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GA Insurance License
life and health
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the form of risk management used to protect the financial well-being of an individual, company or other entity in the event of an unexpected financial loss | insurance |
| Insurance is a type of | Legal Contract |
| Insurance contract is between what 2 parties? | insurance company and consumer or business entity |
| what does an insurance contract do? | transfers the risk of a specific financial loss from one party to the other in exchange for payment |
| What is the legal term for the insurance company | insurer |
| what is the legal term for the insurered | policy owner or policy holder |
| what is the legal term for payment of coverage | premium |
| sum of money that is required to keep a policy in force | premium payment |
| legal contract between two parties for insurance is called | insurance policy |
| when the insured incurs a loss, what must be done | a claim is made |
| death of an individual prior to the age of 65 is called | premature death |
| legal term for overall purpose of insurance which is to compensate an insured for loss or damage | indemnify |
| insurance industry is regulated by | both state and federal legislation |
| Each state maintains its own division or department of insurance, consisting of | regulating officers and an insurance commissioner or superintendent. |
| what is provided to an insurance company as proof of licensure within the state. | Certificate of Authority |
| Once certified by the state, the insurer is considered to be | admitted (able to do business in the state) |
| term for an insurer that is prohibited from conducting business within a state until it becomes licensed by that state. | non-admitted |
| Authorized insurance companies oftentimes conduct business in multiple states, and as such, they are authorized based on | the state in which the insurance company’s home office is incorporated |
| refers to the state (or country) in which the insurance company is incorporated. | domicile of incorporation |
| The following 3 categories determine the status of an insurance company based on its location of incorporation in relation to the location in which it is conducting business | domestic, foreign, alien |
| A domestic insurer is an insurance company that conducts insurance business in the same state in which it is incorporated | domestic insurer |
| an insurance company that conducts insurance business in any state that it is not incorporated, such as an insurance company that is incorporated in Florida and conducts insurance business in California or New York | foreign insurer |
| Any insurance company incorporated outside of the United States | alien insurer |
| 3 U.S. territorial possessions and are within U.S. federal law | Puerto Rico, Guam, and the U.S. Virgin Islands |
| insurance companies typically invest in | low risk bonds |
| 2 types of low risk bonds | corporate and municipal |
| To protect against insurer insolvency, each state’s department of insurance mandates company compliance in reporting financial conditions and results of operations on a | quarterly basis |
| what must be filed with the state department of insurance and must be completed by an independent certified public accountant chosen by the insurer | annual audited report |
| financial reports must be provided by the insurer to the department for review (6) | audited annual report , statement company’s financial condition, Balance sheets/statements of cash flow, summary of insurer operations, changes in the company’s capital/surplus, company’s notes related to its financial statements which reconcile any |
| what represents its financial strength and is based on its claims experience, investment performance, and dividend returns, as well as an insurer’s management team among other factors. | insurance company's financial ratings |
| 3 examples of financial rating companies | Standard & Poor’s, Moody’s, and AM Best |
| Many businesses choose to do what to cover smaller employee claims that can be paid by the company instead of filing a claim through the insurer | self-insure |
| type of risk retention between members, known as subscribers, consisting of individual business owners, corporations, or municipalities. | reciprocal insurance aka inter-insurance |
| self-insurance is administered by an attorney, called an | attorney-in-fact |
| reciprocal insurance is often used by municipalities to | cross-indemnify each other |
| reciprocal insurance is used in addition to | purchasing formal insurance |
| Stock Insurance Company is aka | Non-Participating or ‘Non-Par' |
| The majority of private commercial insurance companies in America are considered to be either | stock or mutual insurance company |
| private insurance company that is established to provide insurance to policyowners and to make a profit for its stockholders. | stock insurance company |
| This type of insurer is considered to be what type of company because the insured policyowners do not own the company, nor do they receive any dividends that the company returns. | non-par |
| Mutual Insurance Company is aka | Participating or ‘Par’ |
| private insurance company that is established to provide insurance to policyowners who are also the company’s stockholders (owners) | mutual insurance company participating or par |
| Individuals who purchase insurance from a mutual insurer are both | customer and owner/shareholder |
| what is paid out to its shareholders in the form of Dividends | earned surplus |
| annual reimbursement of excess premiums that remain after the company has set aside its needed reserves and has deducted the necessary amount to cover annual claims and other company expenses. | dividends |
| process when a mutual insurance company changes its corporate structure to a stock company status, often to help increase capital needs that is more easily accomplished as a stock insurance company. | demutualization |
| process when a stock insurance company can also change its corporate structure to become a mutual insurance company | mutualization |
| sharing of risk between an insurance company and a re-insurance company | reinsurance |
| re-insurance company, known as a | re-insurer |
| provide additional insurance coverage for risks that are too large for the single insurer to adequately cover. | re-insurer company |
| provides the details of the agreed reinsurance policy | re-insurance policy |
| a reinsurance premium is paid by the | cedent insurer |
| government-administered insurance is funded by taxes | social insurance |
| on-profit organizations that are recognized for their social and charitable activities. | fraternal associations |
| an exchange marketplace consisting of individuals, companies and underwriters who provide ‘high-risk’ insurance products | Lloyd's of London |
| Each insurer employs statistical analysts, called | actuaries |
| the potential for an outcome to result in either a gain or a loss based on a given action, event, or occurrence. | risk |
| 2 types of risk | speculative and pure |
| chance of either loss or gain, such as gambling. | speculative risk |
| Involves only the chance of loss, such as the chance of an injury from an accident. | pure risk |
| All varieties of insurance rely on two principles to ensure that an insurance company is profitable and that its insurance claims are satisfied: | risk pooling and law of large numbers |
| Also known as Loss Sharing, THIS is simply the spreading of a specific risk, or the exposure of a specific loss, across a sizable number of individuals instead of bearing all costs on the individual person. | risk pooling |
| all insured individuals contribute small amounts of premium on a regular basis to cover a much larger amount of loss, referred to as | loss exposure |
| what is the combining of similar ‘exposure units,’ is necessary for the law of large numbers to operate. | risk pooling |
| the economic value of the person’s life or property being insured | exposure units |
| the larger the number of individual risks that are combined into a group, the more certain an insurance company is to knowing the amount of loss sustained that will occur in any given period of time. | law of large numbers |
| Elements of Insurable Risk | pure risk, risk pooling, Law of Large Numbers, cannot lead to catastrophic loss for the insurer OR cannot be adversely selected |
| he tendency of more unhealthy people being insured than healthy people, thus demanding more funding for claims from the insurer. | adverse selection |
| Calculating risk effectively creates a | ‘profitable distribution of exposures,’ |
| Two important factors that lead to loss are called | hazards and perils |
| is the factor, or underlying condition, that gives rise to a peril. | hazard |
| specific event that causes, or is the grounds, for loss for ex a fire to a house | peril |
| A Hazard leads to a Peril which leads to a | loss |
| Types of Hazards | physical, moral, morale |
| defined by physical conditions that exist which have the potential to lead to loss, such as unsafe working conditions. | physical hazard |
| type of hazards are defined by human behavior, actions, habits and lifestyles such as smoking, eating an unhealthy diet, drug abuse, texting while driving | moral |
| type of hazard temporary lapse in judgment that leads to a brief indifference in attitude towards risk | morale |
| Methods of Handling Risk (2) | risk avoidance, reducing risk |
| as accepting and managing risk when it occurs, such as having reserve funds available in the event of an accident or illness. | retaining risk |
| Classifications of Risk (4) | preferred, standard, substandard, declined |
| nsurer charges a lesser premium amount than a standard risk policy, usually around 10% lower than the standard risk premium rate. | preferred risk |
| This class of risk includes applicants with pre-existing conditions that are within the risk acceptance levels of the insurer, and can include a higher premium payment to offset the increased risk | substandard risk |
| lower-valued life insurance products | Industrial life insurance |
| a representative of the insurer meets initially with the insured to deliver the policy and COLLECTS the initial premium. | Home Service marketing distribution system |
| Insurers market products directly to consumers through mass marketing as well as through their own sales force, including company sales employees and ‘captive agents’ | direct response marketing |
| agents who market only one insurer’s products). | captive agents |
| marketing distribution system incorporates agents, either exclusive to the insurer, or who are considered ‘independent agents,’ | agency marketing |
| are given the authority to solicit insurance to the general public and are paid a commission on insurance sales. | producers |
| producers are generally categorized as (3) | agents, brokers, solicitors |
| is authorized by an insurance company to solicit and negotiate insurance products on the company’s behalf | insurance agent |
| The insurance company is often referred to as the | principal/insurer |
| works on behalf of a consumer to negotiate and transact insurance with one or more insurers | An insurance Broker |
| In an effort to increase revenue, some states allow agents and brokers to hire individuals to help with the sales process | solicitor |
| legal contract between an insurance company and a licensed agent by which the insurance company gives an agent the contractual permission, or ‘express authority,’ to conduct insurance business on behalf of the insurer in exchange for compensation, | an appointment |
| . Two types of presumed authority are | implied and apparent |
| the general business practices that an agent could perform that is not necessarily part of the agent’s contract, but could be acceptable by the insurer. | implied authority |
| possibility of a situation where an applicant is under the impression that the agent has the authority to act on behalf of the insurer, even though no expressed authority actually exists | apparent authority |
| presumption from a potential customer’s point-of-view that an agent is conducting business on behalf of an insurer, given the materials he or she presents to the potential customer or the clothing he or she wears bearing the company’s name or logo. | presumption of agency |
| insurance protects the agent from claims resulting from the failure to adequately provide professional service to a client. | errors and omissions insurance |
| also known as ‘professional liability’ insurance | E&O insurance |
| 2 Types of E&O Policies | occurence, claims made |
| policy provides an agent with liability coverage against any current or future claims that result from negligent errors or omissions that occur during the period of time in which the E&O policy is in force. | Occurence E&O policy |
| insures against any claims of current or prior incidents that occurred, | claims made E&O policy |
| ‘tail’ coverage can be purchased as an add-on to a claims-made E&O policy to protect against claims made after the agent cancels his or her E&O coverage and is sued while not currently covered under a claims-made policy. | extended reporting |
| ‘nose,’ provision which retroactively dates the agent’s new E&O policy to an earlier date, usually to the beginning of his or her prior E&O coverage | ‘nose,’ provision which retroactively dates the agent’s new E&O policy to an earlier date, usually to the beginning of his or her prior E&O coverage |
| coverage further protects the agent by covering ANY incidents prior to the current policy, instead of limiting coverage to a specific retroactive date | full prior acts policy |
| an individual who maintains a certain trust and/or confidence is known as a | Fiduciary |
| initial premium of the applicant, often called | consideration |
| acting in a professional manner and protecting both the insurer and insured aka | prudent person’ rule |
| Once a policy is issued, the agent is responsible for | he delivery and explanation of the policy to the newly insured, as well as the collection any initial premium due, if not already collected |
| Penalties for soliciting to any number listed on the registry include being subject to up to a | $16k fine |
| Do-Not-Call Implementation Act was enacted in year | 2003 |
| National Do-Not-Call Registry is managed by | ftc |
| National Do-Not-Call Registry is enforced by | FTC and the Federal Communications Commission (FCC), as well as by each state’s government. |
| The FCC defines what as any material advertising the commercial availability or quality of any property, goods or services, which is transmitted to any person without that person’s prior express invitation or permission, in writing or otherwise. | Unsolicited Advertisements |
| As stated by the FTC, an established business relationship with a company exists for | (3) months after the inquiry or application. |
| implemented additional efforts in removing disconnected and re-assigned phone numbers, as well as retaining phone numbers within the National Do-Not-Call Registry on a permanent basis | Do-Not-Call Improvement Act of 2007 |
| Insurers are required to maintain records on all advertisements for review by the | state Insurance Commissioner |
| insurers must fully disclose what all all advertisements | their name |
| Advertisements that quote exact premiums must also disclose | terms of coverage, as well as the age, sex and geographic location of which the quoted coverage is based |
| must be disclosed when premium is quoted in an advertisement, meaning that the quoted premium is based on a preferred risk class, standard risk class or substandard risk class | Specific classes of risk |
| Policy limitations must be | clearly disclosed in all advertisements |
| A Medicare-related advertisement must clearly state its nature as a | Medicare product |
| Careful use of the words ‘all,’ ‘full,’ and ‘complete’ (and similar words) must be clear as to not | exaggerate benefits beyond policy terms |
| Policy limitation and exclusion descriptions must be clearly stated as such, and not as | policy benefits |
| in advertisements, periods must be properly disclosed | Waiting and elimination |
| Pre-existing conditions must be | properly defined and disclosed |
| Statistical sources must | be disclosed in all advertisements |
| All competitors that are used for comparison purposes must be | clearly disclosed in the advertisement – |
| Advertisements cannot promote, as an inducement to sell, coverage only to individuals based on their | occupation, association, age, sex, or other condition unless such policy is, in fact, only offered to such individuals |
| Lying to a customer regarding covered benefits or the terms of the policy, or guaranteeing insurance is illegal and grounds for license revocation | Misrepresentation |
| false or deceptive advertising as well as defamation of an insurer. Promising dividend returns or company profits as an inducement to a sale is also prohibited. | misrepresentation |
| inducing a policyowner through misrepresentation to forfeit or change insurance from one company to another in order to gain commission | twisting |
| act of depleting the funds of one insurance policy to purchase another policy within the same company for no purpose other than to generate new commission for an agent or agency from an existing customer. | churning |
| Charging an applicant for ancillary (supplemental) coverage without their knowledge or advising that such additional coverage is required by law with the purchase of insurance. | sliding |
| charging different rates of premium, offering different benefits, or charging extra fees based on residence, race, religion, or national origin. | Unfair Discrimination |
| person engaged in the business of insurance, whose activities affect interstate commerce and who willfully embezzles, or misappropriates any funds or policy premiums of an applicant or insurer shall be punished by | fine or imprisonment for not more than 10 years, or both |
| f such embezzlement or misappropriation jeopardized the safety and soundness of an insurer and was a significant cause of such insurer being placed in conservation, rehabilitation, or liquidation by an appropriate court | imprisonment shall be not more than 15 years |
| f the amount or value so embezzled, abstracted, purloined, or misappropriated does not exceed $5,000, | mprisoned not more than one year, |
| it is common for a health insurance policy to be issued to an applicant based solely on the medical information gathered from the application that is submitted by the applicant to the insurer. | non-medical |
| typically provides face amounts between $1,000 to $5,000, and is issued based solely on the application, often asking basic applicant questions regarding gender, age, residence address and specific catastrophic medical history | Guaranteed Issue |
| conducted by a nurse practitioner or paramedic, often at the applicant’s residence | paramedical exam |
| applicant’s height and weight, verbal questionnaire regarding the applicant’s medical history and lifestyle,blood pressure and pulse rate, blood and urine for analysis | Medical or Paramedical Exam generally includes: |
| additional medical records or a WHAT to the insurer when confirmation of a current or prior condition is needed by the insurer | atteding physician's statement (aps) |
| A paper application can be corrected or changed before being submitted; however, any changes should be | initialed by the applicant and agent |
| the insurer provides the applicant with a ‘receipt of submission,’ known as a | Conditional Receipt. |
| the process of reviewing an application for insurance where an insurance company determines an applicant’s eligibility and premium amount based on the total overall risk, and how it is classified according to the company’s risk limits and standards. | underwriting |
| Each applicant is ‘rated’ according to | sex, age, height, weight, medical conditions, medical history, smoking status, occupation, and even hobbies |
| multinational medical information retention and reporting agency that collects and provides reliable medical information regarding an applicant’s health history. | MIB |
| Individuals who have not been underwritten for an individual life or health insurance policy in the past how many years are typically not on file | 7 |
| death claims, as well as disability claims to better predict the rates in which individuals die | mortality factor |
| become disabled due to accident or illness | morbidity factor |
| the process of adding premium dollars to a policy to cover company expenses associated with the issuance of a policy (underwriting and administrative costs). | expense loading |
| the premium amount before expense loading is added. | net premium |
| Company Expenses Covered by Insurance Premium | Policy Acquisition Costs, General Company Overhead Costs and Annual Taxes, Contingency Funding, Expected Annual Claims Funding |
| he premium amount determined after expense loading is added and is the total annual cost of the policy that the insured pays. | Gross Annual Premium |
| The frequency in which a policyowner pays his or her premium is called the | premium mode |
| funds that are maintained by the insurance company to pay the future claims of its policyowners | reserves |
| listed as a liability on the company’s financial records, not as an asset. | reserves |
| Technically, a company’s reserve should be equal to the amount that | will exactly equal all of the company’s contractual obligations. |
| defined as the ratio between company losses (annual claims) and company revenue (annual collected premium), | loss ratio |
| defined as the ratio between annual company operating expenses and company annual revenue, | Expense Ratio |
| is calculated by dividing operating expenses by total premiums received | expense ratio |
| defined as the branch of law that regulates the rights and responsibilities of parties that enter into contracts, and any contractual disputes arising from written or verbal agreements. | contract law |
| is insurance regulated under contract or tort law | contract law |
| the branch of law covering most civil lawsuits based on personal liabilities and damages resulting from the ‘wrongful acts of others,’ except for contractual disputes | tort law |
| 4 Elements of a Legal Contract | agreement, consideration, legal purpose, competent parties |
| Defined as selling insurance to oneself and immediate family members, friends or business acquaintances. | controlled business |
| parties involved with an insurance policy include: | the insurer, the applicant, the policy’s owner, insured individual, beneficiary (life) |
| The individual who applies for insurance | applicant |
| Pertains to life insurance. pays the policy’s premiums and owns the life insurance policy. | policy owner |
| Pertains to health insurance. pays the premium for health insurance on the policy’s insured, most often being the same person. | policy holder |
| An individual, trust, estate, or institution that is designated by the policyowner of a life contract to receive the life contract’s death benefit upon the death of the insured | beneficiary |
| actual compensation paid by the insurer to the insured, or to the policy’s beneficiary for loss that has occurred. | indemnity |
| Refers to the process in which an insurer pursues reimbursement from another insurer for indemnifying an insured when the insurer is ultimately not responsible for paying such claim | subrogation |
| financial limit of the insurer based on the terms of the contract. | limit of liability |
| a contract that pays a stated sum, regardless of the amount of loss that has occurred. | valued contract |
| a contract that pays out benefits that are equal to the actual loss incurred, up to the policy’s stated limits, in order to make the insured ‘whole’ again. | indemnity contract |
| Anyone to whom the policy is transferred receives full benefits of policy ownership through a process called | policy assignment |
| health insurance policy creates a Personal Contract , Individuals who are insured under a health contract are considered | policy holders |
| Characteristics Unique to Insurance Contracts (6) | Contract of Adhesion, Aleatory, Unilateral, Conditional Contract,Utmost Good Faith |
| only one party, the insurer, defines and prepares the insurance contract, which is non-negotiable by the other party. | Contract of Adhesion |
| dependent on chance or an uncertain outcome, where one party may receive more value than the other party based on uncertain future circumstances. | Aleatory |
| because only one party makes promises to the other party | Unilateral |
| contracts include conditions that must be satisfied in order for benefits to be paid to the insured. | conditional contract |
| meaning that neither party will attempt to conceal or defraud the other party | Utmost Good Faith |
| a statement that the applicant promises to be true, such as his or her age or gender. | warranty |
| a statement that the applicant believes to be true to the best of his or her knowledge. | Representation |
| in which policy terms are defined to clarify interpretation by the insured. | Definitions Page |
| defines the scope of the coverage and all promises of insurance coverage made by the insurer in exchange for premium | Insuring Agreement |
| meaning that all losses incurred by the insured are covered by the policy, except for any losses that are intentionally excluded from coverage, as defined on the policy’s declaration page. | all-risk coverage |
| court ruling stating that once an insurance contract, including its provisions and riders, is constructed and provided in written form to the insured, it cannot be modified by any oral, or verbal, statements made by either party. | Parol (Oral) Evidence Rule |
| Grounds for Rescission (3) | Misrepresentation, Concealment, Fraud, |
| he lawful separation of two parties by canceling the contract from its inception, essentially making it a ‘void’ contract. | Policy Rescission |
| the voluntary relinquishment of a given right or privilege. | waiver |
| the legal action and enforcement of a waiver. | Estoppel |
| one of the first attempts of the federal government to try to regulate insurance as interstate commerce. | Paul v. Virginia (1868) |
| Supreme Court, however, decided that issuing an insurance policy is not considered a transaction of commerce; therefore, it cannot be regulated by the federal government as interstate commerce. | Paul v. Virginia (1868) |
| Although this ruling would later be reversed, for 75 years following this Supreme Court decision, insurance was not considered to be interstate commerce | Paul v. Virginia (1868) |
| known for creating the New York Insurance Code | The Armstrong Investigation (1905) |
| utcome of this investigation led to stricter regulation of insurance companies by the state, which ultimately led to other states adopting similar insurance regulations. | The Armstrong Investigation (1905) |
| This Supreme Court case placed the regulation of insurance within the authority of the federal government by defining insurance as a form of interstate commerce | United States v. Southeastern Underwriters Association (1944) |
| Any state laws that may have been in force at that time that conflicted with the laws of the federal government became void and unenforceable. | United States v. Southeastern Underwriters Association (1944) |
| Due to the conflicts that arose from this Supreme Court decision, Congress later enacted the ‘McCarran-Ferguson Act’ | United States v. Southeastern Underwriters Association (1944) |
| further define the roles of the federal and state governments. | McCarran-Ferguson Act |
| This Act ratified legislation in all states to conform to federal law; however, Congress still concluded that state regulation of insurance made the most sense from a consumer’s standpoint. | The McCarran-Ferguson Act (1945) |
| Under this act, the business of insurance is primarily regulated by the states, allowing the federal government to regulate in addition to, but not to supersede state insurance laws. | The McCarran-Ferguson Act (1945) |
| In an attempt by the FTC to regulate insurance advertising, the Supreme Court decided, due to the McCarran-Ferguson Act, that a federal agency such as the FTC had no ruling or authority over the states regarding insurance advertising regulation | 1958 Intervention by the FTC |
| Both annuities and variable life insurance were questioned and concluded to be securities, instead of insurance | 1959 Intervention by the SEC |
| Supreme Court decided that insurance companies selling variable life products and annuities were to be regulated under the authority of both the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC), and the states. | 1959 Intervention by the SEC |
| states that all consumers have the right to keep personal financial information private between the collecting party and the consumer | Fair Credit Reporting Act (1970) |
| at no time may private personal and financial information be given to a non-affiliated third party unless what is given prior | Initial Privacy Notice |
| This federal consumer privacy regulation requires disclosure of any ‘financial institution’ that denies coverage to a consumer. | Fair Credit Reporting Act (1970) |
| , if a consumer is denied coverage, he or she has the right to | dispute this denial and provide correct information if inaccurate information is portrayed about the consumer. |
| defined as an institution engaged in activities that are financial in nature or incidental to such financial activities. | Financial Institution |
| This Act was created to ensure that correct information is obtained regarding a consumer and that a consumer’s privacy is not at risk | Fair Credit Reporting Act (1970) |
| Under FCRA 1970 consumers must be notified w/in how many days a report was requested | 3 days report requested |
| Under FCRA 1970 consumer has the right to know the identity of anyone who is | questioned regarding a credit report. |
| If the consumer is rejected, due to findings in a credit report information regarding the | consumer reporting agency must be provided to the consumer |
| The consumer reporting agency must disclose any information in the event an applicant requests it; however, | an insurance company is not obligated to disclose such information to an applicant. |
| under FCRA 1970, If an individual disagrees with the agency’s report, he or she has the right to | file a statement to the insurer that better clarifies any negative issues presented by the insurer |
| Due to the size and depth of the information collected by insurers, legislation was passed to regulate and safeguard this personal consumer information. | PrivacyAct 1974 |
| set forth the standards of fair information practices that govern the collection, maintenance, use, and dissemination of personally identifiable information about individuals. | Privacy Act (1974) |
| Goals of the Privacy Act: 3 | minimize consumer intrusiveness, be fair and impartial in collecting and reporting on consumers,build public trust regarding the safeguarding of personal information collection |
| Also referred to as the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) or (GLB Act) | Financial Services Modernization Act (1999) |
| allowed financial institutions to merge together into what are commonly called ‘financial supermarkets,’ | Financial Services Modernization Act (1999) GLBA |
| Under this Act, regulation of financial institutions is based on the type of product or service marketed instead of on the type of company selling the product | Financial Services Modernization Act (1999) GLBA |
| Due to the large amount of private information disclosed to these financial institutions, a major part of the GLBA is the requirement that | all financial institutions design, implement and maintain ‘safeguards’ to protect private information |
| an individual, or the legal representative of such an individual, who obtains, from a financial institution, financial products or services which are to be used primarily for personal, family, or household purposes | GLBA defines a Consumer |
| defined as a consumer who has a continuing ‘customer relationship’ with a financial institution | customer |
| privacy requirements of the GLBA include the what rule | Financial Privacy Rule |
| which requires financial institutions to set up and maintain a system of protecting consumer and customer records. | Safeguards Rule |
| GLBA regulates against attempts to obtain non-public personal information from consumers and customers under false pretenses, a method known as | Pre-texting. |
| financial institution must disclose to all consumers in advance of any contractual agreement between the consumer and financial institution that it intends to collect and retain both public and private information on the consumer | Financial Privacy Rule |
| requires clear disclosure by all financial institutions of their privacy policy regarding the sharing of non-public personal information with both affiliates and third parties. | Financial Privacy Rule |
| defined as personally identifiable financial information | non-public personal information,’ also referred to as NPI |
| Provided by a consumer to a financial institution, Resulting from any transaction with the consumer, Otherwise obtained by the financial institution | NPI |
| includes any list, description, or other groupings of consumers (and publicly available information pertaining to them) that is derived without using any non-public personal information. | Public personal information |
| llow a consumer the opportunity to prevent the sharing of certain non-public financial information with non-affiliated third parties, subject to certain exceptions. | GLBA requires a notice to consumers and an opportunity to Opt-Out, |
| give permission to an insurer to disclose and share non-public personal information. | Opt-In, |
| the electronic or physical methods used to access, collect, store, use, transmit, protect or dispose of non-public personal information, | Customer Information Systems |
| defined as any person or entity that maintains, processes, or otherwise is permitted access to customer information through its provision of services directly to the licensee. | Service Provider |
| group of laws that determine insurance regulation in a given state | Insurance Code |
| developed by the legislative branch of each state’s government, define the roles of both the Insurance Commissioner and state’s insurance regulatory body | Statutes |
| Also known as a Superintendent or Director of Insurance | Insurance Commissioner |
| protect claimants, policyholders, annuitants, and creditors form insolvent insurers by funding the payments of claims and other related policy benefits. | Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), |
| Individual and group life insurance policies, as well as individual annuities, long-term care and disability income insurance policies are covered by | life and health guaranty associations. |
| insurance producer regulation began with the | Producer Licensing Model Act (PLMA) |
| Producer License Qualifications: age requirement | 18 |
| Producer License Qualifications: not committed an act that | could lead to denial, suspension, or revocation of an insurance license |
| Producer License Qualifications: complete a | pre-licensing course for a specific line of insurance |
| Producer License Qualifications:PPM | pay fees, pass exams, maintain continuing education |
| develops and regulates the state exam with the assistance of an outside testing service that administers the exam and collects the state testing fees | the insurance commissioner |
| If a producer moves to a different state, the producer has ? days to apply for a state license without having to complete any additional pre-licensing education or state testing. | 90 |
| promotes uniformity in business standards and practices throughout the insurance industry | National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC |
| ot a federal or state legislative body, nor does it regulate insurance law, even though its members are the insurance commissioners of each state in the U.S. | NAIC |
| These members are either elected to their post, or appointed by their states’ governor | NAIC |
| All members of the NAIC elect these governing members on an | annual basis. |
| NAIC is composed of seven additional committees including: | life,health, P&C, Market Reg/Consumer Affairs, Financial Reg/Accreditation, Financial Condition Committee, International Relations |
| class of insurance characterized by a single policy that provides life or health insurance coverage for multiple members of an eligible group. | Group Insurance |
| a policy that is issued to an individual or family and provides coverage for immediate members of the family | Individual Insurance policy |
| a single policy that is issued to the administrator, or ‘plan sponsor,’ of an eligible group, | Group Insurance |
| Group insurance provides coverage for the members of an eligible group, as well as | their dependents |
| group policy is also referred to as a | master contract, |
| As proof of coverage under a group insurance policy, eligible members of the group receive a | Certificate of Insurance or Certificate of Coverage |
| referred to as ? policy can be purchased by someone other than the insured, | Third-Party Ownership |
| ? is not required by each member within a group | proof of insurability |
| the process of underwriting the group as a whole, not its individual members. | Group Risk Selection |
| If the group meets the underwriting standards of the insurer, it is accepted. If rejected, the insurer must | reject the entire group, |
| high risk group which could be denied coverage as a group. | risk adverse |
| a group that is formed for some reason other than to obtain insurance | Natural Group |
| Most high-risk professions are insured in | large numbers |
| meaning that an insurer requires a certain percentage of new members to join the group policy each year in order to maintain the group’s policy. | Turnover Rate |
| a group with at least 10 members | True Group |
| the rating provided by the insurer to all people who are covered by the same type of policy in the same geographic area as the group being underwritten. | Community Rating |
| Also referred to as a ‘non-experience’ rating, | Community Rating, |
| most states require small group policies, typically with 50 or fewer members, to remain under an | ‘adjusted’ community rating |
| most states mandate that small group premium rates must be based on the | community |
| most states mandate that small group premium rates must not be based on | claims experience of the group itself |
| group’s rate is ‘adjusted,’ or modified to account for specific factors, referred to as | ‘case characteristics |
| once a larger group policy has been established, future premium amounts are calculated based on the | ‘experiences,’ or claims of the group that are made against the insurer |
| known as ? insurer considers the specific claims experience made by the group in previous years in order to determine the correct amount of premium | Experience Rating |
| As a means of preventing large premium increases from one year to the next, states also set limits, referred to as | rating bands |
| the percentage that an insurer can vary annual premiums based on the case characteristics or experience of the group. | rating bands |
| premiums are paid entirely by the master contract holder, with no contribution of premium by members of the group. | Non-Contributory group plan |
| master contract holder, as well as the members of the group, contributes towards the group’s premium together. | Contributory group plan |
| in a contributory group plan, At least ?% of the group’s members must participate in the group policy | 75% |
| State law requires uniform coverage for insured employees within the same classification based on 3 factors: | tenure, job description or salary |
| Members of the group can be categorized according to various classifications such as: (3) | full/part time, hourly/salary, union/non union, retired |
| Most group insurance plans include an initial period of time, called a | probationary period |
| , also referred to as the ‘enrollment period,’ is the period of 30 or 31 days following the probationary period in which a new member of the group may apply for coverage without having to submit to a medical exam for eligibility | eligibility period |
| if a new member to a group fails to enroll into the group’s insurance plan during his or her eligibility period, he or she will be required to complete a | paramedical exam |
| Non-Contributory group plan, new members of the group are | automatically covered by the group’s insurance plan immediately after the new member’s probationary period ends. |
| Employment Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) was enacted by Congress in | 1974 |
| this federal law established minimum guidelines pertaining to the administration of employer-based pension plans and employee welfare benefit plans such as life, health and disability insurance. | ERISA |
| ERISA is regulated by the | Department of Labor |
| ERISA is enforced through the DOL's (which dept) | Employee Benefits Security Administration |
| ERISA regulation applies to all ....groups who offer.... | non-governmental, private employer-groups in the U.S. who offer employee benefit plans. |
| are exempt from ERISA rules | gov't, religious orgs, private purchasers |
| ERISA does not ‘preempt,’ or supersede | state insurance laws |
| employer-sponsored plans involve interstate commerce, such plans also fall under____ _____ for ___ ___ ___ | federal jurisdiction, federal taxation purposes |
| ERISA regulation does not pertain to | types and levels of plan benefits |
| , for those groups that do establish pension plans, ERISA regulation pertains to | the administration of the group’s benefit plan in how it is managed |
| ERISA mandates the reporting and disclosure of plan (3) | eligibility, benefits, limitations` |
| ERISA mandates the reporting and disclosure of plan through what document? In addition to ____ | Summary Plan Description (SPD) any policy summary provided by the insurer |
| While state laws mandate insurer disclosure, ERISA mandates | employer disclosure |
| As part of the Civil Rights Act, ? was enacted by Congress in 1967 primarily to prohibit the practice of forced retirement | Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) |
| ADEA federal law applies to employer groups consisting of # or more employees | 20 |
| ADEA protecting both employees and job applicants age | 40 and over |
| ADEA protects employee from discrimination on | hiring, firing, wage setting and benefits |
| Under the ADEA, employers are required to provide equal what or what for older employees | benefits or equal defined contribution |
| an employer can limit or reduce an older employee’s benefits to maintain the same cost of coverage as the employer provides for younger employees. | equal costs’ rule, |
| Older employees may also need to contribute more towards their life and disability coverage/ retirement plan due to the | defined contribution made by the employer |
| employers must maintain medical coverage on older employees the | ame as it covers younger employees, regardless of the increase in cost to the employer. |
| Enacted in 1982 | Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act (TEFRA) |
| expanded on the ADEA by requiring an employer to maintain group health coverage once an employee becomes eligible for Medicare | Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act |
| Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act federal law applies to employer groups of#? | 20 or more |
| Under TEFRA, an employee who is over the age of 65 and actively working, as well as his or her spouse, must be allowed to | aintain group health coverage as his or her primary health coverage, with Medicare being secondary. |
| Non-discrimination rules established through TEFRA further prohibit eligibility to participate in a group plan to only | highly-compensated key employees such as officers, shareholders or executives |
| Benefits provided to highly compensated key employees cannot exceed | 25% of all benefits provided to the entire group. |
| in group insurance, If an individual converts his or her certificate of coverage to an individual policy, he or she cannot be | denied coverage if same insurer |
| arrangements occur between unethical investors or investor groups and the elderly insured aged 65-85. | stranger-Originated Life Insurance (STOLI) |
| schemes are often advertised as ‘zero premium’ or ‘no cost’ life insurance | stranger-Originated Life Insurance (STOLI) |
| creates a contract between an individual and a stranger who persuades the individual to purchase a life insurance policy on him or herself with the intent to sell the policy to the stranger at some point in the future. | stranger-Originated Life Insurance (STOLI) |
| Also referred to as an Investor-Owned Life Insurance (IOLI) arrangement | stranger-Originated Life Insurance (STOLI) |
| contract’s first two years, known as the policy’s | ‘incontestability period.’ |
| Often unbeknownst to the insured, he or she is also responsible for federal taxation on the policy within the | first two year |
| refers to the different periods of a family’s lifespan, as well as the varying needs of the surviving family. | family ‘income cycle,’ |
| The Family Income Cycle (3) | Family Dependency Period, Pre-Retirement Period, |
| According to social security, a surviving spouse is eligible for social security survivor benefits during the years he or she is | dependent upon by his or her children. |
| begins and survivor benefits end after such children are no longer dependent and before the surviving spouse reaches age 60, or age 50 if he or she is disabled. | Blackout Period |
| Upon reaching age 60, what type of ss benefits resume | survivor |
| social security benefits begin again at age | 62 |
| Premium payments for charitable life policies are | tax deductible. |
| Death proceeds from an insurance policy are divided equally among the named beneficiaries. If a named beneficiary is deceased, his or her share then goes to the living descendants of that individual | Per Stirpes Rule |
| Death proceeds from an insurance policy are divided equally among only the living primary beneficiaries. | Per Capita Rule |
| designation allows the policyowner to change beneficiaries after the policy becomes in force, if he or she so chooses, without the consent of the beneficiary. | Revocable |
| cannot be changed in the future without the consent of the beneficiary. | Irrevocable |
| first in line to receive a policy’s death benefits upon an insured’s death. | A primary beneficiary |
| Next in succession to the primary benificiary | secondary/contingent beneficiary |
| Third in succession to the primary, | Tertiary (Contingent) |
| In the event that the policyowner is not the insured, the policy will be included in the policyowner's | estate or handled by his or her will. |
| Income is derived only from interest gained on the principal. Income is indefinite and creates a legacy for next of kin or for charity. | Estate Conservation (Retention) |
| Also referred to as capital ‘utilization,’ | Life Policy (Capital) Liquidation |
| income is derived by both interest and principal. | Life Policy (Capital) Liquidation |
| Funds eventually disappear and could be of concern if the surviving spouse outlives the policy’s death benefit if no additional income is derived. | Life Policy (Capital) Liquidation |
| Whole life insurance policies generate a | cash value |
| policy’s cash value can be borrowed against or used as collateral, | Living Benefits |
| early payment to the terminally ill or injured insured reduces the policy’s death benefit and is usually only payable for a period of one year. | Accelerated Benefits, |
| If a policyowner is considered terminally ill, an option exists to sell the insurance policy after its contestability period has ended to a | viatical settlement company |
| will pay anywhere from 60% to 80% of the face amount based on NAIC’s Viatical Settlement Model Regulation, | viatical settlement company |
| A licensed agent who solicits and sells viatical contracts between a life insurance policyowner and the viatical settlement provider. | Viatical Broker |
| An individual, company or legal entity that purchases ownership of a life insurance contract from a policyowner who in return receives compensation less than the policy’s death benefit | Viatical Settlement Provider |
| A life insurance policyowner who sells his or her policy to a viatical settlement provider | Viator |
| an agent can determine the correct amount of life insurance based on the client’s occupation, annual income, planned retirement age, short and long-term family expenses, and inflation | Human Life Value assessment |
| agent can determine the correct insurance amount based on the needs of the family. | Family Needs assessment, |
| plan involves two parties, usually an employer and employee, who split premium payments on a whole life policy. | A split-dollar |
| in a split dollar plan, upon death the employer receives either | cash value or premiums paid whichever is higher |
| businesses often purchase life insurance on its key members, paying its premium and assigning itself as the beneficiary in the event of death. | Key-Person Insurance |
| Life insurance provides the financial assistance needed to maintain a standard of living for surviving dependents of a sole proprietor and to facilitate the potential sale of the business. | Sole Proprietor Business Continuation |
| also referred to as a ‘buyout’ agreement | A buy-sell agreement |
| financial agreement or arrangement that protects business partners and corporate shareholders against financial loss by securing a predetermined fair market value for each partner | A buy-sell agreement/buyout |
| typically used if only a few partners exist within a company. | Cross-Purchase Plan |
| plan is typically used if several partners exist within a company | Entity Plan |
| the company itself purchases a life policy on each partner and serves as the policyowner of each policy. | Entity Plan |
| Entity Plan, , if 5 partners exist, the company purchases | 5 policies |
| when only a few shareholders exist | corporate cross-purchase plan is purchased by each shareholder |
| when several shareholders exist, an entity plan is purchased by the corporation on each shareholder. | Stock Redemption Plan |
| basic type of life insurance that is lower in cost to a policyowner, is only in force for a specified period of time, and it does not accumulate cash value, nor does it provide the policyowner with any policy loan value | A Term Life |
| term life policy can also include an ‘adjustable premium’ schedule which is indeterminate at the time of policy issuance | Indeterminate Level Premiums |
| Indeterminate Level Premiums are based on | insurer’s current mortality rates, interest earned from premium investments, and company expenses. |
| Indeterminate Level Premium Policy premiums are guaranteed to never | exceed a certain amount; |
| term life policy’s face amount remains constant | Level Term |
| life policy’s face amount decreases over the term of the policy. | Decreasing Term |
| term life policy’s face amount increases over the term of the policy. | Increasing Term |
| this type of policy is not often sold as a stand-alone insurance product, it is typically incorporated into a whole life policy as an added rider | Increasing Term |
| term life policy does not require evidence of insurability at the time of renewal (guaranteed); however, premium rates increase according to the age of the insured at the time of each renewal. | Renewable Term Policy |
| premium rates increase according to the age of the insured at the time of each renewal. | Step-Rate Premiums. |
| provides the policyowner with the ability to maintain a lower premium rate if the policyowner passes a medical exam at periodic intervals (typically every 5 years). | ‘re-entry option |
| provides an option to convert the term policy at the end of its term for a permanent whole life or other cash value policy without requiring evidence of insurability. | A convertible term life policy |
| Although both the current and original age methods of conversion seem to add up to the same amount for the policyowner, choosing the original age method increases the policy’s | cash value quicker as a result of the bulk payment and increased interest that is paid when converting the term policy. |
| ommonly provided by insurers to ensure immediate temporary term life protection during the underwriting of a whole life policy. | Interim Term |
| An interim term policy is commonly issued for a period of | 1-11 months |
| premiums for the whole life policy are based on the age of the policyowner when the interim policy converts to the whole life policy not the age | age of the policyowner at the time the interim term began. |
| more expensive type of term life insurance that provides an ‘end benefit’ to the policyowner at the expiration of his or her policy’s term by returning 100% of the premiums paid into the policy when the insured survives the policy’s term | Return of Premium (ROP) Term Life Policy |
| provides coverage for an individual’s whole life, rather than a specified term known as whole life and 3 other terms: | Ordinary, Permanent, or Straight-Life |
| cash surrender’ value, called the | Nonforfeiture Value |
| allowing the policyowner to recover part of the premium invested in the policy if he or she stops making premium payments and forfeits ownership of the policy. | Nonforfeiture Value |
| whole life insurance matures at age | 100 |
| The following types of whole life insurance policies include (5) | Continuous Premium (Straight Life), Limited Payment, Single Premium, Current Assumption, ‘Economatic’ Policy |
| Also known as Interest-Sensitive Whole Life, | Current Assumption |
| Also known as Enhanced Ordinary Life or Extra Ordinary Life | Economatic’ Policy |
| Economatic’ Policy | combines term and whole |
| Flexible Premium Policies | Adjustable Life, Universal Life, Guaranteed Universal Life (Term Life / Universal Life Hybrid) |
| Also known as a ‘flexible premium’ | adjustable life policy |
| form of life insurance that consists of both term and permanent insurance.policyowner can, change various aspects of the policy including increasing or decreasing the face amount, premium, or changing the period of coverage, to continue to be flexible | Adjustable Life |
| type of permanent insurance, client can control cost of premiums as well as the ability to invest and earn interest on the cash value that the policy builds. | Universal Life |
| this alternative allows a policyowner to build up savings to protect against inflation | Universal Life |
| Also referred to as a Universal Term Life policy | Guaranteed Universal Life |
| universal life designed as term life insurance with guaranteed level premiums and a guaranteed death benefit upon the death the insured during the contract’s term | Guaranteed Universal Life |
| unlike permanent universal life insurance, a universal term life policy does not accumulate cash value | Guaranteed Universal Life |
| Unlike general term life policies with terms of 10, 15 or 20 years, guaranteed universal life policies generally provide a | 30 year term |
| variable life policies are also considered to be | securities contracts. |
| In order to sell variable life insurance policies, not only is a life insurance license required, but also a | Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) license |
| Involves the combination of universal life and variable life policies, containing a varying degree of death benefits, cash values and premium payments. | Variable Universal Life |
| type of life insurance largely based on the rate of return in the financial markets. ability to transfer funds from a fixed account to an indexed account | Equity Indexed Life |
| Cash value can only increase if the market is favorable, but cannot decrease when the market declines. | Equity Indexed Life |
| this form of whole life insurance provides coverage for each family member with the breadwinner’s amount of coverage being four times the spouse’s and five times the children’s coverage amounts. | Family Protection Policy |
| children’s coverage is usually written as term coverage expiring at age 18 with the ability to convert to long-term coverage without proof of insurability. | Family Protection Policy |
| Family Protection Policies are usually written for terms of | 10 – 20 year |
| combination of whole life insurance and level term insurance to provide permanent coverage (lump sum payment to the beneficiary when the insured dies) and a monthly family maintenance portion for a set period of time following the insured’s death. | Family Maintenance Policy |
| insurance can be purchased on multiple lives under a single contract. | Joint Life Policy |
| under a first-to-die policy, upon the death of the first spouse, the policy’s coverage | ends |
| joint life policy, also referred to as a Survivorship or Last Survivor life policy, | Second-to-Die |
| policy’s benefits are paid after the last surviving member of the contract dies | Second-to-Die |
| Such a policy is also used to pay estate taxes which may be due upon the death of the second spouse. | Second-to-Die |
| Survivorship life policies are written as | permanent whole life or universal life policies. |
| Usually written on children under the age of 15 | Juvenile Life Policy |
| policies ‘jump,’ or increase four to five times in value once the child turns 21 without increased premium or proof of insurability. | Jumping Juvenile |
| Usually more affordable than straight whole life policies in the first few years (often around 5 years) then becomes slightly higher than straight whole life for the remainder of its coverage. | Modified Premium Whole Life |
| This type of plan is useful for college students just starting out in the work world, who cannot initially afford whole life insurance. | Modified Premium Whole Life |
| Similar to modified whole life with more affordable premiums for the initial years, graded premium whole life gradually increases for the next few years until finally leveling off at a slightly higher rate than standard whole life. | Graded Premium Whole Life |
| form of whole life insurance is based on an initial premium payment which allows for cash values to immediately build in the account. | Minimum Deposit Whole Life |
| Subsequent premium payments are then paid by borrowing from the cash value for a portion of or the entire premium amount instead of contributing additional out-of-pocket premium. | Minimum Deposit Whole Life |
| Includes a face amount that will adjust depending on the index to which it is fixed, often the Consumer Price Index (CPI) | Indexed Whole Life |
| If the index to which the policy is tied increases, so too do the policy’s face amount and premiums. | Indexed Whole Life |
| indexed whole life, t is decided at the time of the policy’s inception who will absorb the additional amounts in premium if it is to occur, either the | insured or the insurer |
| Indexed Whole Life, If the index rises higher than what the insurer allows for a maximum face amount increase (usually 5%), | no additional amount is added to the policy’s face amount |
| Indexed Whole Life, If the CPI decreases, the policy’s face amount and premium | do not decrease |
| Indexed Whole Life, An important feature is that evidence of insurability is not required when | increases occur. |
| industrial life insurance provides minimal life insurance coverage | Burial Insurance |
| Associated with industrial life and group life insurance, is a policy provision that permits an insurer to appoint a new beneficiary in an attempt to facilitate the policy’s death benefit due to an extenuating circumstance | Facility of Payment provision |
| serves to protect both the debtor and creditor in the event that a debtor dies and is not able to finish paying of his or her debt | Credit life insurance |
| decreasing term life policy that is designed to pay off a policyowner’s mortgage should he or she die | A mortgage redemption policy |
| designed to pay out to the designated recipient, while living once matured | has ‘matured |
| This type of endowment does not include a death benefit and only pays out to the insured if he or she survives the endowment period, | Pure Endowment |
| This type of endowment is a combination of a pure endowment and a term life policy so that the endowment pays out at its maturity, while the term policy pays the beneficiary if the insured dies during the pure endowment period. | Endowment Life Insurance |
| This type of endowment is used to help fund college expenses and usually matures when a child turns age 18. | Juvenile Endowment |
| (NAIC) established uniform cost comparison methods | NAIC Life Insurance Solicitation Model Regulation, |
| NAIC Life Insurance Solicitation Model Regulation, disclosures include requiring a prospective buyer to be provided with 2 things | buyer’s guide’ and a ‘policy summary |
| generic document that explains the basic terms and definitions related to life insurance, as well as the type of whole life insurance being marketed. | Buyer’s Guide |
| a life insurance ____ reviews the specific product being purchased in detail | Policy Summary |
| life insurance Policy Summary includes (7) things | agent and insurer, policy's premium rate, exclusions, dividends, riders, cash values, benefit amounts |
| whole life insurance, the policy summary is also required to include | ‘cost index’ charts |
| compare similar whole life policies based on the overall cost of each policy to the policyowner. | ‘cost index’ charts |
| Whole Life Insurance Cost Comparison Methods (2) | traditional’ cost comparison method and the ‘interest-adjusted’ cost comparison method. |
| accounts for the various cost factors of a whole life policy except for the interest earned over the life of the policy, | Traditional Cost Comparison Method |
| Traditional Cost Comparison Method is less accurate bc it doesn't account for the | time value of money |
| takes into account and calculates the amount of interest a whole life policy will earn to more accurately compare it with other whole life policies. | Interest-Adjusted Cost Comparison Method |
| takes into account the various cost factors of a whole life policy and computes an ‘index number’ to more easily compare it similar whole life policies. | Cost Index |
| As an industry standard, cost index charts compare whole life policies based on each | $1,000 increment of the policy’s face amount for 10-year and 20-year time period |
| face value of life insurance is | amount of money paid to the beneficiary when the policy expires |
| Cost Index uses an average annual rate of return in interest of | 5% |
| In determining the cost of a policy, the lower the index #, the | less costly it will be |
| based on the assumption that a policyowner will surrender a whole life policy in the future and is calculated using the interest-adjusted cost comparison method. | Surrender Cost Index |
| used to compare similar policies based on the death benefit provided to the beneficiary. | Net Payment Cost Index |
| Net Payment Cost Index is calculated using the | traditional cost comparison method. |
| a presentation or depiction that includes non-guaranteed elements of a life insurance policy over a period of years. | Illustration |
| include premiums, benefits, value, credits or charges under a life insurance policy that are not guaranteed or determined at policy issue | Non-Guaranteed Elements |
| include premiums, benefits, values, credits or charges under a life insurance policy that are guaranteed and determined at policy issue. | Guaranteed Elements |
| NAIC categorizes a life insurance policy illustration as either (3) | basic, supplemental, in force |
| a ledger or proposal used in the sale of a life insurance policy that shows both guaranteed and non-guaranteed elements. | Basic Illustration |
| an illustration furnished in addition to a basic illustration that may be presented in a format differing from the basic illustration, but may only depict a scale of non-guaranteed elements that is permitted in a basic illustration. | Supplemental Illustration |
| an illustration furnished at any time after the policy that it depicts has been in force for one year or more. | In force illustration |
| NAIC, its model regulation applies to all life policies EXCEPT | variable, annuities, credit life insurance, policies with no illustrated death benefits on any individual exceeding $10,000 |
| receipt that does not provide immediate coverage for the applicant, | inspection receipt |
| which does provide immediate coverage for the applicant while the policy is being underwritten by the insurance company. | conditional’ or ‘binding receipt’ |
| Sometimes an applicant wishes to review, or ‘inspect’ a prospective policy before providing the initial premium to the insurer. When this occurs, a ___ receipt is provided | inspection receipt |
| receipt, the applicant is covered against loss, should it occur, before the policy becomes effective, on the ‘condition’ that the applicant is found to be insurable | conditional receipt |
| guarantees temporary coverage at the time of application for a specified benefit amount regardless of whether the insurer later approves or declines the applicant | binding receipt |
| binding receipt | Temporary Insurance Agreement |
| Often required by the insurer when a life insurance applicant is applying for a large amount of insurance. | Inspection Report |
| more formally known as the ‘Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism’ Act, | USA PATRIOT Act, |
| USA PATRIOT Act, requires financial institutions to establish | anti-money laundering and suspicious activity reporting programs |
| USA PATRIOT Act each financial institution must maintain | programs, provide company training , comply with a self-assigned audit of company records using a non-company auditing agency. |
| as benefit limits, exclusions of certain risk or additional premium that the insurer adds to a policy for any applicant underwritten as substandard risk. | Policy Amendments |
| the date that the application is submitted along with the initial premium and a conditional receipt is given to the applicant. | Effective Date |
| By law, the insurer is required to provide the death benefit within | 60 days of proof of death; |
| replacing a life insurance policy using its cash value to purchase a larger face amount or to obtain a new policy, | Life insurance replacement |
| Life insurance replacement | Internal, |
| is replaced with another policy by a different insurer. | External |
| defined as maintaining an insured’s current life policy as the policy matures over tim | Retention |
| Replacing a policy often reduces or forfeits | he current policy’s cash value |
| this provision details the policy’s documents, including the policy application and any attached riders that may have been added to the policy. | Entire Contract Provision |
| states that an insurance company will honor its obligation to pay benefits in the event of an insured’s death. | Insuring Clause |
| specifies the premium amount and date on which payments must be received to maintain the life policy. | Consideration Clause |
| pecifies a period of time in which a policyowner has the right to review and reject his or her insurance policy if not completely satisfied with its coverage. | Free-Look Provision |
| tFree-Look Provision period extends | 10-14 days from the date of receiving a new policy |
| After a specific period of time (usually 2 years, but in some states only 1 year), as long as a policy remains in force, an insurance company cannot contest the validity of a policy and must pay its death benefit | Incontestable Clause |
| Incontestable Clause Exceptions | Impersonation , No insurable interest at time of application , Intent to murder |
| If the insured commits suicide after the first ?# years, e insurer is obligated to pay the death benefit | If the insured commits suicide after the first |
| e insurer is obligated to pay the death benefit | policy Assignment. |
| assignee gains full control of the policy and acquires all rights | Absolute Assignment |
| policyowner assigns his or her policy to a creditor as collateral for a debt. | Collateral Assignment |
| In the event that a misstatement of age or sex occurs on the application for life insurance, the insurer will adjust | the amount of future premiums and request payment of the additional premium that the policyowner should have paid. |
| In the event that a premium is not paid after the policy’s grace period has ended, this provision will automatically take the required premium amount from the policy’s cash value in order to prevent the policy from lapsing. | Automatic Premium Loan Provision |
| This Act, established under the U.S. Uniform Probate Codedefines the outcome of a life policy’s proceed distribution in the event that both the policy’s insured and primary beneficiary die in the same accident and no proof exists of who lived longer. | The Uniform Simultaneous Death Act |
| To further define who receives death benefits in the event of the simultaneous or nearly simultaneous death of both the insured and primary beneficiary, a policyowner can include a | a common disaster clause |
| specifically stating that the primary beneficiary must outlive the insured for a defined period of time in order to receive the policy’s death benefits. | Common Disaster Clause |
| Common Disaster Clause common period | 10 to 30 days after the death of the insured. |
| clause defines whether the primary or the contingent (secondary) beneficiary is to receive the death benefit | Common Disaster Claus |
| protects the proceeds of a life insurance policy from the beneficiary’s spending habits or any redirection of proceeds to any of the beneficiary’s creditors. | Spendthrift Clause |
| Under this clause, the beneficiary cannot receive a lump sum benefit or assign proceeds directly to a creditor | Spendthrift Clause |
| Until the Armstrong Investigation of 1905, it was common for an insurer to | keep part or all of the accumulated cash value in a forfeited whole life policy. |
| Today, however, in the event that a cash value life policy is ‘forfeited,’ or surrendered, the insurer must pay out the policy’s | ‘cash surrender value’ |
| the amount payable by the insurer to a policyowner who surrenders his or her whole life policy. | Cash Surrender Value |
| Cash Surrender Value:The amount payable to the policyowner is based on the | policy’s face amount, premium payment structure and length of time in which the policyowner has paid policy premiums. |
| requires insurers to pay any accumulated cash value in a whole life policy to the policyowner if he or she stops paying policy premiums to the insurer. | Standard Nonforfeiture Law |
| If the policyowner fails to select a nonforfeiture option | the insurer will automatically issue a paid-up extended term life insurance policy |
| allows a policyowner immediate access to his or her whole life policy’s cash value; | Cash Surrender Option |
| many states permit insurers to postpone surrender payments for up to | 6 months after the surrender of a whole life policy |
| before a cash surrender of a whole life policy can occur, most insurers require that the policy be in force for at least | 3 years after it is issued. |
| allows a policyowner to cancel his or her current whole life policy and reinvest the policy’s cash value by purchasing a single-payment whole life policy at a lesser face amount than the original, forfeited policy. | Reduced Paid-up Option |
| policyowner uses the policy’s cash value to buy a term life policy with the same face amount as the surrendered whole life policy at a lesser term length, based on the amount of cash value available at surrender. | Extended Term Option |
| Under this option, installments are composed of both the policy’s face amount and earned interest, the amount of which is determined by the length of time in which payments are to be made to the policy’s beneficiary. | Fixed-Period Option |
| amount of each installment is fixed and is continually paid to the policy’s beneficiary until the policy’s proceeds are exhausted. | Fixed-Amount Option |
| installments are paid to the policy’s beneficiary throughout the entirety of his or her life through the purchase of a single payment immediate annuity funded by the death benefits of the life insurance policy. | Life Income Option |
| The policyowner simply receive a cash distribution as his or her return of premium from the mutual insurer. | Cash Dividend Option |
| This option allows the policyowner to reinvest policy dividends back into the insurance company to continue to accumulate interest at a compounding rate | Accumulation at Interest Option |
| This option allows a policyowner to purchase additional insurance using dividend returns; however, premiums are higher as a result of the increased age of the insured at the time of purchasing additional insurance. | Paid-up Additions Option |
| This option uses dividend proceeds to reduce the next year’s premium payments. | Reduce Premium Dividend Option |
| This option allows the policyowner to pay off the policy earlier than the projected time period using dividend returns in combination with monthly premium payments to reduce the amount of time remaining to pay off the policy. | Paid-Up Option |
| Paid-Up Option | One-Year Term Dividend Option |
| lso known as an Endorsement | Rider |
| this rider offers an additional amount of life insurance equal to the face amount of the primary insurance plan if the insured’s death results from an accident | Double Indemnity |
| in the event that an insured survives an accident, but still loses a limb or eyesight, this rider provides half of the death benefit amount to the insured. | Accidental Death and Dismemberment Rider |
| an insured is unable to earn an income due to an illness or disability and is unable to pay his or her insurance premiums, this rider will prevent the policy from lapsing due to the lack of payments. | Waiver of Premium Rider |
| Waiver of Premium Rider, insured must be unable to work, usually for a period of | 90 days to 6 months. |
| If at the end of this period the insured is still unable to work, all premiums paid during the ‘waiting period’ will be | refunded and the insured will not have to pay premiums until they reach a specific age, which is usually 60 to 65. |
| this rider waives monthly deductions on a universal life policy while the insured is disabled, typically after a 6-month waiting period | Waiver of Monthly Deduction Rider |
| Monthly income that is paid to the insured if total and permanent disability occurs | Disability Income Rider |
| If a guardian who is responsible for paying premiums for a child’s insurance dies or becomes disabled, this rider will waive all premiums until the child reaches a certain age | Payor Rider |
| This rider, also known as an ‘insurance protection’ rider or an ‘option to purchase other insurance,’ | Guaranteed Insurability Rider |
| Guaranteed Insurability Rider intervals start on a policy’s anniversary date coinciding with the policyowner’s 25th birthday, and increases to a policy’s face amount can be added every | three (3) years thereafter until the policyowner turns age 40. |
| adding this rider, the beneficiary not only receives the face amount of the policy, but also all premiums paid into the policy up to the death of the insured; | adding this rider, the beneficiary not only receives the face amount of the policy, but also all premiums paid into the policy up to the death of the insured; |
| Rider: its face amount will automatically increase with a corresponding increase in an inflation index, such as the CPI. | Cost of Living Rider |
| This rider is referred to as a Family Rider or Child Rider | Other (Additional) Insured(s) Rider |
| Each family member who is added to either of these policies receives term life coverage as a rider to the whole life policy written on the policyowner, typically the breadwinner in the family. | Family Rider |
| Also known as a Living Need, Terminal Illness, and/or Critical Illness Rider | Accelerated Death Benefit Rider |
| Used in conjunction with universal life insurance policies, this rider allows a life policy to continue in force even if its cash value is zero as long as the policyowner satisfies the contract’s minimum premiums requirements, as defined in the policy. | Used in conjunction with universal life insurance policies, this rider allows a life policy to continue in force even if its cash value is zero as long as the policyowner satisfies the contract’s minimum premiums requirements, as defined in the policy. |
| provides life insurance on a one-year term basis that is most often renewable without proof of insurability and allows the insurer to adjust annual premiums based on the experience of the group. | Annual Renewable Term |
| involves a combination of both term and whole life policies where the employer pays for the term portion and the employee pays the whole life portion. | Group Paid-Up Life |
| is established by two or more similar employers within a related industry, but who are not part of a collective bargaining agreement. | Multiple Employer Plan |
| A multiple employer plan is established through a financial contract called a | Multiple Employer Trust |
| is established by two or more employers within a related industry who are also part of a collective bargaining agreement | Multiemployer Plan |
| multiemployer plan is established through a type of trust, known as a | Taft-Hartley Trust, |
| Taft-Hartley Trust,name of this trust refers to the two Congressmen who spearheaded the | Labor Management Relations Act of 1947, a |
| Taft-Hartley Trust, Such regulation includes appointing a | joint employer-union board of trustees to serve as the plan’s sponsor. |
| Welfare arrangements, known as | Multiple Employer Welfare Arrangements, or MEWAs, |
| In comparison to a typical multiple employer trust in which several small employers group together to purchase insurance at a lower rate as a result of the increased size of the group, MEWAs | are often self-insured or partially insured arrangements. |
| Blanket insurance is non-specific group insurance provided when a group is constantly changing. | Blanket Customer Groups (teams, passengers and others) |
| a financial vehicle that provides income at a future date in an individual’s life and is commonly used to save up for higher education costs or as a retirement savings fund. | Annuity |
| meaning that the contract begins to distribute both the Invested Principal and Earned Interest to the annuitant to serve as future income. | annuitizes, |
| annuity’s growth period | Accumulation Period |
| Once the contract annuitizes, a second period, called the | Annuity Period or ‘payout’ period, |
| Annuity riders commonly added to an annuity include (3) | long-term care riders, guaranteed monthly income riders, and death benefit riders, |
| This type of annuity structure involves the owner and annuitant being two separate individuals and is designed to benefit the annuitant upon the death of the annuity’s owner. | ‘owner-driven’ annuity structure. |
| Designed as a means of spreading out a lump-sum of money over a specified period of time, | Immediate Annuity |
| delays payout to allow interest to compound over a period of time. | Single-Premium Deferred Annuity (SPDA) |
| multiple-premium, deferred annuity that allows the contract owner to control the premium deposit amounts and frequency within certain limits stated in the contract, | Flexible Premium Deferred Annuity (FPDA). |
| annuity payment option provides an annuitant with a guaranteed income for the entirety of his or her life; however, if the annuitant dies before the principal sum is depleted, distribution payments stop and any remaining amount is forfeited to the insurer | Pure Life annuity |
| guarantee the distribution of the annuity’s funds, whether it is paid to the annuitant, or to a designated beneficiary | Life with Guaranteed Minimum payout |
| this distribution option pays out for the life of the annuitant. If the annuitant dies before receiving at least the principal amount invested, the annuity ‘refunds’ | Refund Life Annuity Option |
| payments must be paid for a specified period of time, as stated in the contract. Should the annuitant outlive this period, payments continue to be paid for the rest of the annuitant’s life. | Life with Period Certain Option |
| This payment option results in the payout of two annuitants. | Joint and Full Survivor Option |
| however, two-thirds of the original payout amount is payable to the survivor, in comparison to the full payout | Joint and Two-Thirds Survivor – |
| one-half of the original payout amount is payable to the survivor, | Joint and One-Half Survivor |
| payments are only paid for the specified period stated in the contract. | Temporary Annuity Certain Option |
| In the event that an annuitant decides to partake in a partial or early withdrawal from his or her annuity, not only will it be taxed as ordinary income, but it will also incur a | 10% penalty tax if the withdrawal occurs prior to reaching 59 ½ years old. |
| provides a guaranteed rate of return in interest on the annuity and protects the annuity against loss of principal. | Fixed Annuity |
| generally provides a higher rate of interest on an annuity, but it is riskier, with the potential to provide either a positive or negative return on the annuity based on its performance in the stock market. | Variable Annuity |
| a unique type of fixed annuity that provides a minimum guaranteed rate of interest return on the annuity while also providing an opportunity for a return in interest higher than the guaranteed minimum, | equity index annuity |
| interest rate adjustment based on whether the current rate of interest is higher or lower than the rate in which the annuity was guaranteed. | Market Value Adjustment (MVA) |
| modified guaranteed’ annuity because it provides a minimum guaranteed rate of return unless it is surrendered by the annuity’s owner before it matures. | market value-adjusted annuity |
| Also referred to as an Internal Revenue Code 403(b) Plan | Tax-Sheltered Annuity (TSA) |
| , this type of fixed annuity is often utilized by schools, universities, charities, and religious organizations. | Tax-Sheltered Annuity (TSA) |
| an annuity reserved for non-profit organizations that aid in their employees’ retirement | Tax-Sheltered Annuity (TSA) |
| type of fixed annuity that is combined with a decreasing term death benefit | Individual Retirement Annuity (IRA) |
| Individual Retirement Annuity (IRA) : decreasing term policy usually expires when the | annuity matures and is paid out to the annuitant. |
| Individual Retirement Annuity (IRA): Contribution levels allow up to | 100% of an individual’s annual income |
| Individual Retirement Annuity (IRA):cannot exceed contribution limits set each year by the | federal government. |
| Individual Retirement Annuity (IRA): Any contribution that exceeds annual limits will be subject to a | 6% “excise” tax. |
| Individual Retirement Annuity (IRA): Individuals who are ?50 years or older are allowed to make “catch up” contributions that exceed normal annual limits. | 50 yrs or older |
| Fixed Annuity: 2 Interest Rates are used to help guarantee a return: | Minimum Guaranteed Rate, Current Rate |
| defined as the rate used at the time an insurer credits the annuity, typically once a year. | Current Rate |
| Two important concepts that must be examined before completing variable annuities are | accumulation units’ and ‘annuity units |
| provide a minimum amount of financial protection for working Americans | Social Security Act of 1935 |
| FICA taxes are imposed on an employee’s wages up to a maximum annual amount, known as the | Social Security Wage Base. |
| no such income limit exists, meaning that an employee’s entire annual wages are FICA taxable for | Medicare purposes. |
| to impose a similar payroll tax for self-employed individuals. | to impose a similar payroll tax for self-employed individuals. |
| The SE tax is only imposed on | 92.35% of net earnings |
| which is determined by how many Quarters of Coverage or Credits he or she has accumulated while being employed and taxed under FICA. | Insured Status, |
| An individual qualifies as partially insured, also referred to as | Currently Insured |
| Social Security benefit amounts are based on an individual’s lifetime earnings that were taxed under the FICA payroll tax using an indexed earnings average, called the | Average Indexed Monthly Earnings (AIME). |
| the benefit amount that an individual receives when he or she chooses to begin receiving retirement benefits at his or her normal retirement age. | Primary Insurance Amount (PIA) |
| Primary Insurance Amount (PIA) | Dual Benefit Provision |
| Disability Benefitsare paid after a #? month waiting period to ensure the individual is totally disabled. | 5 |
| are paid after a 5 month waiting period to ensure the individual is totally disabled. | Lump-Sum Death (Burial) Benefit |
| If the surviving spouse is responsible for children dependents, he or she will receive #% of the recipient’s PIA during the period of time when the surviving spouse is responsible for caring for any surviving children. | 75% |
| Upon reaching age 60, the surviving spouse will begin receiving survivor’s benefits of ?% | 71.5% |
| federal organization that was created under ERISA to guarantee payments of pension benefits in ‘defined benefit’ plans that terminate due to a lack of funding to cover benefit payments | Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) |
| federal organization that was created under ERISA to guarantee payments of pension benefits in ‘defined benefit’ plans that terminate due to a lack of funding to cover benefit payments | Defined contribution plans |
| plans guarantee, as specified in an employee’s contract, the amount of benefit or percentage of employment income that he or she will receive once pension benefits are payable at retirement. | Defined benefit plans |
| type of retirement plan designed to provide certain tax benefits such as tax-free contributions by employees, tax-deducted contributions by employers and tax-deferred earnings growth to allow for greater earning on the investment. | Qualified Plan |
| type of retirement plan that does not meet IRS guidelines to receive tax advantages. | Nonqualified Plan |
| Nonqualified Plan are restricted to | top executives and key people within a company’s leadership structure. |
| the time period in which an employer sets up for employees to gain ownership over employer contributions that are deposited to the employee’s qualified retirement account. | Vesting Schedule |
| to allow their employees to gain immediate ownership of employer contributions | immediate vesting |
| occurs when an employer requires a certain number of years of plan accumulation and then provides 100% vesting to the employee | cliff vesting |
| also referred to as ‘graduated’ vesting, occurs over a number of years where a larger percentage of ownership is gradually transferred to the employee, who eventually gains ownership of 100% of the employer’s contributions. | Graded Vesting |
| plans provide retirees with shared profits from the company; however, employers are not required to contribute to such plans every year. | Profit-sharing and stock bonus pension plans |
| a type of defined-contribution plan that is invested primarily in employer stock in which qualified employees receive ownership upon retirement. | Employee Stock Ownership Plan (ESOP) |
| benefits provided to the employee from stock ownership plans are dispersed in the form of company stock, instead of a monetary pension payout. | Employee Stock Ownership Plan (ESOP) |
| Also known as an ‘individual account’ plan, this type of defined-contribution plan requires the employer to deposit a fixed amt | Money-Purchase Pension Plan |
| This type of plan allows an employee to take a reduction in his or her salary and instead, contribute this amount into his or her retirement fund. | 401(k) Plan |
| is part of the Internal Revenue Code that allows employees of state and local governments, as well as for employees of nonprofit organizations, the ability to defer compensation | is part of the Internal Revenue Code that allows employees of state and local governments, as well as for employees of nonprofit organizations, the ability to defer compensation |
| retirement plans enacted by Congress to provide retirement pension for federal civil service employees and members of the armed forces. | Thrift Savings Plan (TSP) |
| this tax-favored retirement plan is provided to eligible employees of the public school system and certain non-profit organizations that are considered to be ‘tax-exempt’ organizations. | 403(b) Plan /Tax-Sheltered Annuity (TSA |
| plan sets up an individual retirement account (IRA) to which an employer contributes funds on a tax-deductible basis. | Simplified Employee Pension Plan (SEP) |
| SEPs do not require employers to make annual contributions but do require | contributions to be made on a continual basis |
| Employees are fully vested in employer contributions immediately upon beginning the plan SEP | Simplified Employee Pension Plan |
| This type of salary reduced SEP was reserved for small business owners consisting of 25 or fewer employees. | Salary Reduction SEP Plan (SARSEP |
| was a more simplified version of a 401(k) plan which incorporated a salary reduction approach in which employees elected to have a portion of their pay directed into the SEP’s IRA fund. | Salary Reduction SEP Plan (SARSEP |
| Created by the Small Business Job Protection Act of 1996, | Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees, |
| plan is marketed towards small businesses with fewer than 100 employees, as well as tax-exempt companies and government. | Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees, |
| plans are beneficial to smaller employers because they are less restrictive in establishing a plan and require less administrative costs and plan maintenance than other retirement plans. | Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees, |
| ‘SIMPLE’ plan, Employers can implement one of two methods in making the required annual contributions | first method is to ‘match’ each employee’s contribution up to 3%. The second method is to make a flat 2% contribution |
| Established through the Self-Employed Individuals Retirement Act of 1962, | Keogh Plans |
| provide a retirement plan for self-employed and small business owners who do not qualify to create or participate in a qualified company pension plan. | Keogh Plans |
| Also known as ‘H.R. 10’ Plans | Keogh Plans |
| these plans must follow similar qualified corporate plan requirements and are more costly to maintain than a SEP plan, but also allow segain a higher return in investment at retirement, in comparison to employee contribution limits set by SEP plans.lf-emp | these plans must follow similar qualified corporate plan requirements and are more costly to maintain than a SEP plan, but also allow self-employed individuals to deposit higher contributions |
| Qualified Tuition Programs (QTPs) | Section 529 Plans |
| hese plans are designed to save for college tuition as well as receive tax credits and deductions towards college expenses | Section 529 Plans |
| Allows future tuition to be paid for a certain amount of time at current tuition costs. | Prepaid tuition plans |
| – Allow contributions to be invested with after-tax dollars to allow for a positive return upon time for distribution. | Types of Section 529 Plans |
| was enacted by Congress in 1974 as part of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA). | ndividual Retirement Account, or IRA |
| Currently, individuals under age 50 are limited to $#(2019/2020) in combined annual contributions between all individual accounts, including ‘Traditional’ and ‘Roth’ IRAs. | $6000 |
| IRA, IRS provides for ‘catch-up’ contributions of up to an additional | $1000per yr |
| an individual’s contributions are deposited into the IRA using ‘pre-tax’ dollars. | Traditional IRA, |
| IRS also mandates withdrawal from an IRA account to begin no later than April 1st following the year an individual reaches | 70½ years old. |
| As a result of the Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997, | the Roth IRA was created |
| Withdrawals from Roth IRAs can be ? in which earnings are distributed tax-free | Qualified, |
| ira funds must be held in the account for a minimum of | 5 yrs |
| Also known as an ‘individual account’ plan, this type of defined-contribution plan requires the employer to deposit a fixed monetary contribution into an employee’s pension fund, instead of sharing in company profits/issuing shares of the company’s stock. | Money-Purchase Pension Plan |
| policy’s cash value must not exceed the amount that would be required as a lump-sum premium to fully pay off the policy based on the policy’s face amount, based on the age of the insured. | Cash Value Accumulation Test (CVAT) |
| policy’s premiums cannot exceed the amount that would be required to fully pay off the policy based on the policy’s face amount | Guideline Premium Test (GPT) |
| Dividends paid out to participating policyowners in a mutual life insurance contract are considered to be a reimbursement of premium paid to the insurer and are paid back on a | tax-free basis |
| any interest paid to policyowners in addition to the premium reimbursement is considered to be | income and is taxable |
| Another tax advantage associated with life insurance is the ability to withdraw funds in the form of a policy loan without | being taxed. |
| if the policyowner surrenders his or her policy, | an income tax is levied against any gain in the policy’s loan value amount. |
| do not need to report their employer-paid premiums as income as long as their policy coverage is | do not need to report their employer-paid premiums as income as long as their policy coverage is |
| To avoid this estate tax, the insured can transfer ownership of his or her life contract to the designated beneficiary, but the transfer must be completed at least | three years before the death of the insured. |
| Qualified annuities are funded with | pre-tax dollars paid through an employer-based IRA or other qualified retirement plans |
| Non-qualified annuities are funded with | non-deductible, after-tax dollars |
| defined as the ‘investment’ in the contract divided by the ‘expected return’. | Exclusion Ratio, |
| Non-qualified annuity payments are taxed on a ? basis | Last In, First Out (LIFO) basis |
| for taxation purposes, the after-tax deposits are considered to be deposited into the account first and any interest that was earned is deposited into the account last. | Last In, First Out (LIFO) basis |
| contracts purchased and maintained by non-living, corporate- or trust-owned entities are considered to be ‘non-natural,’ and do not qualify to receive the same IRS tax advantages provided to ‘natural,’ living individuals. | Non-Natural Person Rule |
| is defined as the process of moving funds from one financial institution directly to another without the withdrawal or distribution of such funds to the individual. | Transfer |
| the process of reinvesting distributed funds from one account into another | Rollover |
| As a result of the over-marketing and aggressive investing in life insurance as a retirement tool, Congress enacted the | Technical and Miscellaneous Revenue Act, known as TAMRA, |
| intention of defining the tax consequences associated with misusing life insurance primarily as an investment vehicle, instead of its purpose of providing financial protection against possible loss | Technical and Miscellaneous Revenue Act, known as TAMRA, |
| under ? , flexible premium life insurance contracts are regulated by placing a limit on an individual’s premium contributions and monitoring the contract to ensure that it is not ‘over-funded’ within the first 7 years of the policy. | Technical and Miscellaneous Revenue Act, known as TAMRA, |
| In order to deter short-term investments from being tax shelters, the IRS monitors the funding of life insurance through what is known as the | ‘7-pay test.’ |
| If life insurance fails the 7-pay test, it no longer represents a life insurance policy, and instead, is classified as a ‘ | ‘modified endowment contract,’ at which point the policy’s living benefits become taxable |
| is an over-funded life insurance policy that according to its premium contributions within the first 7 years of the policy, has disqualified itself from the IRS tax advantages of a life insurance contract | Modified Endowment Contract |
| Modified Endowment Contract | tax-free, lump-sum death benefit |
| the IRS does not levy an income tax against an individual when he or she exchanges one policy of similar nature with another since neither loss nor gain occurs as a result of such transfe | Section 1035 of the Internal Revenue Code |
| Under Section 1035 of the IRC, A life policy can be exchanged for | another life policy, endowment, or annuity without being taxed |
| An endowment can be exchanged for | another endowment or annuity without being taxed |
| An annuity can be exchanged for | another annuity |
| defined as any healthcare system that is established to manage the costs of medical care | Managed Care |
| provide financial protection against loss resulting from illness or bodily injury | Health and Disability Insurance |
| Health insurance can be purchased through a commercial insurer, such as | stock, mutual, or multi-line company. |
| Health insurance can also be purchased by a service provider, | such as a Blue Cross Blue Shield company, an HMO or a PPO insurer |
| all health care can be categorized into three broad areas: ‘ | medical, disability, accidental death and dismemberment’ |
| Considered to be an ‘??’ type of contract,simply known as ‘health insurance,’ | indemnity contract |
| Considered to be a ? contract, the primary purpose of disability income insurance is to replace a certain percentage of an insured’s income that would otherwise be lost due to a debilitating event | ‘valued’ |
| pays out if death occurs, | Principal Sum (face value) |
| a percentage of the principal sum) pays out if dismemberment or loss of vision occurs. | Capital Sum |
| defined as any healthcare system that is established to manage the costs of medical care through a network | Managed Care |
| health insurance can be provided through government-sponsored programs, such as | Medicare, Tricare, Medicaid, SSDisability |
| commercial insurers provide insurance coverage on a ? basis | Reimbursement |
| allow a policyholder to assign benefit payments from the insurance company to a healthcare provider directly, known as the | Right of Assignment |
| service provider organizations operate on a ?basis | Prepaid Basis |
| Under this type of arrangement a policyholder can only choose to receive healthcare services from healthcare providers that are associated with the insuring provider for all non-emergency care | Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO) |
| this type allows a policyholder to seek healthcare services from any healthcare provider that he or she chooses, regardless of the insurer’s network, as long as the healthcare provider accepts the insurer’s payment for services rendered | Any providers |
| policyholder may still choose to receive healthcare services from an ‘out-of-network’ healthcare provider; however, he or she will pay a larger portion of the cost in comparison to an ‘in-network’ healthcare provider. | Mixture of providers |
| A federal-state welfare healthcare program designed to cover medical expenses such as hospitalization and physician expenses for qualified individuals who cannot afford health insurance coverage on their own. | Medicaid |
| Eligible individuals over age 65 may supplement their Medicare coverage with | Medicaid |
| State required coverage by which an employer is responsible to cover an employee in the event of an accident or illness on the job that occurs as a result of their occupation. | Workers’ Compensation |
| Types of Health Insurance Benefits (4) | medical, income, death, rehabilitation |
| A federally managed healthcare system designed to provide health care to qualified individuals age 65 and older. | Medicare |
| A form of managed health care for active and retired members of the armed services | Tricare |
| Tricare: Coverage also includes family members and survivors of a deceased armed services personnel if not qualified under | Medicare. |
| established by the Federal Government and is managed by the Social Security office. Funded through payroll taxes, | SSDI |
| provides disability benefits to qualified individuals who cannot work due to a disability. | SSDI |
| a nationwide federation of 36 independent insurance organizations, or ‘licensees’ | Blue Cross & Blue Shield Association (BCBSA). |
| considered to be the nation’s largest ‘provider’ of health insurance. | BCBSA |
| Blue ? covers the hospital and doctor’s expenses, | cross |
| Blue ? covers medical and surgical expenses | shield |
| Insured customers under BCBS are called | subscribers |
| type of service provider in that it assumes both the financial risks associated with providing comprehensive medical services (financing member expenses) and the responsibility for coordinating such healthcare services to members | Health Maintenance Organizations (HMO) |
| are known for stressing ‘preventive care’ and health ‘maintenance. | HMO's |
| An HMO operates on a ? basis | service-incurred |
| HMO Organization-Considered a ‘producer’s cooperative,’ owned and operated by a group of physicians. | profit |
| HMO:Considered a ‘consumer’s cooperative,’ where doctors are salaried employees of the HMO. | nonprofit |
| Types of HMO Models () | staff, group, IPA, network model, mixed model |
| participating physicians and specialists are considered exclusive employees to the HMO and are paid on a salary basis from the HMO | staff model |
| Often working out of one or more facilities, an HMO contracts with a third-party employer that employs physicians and specialists to offer services only to subscribers of the HMO | group model |
| considered a closed-panel plan because physicians do not accept individuals outside of the HMO. | group model |
| A fixed payment, per HMO member, given on a regular basis paid by the HMO to the third-party employer in a group-model. | Capitation Fee |
| is considered an open-panel plan because physicians also accept non-HMO individuals on a fee-for-service basis. | IPA, individual practice association model |
| An HMO that contracts with multiple groups of physicians and IPAs who offer their services to HMO subscribers, and also to non-HMO individuals on a fee-for-service basis. | Network Model |
| Because HMOs provide comprehensive medical coverage, they generally cannot exclude or limit a policy except for certain benefits such as | eye examinations or corrective glasses or contacts |
| An HMO uses a grievance procedure to resolve any subscriber complaints and must resolve the complaint within | 180 days |
| Also known as a Leaky HMO | Open-Ended HMO |
| allows subscribers to better control their choice of health care providers. A subscriber can choose to see a non-HMO physician and receive an indemnity benefit (subject to a deductible and coinsurance). | Open-Ended HMO |
| allows subscribers to visit an in-network specialist without needing a referral from their PCP. | Open-Access HMO |
| type of network characterized by its size and resulting convenience in choosing in-network providers within a larger geographical area, usually encompassing several states or throughout the country. | PPO |
| insurers cover members’ medical expenses for both ‘in-network’ and ‘out-of-network’ services | PPO |
| newer type of health plan that combines elements of both HMO and PPO coverage together | Point-of-Service (POS) Plan |
| often used in conjunction with and to complement a PPO where the insured’s health is managed by a primary care doctor, providing services within a specific hospital. | Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO) |
| Federal legislation requires employers with at least 25 employees to provide the option to receive health coverage through an area | hmo |
| this type of insurance is marketed to the employees of a small business or members of an association or professional society. | Franchise Insurance |
| high-deductible health plan associated with a tax favored saving account that an employer creates for each employee. | Health Reimbursement Arrangement (HRA) |
| Also known as a Flexible Benefits Plan | IRS 125 Plan (Cafeteria Plan) |
| employers and individuals are allowed to contribute to a savings account on a pre-tax basis and carry over the unused funds at the end of the year. | Medical Savings Account (MSA) |
| type of health insurance plan that is associated with an HSA or MSA | High Deductible Health Plan (HDHP) |
| Unlike a Health Reimbursement Arrangement (HRA), the HSA policyholder controls the account and once deposited into the HSA, contributions become the | property of the policyholder, even if he or she changes employment. |
| Employees often pay premiums in the form of dues to their employer or group. | Self-Insured Plans |
| Multiple employers within a similar industry or field join and receive health insurance from a series of trusts that are established and maintained to provide insurance to employees of multiple companies at a lower and more affordable rate. | MET |
| technical term under federal law that is used to define any arrangement not maintained pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement that provides health insurance benefits to the employees of two or more private employers. | Multiple Employer Welfare Association / Arrangement (MEWA) |
| plans provide limited benefits in the form of indemnity payments which are paid directly to the insured | Basic Medical Insurance |
| expense plans are also referred to as First-Dollar Coverage | basic medical insurance |
| because they provide benefits upfront to the insured without having to satisfy any plan deductible. | basis medical insurance (first-dollar coverage) |
| Basic Medical Insurance Covers: (3) | basic hospital expenses, basic physicians (non surgical), basic surgical expenses |
| It determines the amount of benefit by assigning a specific value, or dollar amount, to each type of surgical expense provided; | Schedule of Surgical Procedures |
| This method follows the UCR approach explained earlier to cover the expense according to usual and customary costs based on other similar surgical procedures within a particular geographical area. | Usual, Customary, and Reasonable (UCR) Approach |
| instead of assigning a specific dollar amount for each procedure, a pre-arranged point system is established | Relative Value Scale |
| ’ covers a wider range of medical expenses with generally higher individual benefits and policy maximums | major medical insurance |
| Three general types of deductibles exist in major medical insurance | corridor,’ ‘integrated’ and ‘flat’ deductibles. |
| clause added to a major medical policy that provides for expenses incurred in the final 3 months of the calendar year (October – December) to be carried or ‘rolled over’ and applied toward the next year’s deductible. | deductible carry over |
| works in conjunction with a basic medical expense policy by ‘bridging’ both policies together. | corridor deductible |
| is only payable after basic benefits are first paid and exhausted by the insurance company. | corridor deductible |
| the most common type of coverage in the health insurance industry | Comprehensive Major Medical |
| Also referred to as ‘percentage participation | Coinsurance |
| places a limit on the amount of covered medical expenses that a policyholder can be responsible for paying within the calendar year. | stop-loss’ provision |
| stop-loss’ provision | stop-loss’ provision |
| Most ‘routine’ dental care including cleanings and x-rays are covered as | Scheduled Benefits |
| provides the highest amount of benefits including routine dental care, non-routine dental care, and sometimes, orthodontic care, depending on the insurer. | comprehensive dental insurance |
| Dental insurers use a ‘? list’ method of identifying the procedures that are eligible for coverage. | closed list |
| where a dentist accepts both prepaid dental plan subscribers as well as nonmembers. | open panel system |
| only accept subscribers to the prepaid dental plan | closed panel system |
| A type of low-cost limited risk insurance purchased as a stand-alone policy that protects against a specific infrequent disease outlined in the policy such as heart disease or cancer. | Specified (Dread) Disease Coverage |
| While accident coverage begins on the date chosen by the policyholder, coverage against illness often has a | 15 day waiting period |
| ‘Affordable Care Act (ACA),’ this federal statute is actually 2 laws, called the | ‘Patient Protection Act’ and ‘Affordable Care Act |
| if a health plan excludes pre-existing conditions, it is considered to be a | grandfathered plan |
| The Open Enrollment Period starts on date? ends? | nov 1, Dec 15 |
| Starting in 2019, the fine for declining to purchase health insurance has been eliminated as a result of the | Tax Cuts and Jobs Act; |
| APTCs may be available to most households with income not more than ?% of federal poverty level | 400% |
| defined as a set of health care service categories that must be covered in order to be certified and offered in the Marketplace. | Essential Health Benefits |
| the percentage of total average costs for covered benefits that a plan will cover. | Actuarial Value |
| pays less than 60% of the total average cost of care on average and are only available to individuals under age 30 or who have a received a ‘hardship’ exemption. | catastrophic plan |
| discount that lowers the amount payable for out-of-pocket for deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments. | cost sharing reductions |
| Cost Sharing Reductions , must choose what tier plan | silver |
| figure used to determine eligibility for lower costs in the Marketplace and for Medicaid and CHIP. | modified adjusted gross income |
| developed by the (NAIC), was introduced and incorporated, with some modification, into each state’s insurance code. | Uniform Individual Accident and Sickness Policy Provisions Act |
| if fraudulent statements are made on a health insurance application, the contract can be contestable at any time unless the policy is | guaranteed renewable |
| health insurance policy grace period paid weekly | 7 days |
| health insurance policy grace period paid monthly | 10 days |
| health insurance policy grace period paid quarterly, semi-annually or annually | 31 days |
| , if notification is not provided by the insurer, the policy will be automatically reinstated on the | 45th day after insurer receives premium |
| A reinstated policy provides coverage immediately for accidents, but requires a #? day period for ilness | 10 days |
| policyholder is responsible to provide the insurer with a ‘written notification of claim’ within | 20 days of an event in which the policyholder intends to file a medical claim |
| The insurer is required to furnish ‘claims forms’ to the insured within | 15 days from the time the insurer was notified of a claim. |
| A claimant has #? days in which he or she is required to submit written documents showing ‘proof of loss.’ | 90 |
| An insurance company has #? days from the time a policyholder submits proof of loss before legal actions can be taken against the company by a policyholder. | 60 |
| , legal action can only be filed against an insurer up to | 3 t0 5 years after the date written proof of loss is furnished to the insurer |
| Relation of Earnings to Insurance | individual has multiple disability income policies and these benefits exceed their monthly earnings at the time disability occurs, this provision will ensure that the insurance company will only be liable for a proportional amount of benefits |
| cancels on the effective date so that no unearned premium is received by the insurer and is usually on the date that the policy’s premium is due | Flat Cancellation |
| Policy cancellation rights provide the insurance company the freedom to cancel a policy at any time, as long as written notice is sent to the policyholder at least | 45 days |
| clause states that an insurance company will honor its obligation to pay benefits. It also describes the scope of coverage, provides any required definitions, and sets forth the conditions | insuring clause |
| specifies the premium amount and date on which payments must be received to maintain the health policy | consideration clause |
| allows an insurer to terminate a policy on a specific date specified in the contract. | optionally renewable policy |
| are only canceled in the event of an expressed condition, such as age or the loss of gainful employment. | Conditionally Renewable Policies |
| These policies can never be terminated nor can premiums ever increase | Non-Cancellable Policies |
| evaluating, monitoring and planning of health care services by insurers to ensure that appropriate and cost-effective healthcare is ‘utilized’ | Utilization Management |
| conducted prior to any procedure or admission for medical care and includes any pre-hospital admission certification, as well as any second opinion requirements for non-emergency surgeries or procedures before care administered. | Prospective Review |
| is conducted during treatment, or while admitted to a hospital as medical care is being administered, to maintain appropriateness and timing of care, including establishing a plan for patient discharge. | Concurrent Review and Discharge Planning |
| conducted after discharge has occurred in order to evaluate the effectiveness and timing of the medical care provided | Retrospective Review |
| established by two or more similar employers within a related industry, but who are not part of a collective bargaining agreement | Multiple Employer Plan |
| A multiple-employer plan is established through a financial contract called a | Multiple Employer Trust |
| established by two or more employers within a related industry who are also part of a collective bargaining agreement. | established by two or more employers within a related industry who are also part of a collective bargaining agreement. |
| a multiemployer plan is established through a type of trust, known as a | Taft-Hartley Trust, |
| s are often self-insured or partially insured arrangements. | Multiple Employer Welfare Arrangements, or MEWA |
| non-specific group insurance provided when a group is constantly changing. | Blanket Customer Groups |
| is actually disability insurance that covers an insured’s debt to a creditor upon disability. | Credit Health (Disability) Insurance |
| Under a group health policy, the insurer typically provides for a #day grace period? | 31 |
| prevents an insured’s total benefits from exceeding the total medical expenses or loss of wages that he or she incurs | Coordination of Benefits (COB) |
| COBRA, extends group health coverage to former employees and their families for up to | 18 or 36 months after termination of employment. |
| under COBRA, an employer group must be made up of atleast how many individuals | 20 |
| must be given to employees, their spouses and any other dependents on the policy by the employer when the employee group becomes eligible for COBRA coverage, or when a qualifying event occurs | Notification Statement |
| Qualifying Events for 18 Months of COBRA | Termination of employment (most common) Hours of employment are reduced |
| Qualifying Events for 36 Months of COBRA | Coverage for surviving dependents of a deceased employee Former spouse of an employee after legal separation or divorce Dependent children that no longer qualify as a dependent |
| extends COBRA continuation benefits from 18 months to 29 months for disabled employees at the time of the qualifying event or who become disabled during the first 60 days of COBRA coverage who do not already qualify for 36 months under COBRA. | Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) |
| applies to employer groups of 15 or more employees. It protects qualified individuals with disabilities in job application procedures, hiring, firing, | Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) |
| federal law that generally prevents group health plans that provide mental health or substance use disorder (MH/SUD) benefits from imposing less favorable benefit limitations on those benefits than on medical/surgical benefits. | The Mental Health Parity and Addiction Equity Act |
| has jurisdiction over public sector group health plans (referred to as “non-Federal governmental plans” | US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) |
| have jurisdiction over private group health plans. | Departments of Labor and the Treasury |
| An employee becomes eligible for FMLA protection upon being employed by the same employer for at least | e (1) year and has worked for 1,250 hours over the previous 12 months. |
| An additional #? weeks of leave during a 12-month period are provided to care for a covered servicemember with a serious injury or illness if the eligible employee is the servicemember’s spouse, child, parent or next of kin. | 26 weeks |
| provides for the portability of group insurance between employer group insurance plans and from an employer-sponsored plan to an individual policy if the individual becomes self-employed | Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, |
| new employer must offer continual coverage to a new employee if the employee is switching from a prior employer’s coverage and was insured for at least the previous | 18 months on the prior group plan |
| Insurance portability through HIPAA is mandated for #? Insurance portability through HIPAA is mandated for | 63 days |
| DI insurers provide for a ‘window’ of time, usually | 60-90 days, following an injury in which the insured is still qualified for DI |
| This provision states that the cause of an injury must be unexpected and accidental. | Accidental Means Provision |
| result of an injury must be unexpected and accidental. | Accidental Bodily Injury Provision |
| by adding an exclusionary rider called an ? rider to the policy, the DI insurer can specifically exclude the disqualifying condition in order to still allow the individual to qualify for the DI policy. | impairment |
| The probationary period is the initial stage of DI coverage which begins on the DI policy’s effective date, and often lasts for | 15-30 days |
| DI Probationary Period does not apply to | accidents |
| states that an insured is automatically determined to be totally disabled in the event that, as the result of an accident, he or she becomes blind, deaf, loses his or her speech, or suffers the loss of two (2) or more limbs. | Presumption of Disability |
| Presumptive disability benefits are paid as | lump-sum to the insured, even if he or she is able to continue working. |
| recurrent eligibility periods range from | 90 days to 6 months after the initial benefit period ends. |
| Also called ‘residual’ disability | partial disability |
| Waiver of Premium Rider requires the insured to be totally and permanently disabled for at least | 3-6 months |
| Adding this rider to a DI policy helps pay the regular total disability benefit during the elimination period when the insured is hospitalized. | Hospital Confinement Rider |
| Essentially, this rider provides the insured with a reimbursement of medical expenses resulting from injuries that do not disable the insured. | Non-Disabling Injury (Medical Expense) Rider |
| option rider allows an insured the right to purchase additional disability insurance at future dates regardless of insurability. | Future Increase Option (FIO) |
| added rider enables an insured’s DI benefit period to extend beyond the normal benefit period (up to age 65) to the lifetime of the insured. | Lifetime Extension Rider |
| provides a life insurance death benefit to the insured’s designated beneficiary in the event of the insured’s death. This rider is renewable annually without requiring proof of insurability by the insured. | Annual Renewable Term (ART) Rider |
| r SSDI benefits include being totally disabled for more than | 12 months |
| r SSDI benefits include how many months elimination period | 5 months |
| provides benefits during the elimination period, as well as the 12 months before disability benefits begin. | additional Monthly Benefit (AMB) Rider |
| Under a partnership agreement, partners often purchase DI insurance on each other | Disability Buy-Sell Insurance |
| elimination period is required to allow the disabled partner the opportunity to recover and avoid prematurely losing share in the business. | 1 to 2 year elimination period |
| Disability insurance is often used by small business to pay for company overhead expenses during the period that a business owner or key-person is disabled, thus allowing the business to continue to operate. | Business Overhead Expense Insurance (BOE) |
| Defined as the benefit amount that is paid to the insured as a result of dismemberment or the loss of eyesight. | Capital Sum (Dismemberment Benefit) |
| Enacted as part of the Social Security Act of 1965, ? ,was created to provide healthcare coverage for U.S. citizens and permanent residents age 65 and older | Medicare |
| medicare is administerd by the | Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) |
| Medicare eligibility and premium processing is conducted through the | social security administration |
| federal government contracts through several types of non-governmental claims processing companies including: | Fiscal Intermediaries (FI)’, ‘Carriers,’ and other types of Medicare Administrative Contractors, called ‘Part A MACs’ or ‘Part B MACs.’ |
| Medicare costs associated with inpatient hospital care, long term care centers, hospice care centers and other skilled nursing facilities are processed through ? and ? AKA Part ? insurance | FIs and Part A MACs. (Part A Insurance) |
| Medicare costs associated with physician services, outpatient hospital care, various types of outpatient therapy, diagnostic testing, and other services provided by qualified practitioners are processed through ? and ? aka as Part | Carriers, and Part B MACs. (Part B Insurance) |
| Every 3 months, Medicare provides enrollees with a | Medical Summary Notice (MSN) |
| Medical Summary Notice (MSN), also known as | Explanation of Medicare Benefits (EOMB) |
| MSN provides a Medicare enrollee with a specific explanation of the costs incurred from his or her healthcare in order to effectively coordinate private ? or ? | Medigap insurance or Medicare Advantage coverage |
| 5 levels of appeals of Medicare decisions: | Redetermination, Reconsideration, Hearing , Review, : Judicial review |
| 5 levels of appeals of Medicare decisions: Level 1 Redetermination is done by | the company that handles claims for Medicare |
| 5 levels of appeals of Medicare decisions: Level 2, reconsideration is done by | Qualified Independent Contractor (QIC) |
| 5 levels of appeals of Medicare decisions: Level 3, hearing is done before | Administrative Law Judge (ALJ) |
| 5 levels of appeals of Medicare decisions: Level 4 Review is done by: | Medicare Appeals Council |
| 5 levels of appeals of Medicare decisions: Level 5 Judicial review is done by: | a federal district court |
| Medicare Appeal requests must be in writing and filed within | 60, 120 or 180 days, depending on the current level of appeal. |
| Medicare part A is | Compulsory Hospital Insurance (HI |
| Medicare Part B is | Supplementary Medical Insurance |
| Medicare Part D is | prescription drug coverage |
| s an alternative to Parts A and B, individuals can choose to elect coverage through | part c |
| Part C, also known as | Medicare Advantage |
| As an alternative to Part C, an enrollee may instead purchase a Medicare | ‘supplement insurance’ plan that works in conjunction with Medicare Part A and B coverage. |
| Private Medicare supplement insurance, called | Medigap’ insurance |
| defined as private insurance that helps fill in the ‘gaps’ that Medicare insurance leaves for an enrollee to cover. | Medigap’ |
| , the only difference between Medigap insurers is their ? and ? | customer service and premium rates. |
| Individuals who have not earned the necessary 40 credits through Social Security may still purchase | Medicare Part A. |
| In addition to the general enrollment requirements, individuals may also qualify for free Medicare Part A coverage under the following circumstances: | regardless of age, who have been diagnosed with permanent kidney failure, known as ‘End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)’ |
| To purchase Premium Part A coverage,He or she must also enroll in or already have | Part B coverage. |
| A temporary license shall be effective for ? months | 6 |
| temporary license renewable for periods of ? months and up to ? months | 3, 15 |
| Individuals licensed less than 20 years must complete 24 hours of continuing education (CE) | every 2 years |
| Individuals licensed less than 20 years must complete ? hours of ethics training | 3 |
| Renewals must be filed and CE credits satisfied by | DEC 31 |
| A revoked license must wait at least ? yrs before reapplying | 5 |
| Any engagement in or compensation from an unauthorized insurer in the state of Georgia is punishable by fines up to | an amount equal to the taxes and license fees that are normally required from authorized insurers in Georgia. |
| Protects policyowners, insureds, and beneficiaries of life, health, annuity, and supplemental policies from insolvent insurers who cannot maintain insurance contracts due to inadequate funding. | The Georgia Guaranty Association |
| Guaranty Association benefits cannot exceed | $100,000 per insured individual. |
| If the Commissioner does not deny a certificate of authority within | 90 days after an application is filed, it is considered approved. |
| Certificates of authority are renewed | annally |
| Yearly renewals must be submitted by | March 1 |
| Certificates of authority expirations happen what date | midnight on June 30 |
| Administrative Fines Cannot exceed $? for each non-willful violation or $? for each willful violation | $1000, $5000 |
| foreign insurer incorporated in a different state can qualify for a certificate of authority in the state of Georgia , also known as | re-domestication |
| agent or insurer must maintain # years of consumer complaints since last inspected by the Commissioner | 3 |
| Non-cancellable policies cannot allow for | premium or rate revisions |
| must be advertised with the allowance of premium return if the customer is dissatisfied | must be advertised with the allowance of premium return if the customer is dissatisfied |
| All advertisements must be kept on file with the insurer for a minimum of | 3 years |
| Before an insurer can offer a life or annuity product to the general public, it must file such product with the Commissioner at least | 90 days before commencing sales of such product |
| Words such as (3)? (and similar words) cannot be used to refer to a rate of interest return or guaranteed return in interest to the insured, or to hide or minimize the cost of the insurance | deposits, savings, or investment |
| Deposit cannot be used for premium paid by the insured unless it is | fully refundable if requested by the insured |
| for life insurance, An insurer must guarantee a ?-day grace period for late premium payments, after the initial premium, in which the policy’s death benefit remains in force. | 30 day |
| states that the application and life policy constitute the entire contract between the insurer and insured. | entire contract provision |
| A life insurance policy becomes incontestable after being in force for | 2 years |
| After ? years of premium payments, an insured may borrow from the life policy’s cash value. | 3 years |
| Prepayment of a policy’s death benefit may be paid out to the insured while still alive (living benefit) if the insured is diagnosed with a long-term or terminal illness. | accelerated living benefit provision |
| The insurer must pay the policy’s death benefit to the beneficiary no later than | 2 months after proof of the insured’s death. |
| After a life policy has been in force for ? years, the reinstatement provision must allow the policyowner to reinstate a lapsed policy due to non-payment of premium. | 3 years |
| If a policyowner defaults on any premium payment after the first 3 years of the policy, he or she has ? | 60 days to elect to receive the cash surrender value of the policy. |
| A provision that requires any lawsuit that arises from the policy to be filed within | 2 years of the event that prompts the lawsuit. |
| A minor’s life contract must be signed by a | parent, grandparent, adult sibling, or if necessary, the guardian of the minor’s estate |
| regarding minor's life insurance, Georgia law allows for written objection to such a contract if made by the | minor's parents |
| Contributory plan premiums are jointly paid by the | employer and employees |
| mon-contributory plan premiums are paid entirely by the | employer |
| Georgia law requires at least #? employees to qualify as a group plan | 2 |
| Individual and group family health coverage must also provide for newborns from the moment of birth with all the health benefits applicable to children (how many days) | 31 days after birth |
| Additional premium is required for a newborn or adopted child added to an existing policy and must be paid within | 31 days |
| 1 baseline mammogram for women between ages | 35-39 |
| 1 mammogram every 2 years for women between ages | 40-49 |
| 1 mammogram every year for women age | 50+ |
| Annual prostate exam for covered males age | 40+ IF ordered by physician |
| Accident and sickness insurers must notify group policyholders at least ? before refusing to renew a policy unless | 60 days |
| To qualify to convert group insurance to individual coverage if the group ends, an employee must be a member of the group for the past | 6 months |
| To qualify to convert group insurance to individual coverage if the group ends, an employee must request conversion within | 30 days of losing the group coverage |
| Medicare Supplement Requirements Cannot exclude or limit benefits incurred more than | 6 months prior to the effective date due to a preexisting condition |
| An insurer cannot refuse to issue or discriminate in the pricing of a Medicare supplement based on health status or any medical conditions of an applicant if the policy application is submitted during the | 6 month period beginning with the first month in which an individual first enrolled |
| Long-Term Care Requirements Provides coverage for at least | 24 consecutive months OR recurring confinement of up to 6 months with a min total of 2 years |