that produce the organic matrix are the:	osteoblasts.
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the:	thumb.
Bones act as a reservoir for which of the following minerals? Copper Calcium Phosphorus	Calcium
Muscle contractions will continue as long as:	the calcium ions are attached to the troponin.
Which of the following terms describes an isometric contraction? Eccentric contraction Static tension Concentric contraction	Static tension
The chief function of the T-tubules is to:	allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell.
The type of movement possible at a synovial joint depends on the:	shape of the articulating surfaces of the bones.
Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis?	Single-unit smooth
Endurance training is also known as:	aerobic training.
The ion necessary for cross-bridging is:	calcium.
Skeletal muscles are innervated by:	somatic motor neurons.
Moving a body part away from the medial plane of the body is called:	abduction.
A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint.	biaxial
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called:	irritability
Glucose can be stored in the muscle as:	glycogen.
Which joint allows for the most movement?	Ball and socket
During a relative refractory period:	the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus.
Serotonin is an example of a(n):	amine neurotransmitter.
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge.	negative
The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are):	enkephalins
Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential?	The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane.
No impulse can be sent through a neuron:	during the absolute refractory period.
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n):	axon
The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is:	some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open.
A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is	nerve impulse.
Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect?	They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters.
Norepinephrine is liberated at:	most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings.
Normal infants will show the Babinski reflex up to the age of _____ years.	1.5-2
All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except: contraction of the urinary bladder. relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract. increased salivation. increased heart rate.	increased heart rate.
Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum.	thalamus
Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve? Movement of external eye muscles Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex) Movement of intrinsic eye muscles Proprioception of eye muscles	Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex)
Audition is a function of the _____ lobe.	temporal
All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the: vagus. hypoglossal. accessory. abducens.	vagus
Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may:	synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia. pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing.
Which of the following is not true of the knee jerk reflex?	It is a flexor reflex.
Damage to the _____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function.	phrenic
The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is:	progesterone.
Visceroceptors are located in which of the following?	Internal organs
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called:	permissiveness.
The two-point discrimination test can be used to measure:	the sensitivity of the skin in various parts of the body.
The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the:	transcription of RNA.
Accommodation for near vision necessitates	an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes.
Cardiac output is determined by	stroke volume and heart rate.
The mechanisms of which three hormones work together to regulate blood volume?	aldosterone, ANH, and ADH
Circulatory shock caused by a drop in the amount of blood in the circulatory system is called _____ shock.	hypovolemic
The vagus is said to act as a “brake” on the heart. This situation is called	vagal inhibition.
Blood viscosity stems mainly from the red blood cells but also partly from the _____ in blood.	protein molecules present
A hematocrit of 56% would be an indication of:	polycythemia.
Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in	cytolysis.
The lymph pressure gradient is established by:	breathing movements. skeletal muscle contractions.
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an	antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site.
Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease?	interferon
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called	phagocytosis
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the	lymphocyte.
Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir?	spleen
The PCO2 in the atmosphere is:	less than in the alveolar air.
One hundred milliliters of arterial blood contains approximately what volume percent of oxygen?	20%
The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood.	less than in the systemic venous equal to the systemic arterial
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure:	expiration occurs.
By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen?	97%
About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to:	hemoglobin.
Gas exchange, the lungs’ main and vital function, takes place in the:	alveoli.
Internal respiration can be defined as:	the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells.
The process of fat emulsification consists of:	breaking fats into small droplets.
Which of the following is not a function of the liver? Detoxification Secretion of insulin Storage of iron and vitamins Production of bile	Secretion of insulin
An end product of fat digestion is:	glycerol.
The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is:	vasoactive intestinal peptide.
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are:	glycerol and fatty acids.
When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes.	hydrolyzing
Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of:	cotransport
For the body to maintain an acid-base balance, which of the following is (are) necessary? Buffering Respirations Urine secretion	All of the above
Which of the following would be important in treating metabolic alkalosis? Chloride ions Bicarbonate ions Sodium ions Potassium ions	Chloride ions
Which of the following is(are) classified as an acid-forming food? Meat Eggs Poultry	All of the above
Water normally leaves the body through _____ exits.	four
If the blood pH decreases below normal, the kidney tubules secrete _____ urine.	more hydrogen ions from blood to
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic solutions used for parenteral therapy? Ammonium chloride Lactate solutions Carbohydrate in water Liquid protein	Liquid protein
Which of the following is a true statement?	Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41.
Which of the following is not a function of the ovary? It produces estrogen. It produces ova. It produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).	It produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
The gland that secretes an alkaline substance that constitutes about 30% of the seminal fluid is the:	prostate gland.
The female reproductive system differs from the male reproductive system in that it:	provides protection for the developing offspring. provides nutrition to the developing offspring.
Which of the following glands is not a paired accessory gland of the male reproductive system? Prostate Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland Cowper gland	Prostate
Homeostasis can best be described as: a constant state maintained by living and nonliving organisms. a state of relative constancy. adaptation to the external environment. changes in body temperature.	a state of relative constancy.
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. occurrence distribution transmission	all of the above
Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? Proteins Salts Lipids Nucleic acids	salts
Which energy-releasing or energy-transferring molecule does not contain a nucleotide? FAD Creatine phosphate NAD ATP	Creatine phosphate
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: hydrolysis. oxidation. decomposition. dehydration synthesis.	Dehydration synthesis
A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons. hydroxyl phosphate amine group free radical	free radical
A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a: Group of answer choices triglyceride. phospholipid. steroid.	Both B and C are correct.
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? Sucrose Maltose Lactose Fructose	Maltose
Connective tissue forms from stem cell tissue called: mesenchyme. blastocyst. endoderm. ectoderm.	Mesenchyme
Which of the following is not a proteoglycan found in the matrix of connective tissue? Group of answer choices Glucosamine Collagen Hyaluronic acid	Collagen
The hypodermis: connects the dermis to underlying tissues. is the layer of skin in which hair is produced. connects the dermis and the epidermis. is the layer of skin in which the nails are produced	connects the dermis to underlying tissues.
The type of tissue that contains cells called neurons is called: muscle. epithelial. connective. nervous.	nervous
Mucous membranes are important because they lubricate and protect passageways.	True
Which of the following is not a characteristic of skeletal muscles? Having one nucleus per cell Being attached to bone Having striations Having voluntary or “willed” muscles	Having one nucleus per cell
If there is an injury to the occipital bone you may expect that which sense is damaged? hearing speech smell vision	vision
Blood calcium levels involve secretion of which two hormones? parathyroid and adrenaline parathyroid and calcitonin calcitonin and adrenaline calcitonin and aldosterone	calcitonin and aldosterone
Most body movements are _____ contractions. isotonic isometric a combination of isotonic and isometric single twitch	isotonic
Attempting to pick up an object too heavy to lift would result in which type of muscle contraction? Isotonic Flaccid Treppe Isometric	isometric
Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? An inorganic phosphate Energy that can be used in muscle contraction ADP All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP.	All of the above are end-products of the breakdown of ATP.
The lactate produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the: lungs. liver. mitochondria. sarcoplasmic reticulum.	liver
Physiological muscle fatigue may be caused by: a relative lack of ATP. high levels of lactate. failure of the sodium-potassium pumps.	all of the above.
Which type of muscle does not have T-tubules? Group of answer choices Smooth Cardiac Striated	Smooth
Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? A small-diameter neuron without myelin A large-diameter neuron without myelin A large-diameter neuron with myelin A small-diameter neuron with myelin	a large-diameter neuron with myelin
The active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions and at different rates is the	sodium-potassium pump.
A synapse consists of: Group of answer choices a synaptic knob. a synaptic cleft. the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron. all of the above.	all of the above.
Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? Phenelzine Imipramine Amitriptyline Cocaine	Phenelzine
Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because:	preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers.
Which of the following is a description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system?	If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it.
Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. alpha beta nicotinic both alpha and beta	nicotinic
Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? Medial reticulospinal Lateral reticulospinal Ventral corticospinal Lateral corticospinal	lateral corticospinal
Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? Thalamus Cerebellum Brainstem Cerebral cortex	Thalamus
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary. posterior pituitary. thyroid gland. parathyroid gland.	anterior pituitary
If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. chronic acute visceral both chronic and visceral	acute
In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: rapid to appear but short-lived. slow to appear but long-lasting. rapid to appear and long-lasting. slow to appear and short-lived.	slow to appear but long-lasting.
When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? G L S M	M
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: hemoglobin. osteons. erythroblasts. hematopoietic stem cells.	hematopoietic stem cells.
_____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. Spectrin Erythropoietin Serum Heparin	Heparin
In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of	prothrombin activator
During pregnancy, what happens to the oxygenated blood returned from the placenta via the umbilical vein?	it flows into the inferior vena cava
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. antibody-mediated cell-mediated nonspecific	cell-mediated
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies.	clonal selection theory
The lymphatic system serves various functions in the body. The two most important functions of this system are fluid balance and waste removal. fluid balance and immunity. immunity and waste removal. waste removal and gas exchange.	fluid balance and immunity.
The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own normal cells is called: innate immunity. nonspecific immunity. self-tolerance. adaptive immunity.	adaptive immunity
Ciliated cells lining the respiratory tract: help move air into and out of the lungs. trap and phagocytize microorganisms. help move the mucus blanket toward the pharynx. do both B and C.	help move the mucus blanket toward the pharynx
The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to:	provide an initial "filter" to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system
Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate?	Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2
The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content. opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder. does all of the above.	All of the above
Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: neutralize hydrochloric acid. break down fats. activate secretin. activate pepsin.	neutralize hydrochloric acid.
Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? Oropharynx Nasopharynx Larynx Mouth	oropharynx
Which of the following pairs are almost identical when compared chemically? Plasma and intracellular fluid Plasma and interstitial fluid Interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid Extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid	Plasma and interstitial fluid
Which of the following ratios of base bicarbonate to carbonic acid will maintain a normal pH? 3:1 5:1 10:1 20:1	20:1
Which of the following is not a method used for parenteral administration? Intravenous Subcutaneous Intramuscular By mouth	by mouth
Which of the following would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions? pH 2 pH 6 pH 8 pH 10	pH 2
Which of the following is true of total body water?	Overweight people have lower water content per kilogram of body weight than slender people.
When the effective filtration pressure equals zero:	no net transfer of water occurs between blood and interstitial fluid.
Which of the following functions is not usually associated with the uterus? Menstruation Fertilization Gestation All of the above functions are associated with the uterus.	Fertilization
The main advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is: only one parent is needed. all the offspring are identical. there is greater diversity in the offspring. more offspring are produced.	there is greater diversity in the offspring.
Fertilization of an ovum most often occurs in the: ovary. fallopian tube. uterus. vagina.	fallopian tube.
The hormone that causes the alveoli of the mammary glands to secrete milk is: estrogen oxytocin prolactin	Prolactin
Pathogenesis can be defined as: a specific disease. a group of diseases. the course of disease development. a subgroup of viruses.	the course of disease development.
DNA: is a single strand of nucleotides. contains the sugar ribose. is a double-helix strand of nucleotides. transports amino acids during protein synthesis.	is a double helix strand of nucleotides
The basic building blocks of fats are:	monosaccharides. disaccharides. amino acids. fatty acids and glycerol.
Which cells electrically insulate axons to increase the speed of conduction? Oligodendrocytes Schwann cells Astrocytes Both A and B	both A and B
Which of the following is not one of the primary functions performed by bones? Mineral storage Protection Hormonal production Hematopoiesis	Hormonal production
After the age of 50, the density of bone:	decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity.
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis. ossification plate proliferating zone zone of hypertrophy epiphyseal plate	epiphyseal plate
A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is kyphosis. scoliosis. Scheuermann disease. lordosis.	kyphosis
Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called: tetanic contractions. cramps. convulsions. fibrillations.	cramps.
Which of the following statements about cardiac muscle is incorrect? Cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract. Cardiac muscle is also called striated involuntary muscle. Cardiac muscle contains intercalated disks.	cardiac muscle requires nervous stimulation to contract
Which of the following is not one of the major functions of muscles? Movement Protection Heat production Posture	Protection
Which type of joint joins the two pubic bones together? Suture Synovial Synchondrosis Symphysis	Symphysis
Rotator cuff surgery is performed quite commonly on professional baseball players, especially pitchers. Evidently, the throwing motion places enormous stress on the:	Shoulder
Aerobic respiration:	produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule.
The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is: hemoglobin. calcium. iron. ATP.	iron
Which of the following is not one of the main chemical classes of neurotransmitters? Triglycerides Amines Amino acids Neuropeptides	Triglycerides
Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by filtration of blood in the: central canal. choroid plexuses. subarachnoid space. arachnoid villi.	choroid plexuses
Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are found in the _____ plexus. sacral cervical coccygeal lumbar	coccygeal
The knee jerk can be classified as a segmental reflex because:	impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord
Conduction by the sixth cranial nerve results in sensations of hearing.	False
A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of:	the sympathetic nervous system.
Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons.	True
Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. tectorial basilar vestibular cochlear	tectorial
The clear and potassium-rich fluid that fills the labyrinth is endolymph. perilymph. exolymph. none of the above.	endolymph.
The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called regional pressure. perfusion pressure. systolic pressure. diastolic pressure.	perfusion pressure.
The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: hematopoiesis. hemodynamics. hemostasis. hematocrit.	hemodynamics.
Neutrophils are highly mobile and phagocytic. They migrate out of blood vessels and into tissue spaces. This process is called diapedesis. chemotaxis. erythroblastosis. hematopoiesis.	diapedesis
Which of the following vessels do not have the ability to constrict and dilate? capillaries Arterioles arteries veins	capillaries
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of leukotrienes. prostaglandins. antibodies. cytokines.	prostaglandins
Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. 650 700 760 800	760
Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution? Dalton Henry Boyle Charles	Henry
The enterogastric reflex causes: secretion of digestive enzymes in the small intestine. secretion of digestive enzymes in the stomach. inhibition of gastric peristalsis. acceleration of gastric peristalsis.	inhibition of digestive enzymes in the stomach
The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: enterogastrone. insulin. gastrin. cholecystokinin.	cholecystokinin.
Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: carbohydrates. meat proteins. undigested fats. undigested connective tissue.	carbohydrates.
The total fluid or water content of the human body ranges from _____ of its total weight. 15% to 25% 25% to 45% 45% to 75% 75% to 85%	45% to 75%
When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions, it primarily reabsorbs _____ ions. potassium calcium chloride sodium	sodium
The thirst center, which contains specialized cells called osmoreceptors, is located in the: pons. anterior pituitary. posterior pituitary. hypothalamus.	hypothalamus.
When the adrenal cortex is stimulated to increase its secretion of aldosterone, the first thing that happens is a(n):	increase in the kidney tubule reabsorption of sodium
When comparing the volume of the various body fluids, the correct order going from highest to lowest in total volume would be:	intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, plasma
What is the name of the so-called ovulating hormone? Estrogen Progesterone Luteinizing hormone Follicle-stimulating hormone	luteinizing hormone
Which statement is the best explanation of “immune infertility”?	antigen-antibody reaction in males causes destruction of sperm, resulting in infertility
The foreskin in the male is also known as the: glans penis. urinary meatus. scrotum. prepuce.	prepuce

Created by: maxmduenas

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