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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Nadine had rheumatic fever as a child. Now in her 60s, Nadine is showing signs of sharp pleuritic pain that increases when she takes deep breaths, and she says her heart is “racing.” A. Pericarditis B. Endocarditis C. Myocarditis D. Neuritis | A. |
| Dr. Trang was unable to confirm her diagnosis of a client with myocarditis with an ECG. What might she order to get a clearer picture of the abnormalities? A. Echocardiogram B. Stress ECG C. Holter monitor D. MRI | C. |
| What causes mitral valve insufficiency? A. Blood backflows into the left atrium. B. Blood backflows into the right atrium. C. Blood backflows into the aorta. D. Blood backflows into the left ventricle. | A. |
| What are the three common types of aneurysms? A. Abdominal, thoracic, and aortic B. Abdominal, aortic, and peripheral C. Abdominal, thoracic, and peripheral D. Thoracic, pulmonary, and peripheral | C. |
| Gerald has a pacemaker and needs to have dental work, including a root canal and a crown. Are there any precautions that Gerald should take? A. Gerald should realize these procedures can be painful and ask for pain medication. B. No precautions are nece | C. |
| How would you describe heart murmurs to a client? A. They are very significant heart defects but easily treated. B. They are irregular sounds heard when listening to the heartbeat. C. They are classified on intensity of the irregularity with Grades 1 t | B. |
| Essential hypertension may include what kind of vague signs and symptoms? A. Tinnitus and light-headedness B. Angina and weight loss C. Tachycardia and dyspnea D. Pallor and tachypnea | A. |
| When CAD is suspected, what diagnostic tools might help in making a diagnosis? A. Blood pressure readings taken over a period of time as noted in the medical chart B. The sound of bruits on auscultation C. An MRI and an echocardiogram D. An ECG, stres | D. |
| Lucile calls your medical clinic asking to speak with the nurse. You are an LPN who takes the call. Lucile is asking how long angina pain should last before she becomes alarmed. What will you tell her? A. “If you have had the pain 30 minutes or longer, l | A. |
| What is atrial fibrillation? A. It is a condition where the right atria and right ventricle beat irregularly. B. It is a condition where blood stagnates in the ventricles, then clots and causes a CVA C. The two atria beat irregularly, rapidly, and out | C. |
| What is the “classic” symptom of myocardial infarction? A. Severe and periodic dyspnea B. Crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm, neck, and jaw C. Diastolic pressure greater than 90 mm Hg D. Systolic pressure greater than 180 mm Hg | B. |
| How can congestive heart failure easily be described? A. Blood returning to the heart flows too quickly, causing the ventricle to collapse. B. Pulmonary circulatory congestion causes peripheral edema in the legs and ankles. C. The heart’s pumping abili | C. |
| How might you compare/contrast a heart attack with cardiac arrest to a friend who is confused about the difference? A. A heart attack signals blockage of blood flow to a part of the heart muscle; cardiac arrest is sudden loss of heartbeat, pulse, and res | A. |
| What are automated external defibrillators (AEDs)? A. Instruments used to shock the heart back into a slower rhythm B. Used to resuscitate someone after 10 minutes of CPR C. Sophisticated instruments used by medical professionals to start the heartbeat | D. |
| What is it called when there is a local dilation of an artery or chamber of the heart due to weakening of its walls? A. Mitral valve insufficiency B. Aneurysm C. Arteriosclerosis D. Atherosclerosis | B. |
| When there is an inflammation with abnormal vegetations in the membrane lining the heart valves, what is the disease called? A. Pericarditis B. Myocarditis C. Endocarditis D. Mitral insufficiency | C. |
| What is the major danger of both the abdominal and thoracic aortic aneurysms? A. The formation of a thrombus B. Endovascular stent-graft surgery is dangerous and difficult for clients. C. Allowing the “wait and watch” approach to treatment D. The poss | D. |
| You are a smoker, take oral contraceptives, and are 50 pounds overweight. Your employment keeps you at a desk all day. What can you do to prevent thrombophlebitis? A. Have your partner use a condom and stop smoking B. Lose about 10 pounds, get regular e | C. |
| What is the name of the condition characterized by accumulation of yellowish plaques of cholesterol, lipids, and cellular debris in the inner layers of large- and medium-sized arteries? A. Atherosclerosis B. Arteriosclerosis C. Coronary artery disease | A. |
| Where are varicose veins most likely to occur? A. Large veins in the arms B. Greater and lesser saphenous veins C. Small veins in the upper thighs D. Small arterioles of the lower legs | B. |
| Lucile is working in the lab examining blood cells in the microscope. She is seeing many unusually small, hemoglobin-poor RBCs that are lighter in color than usual. What might she be viewing? A. Megaloblasts due to inadequate stores of folic acid in the | D. |
| What is the possible cause of low reticulocyte counts in blood tests? A. Aplastic anemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Acute myeloid leukemia D. Chronic myeloid leukemia | A. |
| What is the initial treatment of pernicious anemia? A. Injections of folic acid B. Bone marrow transplant C. Injections of vitamin B12 D. High doses of vitamin B | C. |
| Keith has been diagnosed with AML; he is 74 and suffers from diabetes and hypertension. What might his prognosis be? A. Excellent with proper treatment B. Good, with remission lasting many years C. Fatal within 1 to 2 months after symptoms begin D. Po | D. |
| What is the name for a neoplastic malignancy of the lymphatic system characterized by painless enlargement of the lymph nodes and spleen? A. Lymphosarcoma B. Hodgkin lymphoma C. Lymphedema D. Chronic leukemia | B. |
| What complementary therapies might be useful in treating any of the leukemias? A. Any therapies to reduce effects of chemotherapy B. Biological therapy using biological response modifiers C. Gene therapy D. Stem cell transplant | A. |
| What is an abnormal accumulation of lymph, usually in the extremities, called? A. Sickle cell anemia B. Hodgkin disease C. Chronic myelocytic leukemia D. Lymphedema | D. |
| Lymphosarcomas or non-Hodgkin lymphomas are seen in more persons per year than any of the blood and lymph cancers. What do you recall about these diseases? A. They are caused by decreased production of lymphocytes. B. They are characterized by five diff | B. |
| You are quite aware of the symptoms of an MI for men, but what kind of symptoms might women have? A. Crushing chest pain that does not radiate to the left arm or neck B. The signal of angina that disappears in 5 to 7 minutes C. Discomfort, nausea, shor | C. |
| In your study of this chapter, can you identify characteristics, largely preventable, that may make a person more susceptible to cardiovascular diseases? A. Genetics, environment, and industrial toxins B. High-fat diet, distress, obesity, no exercise, a | B. |
| Molly, a college student, was just diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. What causes this disease? A. HIV B. Haemophilus influenzae C. The Epstein-Barr virus D. Streptococcus pyogenes | C. |
| What symptoms was Molly likely having that led the nurse practitioner to believe infectious mononucleosis might be the cause? A. Anorexia and cough B. Insomnia and chills C. Swollen cervical lymph nodes, cough, and hypertension D. Anorexia, swollen ly | D. |
| How are the three main classifications of pneumonia different? A. They are classified according to which lobe of the lung is inflamed. B. One is lobular, another is bacterial, and the third causes lung scarring. C. Viruses and rickettsiae cause two typ | B. |
| What condition can be a complication of infection-caused pneumonia? A. Pneumothorax B. Asthma C. Bronchitis D. Lung abscess | D. |
| Ken has learned he has a lung abscess. In what part of the lung is this abscess most likely found? A. Right lower lobe B. Left lower lobe C. Right upper lobe D. Left upper lobe | A. |
| Ginger fractured a rib in a snowboarding fall and developed a traumatic pneumothorax. What treatment will she need? A. She will need best rest and observation. B. A pleurectomy is necessary to inflate the collapsed lung. C. A chest tube is inserted for | C. |
| What is the classic symptom of pleurisy? A. Purulent sputum B. Collapsed lung C. Bleeding, choking, and a feeling of drowning D. Sharp, stabbing chest pain | D. |
| How is external respiration identified? A. It is when you breathe in the cool air of the outdoors. B. It is the exchange of O2 and CO2 within the lungs. C. It is the exchange of O2 and CO2 at the cellular level. D. It is the air that enters through th | B. |
| What best describes the development of lesions in pulmonary TB? A. Phagocytosis causes lung scarring. B. They are caused by excessive and uncontrolled coughing. C. Inflamed granulomas form, calcify, and result in the lesions. D. Inflamed granulomas no | C |
| How are persons who have a positive tuberculin reaction treated? A. They receive antibiotics. B. They are tested for active pulmonary TB every 2 months. C. They are given a year of isoniazid prophylactically. D. There really is no favorable treatment | C. |
| What diseases are classified as pneumoconiosis? A. Berylliosis, hypocapnia, and hypercapnia B. Histoplasmosis, anthracosis, and hypocapnia C. Histoplasmosis, mycoses, and berylliosis D. Silicosis, asbestosis, berylliosis, and anthracosis | D. |
| What causes anthracosis? A. Bird and chicken droppings B. Inhaling asbestos fibers C. Inhaling coal dust D. Inhaling fungal spores in the desert | C. |
| Saidra has been diagnosed with reflux laryngitis. What likely is the prescribed treatment? A. Resting her voice and over-the-counter medications to reduce reflux B. Antibiotic therapy to reduce the acid reflux C. Resting her voice even if it means leav | A. |
| What statistical data is known about lung cancer? A. It is the leading cancer killer for both men and women. B. Most lung cancers are caused either directly or indirectly by radon exposure. C. Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is the most common form. D. | A. |
| Ahmed is 6 years old. He has had several bouts of acute tonsillitis in the past 2 years. What is the most common treatment for recurrent tonsillitis? A. Antifungal mouthwash to help prevent the infection B. Erythromycin C. Tonsillectomy D. Penicillin | C. |
| What is the name given when excessive alkalinity of body fluids is caused by excessive removal of CO2 by the lungs? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Hypercapnia C. Atelectasis D. Hypocapnia | D. |
| What causes SIDS? A. There is a heart anomaly in apparently normal and healthy infants. B. Fluid is ingested into the lungs if they go to sleep with a bottle in their mouths. C. The cause is unknown; there are no symptoms, and it occurs in infants aged | C. |
| Helen has severe congenital kyphoscoliosis that received little or no treatment. Now in her early 30s, the right ventricle of her heart is failing. What name is given to this disease? A. Pulmonary hypertension B. Cor pulmonale C. Atelectasis D. Pneumo | B. |
| What are the three respiratory mycoses affecting the lungs? A. Histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, and blastomycosis B. Pneumonoconiosis, blastomycosis, and histoplasmosis C. Anthracosis, coccidioidomycosis, and pneumonoconiosis D. Anthracosis, beryll | A. |
| Audrey has severe obstructive sleep apnea. The CPAP machine was unsuccessful in giving her more than 4 hours of sleep at night. Finally she was referred to a specialist. Can you name the specialist and the possible treatment? A. The specialist was a resp | C. |
| Phyllis shows all the signs of chronic allergic rhinitis—nasal congestion, sneezing, rhinorrhea, and the “allergic shiners.” What treatment is likely indicated by the PCP? A. Antibiotics for bacterial infection B. Analgesics for pain C. Bed rest and in | D. |
| What are the common causes of sinusitis? A. Pneumococcal, streptococcal, or Haemophilus influenza bacteria B. Chemical irritations and viral infections C. Candida albicans and varicella zoster D. Epstein-Barr virus | A. |
| Wilson brings his 8-year-old son into the clinic for yet another bout of the most common throat ailment. What is this aliment? A. Tonsillitis B. Pharyngitis C. Allergic rhinitis D. Laryngitis | B. |
| What makes epiglottitis a medical emergency? A. It is caused by a serious allergic reaction cutting off the airway. B. The epiglottis covers the windpipe and blocks the flow of air. C. It is caused by choking on something too large to move into the eso | B. |
| What is the name of the disease caused by bacteria that thrives in warm places such as hot tubs, cooling towers, and parts of air-conditioning systems that is so difficult for those with COPD? A. Emphysema B. Chronic bronchitis C. Pneumonia D. Legione | D. |
| Keith’s pulmonologist has just told him that his respiratory issues now classify as COPD. What respiratory issues create COPD? A. Chronic bronchitis and pulmonary emphysema B. Pneumonia and pulmonary emphysema C. Chronic bronchitis and asthma D. Asthm | A. |
| What name is used to describe excessive protein-rich fluid between the parietal and visceral pleural membranes of each lung? A. Transudative pulmonary hypertension B. Exudative pulmonary hypertension C. Exudative pleural effusion D. Transudative pleur | C. |
| What is the name for a complication of venous thrombosis that is potentially lethal? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Respiratory acidosis C. Cor pulmonale D. Pulmonary edema | A. |
| Who are the individuals at greatest risk for thrush? A. It is seen only in infants. B. Infants, long-term antibiotic users, those receiving chemotherapy, and persons with AIDS are at greatest risk. C. It is most common in individuals with diabetes who | B. |
| Max is only 4 months old and just got over a bad cold. But now he has a terrible cough that is high-pitched. He is anxious; it seems like he can’t breathe right. His mom is terrified and she rushes Max to the ER. What might be happening here? A. Max has | B. |
| Acute or chronic hyperventilation can cause what condition? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Asthma C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Cor pulmonale | C. |
| What is the cause of inflammation of the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli of the lungs? A. Pulmonary TB B. Pleurisy C. Asthma D. Pneumonia | D. |
| Roy worked many years in the boiler room at the local university and was exposed to asbestos during the war. He now has cancer of the sac lining the pleural cavity. What is the name of this cancer? A. Malignant pneumoconiosis B. Malignant pleural mesoth | B. |
| What is the name of the slowly developing bacterial lung infection characterized by progressive necrosis of lung tissue? A. Pleurisy B. Pulmonary TB C. COPD D. Chronic pulmonary emphysema | B. |
| Inflammation of the vocal cords and the laryngeal mucosa carries what name? A. Laryngitis B. Pharyngitis C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Rhinitis | A. |
| What is it called when there is a collapse or airless condition of all or part of a lung, causing hypoxia? A. Atelectasis B. Pulmonary embolism C. Pulmonary edema D. Bronchiectasis | A. |
| What is the cause of acute herpetic stomatitis? A. Herpes simplex type 2 B. Herpes simplex type 1 C. There is no known cause, but B12 deficiency is suspect D. Bacterial infections | B. |
| Audrey has all the symptoms of gastritis. What tests will confirm the diagnosis? A. Upper GI endoscopy with biopsy B. Complete blood count C. Blood test for H. pylori antibodies and upper GI endoscopy with biopsy D. Gastric secretions that show hyperc | C. |
| What is the medical term for traveler’s diarrhea? A. Gastric ulcer B. Gastritis C. Gastroenteritis D. Enteritis | C. |
| How would you best describe GERD to a client? A. It is the backup of gastric or duodenal contents into the esophagus that may cause heartburn. B. It is the result of too little acidity in the esophagus, causing regurgitation. C. It is an acute systemic | A. |
| What are the signs and symptoms of a hiatal hernia? A. Gastritis and GERD B. Heartburn, belching, and esophageal reflux C. Diarrhea and severe abdominal pain D. Vomiting and serious weight loss | B. |
| What is the most effective treatment for celiac disease? A. A lifelong glucose-free diet B. A lifelong low-calorie diet with as few fats as possible C. A life of monthly injections of antiendomysium antibodies D. A lifelong and strict adherence to a d | D. |
| George’s dad suffered from ulcers for many years, so when George was told that he, too, had peptic ulcers, he was not surprised. He was, however, surprised at the treatment. Why? A. Instead of suffering like his dad, George would be able to take an oral | C. |
| What is the name for bulging pouches in the GI tract wall that push through surrounding muscle? A. Diverticulitis B. Irritable bowel syndrome C. Duodenal ulcer D. Diverticulosis | D. |
| Sadie has irritable bowel syndrome. Her aunt tells Sadie that it is because she eats junk all the time, smokes, and is a nervous Nellie. What can Sadie tell her aunt? A. “I quit smoking, and what I eat and how nervous I am doesn’t make any difference.” | B. |
| What is the definitive method of diagnosing Crohn disease? A. Colonoscopy and stool sample B. Biopsy of the affected site C. Sigmoidoscopy D. Barium enema | B. |
| Paroxysmal crying in infants for at least 3 hours per day, for at least 3 days per week, for a period of 3 weeks is recognized as what? A. A medical emergency B. An ailment with a poor prognosis C. An ailment that lasts until an infant is 1 year old D | D. |
| Tenderness on pressure at McBurney point is a diagnostic indicator of what illness? A. Acute pancreatitis B. Cirrhosis C. Diverticulitis D. Acute appendicitis | D. |
| You are a medical assistant in a GI clinic and a client asks you why surgery is often necessary for Crohn disease complications. What will you tell the client? A. “When medications and corticosteroids don’t work, it’s often better to remove the inflamed | A. |
| Bloody diarrhea, often containing pus and mucus, is a classic symptom of what disease? A. Gastroenteritis B. Ulcerative colitis C. Colorectal cancer D. Irritable bowel syndrome | B. |
| What are the possible causes of ulcerative colitis? A. Thickened walls of the colon that often bleed when straining at stool B. Chronic constipation from a low-fiber diet C. An autoimmune inflammation, microbiome actions, and high intake of linoleic ac | C. |
| What are the two types of hemorrhoids? A. Those involving veins below the anorectal line and those involving veins above or along the anorectal line B. Intrinsic and extrinsic C. Internal hemorrhoids and those near the cecum D. Rectal polyps and intri | A. |
| Possible complications of diarrhea might include which of the following? A. Abrupt increase in intestinal motility B. Electrolyte imbalances and dehydration C. Dysuria and serious bloating D. Hemorrhoids | B. |
| Constipation is named when any two of the following symptoms exist for 12 weeks. What are they? A. Straining at stool, soft stool, bloating, and fewer than five bowel movements per week B. Waiting too long to go to the bathroom, hard or lumpy stool, and | C. |
| What complementary therapy might be helpful when there is nausea and vomiting? A. Sips of cold ginger ale, herbal teas, eating soda crackers and toast B. Sips of root beer, coffee, and corn curls C. Refrain from eating or drinking anything; it only mak | A. |
| Eric was running to catch his dog, which got out of the fenced yard. Suddenly he felt a sharp pain in his groin. He slowed his pace, stopped, and stooped over. The pain did not stop. What might have happened? A. Eric is just out of breath and his lungs w | B. |
| What is the likely treatment for a femoral or inguinal hernia? A. Manually placing the intestine back in place B. Hemorrhoidectomy C. Herniorrhaphy and/or hernioplasty D. Taping and binding the affected area until the hernia closes | C. |
| Howard is seen at the clinic close to the end of the day. His spouse called to say Howard could not stop vomiting, had a fever, his heart was racing, and he was having terrible pain in the upper region of his stomach. What might these symptoms indicate? | C. |
| What are the complications of pancreatitis? A. Type 2 diabetes and shock due to toxins in the blood B. Infection and peritonitis C. Several months of aggressive treatment until cured D. Ascites and jaundice | A. |
| What is a leading cause of cancer deaths, which produces symptoms of abdominal pain, anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss, and usually has a poor prognosis? A. Cirrhosis B. Pancreatic cancer C. Colorectal cancer D. Cholelithiasis | B. |
| What is the name for the dilated, tortuous veins in anal or rectal mucous membranes? A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Hemorrhoids C. Diverticulitis D. Cholelithiasis | B. |
| What is cholelithiasis? A. Formation of kidney stones B. An illness that is uncommon in the United States C. Obstruction of the bile duct D. Name for gallstones in the gallbladder or bile ducts | D. |
| Laurel likes to party and her boyfriend’s fraternity house is known for its alcohol consumption on campus. Laurel went on a drinking binge that lasted 3 days during homecoming celebrations. When her boyfriend could not get her up at the end of the party, | C. |
| What is the etiology of cirrhosis? A. Alcohol, hepatitis, nonalcoholic fatty liver disease, biliary cirrhosis B. Unknown, but likely has a genetic relationship C. Obesity, high-calorie diets, and oral contraceptives D. Alcohol | A. |
| When symptomatic cholecystitis is the diagnosis, what might the treatment be? A. Colostomy B. Extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy C. Cholecystectomy D. Bile-acid therapy to dissolve stones | C. |
| There are five viral agents for hepatitis. Which ones are most common? A. HAV, HBV, and HCV B. HAV, HCV, and HGV C. HCV, HBV, and HDV D. HCV, HBV, and HGV | A. |
| What radiological diagnostic tools are most likely used to diagnose colorectal cancer? A. Digital examination of the rectum and blood tests for tumor markers B. Testing for occult blood in the stool and digital examination of rectum C. Colonoscopy, ult | C. |
| Where are peptic ulcers most likely found? A. Duodenum and jejunum B. Ileum C. Pharynx D. Stomach and duodenum | D. |
| A nutritionist is suggesting a possible breakfast for a client with celiac disease. What might be included? A. Oatmeal with 2% milk B. Scrambled eggs and hash browns C. French toast made with dark bread D. Buttered toast with coffee—no cream | B. |
| What might a complementary therapy diet for diverticulitis/diverticulosis include? A. Only whole foods, low-fiber diet, with soluble fibers, such as ground flax, psyllium, and bran B. Antacids C. Yogurt and lots of water D. Fatty foods to prevent the | A. |
| What might the PCP find during a physical examination and diagnosis of polycystic kidney disease? A. Atrophied kidneys B. Palpably enlarged kidneys and hypertension C. Nephritis D. Lower-than-normal body temperature | B. |
| When Claudia says she has “awful pain in her side and groin and it hurts like hell to pee,” and the medical assistant notes a fever of 102 degrees and that Claudia looks very uncomfortable, what might the PCP suspect? A. UTI B. Glomerulonephritis C. Re | D. |
| Glomerulonephritis may follow which of the following? A. HIV infection B. Streptococcal infection of the respiratory tract C. Staphylococcal infection D. A genetic anomaly | B. |
| The lab tech is analyzing a urine sample and notes an abnormal amount of the protein albumin. What might be the cause? A. Hypotension B. Bladder tissue damage C. Kidney damage from diabetes, or chronic hypertension D. Hydronephrosis from an obstructio | C. |
| When a client reports that she cannot control when she urinates, what term will be noted in the medical chart? A. Incontinence B. Oliguria C. Micturition D. Lipiduria | A. |
| What is the major cause of ESRD? A. Chronic glomerulonephritis B. Diabetes mellitus C. Persistent and abnormal urinalysis D. The gradual, progressive deterioration of ureter function | B. |
| Proctoscopy, pulmonary angiography, and refraction test Urinalysis, laparoscopy, and lymphangiography UA, KUB, BUN, ultrasound, CT, and MRI scan UA, KUB, and DEXA | C. |
| What is the prognosis of lower urinary tract infections? A. Chronic inflammation of the kidney and renal pelvis B. Good with treatment, but reinfection in susceptible individuals C. Compromised kidney function D. Kidney damage with every infection | B. |
| What would you say is the most important function of the kidneys? A. They help regulate the water, electrolyte and the acid-base content of the blood. B. Their only function is to create urine and filter waste products of metabolism. C. They provide en | A. |
| What can a routine urinalysis show? A. Specific gravity, pH, presence of protein, blood, sugar, and ketones B. Level for the filtration of wastes C. Presence of viruses D. A rapid sedimentation rate, albumin, and globulin | A. |
| When a diagnosis of hydronephrosis is made, what treatment usually follows? A. Bed rest and analgesics B. Long-term catheterization and antibiotics C. Short-term dialysis to cleanse the blood and analgesics D. Drain excess urine, remove any obstructio | D. |
| Charles has just been diagnosed with bladder cancer. What long-term lifestyle habit of Charles’s might be the major contributor to his cancer? A. Cigarette smoking B. His love of red meat and beer C. His overeating for over 20 years, which has caused o | A. |
| What happens when there is tubular necrosis? A. The kidney tubules fill with fluid-filled cysts. B. The kidney glomeruli exhibit severe proteinuria. C. There is renal ischemia of blood flow in and out of the kidneys. D. Ascites occur in the early stag | C. |
| Benjamin’s ESRD has moved into the critical stage, and he is being placed on dialysis. His name is also placed on the list for a donor kidney. His choice for the procedure is a dialysis center. What type of dialysis will Benjamin be having? A. Peritoneal | B. |
| What are the most common infectious precursors to kidney-related diseases? A. Astrovirus, parvovirus, and varicella zoster B. E. coli, Proteus, Enterobacter, streptococcus, and pseudomonas C. E. coli, astrovirus, streptococcus, and varicella zoster D. | B. |
| What are possible complications of renal calculi? A. They can upset the acid/base balance in the blood. B. They are usually only the size of a grain of sand and pass with no complications. C. Their obstructions can cause the kidneys to atrophy. D. Th | A. |
| Roger has Parkinson’s disease. He also now has what his PCP refers to as neurogenic bladder. Roger understands that he may now need to further adjust his daily living because of what problem? A. Urethritis B. Pyuria C. Cystitis D. Incontinence | D. |
| Dan’s urological oncologist is discussing Dan’s renal cell carcinoma. Since it appears the cancer has not spread to other organs, what procedure offers the best outcome? A. Nephrectomy; maybe radiation, chemotherapy or immunotherapy B. Removal of both k | A. |
| What are the characteristics unique to nephrotic syndrome? A. Shortness of breath and anorexia B. The presence of corticosteroids in the blood C. Hyperkalemia, persistently high arterial blood pressure, and oliguria D. Hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipemia, a | D. |
| Dana’s procedure for bladder cancer involves removing cancerous tissue from her bladder using an instrument passed through the urethra. What term is entered into the medical chart? A. Uteroscopic resection of the cancer B. Transurethral resection C. Fu | B. |
| The Huhner test is often performed to diagnose what? A. Gonorrhea B. Infertility C. Cervicitis D. Papillomas | B. |
| Which of the following statements regarding infertility is false? A. Infertility is diagnosed as a failure to become pregnant after 1 year of regular, unprotected intercourse. B. About 4.5 million couples experience infertility. C. Fertility peaks for | B. |
| A female client has been experiencing pelvic pain, lower back pain, and dyspareunia for several weeks. Based on these symptoms, what could be her diagnosis? A. Dysmenorrhea B. Amenorrhea C. Endometriosis D. Ovarian cysts | D. |
| What is the cause of prostatitis? A. STDs B. Bacteria or trauma C. Trichomoniasis D. Infertility | B. |
| What is the prognosis for testicular cancer? A. 20% cure rate if detected early B. 96% cure rate if detected early C. 100% cure rate if detected early D. Grave | B. |
| Where are benign ovarian cysts derived from? A. Uterine ligaments B. Ovarian follicles and corpus luteum cysts C. Endometrial tissue D. Prostaglandin secretions | B. |
| What is the cause of endometriosis? A. UTIs B. Cancer C. Ovarian cysts D. Unknown | D. |
| What is the definition of endometriosis? A. A disease caused by fibroid tumors B. An infection of the fallopian tubes causing blockage C. Growth of endometrial tissue outside the endometrium D. An infection not accompanied by pain | C. |
| What group of women has an increased risk of breast cancer? A. Those with genetic abnormalities related to aging B. Those who are unusually thin after menopause C. Those who are over age 55 D. Those who exercise regularly | A. |
| What is the abbreviation of the blood test used to differentiate prostatic cancer from BPH? A. RPR B. VDRL C. PSA D. CBC | C. |
| Which of the following is a predisposing factor for testicular cancer? A. Increasing age B. Cryptorchidism C. Hypospadias D. BPH | B. |
| Which group of men does testicular cancer primarily affect? A. Men over age 40 B. Men with BPH C. Men under age 40 D. Men who have not been circumcised | C. |
| When does premenstrual syndrome occur most frequently? A. In women over age 50 B. In women who have not had children C. In women under age 20 D. In women in their 30s and 40s | D. |
| A woman between the ages of 45 and 55 experiences the cessation of menses. What gynecological condition does she have? A. Menopause B. Menorrhagia C. Endometriosis D. Menarche | A. |
| Which of the following STDs has the highest reported cases occurring among teens and young adults? A. Syphilis B. Genital herpes C. Genital warts D. Gonorrhea | D. |
| Which of the following is a highly contagious viral infection that has no cure? A. Trichomoniasis B. Genital warts C. Syphilis D. Genital herpes | D. |
| The PCP examines a 26-year-old man. There are two red ulcerated lesions in his genital area. This can be the primary stage of what disease? A. Azoospermia B. Syphilis C. Genital warts D. Gonorrhea | B. |
| Which may help to prevent the spread of STDs? A. Condoms B. Hormone therapy C. Cryosurgery D. Chlamydia | A. |
| In addition to reproduction, what is another function of the reproductive system? A. Enhancement of caring and pleasure B. To determine sexual needs C. Protection from sexual dysfunction D. Gender identification | A. |
| Which of the following symptoms require medical attention for a pregnant woman? A. Abdominal pain, tenderness, and cramps B. Weight gain and swollen feet C. Fatigue and restless sleep D. Change in appetite | A. |
| Which of the following STDs can be asymptomatic for an individual? A. Gonorrhea B. Genital herpes C. Chlamydial infections D. Trichomoniasis | C. |
| Which of the following is NOT a sign and symptom of an enlarged prostate? A. Dribbling upon urination B. Urinary frequency C. Incontinence D. Unintentional weight loss | D. |
| What gynecological disorder is defined as a distinct cluster of physical and psychological symptoms that regularly recur 3 to 14 days before the onset of menstruation? A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Endometriosis C. Premenstrual syndrome D. Dysmeno | C. |
| What types of cysts are common in the ovary and can become large and painful? A. Nonneoplastic cysts B. Teratomas C. Endometrioma D. Polycystic | B. |
| Which of the following statements about endometriosis is true? A. Endometriosis is the appearance and growth of endometrial tissue in areas outside the uterine cavity’s lining. B. Endometriosis develops during pregnancy and when using birth control pill | A. |
| Which of the following is a cause of pelvic inflammatory disease? A. Infections during parturition B. A genetic predisposition C. Early menarche D. A result of hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction | A. |
| What is the sixth most common cancer among females and the fifth leading cause of cancer deaths? A. Ovarian cysts B. Ovarian tumors C. Ovarian cancer D. Uterine leiomyomas | C. |
| What term is used to describe palpable lumps in the breasts which fluctuate in size with the menstrual cycle? A. Fibrocystic breasts B. Benign fibroadenoma C. Carcinoma of the breast D. Fibroplasia of the breast | A. |
| Which of the following is a true statement about preeclampsia? A. It is the convulsive form of PIH. B. It constitutes a medical emergency. C. It is characterized by hypertension, edema, and proteinuria. D. It is a form of PID. | C. |
| Which of the following describes placenta previa? A. Placenta implanted abnormally low in the uterus covering all or part of the cervical os B. The premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall C. Early rupture of the amni | A. |
| Andrew was poked in the eye by his grandson. The diagnosis of a corneal abrasion was determined by visual examination and which other test? A. Tonometer measurement B. Rinne test C. Fluorescein stain D. Culture and sensitivity | C. |
| Common symptoms of suppurative otitis media are likely to include which of the following? A. Fever and chills B. Headache C. Impacted cerumen with pain D. Vomiting | A. |
| What is it called when the elasticity in the crystalline lens of the eye is lost? A. Hyperopia B. Presbyopia C. Myopia D. Astigmatism | B. |
| Amanda is a teenager being seen for a sports physical. During a portion of her visit, Amanda is asked to stand on a line a distance away, instructed to cover each eye one at a time, and read letters aloud. Which screening tool is being used? A. Snellen c | A. |
| Mr. Bean is a 50-year-old computer engineer who spends much of his time each day in front of the computer screen. He recently went to the ophthalmologist for his annual exam complaining of frequent headaches with occasional blurred vision. Mr. Bean was di | B. |
| Which of the following eye disorders is called nearsightedness? A. Hyperopia B. Presbyopia C. Myopia D. Astigmatism | C. |
| What can cause nystagmus? A. Chronic hearing impairment B. Long-term antibiotic use C. Alteration in mental status D. Ménière disease and multiple sclerosis | D. |
| An ophthalmologist observed that a client’s eyes were moving rapidly from side to side. The client was relaxed and the eye movement appeared to be involuntary. Which of the following diagnoses is the ophthalmologist likely to consider? A. Myopia B. Hype | C. |
| What is best described as localized, purulent, inflammatory infection of the sebaceous gland of the eyelid? A. Hordeolum B. Cataract C. Glaucoma D. Retinal detachment | A. |
| What are some of the signs and symptoms of corneal abrasion? A. Pain, redness, and tearing B. Blurring, white pupil, and pain C. Tearing, blurred vision, and pain D. Tearing, swelling, and blurred vision | A. |
| When opacity or clouding of the crystalline lens of the eye occurs, what is it called? A. Hordeolum B. Glaucoma C. Cataract D. Conjunctivitis | C. |
| Which is characteristic of cataract? A. A hole in the retina B. Intense pain C. Double vision D. Halos around lights | D. |
| Accumulating fluid pressure within the eye that damages the retina and optic nerve is known as what condition? A. Cataract B. Glaucoma C. Uveitis D. Keratitis | B. |
| What is the name of the diagnostic tool used to detect intraocular pressure? A. Snellen chart B. Opticokinetic drum test C. Tonometer D. Penlight | C. |
| Retinal detachment is best described by which of the following? A. The optic nerve separates from the sclera. B. It is spontaneous in persons who are nearsighted. C. Vitreous humour leaks through a break in the retina. D. It is spontaneous in persons | C. |
| Mrs. Dove sees her primary care provider (PCP) with inflammation of the mucous membrane structure that lines the inner surface of the eyelids and the anterior portion of the eyeball. What diagnosis will the doctor most likely identify? A. Conjunctivitis | A. |
| Which of the following statements best describes impacted cerumen? A. It causes permanent hearing loss. B. It may be due to a large ear canal. C. It may be due to excessive hair in the ear canal. D. It is caused by frequent swimming. | C. |
| Which of the following best describes external otitis? A. It is inflammation of the external ear canal. B. It is an accumulation of fluid within the structure of the middle ear. C. It is a metabolic imbalance that causes new bone to grow over the end o | A. |
| What treatments are used to treat otitis media? A. Antiemetics only B. Decongestants, antibiotics, and analgesics C. Analgesics only D. Antihistamines and analgesics only | B. |
| What is formation of new bone, especially around the oval window, with resulting immobilization of the stapes called? A. Ménière disease B. External otitis C. Otosclerosis D. Swimmer’s ear | C. |
| Debbie has been riding in the backseat of the car for hours while traveling with her family on vacation when she claims she isn’t feeling well. Her mom insists she take which of the following medications to treat her motion sickness? A. Antihistamines B | A. |
| Which of the following best describes macular degeneration? A. It is a slow progressive disease that produces changes in the pigmented cells of the retina and macula. B. There are three types: dry, wet, and nonexudative. C. It usually starts with a cha | A. |
| What is the eye condition where the eyes may turn inward, turn outward, or be crossed? A. Amblyopia B. Strabismus C. Walleye D. Myopia | B. |
| What is the medical term given to a chronic inner ear syndrome marked by attacks of vertigo, progressive deafness, and tinnitus? A. Otosclerosis B. External otitis media C. Ménière disease D. Otitis media | C. |
| Which of the following may cause hearing loss? A. Sinusitis B. Motion sickness C. Meningitis D. Flu | C. |
| What is the common name for external otitis? A. Pink eye B. Swimmer’s ear C. Nosebleed D. Motion sickness | B. |
| Which of the following is an instrument used to examine the ear canal? A. Ophthalmoscope B. Auriscope C. Otoscope D. Stethoscope | C. |
| Which disease may affect eyesight? A. Sinusitis B. Ménière disease C. Otosclerosis D. Diabetes | D. |
| What is the common name for myopia? A. Nearsightedness B. Farsightedness C. Blindness D. Deafness | A. |
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