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Physiology Practice

Practice Final Exam Nightingale

QuestionAnswer
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: the body trying to maintain homeostasis., a negative-feedback mechanism.
Pathogenesis can be defined as: the course of disease development.
The term that literally means self-immunity is: autoimmunity
The body’s thermostat is located in the: hypothalamus
Negative-feedback mechanisms minimize changes in blood glucose levels. maintain homeostasis. are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature.
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? transmitter
Intrinsic control: is also autoregulation
Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? Reproductive
Negative-feedback control systems: oppose a change.
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. positive
The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are: steroids
If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be: GATCCGAC. G=C A=T
Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called: essential amino acids.
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids? Degree of saturation
Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? salts
Unsaturated fats Will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms.
Which lipid is part of vitamin D? Prostaglandins
Peptide bonds join together molecules of: amino acids
When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide? maltose
The basic building blocks of fats are fatty acids and glycerol.
Sometimes referred to as animal starch, _____ is the main polysaccharide in the body. glycogen
Which of the following is not true of both triglycerides and phospholipids? They both contain a hydrophobic and hydrophilic end.
A structural lipid found in the cell membrane is a Triglyceride. Steroid.
Which level of protein structure refers to the number, kind, and sequence of amino acids? primary
The amino group in an amino acid is: NH3+
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be: an even exchange of material across the membrane.
The physical process by which water and solute move through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists across the membrane is the process of: osmosis
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through: active transport
Twenty-three chromosomes per cell in humans is referred to as: haploid
A membrane carrier structure attracts a solute to a binding site, changes shape, and releases the solute on the other side of the cell membrane. This describes the process of: carrier-mediated transport.
Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell.
diffusion requires a concentration gradient
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called: aquaporins
Transcription can be best described as the: synthesis of mRNA.
During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell? prophase
Extensive weight training causes the muscle cells to hypertrophy.
Which of the following terms is synonymous with tumor? neoplasm
Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump?
Which of the following is not true of RNA? It contains deoxyribose sugar.
Phagocytosis is an example of: endocytosis.
A tissue is: a group of similar cells that perform a common function.
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the: bones
The hypodermis: connects the dermis to underlying tissues.
The area referred to as true skin is the dermis
Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue? Is important in communication and control
Which cells help destroy pathogens and damaged tissue in the brain? Microglia
Which is not a function of connective tissue? Communication
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue. connective and epithelial
Which of the following is not a characteristic of muscle tissue? Cells are separated by a large quantity of extracellular matrix
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals? Connective
The cells responsible for active erosion of bone minerals are called: osteoclasts.
Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal? fontanels
After the age of 50, the density of bone: decreases slowly because of a shift in the remodeling activity.
The cell organelles that synthesize organic matrix substances in bone formation are: endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis? Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle
In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer. third
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the epiphyses? Cylindrical in shape
The humerus articulates proximally with the scapula
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the: thumb
Normally, bone loss will begin to exceed bone gain between the ages of _____ years. 35 and 40
The ulna articulates proximally with the: humerus.
A condition that is caused by an abnormally increased roundness in the thoracic curvature is kyphosis.
A person with a fractured patella would expect discomfort in the: knee
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the: pelvic outlet.
Hematopoiesis is carried out in the: red bone marrow.
The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that: the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs.
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called: irritability.
Muscle contractions will continue as long as: the calcium ions are attached to the troponin.
The chief function of the T-tubules is to: allow for electrical signals to move deeper into the cell.
Tilting the foot upward, decreasing the angle between the top of the foot and the front of the leg, is called: dorsiflexion
The rotator cuff muscles and tendons form a cufflike arrangement around the _____ joint. shoulder
The purpose of creatine phosphate in muscle contraction is to: replenish energy supply.
A gliding joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint. multiaxial
Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP? Which of the following is not an end-product of the breakdown of ATP?
Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis? Single-unit smooth
In terms of function, which is considered an immovable joint? Synarthrosis
Aerobic respiration: produces the maximum amount of energy available from each glucose molecule.
An example of a pivot joint is(are) the: head of the radius articulating with the ulna.
Kicking a football is accomplished by knee: extension.
Endurance training is also known as: aerobic training.
Acetylcholine is in the same class of neurotransmitters as: none of the above.
Which is true of an action potential? The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged.
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. negative
Stimulus-gated channels open in response to: sensory stimuli.
A synaptic knob would be located on a They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters.(n): axon
Which of the following statements about amino acid neurotransmitters is incorrect? They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters.
Which of the following is not one of the main chemical classes of neurotransmitters? Triglycerides
Which of the following is true of spatial summation? Neurotransmitters released simultaneously from several presynaptic knobs converge on one postsynaptic neuron.
Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? A large-diameter neuron with myelin
The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is: some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open.
During a relative refractory period: the action potential can be initiated with a strong stimulus.
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential. local
Serotonin is an example of a(n): amine neurotransmitter.
Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: catecholamines.
Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? Phenelzine
Tic douloureux is a painful neuralgia of the _____ nerve. trigeminal
The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic. true
Norepinephrine is liberated at: most sympathetic postganglionic nerve endings.
Which of the following is not an example of sympathetic stimulation? Constriction of the bronchioles
The cerebellum performs all of the following functions except: controls cardiac function.
A mixed nerve is one that: carries both sensory and motor fibers.
The vomiting reflex is mediated by the: medulla.
Propranolol is an example of a: beta blocker. drug used to treat irregular heartbeats. drug used to treat hypertension.
Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? Lateral corticospinal
Which is the only plexus that contains fibers from the thoracic region of the spinal cord? Brachial
Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia. pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing.
The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased. false
The part of the brain that can directly influence or inhibit the release of hormones from the pituitary is the: hypothalamus.
Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate. vagus
Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except: number of neurons between central nervous system (CNS) and effector.
When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? M
Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. cochlear
In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: slow to appear but long-lasting.
When a small amount of one hormone allows a second hormone to have its full effect, the phenomenon is called: permissiveness.
The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the: transcription of RNA.
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: anterior pituitary.
Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? Internal organs
Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as visual acuity
Which is not true of the hormone somatostatin? It inhibits the secretion of glucagon. It stimulates the secretion of insulin.
Accommodation for near vision necessitates an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes.
If you slammed your finger in a car door, it would stimulate _____ pain fibers. acute
The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is protein kinases activate other enzymes.
The type of cells that secrete ACTH are: corticotrophs.
The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: Ruffini corpuscles.
One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is: oxytocin.
_____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. Heparin
The vagus is said to act A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues isbrake” on the heart. This situation is called vagal inhibition.
The mechanisms of which three hormones work together to regulate blood volume? The mechanisms of which three hormones work together to regulate blood volume?
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is erythropoietin.
Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with: body fat.
Blood viscosity stems mainly from the red blood cells but also partly from the _____ in blood. protein molecules present
Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of vasodilation.
Which of the following is(are) involved in determining a person’s total blood volume? Age Body type Sex
Which two factors promote the return of venous blood to the heart? blood-pumping action of respirations and skeletal muscle contractions
What is the functional significance of large areas of cardiac muscle being electrically coupled to form a single functional syncytium? Because they form a syncytium, muscle cells can pass an action potential along a large area of the heart wall, stimulating contraction in each muscle fiber of the syncytium.
What is the function of the spleen? tissue repair hematopoiesis red blood cell and platelet destruction blood reservoir
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. cell-mediated
Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease? interferon
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the lymphocyte.
The functions of the lymph nodes are defense and hematopoiesis.
The lymphatic system serves various functions in tfluid balance and immunity.he body. The two most important functions of this system are fluid balance and immunity.
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. thymocytes
Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? immunoglobulin M
_____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens. Species resistance
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? sebum mucus enzymes hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa
Bean-shaped structures located at certain intervals along the lymphatic system are lymph nodes.
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as natural killer cells.
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form effector T cells and memory cells.
Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in cytolysis.
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor.
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: expiration occurs.
Which of the following constitutes total lung volume? Residual volume and vital capacity
Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture.
Which of the following is not a means of transporting oxygen in the blood? Combined with the bicarbonate ion (HCO3–)
The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. 160
The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is: as bicarbonate ions.
If a person were skiing high up in the mountains, she might feel that she is having trouble breathing (getting enough oxygen in her blood). This is because the: lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO2 and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is less.
A drop in the body’s production of carbonic anhydrase would hinder the formation of: carbonic acid.
A type of breathing characterized by gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume is: Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to: hemoglobin.
Hydrolysis refers to: using water to split larger compounds into smaller ones.
The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called: gastric inhibitory peptide.
Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? Portal vein
Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: neutralize hydrochloric acid.
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: glycerol and fatty acids.
When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. hydrolyzing
The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of: protein.
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is a: monosaccharide.
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: amylase.
Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus? Oropharynx
The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: cholecystokinin.
The major site for the absorption of the end products of digestion is the: small intestine.
Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: cotransport.
The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content. opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder.
The process of fat emulsification consists of: breaking fats into small droplets
Which of the following pairs are almost identical when compared chemically? Plasma and interstitial fluid
A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to: stimulate a compensatory increase in blood hydrogen ion concentration through the respiratory system.
Cerebrospinal fluid is part of the _____ fluid. extracellular
When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions, it primarily reabsorbs _____ ions. sodium
For the body to maintain an acid-base balance, which of the following is (are) necessary? Buffering Respirations Urine secretion
Which of the following is(are) classified as an acid-forming food? Meat Eggs Poultry
Water normally leaves the body through _____ exits. four
Which of the following is a true statement? Arterial blood has an average pH of 7.41.
The total fluid or water content of the human body ranges from _____ of its total weight. 45% to 75%
In accordance with the physical laws governing filtration and osmosis, which of the following statements is true? blood colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid back into the capillaries.
The thirst center, which contains specialized cells called osmoreceptors, is located in the: hypothalamus.
Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the: intercellular spaces.
In young adults, the percentage of body weight composed of water will average about _____ for males and _____ for females. 60%; 50%
When comparing the volume of the various body fluids, the correct order going from highest to lowest in total volume would be: intracellular fluid, interstitial fluid, plasma.
The pH of the blood is maintained at approximately: 7.4
The hormone that causes the follicle to rupture and the egg to be expelled is: luteinizing hormone (LH).
The foreskin in the male is also known as the: prepuce.
What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail? Epididymis
Which of the following statements is not true about the mechanism controlling lactation? Prolactin stimulates the ejection of milk into the ducts of the mammary glands.
Which of the following glands is not a paired accessory gland of the male reproductive system? Prostate
The phase of the menstrual cycle that occurs between the expulsion of the ovum from the ovary and the onset of menses is the _____ phase. luteal
Which of the following hormones causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts, making it accessible for the infant? Oxytocin
The hormone that causes the alveoli of the mammary glands to secrete milk is: prolactin.
Which of the following cells contain 46 chromosomes? Primary spermatocytes
Which of the following is a part of the supporting structures of the male reproductive system? Scrotum
Created by: sepruiz
 

 



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