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Dental FINAL EXAM
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| what is used to keep the tongue, lip and cheek from the operating field. | retractors |
| rapid breathing brought on by a stressful situation | hyperventalating |
| occurs when a sensitivity to an allergen (foreign substance) develops within the individual. | an allergy |
| is the removal of stains, plaque, foreign debris, and calculus from the teeth. | scaling |
| what is the portion of the teeth that is exposed in the oral cavity. | the crown |
| a dye placed on the surface of the teeth to help identify areas of plaque accumulation. | Disclosing solution |
| This dental specialty is primarily concerned with the guidance and correction of misaligned teeth. | Orthodontist |
| This dental specialty primarily treats and diagnoses the diseases of the supporting and surrounding tissues of the teeth. | periodontist |
| This dental specialty is primarily concerned with the restoration and replacement of missing teeth and oral structures. | prothodontist |
| This dental specialty is primarily concerned with the health of the dental pulp. Root canal treatments are done by this specialist. | endodontist |
| What does ethics in dentistry deal with? | moral, values, and behavior as they relate to patient care and the practice of dentistry. |
| Give 4 practice and technique that the dental team can employ to decrease the likelihood of malpractice lawsuit | Charting Obtaining informed consent prior to treatment Delivering high quality dentistry and high standards of clinical quality Maintaining communication and rapport with patients |
| Failure to deliver due care with patients | negligence |
| This involves failure to act as a “reasonable and prudent professional” would act | Omission |
| An act that a “reasonable and prudent professional” would not perform | Commission |
| Class 1 Caries are located where? | the occlusal surface of molars and premolars |
| Class VI caries are located where? | proximal surfaces of incisors or canines that involve the incisal edge |
| What is the missing tooth symbol on a dental chart? | X |
| What does the abbreviation MOD stand for? | Mesio Occlusal Distal |
| What does the abbreviation DOL stand for ? | Distal Occlusal Lingual |
| Class II caries are located where? | on the mesial or distal surfaces of posterior teeth |
| A Class 5 (V) caries is locateted where? | facial or lingual surface |
| When the operator is elevating teeth prior to extraction, what type of sction tip is used? | surgical suction |
| Alveoitis or dry socket is a painful condition that occurs when a blood clot is lost leaving an empty sockete. This usually occurs: | 3-5 days after surgery |
| Which bones makes up the forehead and part of the orbits and nasal cavity? | frontal bone |
| Which bone forms the largest portions of the roof and sides of the skull? | parietal bones |
| Which bone contains the foramen magnum and external occipital protuberance? | occipital |
| Which bone(s) contain the glenoid fossa? | temporal |
| The floor of this sinus is sometimes perforated with the apices of some maxillary teeth. | maxillary sinus |
| This sinus is located behind the supercilliary arch, just above the eyebrow. | frontal sinus |
| These numerous and tin walled cavities are located between the upper portions of the nasal sinuses and the orbits | anterior and middle ethmoid cells |
| Which is a symptom of sinusitis | pressure build-up, nasal discharge, pain in sinuses, pain in maxillary teeth |
| What opens into the superior meatus under the superior and nasal concha | posterior ethmoid cell |
| The ramus is a portion of the mandible that is perpendicular to the body? (T.F) | true |
| The portion of the mandible that fits into the glenoid fossa is called? | condoloid process (mandibular process) |
| The portion of the mandible that fits into the glenoid fossa with the interarticular disc separating the bones: | condyloid process of the mandible |
| The portion of the mandible that is a thick ridge at the median line is | symphysis |
| Which muscle is fan shaped and is the largest muscle of mastication? | temporals |
| Which muscle of mastication suspends the angle of the mandible in a "Sling" and aids in articulation of the maxilla and mandible? | internal pterygoid |
| Which muscle of matication is the most superficial and has great power and fast contractibility? | masseter |
| Which part of the temporomandibular joint is an oval depression in the temporal bone just anterior to the ear canal? | glenoid fossa |
| Which part of the temporomandibular joint is a raised portion of the temporal bone anterior to the glenoid fossaa? | articular tubercle |
| Which portion of the temporomandiblular joint is a disc that lies on the condyle and divides the space between the glenoid fossa and the condyle into two cavities? | meniscus |
| What instrument is used for smoothing alveolar bone also called a rasp? | bone file |
| double ended instrument used to remove soft diseased tissue and to establish blood flow into the socket following extraction. | surgical curettes |
| Instrument used to hold suture needles, clamp blood vessels , grasp tissue, tooth or bone fragments is | Hemostat |
| What instrument is used to remove teeth? | Forceps |
| What instrument is double ended with a blade on each end for reflecting tissue covering bone:? | periosteal elevator |
| The removal of a sample of irregular tissue to be sent to a lab for analysis is called | Biopsy |
| with increased water temperatures, alginate setting time decreases. With decreased temperature, working and setting times are increased. | this is both true |
| When sizing prefabricated impression trays on patients, the tray should extend: | 2-3mm beyond the last molar |
| The setting time fr Type I fast set alginate is: | 30 - 45 seconds |
| ____________ is the time it takes for alginate powder, when mixed with water, to completely set. | gelatin time |
| ____________ produces impressions that are highly accurate, dimensionally stable, resistant to tearing, and are taste and odor free. | silicone |
| A chronic disease of the liver which can be transmitted via blood transfusions, contaminated needle, skin penetration, or sexual contact. | HEP C |
| What type of inflammation is limited to the area of injury? | Local Inflammation |
| Which type of Hepatitis is not a blood infection. Spread via the fecal/oral route usually through contaminated food or water? | HEP A |
| Immediate localized protective response of the body to physical injury on the invasion of pathologic organisms is called : | Acute Inflammation |
| A serious disease that can lead to a prolonged illness including destruction of liver cells. cirrhosis of the liver and death. | HEP B |
| An epithelial lined sac filled with fluid or semisolid material is called? | cyst |
| A localized collection of pus in a circumscribed area is called? | abscess |
| What is similar to a blister containing only blood? | hematoma |
| Stage II dental caries are confined to the enamel but has passed the halfway point between the outer tooth structure and the dentin. | true |
| A condition where inflammation is not contained to a localized area and spreads throughout the soft tissue is called : | cellulitus |
| What is the small fleshy body that is suspended from the glassopalatine arch called? | Palatine uvula |
| What is the most common oral fungal infection? | candidiasis |
| What is the upper surface of the tongue called? | dorsum |
| This is the duct of the parotid gland and enters the mouth opposite the second maxillary molar. | Stenson's Duct |
| This gland is the smallest of the major salivary glands and is located beneath the mucous membrane of the floor of the mouth. | sublingual gland |
| What is it called when injured tissue is restored to its original state? | regeneration and repair |
| A sharply circumscribed lesion filled with a watery fluid. | Blister |
| Deep red in color and mushroom shaped and scattered irregularly through the upper surface of the tongue. | Papillae Funjiform |
| What is also known as a canker sore? | Aphthous Ulcer |
| What is the slow ongoing process that may lead to permanent tissue damage called? | Chronic Inflammation |
| The portion of the tooth is embedded in bone and covered by cementum. | anatomic root |
| This portion of the tooth is located at the central portion of the tooth and surrounded by dentin. | pulp cavity |
| This is the minute opening where lymphatic tissue, nerve tissue and blood supply enter the tooth. | apical foramen |
| Blood vessels are more numerous in older than in younger teeth. (T. F ) | False, blood vessels are more numerous in younger teeth |
| enamel is made up of ... | rods and prisms |
| dentin contains... | odontoblasts |
| what does cementum cover? | the root surface of the tooth |
| What are the tissues that surround and support the teeth called? | periodontium |
| What covers the cortical plate and is also known as the fibrous sheath? | periosteum |
| This is also called the alveolar process proper and the cortical plate is attached directly to this. | lamina dura |
| Which types of cells are found within the PDL to help build bone? | osteoblasts |
| What is the movable tissue surrounding the crown of the tooth above the CEJ of the tooth? | free gingiva |
| What is the space that exist between the tooth and the free gingival from the attached gingiva? | gingiva sulcus |
| What is the term for the peak of the free gingiva? | gingival crest |
| What is located below the sulcus... this line separates the free gingiva from the attached gingiva? | free gingival groove |
| What is the triangular shape of gingival tissue located between the teeth? | interdental papillae |
| A linear depression on the surface of the tooth is called______ | groove |
| A lobe found on the incisal edge of anterior teeth usually three in number is called____________ | mamelon |
| A fault that occurs along a developmental groove during the incomplete or imperfect union of 2 lobes is called ____________ | fissure |
| Which type of tooth has the longest root and is most stable in the mouth? | canine |
| Which division of the tooth is furthest from the apex of the tooth? | occlusal |
| In comparison with the adult dentition, which of the following teeth are missing in the deciduous dentition? | premolars and third molars |
| _________________ is/are used to improve retention between tooth structure and a composite restoration. | bonding adjents (adhesive) |
| Which is the most common use of glass ionomer cement? | Cementation of Crowns Cementation of Bridges |
| In primary teeth, a Pulpotomy keeps the pulp __________ with no prolonged adverse effects. | VITAL |
| Formocresol is placed on a cotton pellet inside the pulp chamber for five minutes: | to control hemmorhage |
| Following Pulpotomy, what type of final restoration is indicated if a large of tooth structure was removed? | stainless steel crown |
| Which substance is placed on the deepest part of a cavity preparation closest to the pulp where it stimulates dentin formation? | Calcium Hydroxide |
| This type of dental cement adheres directly to the tooth surface through chelation. | Zinc Polyacrylate Cement |
| This dental cement contains a substance found in clove oil. | Zinc Oxide Eugenol Cement |
| This dental cement has two types. Type I is a fine grain and Type II can be used as a posterior temporary restoration. | Zinc Phosphate Cement |
| This substance is applied to the cavity preparation after a varnish is placed. It can be calcium hydroxide, zinc oxide eugenol, zinc phosphate, zinc polyacrylate, or glass ionomer cement. | the base |
| properties of glass ionomer cements? | Ability to bond to enamel and dentin High strength and low solubility Low film thickness Can be used as a base |
| Dental Amalgam is one of the oldest dental restorative materials. It is composed of silver alloy that is combined with mercury. (T . F ) | true |
| The chemical composition of amalgam contains... | Silver Tin Copper |
| Nitrous Oxide has a fast onset and recovery with little side effects. | this is correct |
| procedures are done on a primary tooth once decay has caused an invasion into the pulpal chamber? | Pulpotomy |
| Which is used when premature loss of primary teeth occurs? | space maintainer |
| ____________ is a requirement of a parent or guardian to sign a form granting permission to preform treatment | informed consent |
| Which substance is placed within the vacant chamber of a primary tooth following pulp irradication? | Zinc Oxide Eugenol Cement |
| _____________ is the type of sedation that causes a loss of all protective reflexes including the ability to obey commands and maintain an open airway? | general ansethesia |
| What may a pediatric dentist prescribe if the patient's teeth show a high incidence of caries as a preventive treatment? | pit and fissure sealant |
| cavity varnish | prevent tooth sensitivity and to prevent discoloration of tooth structure by sealing tubules and preventing the penetration of metal ions. |
| Which dental cement is mixed on a cool glass slab? | Zinc Phosphate Cement |
| Another name for a bridge is: | fixed partial denture |
| Metal or acrylic attachments that encircle the abutment teeth to provide retention for the appliance | clasp / retainer |
| Acrylic portion of appliance that rests on alveolar ridge and is attached to the RPD to hold artificial teeth. | saddle / base |
| An acrylic or metallic projection that fits into a specifically prepared space on the abutment tooth. This portion of the RPD prevents the RPD from seating too far gingivally. | rest |
| The acrylic portion of the base that extends over the entire alveolar ridge. | flange |
| Fabricated from metal or acrylic, provides strength to the RPD. Contains base, connector, retainer, and rests. | framework |
| Metal or acrylic bar which connects right side of the appliance to the left side. | connector |
| artifical teeth are made from | acrylic or porcelain. |
| are made of gold or metal alloy and designed to cover the entire anatomic crown of the tooth. | full cast crown / full gold crown |
| are metallic porcelain or composite resin restorations covering more than three but all surfaces of the tooth | partial crown |
| are the replacement of natural teeth which utilizes a titanium metal device embedded within the patient's bone. | dental implants |
| Instruments used for scaling implants should be _____ | teflon coated platic |
| Endodontic files and reamers are fabricated from: | stainless steel and nickel titanium alloy |
| Rubber stops | are placed on reamers and files to mark the length of the root canal |
| endodontic explorer | used to aid in locating orifices. |
| Glick | instrument is used to removed excess gutta percha from the coronal portion of the canal and to condense gutta percha into the canal opening. |
| what solution is used during root canal treatment to remove debris and mill bacteria from the canal | irrigant |
| endodontic files | enlarge and smoothen the canal. These instruments are tapered and twisted and are moved in and out, up and down motion within the canal. |
| gutta percha | material used to fill the canal. Is it supplied in a cone shape and available in various sizes. |
| Absorbent Paper Points | is/are used to dry the canals during root canal treatment. These are supplied in various sizes ranging from fine to coarse. |
| Topical Anesthesia | applied prior to the local anesthesia injection. This material desensitizes the oral mucosa before the needle stick |
| This type of syringe is designed to aid the operator in positioning the needle in a safe position prior to depositing anesthetic solution. It has a harpoon that penetrates the rubber stop at the end of the anesthetic syringe. | Aspirating Syringe |
| This procedure is the process of performing a pulpotomy on a tooth with the goal of apex formation. | Apexogenesis |
| When there is a chance of nerve exposure, this procedure involves leaving a small amount of carious tissue, placing calcium hydroxide, and placing a temporary or final restoration. | indirect pulp cap |
| This procedure involves removing the entire pulp from the tooth. This is accomplished by using specialized instruments designed to navigate the narrow pulpal canals. | Pulpectomy |
| This procedure involves removal of the pulpal tissue within the pulp chamber and leaving the pulp tissue within the canals of the tooth. | pulpotomy |
| This procedure involves removal of all the apical portion of the tooth and its surrounding tissues. | apicoectomy |
| Which techniques are used to isolate offending teeth during clinical examination | Palpation Thermal Sensitivity Mobility |
| This type of local anesthetic injection is delivered at the apex of the second premolar in the mucobuccal fold. | Middle Superior Alveolar |
| This Local anesthetic injection is delivered just mesial to apex of the maxillary canine in the mucobuccal fold. | Anterior Superior Alveolar |
| This local anesthetic injection is delivered distal to the second molar half way between the gingival margin and the midline. | Greater Palatine |
| This local anesthetic injection is delivered just distal to the apex of the maxillary second molar in the mucobuccal fold. | Posterior Superior Alveolar |
| The mandibular arch nerve bloack is delivered distal, superior and slightly lingual to the retromolar pad. | Inferior Alveolar |
| This mandibular arch nerve block is delivered between the first and second premolars in the mucobuccal fold. | mental |
| Which of the following are ideal properties of local anesthetic | Rapid Onset Long Duration - 1 to 4 hours Low Toxicity |
| Which of these patients should caution be used in administering local anesthetic containing epinephrine? | Hypertensive Severe Cardiac Disease Hyperthyroid/graves |
| Necrosis | the death of cells due to loss of blood supply, bacterial toxins, or physical and chemical damage |
| The curing light should be held: | 2mm above the occlusal surface being sealed |
| Scaling and root planning will usually be recommended if a patient: | has periodontal probe depths over 4mm |
| The operator polishes the teeth with prophy paste: | After removal of plaque, calculus, debris, and stain |
| Oral Prophylaxis | is the removal of stains, plaque, foreign debris, and calculus from the teeth. |
| Fluoride therapy may be given to the patient following prophylaxis ( T / F) | True |
| Coronal Polishing is recommended to.... | allow fluoride to penetrate more effectively |
| Fluoride mouth rinse is used to... | reduce tooth decay |
| What are THREE habits that influence dentition development? | Thumb Sucking Tongue Thrusting Bruxism |
| examples of genetic malformations. | Jaw and Teeth Discrepancies Facial and Palatal Clefts Large or Small Tongue Development of muscles/ frenum |
| In ideal occlusion, maxillary teeth are in maximum contact with the mandibular teeth and: | There is a 2mm overlap of maxillary anterior teeth over mandibular teeth Maxillary posterior teeth are one cusp buccal to mandibular posterior teeth |
| What is incentric occlusion? | Maxillary and mandibular jaws are closed Teeth are in maximum contact The head of both condyles are in a retruded position The condyles are in the glenoid fossa |
| Any deviation from the normal pattern of occlusion is called | malocclusion |
| Which angle classification has a retrognathic profile (weak chin)? | Class II |
| Which angle classification has a prognathic profile (prominent chin)? | Class III |
| Which angle classification has a mesognathic profile (straight profile)? | Class I |
| Which angle classification has a distoocclusion molar relationship? | Class II |
| Which angle classification has a mesioocclusion molar relationship? | Class III |
| Which angle classification has a neutoocclusion molar relationship? | Class I |
| Crossbite | occurs when the maxillary anterior incisors and/or posterior buccal cusps are in liguoversion and do not overlap the mandibular teeth |
| overjet | is the horizontal distance that exists due to the protrusion of the most anterior maxillary incisors to the facial aspect of the most anterior mandibular incisors. |
| Overbite | A greater than normal vertical overlap between the incisal edges of the maxillary central incisors and the mandibular incisors |
| Openbite | No overlap exists between the maxillary and mandibular incisors and a space is present while the posterior teeth are closed |
| List FIVE signs and symptoms of periodontal disease: | Bleeding during brushing, probing and flossing Discoloration of gingiva Gingival swelling/inflammation Deep pocket depth Sensitivity to palpation Foul odor loose teeth |
| Gingivitis can be reversed using preventative measures. | TRUE |
| In early periodontitis, pocket depth formation is between | 2MM TO 4MM |
| In advanced periodontitis, pocket depth formation is between: | 8MM + |
| Which drug is used to treat epilepsy causes and overgrowth of gingival tissue? | Phenytoin |
| Periodontal disease is more common in diabetics. | TRUE |
| Gingivoplasty | periodontal surgery involves removal of excess tissue and re-contouring the gingiva. |
| Gingival Grafting | periodontal surgery involved removing tissue from one part of the mouth to another area where it is needed |
| Osteoplasty | involves surgical reshaping of the alveolar bone |
| Gingivectomy | removal of inflamed and diseased tissue. Is it performed when a periodontal pocket does not respond to scaling. |
| Which teeth benefit most from sealant placement? | newly erupted posterior teeth |
| How much percentage (%) of inorganic matter (calcium/phosphorous) is dentin | 70 % inorganic matter |
| Which fills the two cavities between the condyle and the glenoid fossa? | Synovia |
| The portion of the mandible that fits into the glenoid fossa with the intraarticular disc separating the bones. | Condyloid process of the mandible |
| What bone makes up the hard palate? | Palatine process of the maxillae Horizontal plates of the palatine bones |
| Which sinus cavity can be perforated by the apical portion of some maxillary teeth? | maxillary sinsus |
| What is/are the chief functions of the dental pulp? | Provide nourishment to the dentin Provide sensation to the teeth Forms the secondary dentin |
| When do the adult maxillary and mandibular first molars erupt? | 6 - 7 years old |
| leading cause of tooth loss in adults | periodontal disease |
| 11 regions of the head | frontal parietal occipital temporal orbital nasal infraorbital zygomatic buccal oral mental |
| skull is divided into 2 sections | cranium and face 8 bones to protect brain and 14 bones of the face |
| CRANIUM BONES | single frontal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid bones and parietal and temporal bones |
| PARIETAL BONES | 2 bones, form most of the roof and upper sides of the cranium. joined at the sagittal suture at the midline of skull. |
| FRONTAL BONES | forms the forehead, part of the floor of the cranium, and most of the roof of the orbits. contains 2 frontal sinuses (one above each eye) |
| ORBIT | the boney cavity that protects the eye |
| OCCIPITAL BONES | forms the back and base of the cranium. joins the parietal bones at the lambdoid suture. the spinal cord passes through the foramen magnum of the occiptal bone |
| TEMPORAL BONES | form the sides and base of the cranium. each bone encloses an ear and contains external auditory meatus (bony passage of outer ear). |
| the mastoid process | a projection on the temporal bone located behind the ear. composed of air spaces that communicate with the middle ear cavity. |
| glenoid fossa | the lower portion of the temporal bone articulates with the mandible. |
| the styloid process | extends from the undersurface of the temporal bone, |
| SPHENOID BONE | made up of a body and greater and lesser wings . forms anterior part of the base of the skull |
| the greater wing | articulates with the temporal bone on either side and anteriorly with the frontal and zygomatic bones to form part of the orbit |
| the lesser wing | articulates with the ethmoid and frontal bone and also forms part of the orbit |
| sphenoid sinuses | located in the sphenoid bone just posterior to the eye |
| the pterygoid process | extends downward from sphnoid bone. consists of 2 plates, the lateral pterygoid plate and external pterygoid plates |
| ETHMOID BONE | forms part of cranium floor, the orbit, and nasal cavity. honeycomb like spaces |
| ZYGOMATIC BONES | aka malar bones, form cheek and lateral wall, floor of orbit. rests on maxillary bones |
| zygomatic arch | is what forms the promince of the cheek |
| zygomatic process | process of the maxillary bones that extends upward to articulate with the zygomatic bone. |
| PALATINE BONE | 2 bones and consist of 2 plates (horizontal and vertical) |
| palatine horizontal plate | forms the posterior part of the hard palate of the mouth and the floor of the nose |
| palatine vertical plate | forms the lateral walls of the nasal cavity |
| nasal bones | 2 nasal bones form bridge of nose |
| lacrimal bones | make up part of the orbit at the inner angle of the eye |
| hyoid bone | does not articulate w any other bone. btwn the mandible and the larynx. primary support for the tongue and other muscles. shaped like a horseshoe. has a central body and 2 lateral projections. located in neck |
| Temporomandibular joint | a joint on each side of the head that allows movement of the mandible for speech and chewing |
| what makes up the TMJ | glenoid fossa, condyloid process and a raised portion of temporal bone |
| apical third | closest to the apex of tooth |
| cervical third | closest to the cervix (neck of the tooth) |
| anatomic root | This portion of the tooth is embedded in the bone of the upper and lower jaws and is covered by cementum |
| Pulp Cavity or Pulp Chamber | This cavity is filled with pulpal tissues and is located at the central portion of the tooth, and is surrounded by dentin |
| Coronal Pulp – | Largest portion of the pulp cavity |
| Radicular Pulp | the small and narrow portion of the pulp cavity located within the root of the tooth |
| Enamel | Hardest tissue of the human body., 96% inorganic material, covers entire crown of the tooth, made up of prisms and rods |
| Dentin | makes up largest portion of tooth, harder than bone but softer than enamel, |
| Odontoblasts | responsible for the formation of dentin. They are located near the pulp and the dentin |
| Secondary dentin | Formed by odontoblasts and occur at areas of irritation such as caries and tooth wear. |
| Periodontal Ligament (PDL) | Collagenous fibers embedded within the cementum |
| Cementoblasts | forms cementum |
| Osteoblasts | builds bone |
| Fibroblasts | Form fibrous tissue |
| Free Gingiva | Movable tissues that surrounds the crown of the tooth just above the CEJ of the tooth |
| Gingiva Crest | The peak of the free gingiva |
| Gingiva Sulcus | the space that exists between the tooth and the free gingiva |
| Osteotomy | surgical removal of bone |
| alveolitis | a dry socket caused but absence of a blood clot in the socket following an extraction. |
| Biopsy | removal of a sample of irregular tissue to be sent to a lab |
| Local Inflammation | limited to the area of the injury |
| systemtic inflammation | not limited to area of injury |
| acute inflammation | immediate localized protective response of the body |
| Chronic Inflammation | a slow ongoing process that may lead to permenant tissue damage |
| Hyperplasia | an overgrowth of tissue during the repair process |
| Stage II – Dental Caries | confined to enamel but passed the halfway point from the outer tooth surface to the dentin |
| Stage III – Dental Caries | has entered the dentin |
| Stage IV – Dental Caries | passed the halfway point between the DEJ (dentino-enamel junction) and the pulp |
| Hepatitis | inflammation of the liver |
| fixed prosthodontics | restoration or replacement of 1 or more teeth in dental arch |
| direct restorations | amalgam and composite resin restorations |
| what is a post | metallic or resin device inserted into the pupal canal to retain final restoration |
| what is a core | attached to the post and fills the void that was removed |
| Indirect Pulp Cap | when there is a chance of nerve exposure, calcium hydroxide is placed on top of area closest to nerve |
| direct pulp cap | when there is nerve exposure, calcium hydroxide is placed over exposure and a temporary is placed |
| what does it mean to Obturate | fill canal w gutta percha and endodontic sealer |
| local anesthesia | direct application to oral tissues or can be injected into the tissues |
| topical anesthesia | superfical anesthesia to mucous membranes in the oral cavity |
| Anterior Superior Alveolar (ASA) – | just mesial to the maxillary canine, at the apex, in the mucobuccal fold |
| Middle Superior Alveolar (MSA) | at the apex of the maxillary second premolar in the mucabuccal fold |
| Posterior Superior Alveolar (PSA) | just distal to the apex of the maxillary second molar in the mucobuccal fold |
| Nasopalatine | lateral to the incisive papilla and lingual to the central incisors |
| greater palatine | distal to the second molar, halfway between the gingival margin and the midline |
| properties of local anesthetic | rapid onset, long duration (1 - 4 hours) low toxicity, low risk of an allergy |
| This mandibular arch nerve block is delivered distal, superior and slightly lingual to the retromolar. | inferior alveolar |
| This mandibular arch nerve block is delivered between the first and second premolar in the mucobuccal fold | mental |
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