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NBDHE Microbiology
micobiology basics
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are the smallest living organisms that are a part of our daily lives? | bacteria |
| True/False: All bacteria cause health to deteriorate | FALSE: Some bacteria also promote health |
| Bacteria that requires oxygen to survive | Aerobic |
| Bacteria that cannot live in the presence of oxygen | Anaerobic |
| What are Obligate organisms | NO oxygen |
| What are the name of the organisms who can tolerate oxygen but cannot grow from it | aerotolerant |
| What are facultative organisms? | Organisms who can grow without oxygen but can utilize oxygen when present |
| What is the binomial system of bacteria? | Genus name is capitalized; species name is lower case and both parts are italicized |
| What are Prokaryotes? | bacteria which are unicellular and do not have a nucleus |
| What are Eukaryotes? | more advanced bacteria that contain a nucleus and organelles |
| What are the newly classified bacteria called that are resistant to many forms of sterilization? | Prions |
| How are living bacteria usually viewed? | on a wet mount slide through a microscope |
| What do single dyes indicate? | polarization or lack of polarization characteristics |
| What are the four distinct phases of bacterial growth? | lag phase, log phase, stationary phase, and death phase |
| What is the lag phase of bacterial growth? | bacterial adjustment to the environment |
| What is the log phase of bacterial growth? | the increase in bacteria at logarithmic rates |
| What is the stationary phase of bacterial growth? | the phase in which the numbers of bacteria are stable |
| What is the death phase of bacterial growth? | when bacterial numbers decline |
| What does CFU stand for? | colony-forming units |
| What does PFU stand for? | plaque-forming units |
| How fast do CFU and PFU of viruses usually generate? | in 20 minutes |
| What three types of nutrition facilitate bacterial growth? | Heterotrophic, Autotrophic, and Hypotrophic |
| Describe Heterotrophic bacteria | bacteria that need organic compounds |
| Describe Autotrophic bacteria | bacteria that need inorganic compounds |
| Describe Hypotrophic bacteria | bacteria that use whatever nutrition is available |
| Define Apoptosis | cell shrinkage which results in cell death |
| Describe the lysing of cells | cell death by bursting of a cell by the complement system |
| What are two antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis? | Penicillin and Tetracycline |
| What is an antibiotic that disrupts the cell membrane? | Polymycin |
| What is the phamacologic agent that inhibits DNA synthesis? | rifampin |
| What are the drugs or chemicals that compete for nutrition | sulfa drugs |
| Describe Sterilization | the total destruction of all life forms including spores |
| Describe Disinfection | destruction of pathogenic organisms on hard surfaces |
| What can be used as an effective skin cleanser and to pre-clean instruments? | alcohol |
| What is an effective agent used to debride wounds and destroy anaerobic bacteria | hydrogen peroxide |
| What should every disinfectant used in the dental office have? | EPA approval as tuberculocidal, bacteriocidal, virucidal, and fungicidal with adequate instructions for shelf life and use life |
| What do intermediate level disinfectants such as chorhexidine inactivate? | microorganisms |
| What do low level disinfectants inactivate? | vegetative bacteria and some viruses |
| What is specific immunity? | immunity that comes from exposure to the particular disease, through fetal blood circulation, or by injection or serum |
| What is the function of T lymphocytes? | to respond to altered cell surfaces and produce delayed hypersensitivity (Type IV) |
| What happens when the body exaggerates the immune response? | it causes an allergic response |
| What can cause the immune response to be ineffective? | the use of prescription drugs, or the body actually attacks itself |
| What are the two principle diseases of the oral cavity? | Gingivits and Periodontitis |
| What is plaque made of? | waste products of digestion and oral flora which adheres to the teeth attracting more minerals from saliva |
| Why is sufficient salivary flow important? | because it can increase the pH of the oral cavity to 5.5 which reduces the growth of caries-causing bacteria |
| What can happen if there is an insufficient flow of saliva? | this can allow the teeth to be bathed in acidic saliva for 20-120 minutes after eating. This means a higher chance of cavities forming |
| What are the consequences of inadequate plaque removal? | bacteria travels toward the apical surface of the teeth, deepening the sulcus and changing form aerobic gram-positive bacteria to anaerobic gram-negative bacteria. Gingiva exhibits signs of inflammation, known as Gingivitis. |
| What is the cause of Periodontitis? | Further neglect of oral care beyond gingivitis causes the bacteria to destroy periodontal ligaments and eventually bone. |
| True/False: Gingivitis is reversible | TRUE; when the patient begins proper oral hygiene and /or hormones stabilize |
| What are medical conditions associated with with poor oral hygiene and periodontitis? | low birth weight babies, heart disease and increased problems with diabetes |
| What is aggressive periodontitis? | a type of periodontitis that seems to have more to do with genetics than with oral hygiene, and it can affect primary teeth. It causes rapid loss of alveolar bone. |
| What is the former name of aggressive periondontitis? | Juvenile periodontitis |
| What is necrotizing periondontal disease (ANUG)? | periodontitis that causes cratering of the interdental papilla, rapid destruction of PDL and bone, and can occur as a result of stress as well as compromised immunity. |
| What are some infections that dental health care workers are subjected to? | infections of epithelial tissues such as herpes simplex, varicella zoster (chicken pox and shingles), measles, rubella, and mumps through respiratory droplets and monoducleosis through direct contact with saliva. |
| What are bacterial infections dental health care workers are subjected to? | tetnus, Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, Pseudomonas aeruginosa and fungal infections such as candidiasis which can enter through cuts or with inhalation of respiratory droplets |
| How can dental health care workers avoid being exposed to medical conditions and risks? | Thorough review of the medical history with the patient which would alert the health care worker to the presence of these infections before treatment begins. Wearing proper PPE and using adequate infection control measures to prevent cross-contamination. |
| What causes colds? | viruses cause colds and are usually self-limiting |
| What are common respiratory infections that can be spread to health care workers? | Colds, Strep throat, Diphtheria, Whooping cough, Pneumonia and Influenza |
| How is Strep throat treated? | It is usually treated with antibiotics |
| How is diphtheria spread? | by respiratory droplets |
| How is diphtheria treated? | it must be treated by a primary care physician |
| What is Whooping cough? | aka pertussis, is a condition that causes convulsive coughing |
| When are pneumonia and influenza highly contagious? | when the patient has a fever. |
| Are vaccines available for colds and strep throat? | NO |
| Are vaccines available for Diphtheria, Whooping cough, Pneumonia and Influenza | YES |
| When is the dental health care worker most likely to have a patient with legionnaire's disease or cytomegalovirus? | if the disease is in the early stage before diagnosis |
| How are Hepatitis A and E transmitted? | through oral-fecal routes such as contaminated water and food sources and inadequate sewage disposal. |
| How are Hepatitis B, C, D, and G spread? | through blood and plasma products, sexual transmission, or through contaminated needles. |
| What is another way that all forms of Hepatitis can be transmitted? | through a mother to her child at birth |
| What other Hepatitis is Hep D found in conjunction with? | HBV |
| Hepatitis G is a co-infection of what other Hep virus? | Hepatitis C |
| Vaccines are available for which forms of Hepatitis? | HAV and HBV |
| What are the best defenses to prevent Hepatitis transmission? | obtain vaccines and proper infection control measures which include thorough hand washing and proper sanitation |
| What are the types of bacteria associated with food poisoning? | Clostridium botulinum and Staphlyococcus aureus |
| What are some examples of gastrointestinal infections? | Hepatitis Viruses and Bacterial food poisoning |
| Why is infective endocarditis significant to the dental health care worker? | because possible damage to heart valves can leave him/her susceptible to further endocarditis |
| How can staph or strep bacteria enter the health care worker's blood stream? | through a cut or deep scratch |
| How are heamophilus meningitis and poliomyelitis spread? | mainly through inhalation of respiratory droplets; there are vaccines available |
| What can result from conjunctivitis (pink eye)? | scarring and blindness can result if the droplets of exudates spread into the DHCW eyes. |
| Why should anesthetics be chosen carefully in the dental field? | to prevent a respiratory or cardiac crisis |
| What is the function of analgesics? | to desensitize the nerve endings and dull the patient's perception of discomfort or pain |
| What do Salicylates (aspirin) and NSAID'S do? | they work well to reduce mild to moderate pain, and to decrease fever and inflammation |
| What is an adverse reaction associated with salicylates and NSAID'S? | they irritate the Gi tract and can cause bleeding due to their ability to inhibit platelet clotting. |
| What is a major drug interaction associated with aspirin? | Warfarin/coumadin or any other blood thinner should not be used because together they decrease blood clotting even more and diminish the efficacy of many antihypertensive medications |
| What is the action of Acetominophen? | to reduce pain and fever |
| What are negative side effects of Acetominophen? | liver and kidney toxicity with long-term use |
| What is the action of opioid analgesics and antagonists? | to relieve moderate to severe pain depending on the dosage, and they may also decrease coughing as well as providing analgesia |
| What are some side effects of opioids? | Nausea, vomiting, and constipation. Respiratory difficulties, restlessness, and anxiety are also common adverse reactions |
| What are the different types of anti-infective agents? | bactericidal, bacteriostatic, antibiotic, antimicrobial, or antiviral |
| What is bactericidal | kills bacteria |
| What is bacteriostatic? | inhibits or retards bacterial growth |
| What is an antibiotic? | An agent produced by another microorganism to kill or inhibit growth |
| What does the efficacy of an anti-infective agent depend on? | the concentration of the agent in the blood, resistance by the invading microorganism, the polarity of the drug and the immune response of the host. |
| What can happen if a drug is administered and has too low of a concentration in the host blood, or is not designed for the invading microorganism? | This can cause drug resistance by the microorganism. |
| What bacteria do Penicillins work best against? | Gram positive bacteria, but are effective against some gram negative cocci |
| What is Penicillinase used for? | it is reserved for use only against penicillinase-producing staphlyococci |
| What is Amoxicillin best used for? | it is used for both gram positive and gram negative bacteria, but does NOT work well against penicillinase-resistant bacteria |
| What are three types of macrolides? | erythromycin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin |
| What are macrolides used for? | they have some activity against anaerobes |
| What is a side effect of tetracyclines if given to children before the age of nine? | intrinsic staining of permanent teeth |
| What does Clindamycin work well for? | oral and bone infections and for endocarditis prophylaxis |
| What action do penicillins, macrolides, tetracyclines, clindamycin, cephalosporins and aminoglycosides have? | they prevent cell wall or protein synthesis |
| What is Metronidazole (Flagyl)? | it is trichomonacidal as well as bactericidal |
| What do Sulfonamides do? | they compete for receptor sites |
| What do Quinolones do? | they inhibit nucleic acid and synthesis |
| What are antifungal agents prescribed for? | skin or mucosal lesions |
| What are antiviral agents prescribed for? | for herpes simplex viruses |
| What are anti-tuberculosis agents? | agents reserved for use by primary care physicians or pulmonary specialists |
| What is the action of local anesthetics? | to prevent nerves from carrying sensation away from the nerve membrane at the injection site. |
| What is the pH of the anesthetic, and why is this important? | it is basic (7.4 pH) which allows it to penetrate the tissue easily in its ionized form |
| What happens if you give an anesthetic injection and the tissue is inflamed? | the inflamed tissue is more acidic which slows the penetration and potency of the anesthetic, it wont work as well. |
| What is the order in which the local nerve loses its function after being injected with local anesthetic? | the local nerve loses its function first at the autonomic level, then cold sensation, warmth, pain, touch, pressure, vibration, proprioception, and finally motor response. It returns in reverse order. |
| List the factors that effect local anesthetic toxicity | The drug, concentration, route of administration, rate of injection, vascularity, patient's weight, and rate of metabolism, and excretion effect toxicity. |
| What do most local anesthetic agents contain within the carpule? | vasoconstrictor, antioxidant, alkalinizing agent, and sodium chloride |
| Why may a vasoconstricor be added to local anesthetic? | to reduce systemic toxicity |
| What is the purpose of an antioxidant added to a local anesthetic carpule? | to stabilize the solution in the carpule |
| Why is an alkalinizing agent added to the local anesthetic? | to keep the pH between six and seven |
| What makes the local anesthetic solution isotonic? | sodium chloride |
| What are sedatives and why are they used in dentistry? | they are mild CNS depressants used to make the patient more calm |
| What are hypnotics? | stronger CNS depressants that put patient to sleep |
| What are minor tranquilizers? | agents that work similarly to sedatives and hypnotics |
| What are major tranquilizers? | agents used to decrease psychotic activity |
| What are Benzodiazepines? | Valium and Ativan which are easily absorbed and metabolized to cause CNS depression. The strength and dose determines the depth of CNS depression |
| What is an anti-anxiety agent that is NOT used for dental anxiety? | Buspirone aka Buspar |
| What are barbiturates? | Pentothal, Seconal, and Luminal used to cause CNS depression for light sedation, but can cause respiratory and cardiovascular arrest depending on the dose |
| What may be a contraindication to the use of barbiturates? | patients with a family history of porphyria |
| What must be considered before prescribing barbiturates? | possible acute poisoning and many drug interactions |
| What are drugs used for preoperative sedation for children, but not for adults called? | Non-barbiturate sedative hypnotic drugs |
| What are three examples of Non-barbiturate sedative hypnotic drugs? | Noctec, Equanil, and Miltown |
| What do centrally acting muscle relaxants do and what are they prescribed for? | they affect the CNS and are prescribed for muscle spasms |
| What are General anesthetics? | CNS depressants which cause reversible loss of consciousness and insensitivity to pain. |
| What are the four stages of anesthesia? | I: Analgesia |
| What does N20 provide to patients with high anxiety? | analgesia and amnesia |
| Why are halogenated hydrocarbons unpopular? | because of possible occurrance of post-anesthetic hepatitis. |
| What are ultra short-acting barbiturates (Brevital and Pentothal IV) used for? | rapid transition to Stage III anesthesia |
| What can result from the use of Brevital and Pentothal IV? | laryngospasm and bronchospasm, which is why they are contraindicated for patients with status asthmaticus, porphyria, and hypersensitivity |
| What are opiates useful for? | pre-anesthesia and analgesia |
| What does Benzodiazepine help with? | induction of anesthesia |
| What agent helps with the induction of anesthesia? | Benzodiazepine |
| What is the emergency drug Epinephrine used for? | cardiac stimulation, vasoconstriction, bronchial dilation, and elevation of blood glucose |
| What agent can be used to reduce an allergic reaction? | Benadryl or antihistamine |
| What drug is used for most convulsions if needed? | Valium |
| What is the drug given for Opioid-induced apnea? | Narcan |
| What is Narcan used for? | to completely or partially reverse the effects of narcotics |
| Why would oxygen be used in an emergency situation? | to return O2 saturation to hemoglobin |
| What are aromatic ammonia spirits used for? | to stimulate respiratory action |
| Why would glucose be used in an emergency situation? | to restore balance of blood glucose in a hypoglycemic patient |
| What are the functions of Morphine? | to relieve pain and reduce apprehension of cardiac infarction |
| What is an agent that slightly increases blood pressure? | methoxamine |
| Which agent is used to relax the heart muscle and reduce its work? | Nitroglycerin |
| When should Nitroglycerin be administered? | to a patient who is showing signs of a heart attack |
| What is hydrocortisone used for? | allergic reactions, anaphylaxis and adrenal crisis |
| What agent is used to manage an unconscious diabetic patient? | Dextrose (IV) |
| What is metaproterenol used for? | it relieves broncho-constriction |
| What medications are reminders for the dental health care worker to monitor vitals signs when reviewing the patients medical history? | anti-hypertensives, anti-coagulants, and anti-hyperlipidemics |
| Descibe the absence seizure (petit mal) | a seizure in which the patient loses consciousness, but has no muscular reaction |
| Describe the tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure | a seizure in which the patient presents jerking muscular movements and should be prevented from harming him/herself until EMT help arrives |
| What action should you undergo when addressing a patient who tends to have seizures? | a detailed medical history, control of medication side effects and stress management should be done |
| Patients who have trouble determining reality have this condition | Schizophrenia |
| What type of drugs are normally prescribed for patients with psychiatric disorders? | phenothiazine drugs |
| What do phenothiazine drugs do? | calm the emotions of the patient |
| What side effects do phenothiazine drugs often cause? | orthostatic hypotension, xerostomia, blurred vision, blood dyscrasias and they can produce Parkinsonism |
| What are the drug interactions of phenothiazines? | they decrease the efficacy of opioids and increase the effects of anticholinergic agents |
| What are some adverse effects of first generation (tricyclic) antidepressants? | tremors, sedation, xerostomia, orthostatic hypotension, myocardial toxicity and interactions with other drugs and some foods. |
| What are the common uses for Lithium? | anxiety, phobia, bipolar disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder |
| What are three things that All Psychiatric drugs cause problems with? | Drug interactions, manual dexterity and orthostatic hypotension |
| What do the Adrenal glands secrete? | glucocoricoids |
| What is the hormone that is secreted in response to stress (fight or flight)? | Cortisol (hydrocorisone) |
| What is the function of Hydrocortisone? | to inhibit the release of ACTH and suppress inflammation and allergic reactions |
| Which hormone is used to treat asthma and autoimmune diseases such as arthritis? | Hydrocortisone |
| Which hormone is used to treat diabetes insipidus and clotting disorders? | Pituitary hormone |
| Which hormone effects physiological function? | Thyroid hormone |
| What agent must be used with caution when a patient has hypothyroidism? | CNS depressants |
| What agent is contraindicated for a patient with hypothyroidism? | epinephrine |
| What hormones are produced in the islet of Langerhans? | pancreatic hormones, glucagons and insulin |
| Where is insulin produced? | in the islet of Langerhans |
| Why might a diabetic have periodontal disease? | because of the inadequate circulation and immune response |
| When do female and male hormones affect dental treatment? | only if the patient is taking anabolic steroids to build muscle mass which causes the gum tissue to become inflamed increasing the potential for gum disease |
| What is Autacoid? | the natural host response to allergic reaction |
| What is the function of antihistamine? | to block histamine receptors and therefore reduce the allergic reaction |
| What is produced by the body in response to inflammation or injury and what do they do? | prostaglandin, thromboxanes, leukotrienes, and kinins which increase the body temperature and capillary permeability. They are also part of the periodontal inflammation and alveolar bone resorption process |
| True/False: asthma is an allergic response | TRUE |
| What is asthma? | the process in which mucous collects, airways are restricted, and expiratory airflow is decreased. |
| What does COPD stand for? | chronic obstructive pulmonary disease |
| what is COPD? | the irreversible result of chronic bronchitis and/or emphysema |
| What agent causes hypoxia in the COPD patient? | N20 |
| What are the adverse effects of respiratory therapy drugs? | dry mouth, adrenergic stimulation, candidiasis, and reduced immune response to infections |
| What protocol should be taken for a patient with asthma or COPD? | stress reduction, and supine chair positioning to reduce airway obstruction. |
Created by:
dyoung07