A newborn male is diagnosed with albinism based on skin, eye, and hair appearance. Which finding will support this diagnosis?

Inability to convert tyrosine to DOPA (3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine)

Irritative syndromes involve

Compressive symptoms plus radicular pain and paresthesias

A herniated disk allows the gelatinous material (the nucleus pulposus) to

Extrude and compress the nerve root

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I.Marin

Pathophysiology

Question	Answer
A nurse recalls that regulation of acid-base balance through removal or retention of volatile acids is accomplished by the:	Lungs.
Which statement by the staff indicates teaching was successful concerning aldosterone? Secretion of aldosterone results in:	Increased blood volume.
While planning care for elderly individuals, the nurse remembers the elderly are at a higher risk for developing dehydration because they have:	Decreased muscle mass.
For a patient experiencing metabolic acidosis, the body will compensate by: Group of answer choices	Hyperventilating.
A 25-year-old male is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal cortex. Which finding would the nurse expect to see in the lab results?	Decreased blood K+ levels
A patient has been searching on the Internet about natriuretic hormones. When the patient asks the nurse what these hormones do, how should the nurse respond? Natriuretic hormones affect the balance of:	Sodium.
Which organ system should the nurse monitor when the patient has long-term potassium deficits?	Kidneys
An infant is experiencing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in the infant’s history and physical?	The baby is Rh positive.
The nurse would correctly respond that the etiology of a congenital immune deficiency is due to a(n):	Genetic defect.
When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse remembers this disease is an example of:	Autoimmunity.
A 22 year old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?	CD4+ T-helper
A nurse recalls that an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is: Group of answer choices	serum sickness.
A 15-year-old male suffers from severe hemorrhage following a motor vehicle accident. He is given a blood transfusion, but shortly afterward the red blood cells are destroyed by agglutination and lysis. Which of the following blood type transfusion type m	A-AB
When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?	Alloimmune
A 30-year-old female complains of fatigue, arthritis, rash, and changes in urine color. Laboratory testing reveals anemia, lymphopenia, and kidney inflammation. Assuming a diagnosis of SLE, which of the following is also likely to be present?	Autoantibodies
An aide asks the nurse why people who have neurofibromatosis will show varying degrees of the disease. Which genetic principle should the nurse explain to the aide?	Expressivity
A 13-year-old girl has a karyotype that reveals an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome present. What medical diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart?	Turner syndrome
A 12-year-old male is diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. His karyotype would reveal which of the following?	XXY
When discussing DNA replication, which enzyme is most important?	DNA polymerase
What genetic disorder is the result if an individual possesses an XXY chromosome configuration?	Klinefelter
What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?	Maternal nondisjunction
A 20-year-old pregnant female gives birth to a stillborn child. Autopsy reveals that the fetus has 92 chromosomes. What term may be on the autopsy report to describe this condition?	Tetraploidy
A newborn male is diagnosed with albinism based on skin, eye, and hair appearance. Which finding will support this diagnosis?	Inability to convert tyrosine to DOPA (3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine)
While reading a textbook, a student reads the term apoptosis. The student recalls that apoptosis is a condition in which cells program themselves to:	Die
A 30-year-old female presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. This wound would be documented as a(n):	contact range entrance.
A 50-year-old female became infected with Clostridium bacteria and died a week later. Examination of her red blood cells revealed lysis of membranes. Which of the following was the most likely cause of her death?	Gas gangrene
A 55-year-old male with a 30-year hXy of smoking is examined for respiratory disturbance. Examination of his airway (bronchial) reveals that stratified squamous epithelial cells have replaced the normal columnar ciliated cells. This type of cellular adapt	Metaplasia.
A 24-year-old female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances. These cellular changes would be referred to as:	pathologic hyperplasia.
A 2 year old swallowed watch batteries. Following ingestion, kidney function was impaired, and the heart began to fail. Which of the following was the most likely cause?	Coagulative necrosis
When a nurse observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6–14 hours after death, the nurse should document this finding as the presence of:	rigor mortis.
Which intervertebral disks should the nurse assess first for herniation?	L4-S1
Your patient's forehead hit the steering wheel during a motor vehicle accident. Which part of the brain received the coup injury?	Frontal
Your patient has a brief episode of neurological deficits that resolves within 12 hours with a return to normal functioning. What diagnosis should you document on the chart?	Transient ischemic attack
What type of injury will the nurse prepare to care for when a patient has a diffuse brain injury?	Concussion
A patient has a recent spinal cord injury. Which term should the nurse use to describe the loss of reflex function below the level of injury/lesion?	Spinal shock
Your patient with HIV has painful burning dysesthesias and paresthesias, especially in the extremities. What condition will you document in the chart?	HIV neuropathy
During your assessment of a patient with meningitis, you want to test for nuchal rigidity. Which test will you implement?	Kernig
During a myasthenia or cholingeric crisis, a patient is in danger or?	Respiratory arrest
Irritative syndromes involve	Compressive symptoms plus radicular pain and paresthesias
A herniated disk allows the gelatinous material (the nucleus pulposus) to	Extrude and compress the nerve root
The nurse is caring for a patient with a genetic disease, that is transmitted through autosomal recessive inheritance. Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?	Cystic fibrosis
Adaptive cellular mechanisms function to	Protect cells from injury
If a patient has liquefactive necrosis, which organ should the nurse assess first?	Brain
The nurse in the genetics clinic is describing a genetic disease that leads to progressive dementia in middle to later adulthood. To which disease is the nurse most likely referring?	Huntington disease
The triplet of base pairs necessary to code for a specific amino acid is called a	Codon
The outward manifestation of a disease, often influenced by both genes and the environment, is called the disease:	Phenotype
The condition that occurs when a zygote is missing in each cell is referred to as:	a "monosomy"
The process by which RNA is formed from DNA for protein synthesis as	Transcription
The somatic cell that contains multiple of 23 chromosomes is called:	An euploid cell
Which is the chief function of ribosomes	Protein synthesis
A disease results in the accumulation of lipids in the nerve cells of the brain	Tay-Sachs disease
Cellular atrophy is	a decrease in cell size
The process by which cells program themselves to die:	Apoptosis
Which causes metaplasia in humans?	Cell injury from noxious stimuli
The postmortem decrease in a patient's body temperature will be documented as:	Algo mortis
Dysplasia is characterized by abnormal changes in:	Cell secretions
Clastogens are agents that cause:	Chromosomal breakage
Which organ is most frequently affected by chronic alcohol (ethanol) injury?	Liver
The nurse documents "tattooing and stippling" in a trauma patient. Which type of injury does this patient have?	Gunshot wounds
When a patient has an extreme laceration (laceration with flap) which medical term should the nurse document on the chart?	An avulsion
A patient with a combined immune deficiency lacks:	T and B lymphocytes
When assessing a patient with SLE, you should expect to identify:	Arthralgia, anemia, and rash
Your patient is having a reaction to a bee sting. Which type of hypersensitivity are they displaying?	Type 1
The major phagocytic cells in inflammation are:	Neutrophils and macrophages
What is the role of plasmin in the inflammatory response cycle?	It controls clotting by breaking down fibrin
Among the many innate defenses the body has to pathogens, the first line of defense is the:	Skin and mucous membranes
Which substance is release during a viral infection and signals neighboring cells to enhance viral defenses?	Interferon
What term is used to describe the process of endocytosis?	Engulfment
DiGeroge syndrome is characterized by absence or underdevelopment of which organ?	Thymus
You are planning a community teaching event about systemic lupus erythematous (SLE). To which population should your teaching be primarily targeted?	Women 20-40 years old
Most commonly reported symptom associated with cancer is:	Fatigue
The retinoblastoma gene is what type of gene?	A tumor-suppressor gene
A process in which a piece of one chromosome is moved to another chromosome?	Translocation
What term is used to describe cancer that extends to organs or tissues distant from the site of origin?	Metastasis
What is the leading cause of death in developed countries?	Cancer
What would you expect to occur when a patient's cancer is caused by mutations of a proton-oncogene?	Increased cell division
A patient is experiencing leukopenia from cancer and chemotherapy treatment. Which condition should you assess for in this patient?	Infection
Malignant tumors have a tendency to:	Invade surrounding tissues; they also grow rapidly and have a tendency to metastasize
For metastasis to occur, tumor cells must be capable of:	Surviving in the bloodstream
What is the primary cause of cervical cancer?	HPV
Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors?	Cells vary in size and shape Malignant tumors have cells that vary in both size and shape, and they grow rapidly. They are poorly differentiated and not encapsulated.
A 52-year-old male with hepatitis C recently developed hepatic cancer. Which of the following markers should be increased?	Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) Liver and germ cell tumors secrete a protein known as AFP, not catecholamines. Prostate tumors secrete prostate-specific antigen. Homovanillic acid is a catecholamine marker.
A primary care provider is attempting to diagnose cancer and is looking for a tumor marker. Which of the following could be a possible marker?	Enzymes Tumor markers include hormones, enzymes, genes, antigens, and antibodies but not red blood cells, apoptotic cells, or neurotransmitters.
A nurse is discussing preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing?	Cancer in situ Early-stage growths that are localized to the epithelium and have not invaded are called cancer in situ. Cancer in situ is early-stage growth and not a tumor in differentiation but is more mature growth. Dysplastic cells do not define canc
When an oncologist is discussing the degree to which an organism’s development is contingent on its environment, which of the following is the oncologist explaining?	Developmental plasticity Developmental plasticity is the degree to which an organism’s development is contingent on its environment.
A patient develops skin cancer on the head and neck following years of sunbathing. Which of the following cancers is most likely?	Basal cell carcinoma Basal cell carcinoma is related to UV radiation primarily from the sun. Neither lymphoma, adenoma, nor leukemia is related to sunbathing
When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should the oncologist discuss?	Facilitating new mutations Radiation induces genomic instability because it facilitates new mutations but it does not promote hypersensitivity. Radiation may promote cell death, but this is not its role in inducing genomic instability. Radiation does no
The role of physical activity in the prevention of colon cancer is identified by which of the following?	It increases gut motility, thereby decreasing the time the bowel is exposed to mutagens. Physical activity increases gut motility, thereby decreasing exposure to mutagens
When an aide asks why carcinomas rarely occur in childhood, how should the nurse respond? (Select all that apply.)	Carcinomas need a long time from exposure to occurrence. Carcinomas are due to environmental exposures. *Carcinomas rarely occur in children because these cancers most commonly result from environmental carcinogens and require a long period from expos
A 40-year-old female developed adenocarcinoma of the vagina. Which prenatal event is the most likely cause of her cancer?	Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) The patient with adenocarcinoma of the vagina most likely experienced prenatal exposure to DES, not an Rb gene mutation or exposure to solvents or radiation.
A 3-year-old female was diagnosed with Wilms tumor. This disease is a tumor of the:	kidney Wilms tumor is a tumor found in the kidney, not the brain, the bone marrow, or the liver.
What is the origin of most childhood cancers?	Mesodermal germ layer Most childhood cancers originate from the mesodermal germ layer that gives rise to connective tissue, bone, cartilage, muscle, blood, blood vessels, the gonads, the kidney, and the lymphatic system.
During the sleep cycle, when does loss of temperature control occur?	REM sleep Loss of temperature control occurs during REM sleep. Loss of temperature control is not associated with non-REM sleep, light sleep, or delta wave sleep.
When the nurse is taking a patient’s temperature, which principle should the nurse remember? Regulation of body temperature primarily occurs in the:	hypothalamus. Temperature regulation (thermoregulation) is mediated primarily by the hypothalamus, not the cerebrum, the brainstem, or the pituitary gland.
What is the physiologic response when the body’s core temperature is altered due to prolonged exposure to a cold environment?	Ischemic tissue damage Hypothermia (marked cooling of core temperature) produces depression of the central nervous and respiratory systems, vasoconstriction, alterations in microcirculation, coagulation, and ischemic tissue damage.
A patient has increased intraocular pressure. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe on the chart?	Glaucoma *
A neurologist explains that arousal is mediated by the:	reticular activating system. Arousal is mediated by the reticular activating system, which regulates aspects of attention and information processing and maintains consciousness.
A patient presents to the emergency room (ER) reporting excessive vomiting. A CT scan of the brain reveals a mass in the:	medulla oblongata. Vomiting is due to disruptions in the medulla oblongata
A patient is admitted to the neurologic critical care unit with a severe closed head injury. All four extremities are in rigid extension, the forearms are hyperpronated, and the legs are in plantar extension. How should the nurse chart this condition?	Decerebrate posturing
A teenager sustains a severe closed head injury following an all-terrain vehicle (ATV) accident and is in a state of deep sleep that requires vigorous stimulation to elicit eye opening. How should the nurse document this in the chart?	Stupor Stupor is a condition of deep sleep or unresponsiveness from which a person may be aroused or caused to open his or her eyes only by vigorous and repeated stimulation.
Immediately after being struck by a motor vehicle, a pt is unconscious, but the pt regains consciousness before arriving at the hospital and appears alert and oriented. The next morning the pt is confused and demonstrates impaired responsiveness. The pt’s	Extradural (epidural) hematoma
A patient presents with acute low back pain. There is no history of trauma. An MRI reveals that the vertebra at L5 has slipped forward relative to those below it. Which of the following conditions will be documented on the chart?	Spondylolisthesis Spondylolisthesis occurs when there are vertebra slides forward or slips in relation to below it.
Who is most at risk of spinal cord injury because of preexisting degenerative disorders?	The elderly Elderly people are particularly at risk from minor trauma that results in serious spinal cord injury because of preexisting degenerative vertebral disorders.
Which information is basic to the assessment findings associated with a patient diagnosed with an aneurysm?	The majority are asymptomatic. Aneurysms often are asymptomatic.
A CT scan reveals that a patient has an open basilar skull fracture. Which major complication should the nurse observe for in this patient?	Meningeal infection Individuals with an open basilar skull fractures should be observed for meningitis.
A 10 year old presents with headache and seizures. CT scan reveals a tumor that is located near the pituitary gland. Which of the following is the most likely tumor type?	Craniopharyngioma
An infant is diagnosed with congenital hydrocephalus. Which of the following characteristics would the nurse expect to find?	Enlarged ventricles Congenital hydrocephalus is characterized by enlargement of the cerebral ventricles.
When should the nurse assess for the vomiting and headache that are the classic symptoms of childhood brain tumors?	Morning Headache and vomiting occur more commonly in the morning
A nurse recalls that the most frequent location of a neuroblastoma is the:	retroperitoneal region. Sixty-five percent of neuroblastomas occur in the retroperitoneal region.
What term is used to document a herniation of brain and meninges through a defect in the occipital area of the skull?	Encephalocele An encephalocele refers to a herniation or protrusion of brain and meninges through a defect in the occipital region of the skull, resulting in a sac-like structure.
A patient with a combined immune deficiency lacks"	T and B lymphocytes
Among the many innate defenses the body has to pathogens, the first line of defense is the:	Skin and mucous membranes
If a patient has liquefactive necrosis, which organ should the nurse assess first?	Brain
The outward manifestation of a disease, often influenced by both genes and the environment, is called the disease:	Phenotype
Cellular atrophy is:	A decrease in cell size
Prices by which cells program themselves to die:	Apoptosis
Most commonly reported symptoms associated with cancer is:	Fatigue
For metastasis to occur, tumor cells must be capable of:	Surviving in the bloodstream
A pt is experiencing leukopenia from cancer and chemo tx. Which condition should you assess for in this patient?	Infection
During a myasthenic or cholinergic crisis, a patient is in danger of:	Respiratory arrest
Which group of people is most prone to color blindness?	Males
A neurologist explains that arousal is mediated by the	Reticular activating system
When thought content and arousal level are intact but a patient cannot communicate is immobile, the patient is experiencing	Locked-in syndrome
A patient with an addiction to alcohol checked into a rehabilitation center as a result of experiencing delirium, inability to concentrate, and being easily distracted. What term would be used to document this state?	Acute confusional state
What is the main source of bleeding in extradural hematomas	Arterial
A 15-month old child from Pennslyvania was brought to the ER with symptomology that includes fever, seizure activity, cranial palsies, paralysis. Which form of encephalitis is best supported by the available assessment?	Eastern equine encephalitis
Six weeks ago a patient suffered a T6 spinal cord injury. What complication does the nurse suspect when the patient develops a blood pressure of 200/120, a severe headache, blurred vision, and bradycardia?	Autonomic hyperreflexia
A nurse is preparing to teach staff about the most common type of traumatic ibrain injury,. Which type of traumatic brain injury should the nurse discuss?	Concussion
Which of the following diseases does the nurse screen for in all newborns?	Phenylketonuria (PKU)
A child diagnosed with cerebral palsy, characterized by extreme difficulty in fine motor coordination, and purposeful movement. Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is the child experiencing?	Dystonic
It is true that viral meningitis	Often occurs with measles, mumps, or herpes
A baby is stillborn after 6 hours of labor. Autopsy reveals hydrocephalus caused by cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle and aqueduct compression. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?	Dandy-Walker deformity
What is the cause of hyperpigmentation seen in people with Cushing syndrome?	Elevated levels of ACTH
A nurse checks lab results as both Cushing disease and Addison disease can manifest with elevated levels of	ACTH
What is the most common cause of Hypoparathyroidism?	Parathyroid injury
A 54-year old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH. Which electrolyte would be expected in this patient?	Hyponatremia
Which action is known to activate nonshivering thermogenesis?	Activation of catecholamines
Which type of cancer does the nurse indicate as not associated with obesity?	Skin
A patient demonstrates severe mental retardation caused by deletion of part of chromosome 5. What genetic disorder will the nurse see documented in the chart?	Cri du chat syndrome
Cystic fibrosis is caused by what gene abnormality?	Autosomal recessive
When discussing DNA replication, which enzyme is most important?	DNA polymerase
To express polygenic trait?	Several genes must act together
The early dilation (swelling) of the cell's endoplasmic reticulum results in	Reduced protein synthesis
A newborn male is diagnosed with albminism based on skin, eye, and hair appearance. Which finding will support the diagnosis?	Inability to convert tyrosine to DOPA
When planning care for a cardiac patient, the nurse knows that in response to an increased workload, cardiac myocardial cells will experience hypertrophy which is an	Increase in size
A 30-year old females presents with a gunshot wound to the head. The wound has seared edges and a deep penetration of smoke and gunpowder fragments. This wound would be documented as a	contact range entrance
A nurse is teaching the staff about antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Which information should the nurse include? Secretion of ADH is stimulated by	Increased plasma osmolality
Which statement by the staff indicates teaching was successful concerning aldosterone? Secretion of aldosterone results in	increased blood volume
An experiment was designed to test eh effects of the starling forces on fluid movement. Which of the following alteration would result in fluid moving into the interstitial space?	Increased interstitial oncotic pressure
Water movement between ICF and ECF compartments is determined by	osmotic force
A patient presents with poison ivy on the extremities, face, and buttocks after initial exposure 48 hours ago. This condition is an example of	delayed hypersensitivity
When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reactions occurs?	Alloimmune
Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS	HIV retrovirus
A 22-year old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?	CD4+T-helper
An oncologist is discussing when a cancer cell loses differentiation. Which of the following is the oncologist describing?	Anaplasia
A nurse is discussing pre-invasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing?	Cancer in situ
A 52-year old male with hepatitis C recently developed hepatic cancer. Which of the following markers should be increased?	Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP[)
A 30-year old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus. After 2 months, the virus is still active. Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?	B-cell lymphoma
When an oncologist is discussing the degree to which an organisms development is contingent on its environment, which of the following is the oncologist explaining?	Developmental plasticity
When an oncologist is teaching about how radiation induces genomic instability, which topic should the oncologist discuss?	Facilitating new mutations
A water test recently revealed arsenic levels above 200 mcg/L. Which of the following cancers would be most likely to develop in those who consistently drank the water?	Skin
The role of physical activity in the prevention of colon cancer is identified by which of the following?	It increased gut motility, thereby decreasing the time the bowel is exposed to mutagens.
A 16-year old with aspiration of becoming a bodybuilder spends 3 hours a day in the gym. Five years later, a hepatocellular carcinoma is discovered. Which of the following is the mostl likely cause of the cancer?	Anabolic steroids
Which characterized an embryonic cancer tumor?	Usually manifested around age 5
What events occurs in about 70% of the cases of childhood cancers?	Cured
A 3-year old female was diagnosed with Wilma-Tumor. This disease is a tumor of the	Kidney
Hikers are attempting to cross the Arizona desert with a small supply of water. The temperatures cause them to sweat profusely and become dehydrated. The hikers are experiencing?	Heat exhaustion
A young child presents to the ophthalmologist for visual difficulties secondary to eye deviation. One of the child's eye deviates inward, thereby decreasing the visual field. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely	Entropia
Which condition would be treated with therapeutic hypothermia?	Reimplantation surgery
Which group of people is most prone to color blindness	Males
A 35-year-old male was diagnosed with hepatitis B. Further tests revealed neutropenia characterized by a neutrophil count less than __ per milliliter.	2000
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?	Spoon-shaped nails-Iron deficiency anemia is manifested by fingernails that become brittle and spoon shaped or concave.
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood. Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?	Peripheral vasoconstriction-When the anemia is severe or acute in onset (e.g., hemorrhage), the initial compensatory mechanism is peripheral blood vessel constriction, diverting blood flow to essential vital organs.
Lab results showing high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit would support a diagnosis of which form of anemia?	Sideroblastic- Individuals with sideroblastic anemia may show signs of iron overload (hemosiderosis), including mild to moderate enlargement of the liver (hepatomegaly) and spleen (splenomegaly).
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:	hypochromic- Hypochromic erythrocytes have low concentrations of hemoglobin.
A 5 year old was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which type of anemia does the nurse suspect the patient has?	Hemolytic- Hemolytic anemia is an example of normocytic-normochromic anemia.
A 35-year-old male was diagnosed with hepatitis B. Further tests revealed neutropenia characterized by a neutrophil count less than __ per milliliter.	2000
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?	spoon shaped nails
A 25-year-old female has a heavy menses during which she loses a profuse amount of blood. Which of the following adaptations should the nurse expect?	Peripheral vasoconstriction- When the anemia is severe or acute in onset (e.g., hemorrhage), the initial compensatory mechanism is peripheral blood vessel constriction, diverting blood flow to essential vital organs.
Lab results showing high iron, bilirubin, and transferrin and low hemoglobin and hematocrit would support a diagnosis of which form of anemia?	Sideroblastic Individuals with sideroblastic anemia may show signs of iron overload (hemosiderosis), including mild to moderate enlargement of the liver (hepatomegaly) and spleen (splenomegaly). High levels of iron indicate sideroblastic anemia,
When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes:	hypochromic- Hypochromic erythrocytes have low concentrations of hemoglobin.
A 5 year old was diagnosed with normocytic-normochromic anemia. Which type of anemia does the nurse suspect the patient has?	Hemolytic- Hemolytic anemia is an example of normocytic-normochromic anemia.
Autopsy on a stillborn fetus reveals cardiomegaly, hepatomegaly, edema, and ascites as well as fulminant intrauterine congestive heart failure. Considering these findings, what is the most likely cause of death?	Alpha thalassemia major Alpha thalassemia major causes hydrops fetalis and fulminant intrauterine congestive heart failure. In addition to edema and massive ascites, the fetus has a grossly enlarged heart and liver.
A 12-month-old toddler weighing 18 pounds is brought to the clinic because of weakness, slow physical growth, and developmental delays. His mother reports that the only food he will consume is cow’s milk. The symptoms support a diagnosis of which form of	Iron deficiency- As many as one third of infants with severe iron deficiency anemia have chronic intestinal blood loss induced by exposure to a heat-labile protein in cow’s milk. Such exposure causes an inflammatory gastrointestinal reaction that damages
If an infant has hydrops fetalis, which type of thalassemia does the nurse suspect?	Alpha major
A 5-year-old male is diagnosed with immune thrombocytic purpura (ITP). What is the most common cause of this condition?	Virally induced antibody destruction of platelets
What is the most likely cause of death associated with sickle cell disease?	Infection
Which major symptom indicates to the nurse that patient diagnosed with sickle cell anemia is experiencing a vaso-occlusive crisis?	Pain
A 56 year old presents to his primary care provider for a checkup. Physical exam reveals edema, hepatomegaly, and muffled heart sounds. Which of the following is of greatest concern to the nurse?	Cardiac tamponade
A 35 year old presents with pulmonary hypertension and is diagnosed as being in right heart failure. Which is the most likely cause of this condition?	Tricuspid regurgitation
A 51-year-old male is at the health clinic for an annual physical exam. After walking from the car to the clinic, he developed substernal pain. He also reported discomfort in his left shoulder and his jaw, lasting 2–3 minutes and then subsiding with rest.	stable angina
A 67 year old was previously diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease. Tests now reveal lipoprotein deposition with chronic inflammation that impairs blood flow from the left ventricle into the aorta. Which diagnosis does this history support?	Aortic stenosis
A 51-year-old male presents with recurrent chest pain on exertion and is diagnosed with angina pectoris. The pain occurs when:	the myocardial oxygen supply has fallen below demand.
Which of the following findings in the patient with Raynaud disease would indicate a need for further teaching?	The patient smokes cigarettes
A 2-week-old infant who presents with poor feeding, fatigue, dyspnea, and a murmur is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). This condition results in a(n):	left-to-right shunt.
A 1-month-old infant was diagnosed with truncus arteriosus (TA) with a ventricular septal defect. This condition results in:	blood from both ventricles mixing in a common vessel.
Intrauterine exposure to which factor could be responsible for a diagnosis of congenital heart disease?	viral infection One of the identified causes of cardiac defects is an intrauterine viral infection, especially rubella
A newborn child is diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot. What symptoms would the nurse expect to observe in the child?	Cyanosis and hypoxia- The child will experience cyanosis and hypoxia. This type of shunt decreases flow through the pulmonary system, causing less than normal oxygen delivery to the tissues and resultant cyanosis
A 1-month-old infant visits his PCP for a well-baby check. Physical exam reveals decreased cardiac output, hypotension, tachycardia, and a loud murmur suggestive of aortic stenosis. Which condition would be expected with this diagnosis?	Ventricular hypertrophy
A newborn is suspected of having coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following assessments would aid in diagnosis?	Weak or absent femoral pulses
What is the most likely cause of chronic bronchitis in a 25 year old?	Cigarette smoke
A 42YO presents with dyspnea; rapid, shallow breathing; inspiratory crackles; decreased lung compliance; and hypoxemia. Tests reveal a fulminant form of RF characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury. What is the most li	ARDS
A 65 year old diagnosed with emphysema presents to the ER for difficulty breathing. Physical exam reveals both bluish skin and mucous membranes. What term will the nurse use to document these observations?	Cyanosis
A nurse is reviewing the results of an arterial blood gas (ABG) and finds reduced oxygenation of arterial blood. What term should the nurse use to describe this condition?	Hypoxemia
Asthma is thought to be caused by:	interactions between genetic and environmental factors
Which of the following patients is at highest risk for developing pulmonary embolism (PE)?	A 72-year-old male who is recovering from hip replacement surgery in the hospital
A 7 month old presents with cystic fibrosis (CF) accompanied by failure to thrive and frequent, loose, and oily stools. Sweat testing confirms the diagnosis. Which of the following is characteristic of CF?	Thick mucous sputum
A newborn diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome is monitored for atelectasis because of:	a lack of surfactant.
Which pathology is characteristic of asthma?	Expiratory wheezing
A 10 year old is diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea. When the parents ask, the nurse shares that the initial treatment will be:	tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy (T&A)
A 2-week-old female presents with fever, productive cough, respiratory distress, and empyema. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?	Staphylococcal pneumonia
A young patient is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF) exacerbation. The nurse monitors the patient closely for which potentially fatal complication of CF?	Respiratory failure
A patient is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing a urinary obstruction. Which symptoms would be most likely experienced?	Flank pain- Significant flank pain is the most common manifestation
A 29-year-old female presents with frequency, urgency, dysuria, and low back pain. These signs and symptoms support which diagnosis?	Acute cystitis
A 30-year-old male is demonstrating hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3–5 grams per day, with albumin being the major protein. The most probable diagnosis the nurse will see documented on the chart is:	acute glomerulonephritis.
When a 42 year old is diagnosed with chronic renal failure, which dietary restriction will the nurse discuss with the patient?	Proteins
Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is primarily caused by	immune complex deposition in the glomerular capillaries and inflammatory damage.
A 15 year old presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever and is diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely cause of this condition?	Poststreptococcal infection
A 4 year old male is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following assessment findings accompanies this condition?	Proteinuria
Physical examination of a newborn who dies shortly after birth reveals wide-set eyes, parrot-beak nose, low-set ears, and receding chin. These abnormalities support which diagnosis?	Potter syndrome
A 6-year-old male diagnosed with vesicoureteral reflux is experiencing urine reflux from the urinary bladder into a grossly dilated ureter and calyces. This condition would be graded:	IV
A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence. His mother indicates that he has never been continent before. This history supports which form of enuresis?	Primary
A 30-year-old female with newly diagnosed polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is being counseled by her OB-GYN. The physician indicates that this condition often results in:	infertility.
A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with endometriosis. Suppressing which of the following would be the most appropriate medical treatment for this disease?	Ovulation
A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. CT scan reveals that the cancer is limited to the ovaries. It would be classified as stage:	I
During a routine pelvic exam, a 34-year-old female is found to have an ovarian cyst containing skin, hair, cartilage, and bone. This cyst is classified as a _____ cyst.	dermoid
A 35-year-old nonpregnant female presents with breast discharge and is diagnosed with galactorrhea. The condition is most likely caused by:	prolactin imbalance
The risk of testicular cancer is greater for which group? (Select all that apply.)	With a history of cryptorchidism Who are of white ethnicity? Between 15 and 35 years of age
A 21 year old presents with inflammation of the testes and is diagnosed with orchitis. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?	Mumps
Symptoms of acute bacterial prostatitis are similar to symptoms of:	urinary tract infection (UTI)
A 25-year-old sexually active male presents with urethritis and epididymitis, and is diagnosed with the most common bacteria STI in the United States. What is this infection?	Chlamydia
A common complaint from men with mild to moderate benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is	decreased urinary stream.
The icteric phase of hepatitis is characterized by which clinical manifestations?	Jaundice, dark urine, enlarged liver
Manifestations associated with hepatic encephalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:	impaired ammonia metabolism.
An analysis of most gallstones would reveal a high concentration of:	cholesterol
A 52-year-old female presents with continuous abdominal pain that intensifies after eating. She is diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. Contributing factors include: (Select all that apply.)	alcohol abuse history of gallstones smoking
The autopsy of a 55 year old revealed an enlarged liver, testicular atrophy, and mild jaundice secondary to cirrhosis. What is the most likely cause of this condition?	Alcoholic steatohepatitis
Kwashiorkor is a severe dietary deficiency of:	protein.
Marasmus is most common in children of which age-group?	Younger than 1 year
A 1-week-old female is brought to her pediatrician for abdominal distention and unstable temperature. Physical examination reveals bradycardia and apnea. Tests reveal portal venous gas and an intestinal perforation. This condition is referred to as:	necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
What term is used to document the condition that exists when the esophagus ends in a blind pouch?	Esophageal atresia
A 7-month-old female presents with jaundice, clay-colored stool, and an enlarged liver. Testing reveals the absence of intrahepatic bile ducts. This condition is referred to as _____ atresia.	biliary

Created by: Imelda001

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