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C400
C400 Test
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| are the combined arms employment of Joint and Army capabilities that create and exploit relative advantages to achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains on behalf of joint force commanders. | What is MultiDomain Operations |
| The synchronized and simultaneous application of arms to achieve an effect greater than if each element was used separately or sequentially. | Combined Arms: |
| A location or condition, in any domain, relative to an adversary or enemy that provides an opportunity to progress towards or achieve an objective | Relative Advantage |
| To render a force incapable of achieving its objectives. ( | Defeat: |
| Activities to make enduring any temporary operational success and to set the conditions for a sustainable security environment, allowing for a transition of control to other legitimate authorities. ( | Consolidate gains |
| Extensive joint combat operations in terms of scope and size of forces committed, conducted as a campaign aimed at achieving operational and strategic objectives. | Large-scale combat operations (LSCO): |
| the designated subordinate unit whose mission at a given point in time is most critical to overall mission success. | Main Effort |
| Receives priority of support and resources to maximize combat power. | Main Effort |
| Resourced with the minimum assets necessary to accomplish the mission. | Supporting Effort |
| Size and capabilities is based on commander’s level of certainty/uncertainty of the enemy situation . | Reserve |
| Primary purposes include: 1) Exploit success, 2) Counter tactical reserves, and 3) Retain initiative. | Reserve |
| xists when two or more states or non-state adversaries have incompatible interests, but neither seeks armed conflict. | competition below armed conflict |
| situation involving a threat to the US, its citizens, military or vital interests that develops rapidly and creates a condition of such diplomatic, economic, or military importance that commitment of military forces and resources is contemplated | Crisis |
| occurs when a state or non-state actor uses lethal force as the primary means to achieve its interests; includes either or both conventional and irregular warfare. | Armed Conflict |
| they deter adversary malign action, enable the attainment of other national objectives, and maintain the ability to swiftly and effectively transition to crisis response or armed conflict when deterrence fails. | competition below armed conflict |
| e result of adversary actions or indicators of imminent action, or may be the result of natural or human disasters. | Crisis |
| A cognitive tool used to assist commanders and staffs in clearly visualizing and describing the application of combat power in time, space, purpose, and resources in the concept of operations. | Operational Framework |
| A broad description of the mission, operational concepts, tasks, and actions required to accomplish the mission. ( | Operational Approach |
| What are the three Army strategic contexts? | Competition Below Armed Conflict, Crisis, and Armed Conflict |
| framework for the exercise of command and control. | Operations Process Framework |
| Commanders use the __ process to drive the conceptual and detailed planning necessary to understand their OE; visualize the operation’s end state and operational approach; make and articulate decisions; and direct, lead, and assess operations | Operations |
| What are the four activitiesof the Ops Process | Plan, prepare, execute, and continously assess |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: task organize the force and prioritize efforts | Plan |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: Understanding the situation, solutions, and problem | Plan |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: direct, cooridnate and sync efforts | Plan |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: Anticpate events and adapt | Plan |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: improve situational understanding | Prepare |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: Secure and protect the force | Prepare |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: integrate, organize and configure the force | Prepare |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: resource and position forces | Prepare |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: Understand, rehearse, and refine plan | Prepare |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: Decision making | Execute |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: Decision making tools | Execute |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: Directing action | Execute |
| _______ Functions in the ops process include: monitor and evaluate and reccomendations | Assessment |
| Put the assessment steps in order == Communicate feedback; analyze info; adapt plans or ops; develop assessment approach; collect info; develop assessment plan | 5;4;6;1;3;2 |
| RDSP | Rapid Decision Making Approach, part of the Execute activity of the Ops Process |
| Particularly useful as an aid to conceptual planning but must be integrated with the detailed planning typically associated with the MDMP to produce executable plans. | Army Design Methodology |
| Secure data concerning the meteorological, hydrographic,geographic or other characteristics of a particular area, by visual observation or other detection methods. | Recon |
| Performed before, during, and after other operations to provide information used in IPB process and focuses the collection effort. | Recon |
| Used by the commander in order to formulate, confirm, or modify his COA. | Recon |
| Provide early and accurate warning of enemy operations. | Security |
| The ultimate goal – protect the force from surprise and reduce the unknowns in any situation. | Security |
| operations orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected | Security |
| enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects, and society oriented | Recon |
| Focus: threat, civil, terrain and weather effects | Recon |
| Focus: threat, terrain, civil, and friendly). | Security |
| A forward passage of lines allows the__________ or units conducting reconnaissance to avoid being harassed or assaulted with hostile intent by enemy forces as they begin operations. | CAV Squadron |
| Commanders guidance for recon and security invlove which three elements? | Focus, Duration, and Engement and Disengagement criteria |
| is a form of maneuver in which an attacking force avoids an enemy’s principal defense by attacking along an assailable flank. | Envelopment |
| What are the five forms of maneuver? | Envelopment, turning, infiltrations, penetration, frontal attack. |
| istinct tactical combinations of fire and movement with a unique set of doctrinal characteristics that differ primarily in the relationship between the maneuvering force and the enemy. | Form of Maneuver |
| form of maneuver in which the attacking force seeks to avoid the enemy’s principal defensive positions by attacking to the rear of their current positions forcing them to move or divert forces to meet the threat. | Turning Movement |
| A commander uses this form of offensive maneuver to seize vital areas in the enemy’s support area. | Turning Movement (Division and above) |
| form of maneuver in which an attacking force conducts undetected movement through or into an area occupied by enemy forces. | Infiltration |
| form of maneuver in which a force attacks on a narrow front. | Penetration |
| extends from the enemy’s disruption zone through the battle zone into the support zone. | Penetration |
| form of maneuver in which an attacking force seeks to destroy a weaker enemy force or fix a larger enemy force in place over a broad front. | Frontal Attack |
| Willingness to assume risk to create opportunity with bold action. | Audacity |
| Massing the effects of combat power in time and space at the decisive point to create and exploit opportunity. | Concentration |
| Attacking at a time, place or in a manner enemy forces did not prepare for or expect. | Surprise |
| The relative speed and rhythm of military operations over time with respect to the enemy. | Tempo |
| 4 characteristics of the Offense | Audacity, concentration, tempo, surprise (SAC-T) |
| OPFOR defensive zone consists of what 5 zones? | Deep Area, frontal blocking zone, fronteir defense zone, depth defense zone, and rear defense zone |
| forward area in which independent SOF units conduct recon and disruption activities prior to heavy enemy contact. | Deep Area |
| Forward-most area occupied by the defensive group. Screening, recon, and counter-recon missions are the primary focus in this zone. The | Frontal blocking zone |
| Which zone is the cover group in? | Frontal blocking zone |
| The zone that typically contains the main line of defense, | Fronteir Defense Zone |
| Fronteir defense group is in which zone | Fronteir Defense Zone |
| The zone that houses the Depth Defense Group, | depth defense zone |
| designed to facilitate the commitment of the depth defense group to defeat the enemy’s main effort. | depth defense zone |
| The zone that houses the Combat Reserve Group, long-range firepower, command posts, and forward logistics support | Rear defense zone |
| OPFOR Combined Arms Brigade resides in which defense group? | Cover Group - in the frontal blocking zone |
| 7 carachteristics of the defense | disruption, flexibility, manuever, mass and concentration, security depth, preperation |
| Deceiving or destroying enemy reconnaissance forces, breaking up combat formations, separating echelons, and impeding an enemy force’s ability to synchronize its combined arms. | disruption |
| Developing plans that anticipate a range of enemy actions and allocate resources accordingly. | flexibility |
| Achieving and exploiting a position of physical advantage over an enemy force. | maneuver |
| Creating overwhelming combat power at specific locations to support the main effort. | mass and concentration |
| Engaging multiple enemy echelons, enemy long-range fires, sustainment, and C2. | depth |
| Preparing the defense before attacking enemy forces arrive. | preperation |
| Conducting security, protection, information activities, operations security, and cyberspace and electromagnetic warfare tasks. | security\ |
| What are the four offesive zones for OPFOR? | Deep area, frontline zone, reserve zone, and garrision zone |
| the six army stability operations tasks | civil security, civil control, restore essential services, support to governance, econ and infra development, security cooperation |
| states where the central government does not exert effective control over its own territory or is unable or unwilling to assure the provision of vital services to significant parts of its territory, | Crisis |
| Those states unable or unwilling to adequately assure the provision of security and basic services to significant portions of their populations and where the legitimacy of the government is in question. | Vulnerable |
| are the equivalent of rules of engagement, except that they apply in domestic situations. | RUF (state) ; SRUF (federal) |
| DSCA Core Pusposes | save lives, restore essential services, maintain law & order, protect infra, support mx of lcl gov, shape enviro |
| The principle of a tiered response | means that the lowest level of government always maintains its authorityand initiates requests for help. |
| USINDOPACOM conducts DSCA in | Hawaii, Guam, and American Samoa, and the U.S. territories within its AOR. |
| At the civil level of a tiered response | A primary (or lead) civilian agency establishes the priority of effort for military forces. |
| at the federal level of a tiered response | typically Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA). |
| at the state level of a tiered response | At the state level, the state emergency management agency (names vary by state). |
| Disaster declaration under __________ Act is typically how federal military forces are assigned to DSCA missions. | Stafford Act |
| At a minimum staff running estimates address | facts/assumptions, METT-TC, friendly and enemy capes, civil consid, conclusion & rec |
| End state: production of an operation plan (OPLAN) or operation order (OPORD) | MDMP |
| Who does initial time allocations? | Provided in Commander's guidance; details worked by CoS/XO |
| is an event that directly influences mission accomplishment. | A critical event (substep 5 of COA Analysis) |
| Actions that the Cdr can take after COA Dev | select, modify, reject. Provide new COA. Provide guidance for COA Analysis/Wargame |
| what the commander should give in final planning guidance | refined commander intent, new CCIRs, priorities for WtF, order prep, rehearse, acceptable risk |
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