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What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex?
Select one:
a.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
b.
Synergistic dominance
c.
Reciprocal inhibition
d.
Altered length-tensi
Select one:
a.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
b.
Synergistic dominance
c.
Reciprocal inhibition
d.
Altered length-tensi
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Question
What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on?
Select one:
a.
Speed of force generation
b.
Muscle size
c.
Fat content
d.
Speed of force reduction
Select one:
a.
Speed of force generation
b.
Muscle size
c.
Fat content
d.
Speed of force reduction
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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. Synergistic dominance c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Altered length-tensi | Altered reciprocal inhibition |
| What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on? Select one: a. Speed of force generation b. Muscle size c. Fat content d. Speed of force reduction | Speed of force generation |
| What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? a. Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising c. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular c | Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance |
| Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. 135/80 mm Hg b. 124/80 mm Hg c. 118/78 mm Hg d. 143/92 mm Hg | A 135/80 mm Hg |
| Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Select one: a. Balance b. Core stability c. Overall base strength d. Motor unit recruitment | D. |
| What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? Select one Limiting strain on the vertebral discs b.Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments c.Stabilize individual vertebral segments d.Force production during dynamic who | Force production during dynamic whole-body movements |
| Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Select one: a.Semi-dynamic balance b.Static balance c.Moderate-level balance | Semi-dynamic balance |
| Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model? Select one: a.Strength b.Stabilization .Power d.Strength Endurance | d.Strength Endurance |
| If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production? a.Glycolysis b.Oxidative phosphorylation c.The citric acid cycle d.The ATP-PC system | d.The ATP-PC system |
| Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides? Select one: a. Extension b. Frontal c. Transverse d. Sagittal | d.Sagittal |
| What is the high-energy compound used by the body to do work? Select one: a. Fat b. ADP c. Glucose d. ATP | d.ATP |
| If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? Select one: a. Beta-oxidation b. The ATP-PC system c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Glycolysis | Oxidative phosphorylation |
| What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle? Select one: a.Altered length-tension relationship b.Altered reciprocal inhibition c.Synergistic dominance d.Reciprocal inhibition | Synergistic dominance |
| What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training? Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed b.Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitnes | Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power |
| The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a.Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus d.Hamstrings and erector spinae | Hamstrings and erector spinae |
| What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months? Select one: a. Action b. Maintenance c. Contemplation d. Precontemplation | a.Action |
| During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action? Select one: a. Isometric b. Concentric c. Eccentric d. Isokinetic | c. Eccentric |
| What is stroke volume? a.The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction d. The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute | The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction |
| Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset? Select one: a. Lat pulldown b. Dumbbell shoulder press c. Front medicine ball oblique throw d. Stability ball push-up | Front medicine ball oblique throw |
| Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client's strengths? Select one: a. Transitional summaries b. Collecting summaries c. Affirmations d. Reflections | c. Affirmations |
| How is ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) best defined? Select one: a. An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels b. The point during graded exercise in which ven | The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources |
| What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Select one: a. Pilates b. Gentle static stretching c. Deep soft-tissue massage d. General cardiovascular exercise | b. Gentle static stretching |
| Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? a. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation b. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension c. The biceps brachii bei | c. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension |
| What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics? b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg c. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg d. Ankle dorsiflexion, kne | Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg |
| What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system’s role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? a. Muscle imbalance b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Length-tension relationship | c. Reciprocal inhibition |
| What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis? a. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises. b. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching. c. | Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling. |
| What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s maximal heart rate? Select one: a. HRmax x % intensity desired b. 208 - (0.7 x age) c. VO2max x % intensity desired d. [(HRmax - HRrest) x % intensity desired] + HRrest | b. 208 - (0.7 x age) |
| Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Rhomboids b. Middle and lower trapezius c. Latissimus dorsi d. Posterior deltoid | c.Latissimus dorsi |
| What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system? a.To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body b.To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons c.To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron d.To | a.To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body |
| What is the RDA for protein? Select one: a. 1.6 g/kg of body weight b. 0.8 g/kg of body weight c. 1.2 g/kg of body weight d. 2.0 g/kg of body weight | b. 0.8 g/kg of body weight |
| Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer? Select one: a. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. b. Core training poses | Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments. |
| Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Abdominals c. Adductor complex d. Lower trapezius | b. Abdominals |
| What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg? Select one: a. Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring b. None are needed, as this value is considered normal (i.e., maintenance | Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring |
| Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Select one: a. Stable floor environment b. Aqua therapy c. Weight training d. Biomechanical ankle platform system | Biomechanical ankle platform system |
| In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 4 d. Phase 5 | b. Phase 2 |
| Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Erector spinae c. Multifidus d. Rectus abdominis | c. Multifidus |
| With SAQ training, what is the recommended number of sets of each drill for young athletes to perform? Select one: a. 7 to 9 sets b. 0 sets c. 1 to 4 sets d. 5 or 6 sets | c. 1 to 4 sets |
| How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Select one: a. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion b. As far as can be controlled without compensating c. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion d. Thighs parallel to the ground | As far as can be controlled without compensating |
| For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated? a.Clients with an underactive gluteal complex b. Youth clients between the ages of 4 and 8, in whom growth plates are not fused c. Clients who are in the third t | C |
| Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus and medius b. Tensor fascia latae and adductor complex c. Upper trapezius d. Hip flexors | B |
| How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout? a. Normal conversation is maintained. b. Inability to speak at all c. Continuous talking becomes challenging d. Only a few words can be produced between breaths | Continuous talking becomes challenging |
| If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called? Select one: a. Stretch reflex b. Eccentric contraction c. Lengthening reaction d. Isometric | Stretch reflex |
| According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training? Select one: a. Plyometrics b. Resistance training c. Rehabilitation d. Core | Rehabilitation |
| Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Hip flexor complex c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Gluteus maximus | d. Gluteus maximus |
| Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities? Select one: a. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power. b | a. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power. |
| During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back? Select one: a. Hip adduction b. Hip extension c. Hip flexion d. Hip internal rotation | B |
| Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion? All planes of motion b. Sagittal and transverse c. Transverse and frontal d. Frontal and sagittal | Frontal and sagittal |
| A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client? a. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists. b. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows. c.Th | C |
| Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body? Select one: a. The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support b. The area beneath a person that consists of all points | The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support |
| Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Overload principle b. Archimedes’ principle c. Davis's law d. Wolff's law | c. Davis's law |
| Which vitamin is the most transient? Select one: a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin E | C |
| What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Select one: a. Beta-oxidation b. Acidosis c. Glycolysis d. Ketosis | a. Beta-oxidation |
| What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Anterior tibialis b. Infraspinatus c. Scalenes d. Subscapularis | Subscapularis |
| Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin? Select one: a. Folate b. Niacin c. Pantothenic acid d. Vitamin C | A |
| What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? Select one: a. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion b. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation c. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulde | C |
| When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? Select one: a. Oxidation b. Phosphorylation c. Transformation d. ATP-PC | B |
| Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier? a. Let them know that you will not take no for an answer because exercise is good for e | d. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate. |
| According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics? Select one: a. Power b. Strength c. Neuromuscular stabilization d. Speed | c. Neuromuscular stabilization |
| Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion? a. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg b. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg c | c. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms |
| What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3? Select one: a. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day. b. Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining c. At least two days | a. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day. |
| Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity? Select one: a. Phase 5 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 2 d. Phase 4 | d. Phase 4 |
| Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion? Select one: a. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally. b. Athletic performance is a universal goal. c. Multiplanar | a. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally. |
| If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do? Select one: a. Walking for 5 minutes b. High-intensity exercise for less than 10 minutes c. Low- to moderate-intensity | c. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes |
| Which muscles are typically overactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Lower trapezius b. Hip flexors c. Upper trapezius d. Adductor complex | c. Upper trapezius |
| Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Infraspinatus c. Lower trapezius d. Upper trapezius and levator scapula | d. Upper trapezius and levator scapula |
| Most bodyweight training exercises are considered which type of movements? Select one: a. Closed-chain movements b. Open-chain movements c. Loaded movements d. Suspended bodyweight movements | a. Closed-chain movements |
| What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream? Select one: a. Hypertension b. Hypotension c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyperglycemia | c. Hypoglycemia |
| The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Cardiac output b. Venous return c. Resting heart rate d. Stroke volume | Stroke Volume |
| Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule? Select one: a. Acetyl CoA b. Pyruvate c. Amino acids d. ATP | a. Acetyl CoA |
| Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect? Select one: a. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae b. Scapula and humerus c. Cranium and facial bones d. Sternum and clavicle | Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae |
| In which training stage would you utilize work intervals performed just above VT1 and recovery intervals performed below VT1? Select one: a. Stage 2 training b. Stage 4 training c. Stage 3 training d. Stage 1 training | Stage 2 |
| What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Select one: a. Shortening of the agonist muscle b. Stretching of the agonist muscle c. Transitioning of forces d. Stretching of the antago | Stretching of the antagonist muscle |
| Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee. b. This stretch is too advanced for the average person. | A |
| Which joints are most associated with human movement? Select one: a. Nonsynovial b. Saddle c. Synovial d. Nonaxial | Synovial |
| Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Lower trapezius c. Upper trapezius d. Cervical extensors | Lower Trapezius |
| Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat? Select one: a. Tensor fascia latae b. Lower trapezius c. Gluteus maximus and medius d. Adductor complex | Gluteus maximus and medius |
| What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. Acute damage, repair, and tissue growth b. Stabilization, strength, and power c. Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion d. Glycolysis, Krebs cycl | Alarm reaction, resistance development, and exhaustion |
| Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Frontal plane b. Sagittal plane c. Horizontal plane d. Transverse plane | Frontal |
| Which regions of the spine demonstrate lordotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and thoracic b. Cervical and sacral c. Cervical and lumbar d. Thoracic and lumbar | Cervical and lumbar |
| What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Stabilize vertebral segments b. Move the trunk c. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement d. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities | Stabilize vertebral segments |
| Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function? Select one: a. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test b. Rockport walk test c. YMCA 3-minute step test d. Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test | Ventilatory threshold (VT1) test |
| Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions? Select one: a. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume b. Increased lipolysis c. Increased lipogenesis d. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate | Increased lipolysis |
| What is the superior boundary of the core? Select one: a. Abdominal muscles b. Diaphragm c. Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles d. Pelvic floor and hip musculature | Diaphragm |
| Which of the following hormones, if increased at baseline, may be indicative of overtraining? Select one: a. Testosterone b. Cortisol c. Thyroxin d. Growth hormon | Cortisol |
| During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body? Select one: a. Ball squat b. Squat, curl to two-arm press c. Multiplanar step-up d. Single-leg Romanian deadlift | b. Squat, curl to two-arm press |
| Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left ventricle d. Left atrium | Left ventricle |
| Which of the following is a ketone body? Select one: a. Glycogen b. Lactic acid c. Acetoacetic acid d. Pyruvate | Acetoacetic acid |
| Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important? Select one: a. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. d. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply | d. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward. |
| What is the primary action of the multifidus? Select one: a. Increase intra-abdominal pressure b. Regulate inspiration c. Support the contents of the pelvis d. Stabilize and extend the spine | What is the primary action of the multifidus? Select one: a. Increase intra-abdominal pressure b. Regulate inspiration c. Support the contents of the pelvis d. Stabilize and extend the spine |
| Which of the following statements is considered to be most accurate? Select one: a. Greater caloric expenditure in exercise translates to increased cardiorespiratory fitness levels. b. An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong p | b. An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of morbidity and mortality. |
| Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins? Select one: a. Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels. b. Biologically active forms are less efficient. c. Biologically active fo | Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels. |
| Of the following individuals, who would be the most suitable for being programmed SAQ (speed, agility, and quickness) exercises/movements? Select one: a. A client who has been training 2 months with some improvements in strength b. A client who h | A client who has been training for 1 month with adequate strength |
| Which of the following factors is not present when a client is making a transition to the Power Phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Adequate joint stability b. Deconditioning c. Power exercise familiarity d. Adequate core stability | Deconditioning |
| Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends? Select one: a. Proprietary blends are featured on all supplements. d. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed. | d. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed. |
| Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics? Select one: a. Hip flexion b. Ankle dorsiflexion c. Knee flexion d. Hip extension | Hip extension |
| What is end-systolic volume? Select one: a. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction | The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction |
| What artery is used to measure blood pressure? Select one: a. Carotid artery b. Radial artery c. Femoral artery d. Brachial artery | d. Brachial artery |
| Which of the following would be a helpful and sustainable strategy for achieving a moderate calorie deficit for fat loss? Select one: a. Avoiding a food group (e.g., fats or carbohydrates) b. Replacing high-fiber foods with low-fiber options c | c. Replacing high-calorie foods with leaner substitutes |
| Into which category would a resting blood pressure score of 128/79 mm Hg fall? Select one: a. Normal b. Stage 1 hypertension c. Elevated d. Stage 2 hypertension | elevated |
| Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? a. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant. b. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to p | As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. |
| What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex? Select one: a. Plantar fasciitis and shin splints b. Sprains and plantar fasciitis | Sprains and plantar fasciitis |
| Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization? b. Undulating periodization c. Localized periodization d. Linear periodization | Linear PEriod |
| What is sarcopenia? Select one: a. Age-related loss of muscle tissue b. Age-related loss in bone mineral density c. Chronic inflammation of the joints | Age-related loss of muscle tissue |
| What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension? Select one: a. A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg c. | A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic |
| Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Hamstrings complex b. Hip flexor complex c. Gluteus maximus d. Gluteus medius | Hip Flexor complex |
| What is sarcopenia? Select one: a. Age-related loss of muscle tissue b. Age-related loss in bone mineral density c. Chronic inflammation of the joints | Age-related loss of muscle tissue |
| What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test? Select one: a. A cadence of 60 steps per minute b. A cadence of 96 steps per minute c. A cadence of 36 steps per minute | B |
| What blood pressure is reflective of stage 1 hypertension? A reading of 120 to 129 mm Hg systolic and less than 80 mm Hg diastolic b. A systolic reading greater than 180 mm Hg and/or a diastolic reading greater than 120 mm Hg c. A reading of 13 | A reading of 130 to 139 mm Hg systolic or 80 to 89 mm Hg diastolic |
| Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Select one: a. Brachialis b. Biceps brachii c. Brachioradialis | Brachioradialis |
| The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus d. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators | d. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators |
| If a client performs a stabilization workout on Monday, a power workout on Wednesday, and an SAQ sports workout on Saturday, what kind of periodization is being used for their mesocycle? Select one: a. Undulating b. Mesocycle c. Macrocycle | Undulating |
| Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Middle and lower trapezius b. Pectoralis major c. Latissimus dorsi d. Teres major | Middle and lower trapezius |
| Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch? Select one: a. This stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine. | b. This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine. |
| A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive? Select one: A veractive core stabilizers and underactive hi | Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals |
| Core and balance exercises are a component of which part of an OPT workout? Select one: a. Client's choice b. Resistance training c. Activation | Activation |
| Which of the following is iron considered to be? Select one: a. Performance supplement b. Macromineral c. Vitamin d. Trace mineral | Trace |
| Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core? Select one: a. Side plank b. Floor crunch c. Cable rotation | Side plank |
| What location on the body does NASM recommend for measuring the resting heart rate? Select one: a. Femoral pulse b. Carotid pulse c. Pedal pulse d. Radial pulse | Radial pulse |
| What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation? Select one: a. The trunk leaning forward b. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears c. The arms falling forward | the shoulders moving upward toward the ears |
| How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise? Select one: a. 11 to 15% of body weight b. At least 21% of body weight c. No more than 10% of body weight | C |
| Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature? Select one: a. Medicine ball pullover throw b. Front medicine ball oblique throw | Medicine ball pullover throw |
| What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do? Select one: a. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP. b. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions. c. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP | C |
| When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Select one: a. Isometric contraction b. Autogenic inhibition | B |
| What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2? Select one: a. An RPE of 3 to 4 b. An RPE of 9 to 10 c. An RPE of 7 to 8 d. An RPE of 5 to 6 | D |
| Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be enhanced by using pulling motions? Select one: a. Lateral b. Posterior c. Anterior d. Superior | B |
| What is defined as the specific outline created by a fitness professional that details the form of training, length of time, and specific exercises to be performed? Select one: a. Macrocycle b. Periodization c. Training plan | C |
| Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise? Select one: a. Stability ball Russian twist b. Supine floor crunches Incline plank | Incline Plank |
| Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 5 or 6 sets b. 1 or 2 sets | B |
| Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise? Select one: a. Exercising because a doctor tells them to b. Exercising because they feel guilty c. Exercising because it is fun | C |
| Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability? Select one: a. Strength machines b. Suspended bodyweight training | A |
| What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions? Select one: a. Nonverbal communication b. Reflective listening c. Verbal communication | a. Nonverbal communication |
| Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action? Select one: a. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation b. The gastrocncnemius | Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation |
| What is the ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)? Select one: a. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel | The point at which the body shifts almost entirely to using carbohydrates for fuel |
| What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children? Select one: a. 10 minutes b. 35 minutes c. 5 minutes | 10 |
| What is bioenergetics? Select one: a. The study of weight loss b. The study of metabolism during exercise c. The study of aerobic metabolism d. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energ | The study of the ways in which food is turned into energ |
| What is a regression for the box jump-up with stabilization? Select one: a. Depth jumps b. Multiplanar jump with stabilization c. Squat jump with stabilization | C |
| A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed? Select one: a. 3 seconds b. 1 second c. 4 seconds | 4 seconds |
| What is the finished hand position when performing the ball cobra exercise? Select one: a. Thumbs pointing up b. Thumbs pointing down c. Palms facing each other | Thumbs pointing up |
| What best describes the all-or-nothing principle? Select one: a. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers b. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers c. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all. | C |
| Your client has shown great improvements in their mobility and flexibility. Following the OPT model, what phase would you recommend next? Select one: a. Phase 2 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 5 | A |
| Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following? Select one: a. Motor unit recruitment b. Functional movement c. Force production d. Tissue overload | Tissue overload |
| Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Select one: a. Left ventricle b. Right ventricle c. Right atrium | C |
| Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurat The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% o | The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. |
| What phase of plyometric movement is also referred to as the electromechanical delay? Select one: a. Amortization b. Eccentric c. Isometric | A |
| How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described? Select one: a. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading b. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases | The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading |
| What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis b. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis c. Cancer and bleeding disorders | Joint hypermobility and scoliosis |
| Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Select one: a. Depletion of phosphocreatine b. Free hydrogen ions | Free hydrogen ions |
| Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Select one: a. Acceleration b. Stride rate c. Speed d. Assessment of visual stimuli | Assessment of visual stimuli |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of linear periodization? Select one: a. Changes acute variables on a weekly basis b. Increases intensity while decreasing volume c. Helps prevent workouts from becoming boring | B |
| When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Select one: a. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2 b. Above VT2 c. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 d. Below VT1 | From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 |
| Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions? Select one: a. Preplanned voluntary contractions c. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions | Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions |
| Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Gluconeogenesis b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. Glycolysis d. Oxidation | Glucogenesis |
| Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus b. Hip flexor c. Erector spinae d. Gluteus medius | Gluteus medius |
| Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis? Select one: a. Bracing b. Medicine ball throw c. Back squat d. Drawing-in maneuver | D |
| Overactive hip flexor may lead to which postural compensation Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch | Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch |
| What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise? Select one: a. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis b. Exercise activity thermogenesis c. Thermic dExcess postexercise oxygen consumption | Excess postexercise oxygen consumption |
| The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique? Select one: a. Static stretching b. Ballistic stretching c. Active stretching d. Dynamic stretching | Static |
| Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following? Select one: a. Decreased blood flow b. Lower body temperature c. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE) | A |
| What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Bracing b. Isolating c. Drawing in d. Inhibition | Bracing |
| What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? Select one: a. Thermoregulation b. Blood pressure c. Heart rate d. Peripheral vasodilation | Peripheral vasodilation |
| Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Abdominals c. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors d. Upper trapezius | Hip flexors and lumbar extensors |
| To enable weight-loss clients to perform SAQ exercises at a high intensity in a variety of movements, what can fitness professionals create? Select one: a. Small circuits b. Steady-state treadmill workouts c. Long continuous runs | Small circuits |
| What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Venous pooling | Frank Starling Law of the Heart |
| ich of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? Select one: a. Flexibility b. Body composition c. Resting heart rate d. Blood pressure | Flexibility |
| Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power? Select one: a. Medicine ball chest pass b. Terra-Core push-up c. Sandbag step-up d. Barbell squat | a. Medicine ball chest pass |
| When using battle ropes as a modality, what diameter of rope would best be used for strength, power, and anaerobic adaptations in which exercises are performed for 30 seconds or less? Select one: a. 1.5 in. b. 2 in. c. 0.5 in. | 2 |
| What are the two categories of bone markings? Select one: a. Short and long b. Depressions and processes c. Surface and deep d. Irregular and flat | Depressions and processes |
| What is homeostasis? Select one: a. Any abnormal condition that negatively affects the structure or function of a part of the body b. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium | A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium |
| Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the lower extremities? Select one: a. Squat b. Lunge c. Overhead squat d. Single-leg squat | A |
| which following statements pertaining to (HIIT) is incorrect Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. | b. Measuring intensity by one's “effort” (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. |
| What training stage is ideally suited for new exercisers seeking general health-and-fitness improvements, such as reducing their risk for diabetes? Select one: a. Stage 3 b. Stage 1 c. Stage 2 d. Stage 4 | b. Stage 1 |
| In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 1 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 4 | Zone 3 |
| Which of the following is characterized as a global muscle of the core on the posterior aspect of the body? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Quadratus lumborum c. Multifidus d. Diaphragm | A |
| When performing a floor bridge exercise, why should you not raise the hips too far off the floor? Select one: a.It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension. | It may place excessive stress on the lumbar spine through hyperextension. |
| The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally? Select one: a. Inferiorly b. Superiorly c. Medially d. Laterally | Inferiorly |
| From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? Select one: a. 9 or 10 drills b. 4 to 6 drills c. 7 to 9 drills d. 1 or 2 drills | 4-6 |
| The core is defined by the muscles in which region of the body? Select one: a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region b. Leg region c. Back region d. Scapular region | Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex region |
| What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)? Select one: a. About 5-15% b. About 90% c. About 30% d. About 50% | A |
| Core stability is best described as: Select one: a. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving b. The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine c. The ability t | The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving |
| The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Deltoid c. Rotator cuff muscles d. Rhomboi | Serratus Anterior |
| Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat? Select one: a. Gluteus medius b. Biceps brachii c. Quadriceps d. Adductor longus | Quadraceps |
| Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Two-arm push press b. Medicine ball chest pass c. Soccer throw d. Front medicine ball oblique throw | Two-arm push press |
| When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used? Select one: a. Knee flexion b. Ankle dorsiflexion c. Ankle plantar flexion d. Hip abduction | Ankle plantar |
| Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Diaphragm c. Quadriceps d. Multifidus | Latissimus dorsi |
| For effective weight loss, how many calories should obese clients expend per exercise session? Select one: a. 25 to 75 kcal b. 600 to 700 kcal c. 200 to 300 kcal d. 100 to 150 kcal | 200-300 |
| Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. First class b. Fourth class c. Second class d. Third class | third |
| How is osteopenia best described? Select one: a. A disease characterized by low bone density. b. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. | An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. |
| What is adaptive thermogenesis? Select one: a. Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake b. Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake | B |
| Which muscles are typically overactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Gastrocnemius and soleus b. Upper trapezius c. Hip flexors d. Adductor complex | Gastranemous nd soleus |
| Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Appropriateness b. Validity c. Reliability d. Relevance | Validity |
| Flexibility is defined as the following: Select one: a. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely b. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion | Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion |
| Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? Select one: a. Suspended bodyweight training b. Resistance band c. Kettlebell d. Medicine ball | Medicine ball |
| The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Select one: a. Serratus anterior b. Deltoid c. Rotator cuff muscles d. Rhomboid | Serratus anterior |
| Core stability is best described as: Select one: a. The ability to resist external resistance in the lumbar spine while the extremities are actively moving b. The ability to generate power and rotation in the lumbar spine c. The ability to de | A |
| What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)? Select one: a. About 5-15% b. About 90% c. About 30% d. About 50% | 5-15 |
| What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin? Select one: a. 0.4 b. 0.25 c. 0.1 d. 0.5 | 0.5 |
| Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation? a. Type 2 diabetes b. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis | B |
| A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity? Select one: a. The talk test b. Haskell’s 220-minus-age formula c. Metabolic Equivalent (MET) | Talk test |
| Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury? Select one: a. Assisted supine hamstring stretch b. Supine hamstrings stretch c. Standing hamstring stretch d. Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings | D |
| When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement? a. It increases muscular hypertrophy. b. It decreases challenges to balance and stability. It increases flexibility and joint mobility. | It increases flexibility and joint mobility |
| Why is a jump-down exercise considered more advanced than a jump-up exercise? Select one: a. Jumping down limits eccentric contractions. b. Jumping down challenges landing mechanics. c. Jumping down lessens force deceleration. | B |
| If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Sternocleidomastoid | Sternocleidomastoid |
| What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach? Select one: a. Sulcus b. Processes c. Bone spurs d. Depressions | Process |
| What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin? Select one: a. 0.4 b. 0.25 c. 0.1 d. 0.5 | 0.5 |
| What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates? Select one: a. Carbohydrates that are difficult to digest b.Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that contain both fiber and starch | B |
| Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight | A |
| Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults? Select one: a. 5 or 6 sets b. 1 or 2 sets c. 3 or 4 sets | 1-2 |
| You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ? Select one: a. 0 times per week b. 5 to 7 times per week c. 4 or 5 times per week d. 1 to 3 times per week | 1-3 times |
| If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn’t use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs? Select one: a. The unused energy is dissipated as heat. b. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain. | The unused energy is dissipated as heat. |
| Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? Select one: a. Speed ladders b. Strength machines c. ViPR | C |
| What is the peripheral heart action system? a repetitions within a series of sets b.A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit | B |
| Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle? Select one: a. Peripheral b. Appendicular c. Latera | Appendicular |
| Which of the following is magnesium classified as? Select one: a. Macronutrient b. Vitamin c. Trace mineral d. Macrominera | Macromineral |
| Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Single-leg squat b. Single-leg lift and chop | A |
| What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Altered length-tension relationship c. Altered reciprocal inhibition | Altered reciprocal inhibition |
| Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Select one: a. Static balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. Dynamic balance | Semi dynamic balance |
| What is known as a sudden lack of blood supply to the brain, caused by either a blockage in an artery or a ruptured blood vessel? Select one: a. Heart failure b. Stroke c. Intermittent claudication | Stroke |
| What is the most appropriate gluteal strengthening exercise for a client with hypertension? Select one: a. Dumbbell squat while performing the Valsalva maneuver b. Ball bridge c. Standing cable hip extension | Standing cable hip extension |
| What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation “muscular strength and hypertrophy” fall into? Select one: a. Muscular Development b. Power c. Strength Endurance | A |
| What is homeostasis? Select one: a. A situation in which the human body is rapidly changing all the time b. A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium | A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium |
| How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Three b. Seven c. Four | four |
| Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? Select one: a. Stability ball plank b. Suspended bodyweight crunch c. Medicine ball catch and pass | Medicine ball catch and pass |
| If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine? a. Upper trapezius b. Sternocleidomastoid | B |
| What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw? Select one: a. Fourth class b. Second class c. First class d. Third class | First |
| Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training? Select one: a. Cortisol b. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) c. Glucagon d. Calcitonin | B |
| What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person? Select one: a. 105 beats per minute b. 50 beats per minute c. 80 beats per minute | 80 bpm |
| Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Lower trapezius c. Serratus anterior d. Cervical extensors | Lower Trapz |
| What are the recommended training variables for static stretching? Select one: a. 5 to 10 sets, hold each stretch for 10 seconds b. 2 to 5 sets, hold each stretch for 5 minutes c. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 30 seconds | C |
| What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Select one: a. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure b. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure | A |
| Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment? Select one: a. Upper trapezius b. Infraspinatus c. Lower trapezius d. Latissimus dorsi | Upper Trapz |
| Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? Select one: a. Frontal plane b. Lumbar spine c. Thoracic spine | Thoracic Spine |
| Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics? Select one: a. Hip extension b. Hip abduction c. Knee extension | Hip abduction |
| What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 1 c. Phase 2 | three |
| For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders? Select one: a. Depressed and slightly protracted b. Elevated and slightly protracted c. Depressed and slightly retracted | Depressed and slightly retracted |
| What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)? Select one: a. 90 minutes per week b. 120 minutes per week c. 75 minutes per week | 75 |
| What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion? Select one: a. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate b. 140 beats per minute | 140 |
| Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Select one: a. Drop set b. Peripheral heart action system c. Pyramid system | periphal heart action |
| Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Adductor complex b. Abdominals c. Upper trapezius d. Anterior and posterior tibialis | Anterior and posterior tibialis |
| What is the correct position of the hands during the standing hammer curl exercise? Select one: a. Palms facing up b. Palms facing outward away from each other c. Palms facing inward toward each other | C |
| What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Acceleration c. Amortization d. Deceleration | Deceleration |
| Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site? Select one: a. Troponin b. Myosin c. Fascicles d. Actin | troponin |
| What do the V and P represent within the FITTE-VP principle for designing cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Variables and progression b. Volume and progression c. Velocity and pattern | volume and progression |
| What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Erector spinae c. Rectus abdominis | erector spinae |
| The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum b. Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators | B |
| What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes b. 1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds c. 5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds | B |
| Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? Select one: a. Fat b. Ketone bodies c. Glucose d. Protein | Glucose |
| What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training? Select one: a. Concentric b. Isometric c. Isokinetic | isometric |
| Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions? Select one: a. Preplanned voluntary contractions b. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions | B |
| Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown b. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row | Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row |
| What is end-diastolic volume? Select one: a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction | c. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction |
| What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year’s worth of programming? | Macrocycle |
| What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Gait b. Jump c. Land d. Stabilize | Jump |
| Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Hip flexor complex b. Rectus abdominis c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Gluteus maximus | Gleutus Max |
| What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node? Select one: a. Right bundle branch b. Internodal pathway c. Left bundle branch | Internodal pathway |
| Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Transverse abdominis c. Latissimus dorsi d. Rectus abdominis | Tranvserse abdominis |
| What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking? Select one: a. 125 minutes per week b. 150 minutes per week c. 300 minutes per week | 150 |
| You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? Select one: a. 4 to 5 drills b. 9 or 10 drills c. 2 to 4 drills d. 6 to 8 drills | 6-8 |
| Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. Select one: a. Proprioceptive b. Loaded c. Unilateral d. Bilateral | Unilateral |
| Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac | B |
| The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which a. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action | A |
| The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally? Select one: a. Laterally b. Inferiorly c. Medially d. Superiorly | Inferiorily |
| Contraction of the hamstring and rectus abdominis muscles create what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Lateral pelvic tilt b. Posterior pelvic tilt c. Anterior pelvic tilt | B |
| What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise? Select one: a. Deep cervical flexors b. Posterior chain c. Intrinsic core musculature | Posterior chain |
| Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset? Select one: a. Bench press and stability ball push-ups b. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups c. Deadlifts and squats | Bench press and stability ball push-ups |
| Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets development of the rate of force production (power) of the core? Select one: a. Bird dog b. Medicine ball woodchop throw c. Cable chop | B |
| When a muscle is held during a stretch for a prolonged period, the GTO is activated, which results in the muscle relaxing. What is this action called? Select one: a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Autogenic inhibition c. Stretch reflex | Autogenic inhibition |
| What are the end products of the electron transport chain? Select one: a. ATP and water b. ADP and water c. ADP and hydrogen ions | ATP an Water |
| Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature. Select one: a. Proprioceptive b. Loaded c. Unilateral | Unilateral |
| Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power? Select one: a. Biceps brachii b. Latissimus dorsi c. Triceps brachii | Triceps Brachii |
| What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased heart rate b. Increased end-systolic volume c. Decreased stroke volume d. Increased heart rate | Increased heart rate |
| Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Pulmonary veins | Left atrium |
| Which of the following is a component of agility training? Select one: a. Stride rate b. Assessment of visual stimuli c. Deceleration d. Reaction | Deceleration |
| Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core? Select one: a. Local muscles b. Local and global muscles c. Back muscles only d. Global muscles | local muscles |
| Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise targets large muscle groups. b. The exercise is rhythmic. c. The exercise is intense. | B |
| Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function? Select one: a. It helps transmit the motor signal. b. It converts ADP back to ATP. c. d. It stimulates actin and myosin activity. | D |
| What is defined as an individual’s level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage? Select one: a. Training duration b. Training volume c. Training frequency d. Training intensity | D |
| What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest? Select one: a. 5.0 mL/kg/min b. 7.0 mL/kg/min c. 2.5 mL/kg/min d. 3.5 mL/kg/min | 3.5 |
| Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance? Select one: a. Permanent scoliosis b. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis c. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis d. Bony scoliosis | functional |
| Which endocrine gland serves as a communication channel between the brain and pituitary gland? Select one: a. Hypothalamus b. Stomach c. Liver d. Pancreas | A |
| Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Select one: a. Pyramid system b. Complex training c. Peripheral heart action system d. Drop set | C |
| Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy? Select one: a. Cool-down b. Resistance c. Client's choice d. Activation | Clients choice |
| What is the definition of kinesiophobia? Select one: a. Fear of heights b. Fear of stairs c. Fear of standing d. Fear of movement | D |
| What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise? Select one: a. Psychological concern b. Contraindication c. Cardiovascular precaution d. Precaution | Contraidiction |
| What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Restrictive lung disease c. Peripheral arterial disease d. Osteoporosis | B |
| When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Transverse abdominis c. Rectus abdominis d. Sternocleidomastoid | B |
| Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times? Select one: a. 30% b. 20% c. 5% d. 10% | 10 |
| Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight | A |
| Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Select one: a. Posterior chain b. Sagittal plane c. Anterior chain d. Transverse plane | Posterior |
| Which movement assessment is a global observation of the entire kinetic chain and recommended as the first movement assessment to use with all clients? Select one: a. Pushing assessment b. Overhead squat c. Pulling assessment | Overhead squat |
| What is meant by the term tolerable upper limit (UL)? Select one: a. The greatest quantity of a vitamin or mineral that may be consumed in a day without risk of an adverse health effect b. The same as daily value (DV) | A |
| Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Select one: a. Visual system b. Vestibular system c. Somatosensory system | Vestibular |
| What type of imagery occurs when a client imagines health-related outcomes? Select one: a. Energy imagery b. Appearance imagery c. Technique imagery | Appearance energy |
| What type of exercise would be suggested to address overactive, shortened hamstrings? Select one: a. Strengthening exercises b. Plyometric exercises c. Balance exercises d. Flexibility exercises | D |
| Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge? Select one: a. Moving a grocery cart b. Cleaning c. Getting in and out of the car d. Raking leave | Cleaning |
| What are the two divisions of the skeletal system? Select one: a. Anterior and posterior b. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts c. Upper and lower d. Axial and appendicular | D |
| Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Transverse abdominis c. Rectus abdominis | Transverse ab |
| Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important function of protein? Select one: a. Insulation of internal organs b. Padding of vital internal organs c. Synthesis of hormones | C |
| Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. Fourth class b. Second class c. Third class d. First class | third |
| In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes? Select one: a. Phase 5 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 2 d. Phase 4 | phase 2 |
| If Joe takes a 6-second heart rate count on his client and notes 8 beats, what would his client’s heart rate be? Select one: a. 66 beats per minute b. 72 beats per minute c. 80 beats per minute | 80 |
| How can systolic blood pressure be defined? | The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded |
| How many vertebrae make up the thoracic spine? Select one: a. 12 b. 5 c. 10 | 12 |
| Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training? Select one: a. Warm-up phase b. Conditioning phase c. Cool-down phase d. Interval phase | D |
| Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position? Select one: a. Speed training b. Powerlifting c. Olympic weightlifting d. Quickness training | D |
| In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging? Select one: a. Zone 2 b. Zone 1 c. Zone 4 | zone 2 |
| Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training? Select one: a. Calcitonin b. Glucagon c. Cortisol d. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) | Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) |
| Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association? Select one: a. Systolic 120 to 129 and diastolic <80 b. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80 | b. Systolic <120 and diastolic <80 |
| What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? Select one: a. Peripheral vasodilation b. Heart rate c. Thermoregulation | Periphal |
| The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called? Select one: a. Excitation-contraction coupling b. Homeostasis | Homeostasis |
| Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded? Select one: a. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation b. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation | B |
| The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? Select one: a. Bronchioles b. Pulmonary arteries c. Trachea d. Alveolar sacs | D |
| Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Cable machines b. Terra-Core c. Suspended bodyweight training | A |
| Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior? Select one: a. Action self-efficacy b. Outcome expectations c. Planning | Planning |
| Which balance training exercise is part of the second stage of balance training that uses dynamic, eccentric, and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion? Select one: a. Single-leg squat | Single leg squar |
| When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased? Select one: a. Rate of force production b. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing | B |
| What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model? Select one: a. Stabilization b. Speed c. Power d. Hypertrophy | Hypertrophy |
| Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure? Select one: a. Duodenum of the small intestine b. The ileum of the large intestine c. Duodenum of the large intestine | Duodenum of the small intestine |
| What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Coping plan c. Guided practice d. Implementation intention | Implementation intention |
| Which regions of the spine demonstrate kyphotic curves? Select one: a. Cervical and sacral b. Cervical and thoracic c. Thoracic and sacral | Thoracic and sacral |
| Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost? a. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis b. Type 2 diabetes | Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis |
| Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics? Select one: a. Ankle plantar flexion b. Hip extension c. Knee extension d. Hip abduction | Hip abduction |
| hen performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user's body weight, according to current recommendations? Select one: a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.4 | 0.1 |
| What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system? Select one: a. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body b. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body | to connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body |
| What is the correct order of the phases of plyometric exercise? | Eccentric loading, amortization, concentric unloading |
| What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification? Select one: a. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category | ability to perform the tasks required for this job category |
| Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex? Select one: a. Anterior oblique subsystem b. Lateral subsystem c. Posterior oblique subsystem | Lateral subsystem |
| The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique? Select one: a. Static stretching b. Dynamic stretching c. Active stretching | Static Stretching |
| Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row b. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat | A |
| What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted? Select one: a. Transformation phase b. Set point c. Action phase d. Baseline value | Baseline value |
| How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described? Select one: a.A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted | A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted |
| What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver? | To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine. |
| Which of the following would be the recommended source of hydration after 40 to 45 minutes of exercise with minimal perspiration? Select one: a. Water b. A hypertonic sports drink c. Fruit juice | Water |
| n what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 3 b. Zone 1 c. Zone 2 | Zone 3 |
| What is the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body? Select one: a. Thermoregulation | Thermo |
| What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction? Select one: a. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system b. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system | A |
| The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area? Select one: a. Depression b. Behavioral change c. Social physique anxiety | Behavoral change |
| During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Hip extensors c. Hip abductors | Hip abductors |
| What is a kilocalorie (kcal)? Select one: a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of wate B BThe amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie. | B |
| Which of the following does not meet the criteria for exercise or activity to be considered aerobic? Select one: a. The exercise is intense. b. The exercise is continuous in nature. c. The exercise is rhythmic. | The exercise is intense. |
| Which of the following is proper technique during a squat movement? Select one: a. Keeping the feet facing inward b. Maintaining equal extension of the ankles and hips c. Tracking the knees over the second and third toes | Tracking the knees over the second and third toes |
| Which of the following is not a purpose of an effective cool-down? Select one: a. Reduce body temperature b. Provide a transition period c. Increase breathing rate | Increase breathing rate |
| How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production? c. It builds up extra heat in the muscles, which makes them more powerful. d. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle. | It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle. |
| What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Jump b. Stabilize c. Land | Jump |
| When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure? Select one: a. An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant b. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing | B |
| What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements b. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments | A |
| What is the Valsalva maneuver? b. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orient A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability | A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability |
| Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement? b. It requires the use of less elastic energy. c. It requires less eccentric deceleration. d. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently. | d. It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently. |
| If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. The ATP-PC system b. Glycolysis | Glycosis |
| In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? Select one: a. Transverse b. Frontal c. Dorsal | Transvverse |
| Which of the following terms can be used in place of repetition tempo? Select one: a. Intensity b. Rest interval c. Speed | Speed |
| In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Power Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training | {Power |
| What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation? b. Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training | B |
| A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? Select one: a. Giant set b. Complex training c. Drop set | Complex Training |
| Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement? Select one: a. 120/60 mm Hg b. 125/75 mm Hg c. 80/120 mm Hg d. 120/80 mm Hg | 120/80 |
| What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)? Select one: a. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate. | It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate. |
| Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Right ventricle c. Left atrium | Right Atrium |
| The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms? Select one: a. Health influence b. Societal influence c. Peer pressure d. Group influence | D |
| What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Select one: a. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension b. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion | Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension |
| Which of the following best defines the base of support of the body? Select one: a. c. The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface | The area beneath a person that consists of all points of contact between the body and the support surface |
| A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed? Select one: a. 1 second b. 4 seconds c. 2 seconds | 2 seconds |
| Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing movement? Select one: a. Davies test b. Standing push assessment c. Standing overhead press | Standing push assesment |
| You have a client seeking weight loss. What range of sets is most appropriate for SAQ drills? Select one: a. 5 or 6 sets b. 1 or 2 sets c. 3 or 4 sets | 3 to 4 |
| Which exercise would be most appropriate for a maximal strength movement in Phase 4 (Maximal Strength Training)? Select one: a. Squat jump b. Shoulder/military press c. Single-leg dumbbell biceps curl to shoulder press | Shoulder Military press |
| A new client has indicated that they are exercising du would be the best choice for the personal trainer in teir initial meetin Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. | d. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. |
| Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Select one: a. Anterior chain b. Transverse plane c. Posterior chain | Posterior |
| Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training? Select one: a. Circuit training b. Hypertrophy training c. Integrated training | Integated |
| For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? Select one: a. Decreased volume and intensity b. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss c. Muscle mass atrophy d. Body fat loss | Body fat loss |
| Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? c. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion d. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension | The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension |
| A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use? Select one: a. Helping them make a plan b. Providing information on the health benefits | Providing information on the health benefits |
| Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause? Select one: a. Place a small board under the heels b. Place a small board under the toes | A |
| components of total daily energy expenditure Responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day? Select one: a. Thermic effect of food (TEF) b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR) Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT) | Resting metabolic rate (RMR) |
| What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart? Select one: a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Arterioles d. Veins | vEINS |
| An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following? Select one: a. Groups function only when all members are present. b. The group feels distinct from other people. | The group feels distinct from other people. |
| During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back? Select one: a. Hip extension b. Hip internal rotation c. Hip adduction | Hip extension |
| Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise? Select one: a. Decreased venous return b. Venous pooling c. Decreased ventricular filling d. Increased ventricular filling | Increased ventricular filling |
| The posterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Select one: a. Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus b. Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum | Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus |
| When discussing fitness trackers and heart rate monitors, which of the following statements is the most accurate? Select one: a. Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort. | Fitness trackers provide the user with conformational feedback, such as a recorded history of exercise time and effort. |
| Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Back extension b. Dead bug c. Plank | Back extension |
| Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership? Select one: a. Leadership styles b. Situational factors c. Leader's qualities | Situational factors |
| What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction? Select one: a. Altered reciprocal inhibition b. d. Stretch-shortening cycle | Stretch-shortening cycle |
| Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Concentric c. Eccentric | Isokinetic |
| What is a common cause of chronic hypertension? Select one: a. 1,500 mg of sodium per day b. Excess weight c. Vigorous exercise | B |
| Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Select one: a. Power b. Endurance c. Stability | Stability |
| The intensity and direction of someone’s effort describes which of the following? Select one: a. Motivation b. Aspiration c. Ambition | Motivation |
| What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Rectus abdominis | Erector spinae |
| Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis? Select one: a. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax). . | Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax). |
| Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Select one: a. Proprioceptive training b. Steady-state aerobic training c. High-impact activity d. Low-impact activity | d. Low-impact activity |
| Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership? Select one: a. Leadership styles b. Situational factors c. Leader's qualities | Situational factors |
| Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant? Select one: a. Isokinetic b. Concentric c. Eccentric | Isokinetic |
| What advice would enable a client to breathe properly? | Sit upright and slowly breathe in through your nose while allowing your stomach to expand. |
| What is a physical benefit of resistance training? Select one: a. Increased resting heart rate b. Increased muscular hypertrophy c. Decreased muscular hypertrophy | Increased muscular hypertrophy |
| During which exercise will the upper body likely fatigue before the lower body? Select one: a. Single-leg Romanian deadlift b. Squat, curl to two-arm press c. Multiplanar step-up | Squat, curl to two-arm press |
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