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Stack #3825228
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which of the following generally does not apply to bone marrow (a primary lymphoid organ) and DOES APPLY to secondary lymphoid organs? | antigen-dependent response |
| Which of the following apply uniquely to secondary lymphoid organs? A) presence of precursor B and T cells B) circulation of lymphocytes C) terminal differentiation to plasma cells D) cellular proliferation | terminal differentiation to plasma cells |
| Which of the following does not apply to "innate" immune mechanisms? A) absence of specificity B) activation by a stimulus C) involvement of multiple cell types D) a memory component | a memory component |
| Which of the following is the major function of the lymphoid system? A) innate immunity B) inflammation C) phagocytosis D) acquired immunity | acquired immunity |
| moval of the bursa of Fabricius from a chicken results in A) a markedly decreased number of circulating T lymphocytes. B) anemia. C) delayed rejection of skin graft. D) low serum levels of antibodies in serum. E) all of the above. | all of the above. |
| The following properties render a substance immunogenic: A) high molecular weight B) chemical complexity C) sufficient stability and persistence after injection | All of the above are essential but not sufficient. |
| The protection against smallpox afforded by prior infection with cowpox represents A) antigenic specificity. B) antigenic cross-reactivity. C) enhanced viral uptake by macrophages. D) innate immunity. E) passive protection. | antigenic cross-reactivity. |
| Converting a toxin to a toxoid A) makes the toxin more immunogenic. B) reduces the pharmacologic activity of the toxin. C) enhances binding with antitoxin. D) induces only innate immunity. E) increases phagocytosis. | reduces the pharmacologic activity of the toxin. |
| Primary interactions between antigens and antibodies involve all of the following except A) covalent bonds. B) van der Waals forces. C) hydrophobic forces. D) electrostatic forces. E) a very close fit between an epitope and the antibody. | A) covalent bonds. |
| If an IgG antibody preparation specific for hen egg lysosome (HEL) is treated with papain to generate Fab fragments, which of the following statements concerning the avidity of such fragments is true? | They will have a lower avidity for HEL as compared with the intact IgG. |
| The class-specific antigenic determinants (epitopes) of immunoglobulins are associated with A) L chains. B) J chains. C) disulfide bonds. D) H chains. E) variable regions. | H chains. |
| The idiotype of an antibody molecule is determined by the amino acid sequence of the A) constant region of the L chain. B) variable region of the L chain. D) constant regions of the H and L chains. E) variable regions of the H and L chains | variable regions of the H and L chains. |
| Injection into rabbits of a preparation of pooled human IgG could stimulate production of A) anti-g heavy-chain antibody. B) anti-k chain antibody. C) anti-l chain antibody. D) anti-Fc antibody. E) All are correct | All are correct. |
| A polyclonal antiserum raised against pooled human IgA will react with A) human IgM. B) k light chains. C) human IgG. D) J chain. E) All are correct. | All are correct. |
| An individual heterologous for IgG1 allotypes 3 and 1 The different possible IgG1 antibodies produced by this individual will never have A) two H chains of allotype 1 C) two H chains of allotype D) two H chains, one of allotype 3 and one of 1 | two H chains, one of allotype 3 and one of 1. (Chains must be identical) |
| Papain digestion of an IgG preparation of antibody specific for the antigen hen egg albumin (HEA) will B) precipitate with HEA. C) lose all interchain disulfide bonds. D) produce two Fab molecules and one Fc fragment. E) None of the above. | produce two Fab molecules and one Fc fragment. So nothing will precipitate because no cross linking occurs |
| The first immunoglobulin synthesized by the fetus is A) IgA. B) IgE. C) IgG. D) IgM. E) None; the fetus does not synthesize immunoglobulins. | None, the fetus does not synthesize immunoglobulins. |
| The following properties of human IgG are true except: C) Its half-life is approximately 23 days. D) It induces the formation of leukocytes. E) It participates in the activation of complement. F) It has the longest half-life of all Ig isotopes. | It induces the formation of leukocytes. |
| The relative level of specific IgM antibodies can be of diagnostic significance because | relatively high levels of IgM often correlate with a first recent exposure to the inducing agent. |
| The primary and secondary antibody responses differ in | A) the predominant isotype generated. B) the number of lymphocytes responding to antigen. C) the speed at which antibodies appear in the serum. D) the biologic functions manifested by the Ig isotypes produced. |
| Serum from a patient is analyzed by serum protein electrophoresis. The gamma globulin peak is twenty times lower than that of a normal healthy individual. A)Normal B) B cell immunodeficeiny c)autoimmune disease D)Myeloma protein | this result may indicate a B cell immunodeficiency |
| The earliest stages of B-cell differentiation C) involve rearrangement of -chain gene segments. D) involve rearrangement of surrogate light-chain gene segments. E) involve rearrangement of heavy-chain gene segments. | ) involve rearrangement of heavy-chain gene segments. |
| Which of the following is NOT expressed on the surface of the mature B lymphocyte? A) CD40 B) MHC class II molecules C) FasL D) IgM and IgD E) CD32 | Fas L |
| T/F , Synthesis of antibody in a secondary response occurs predominantly in the blood | False |
| T/F, ) Antibodies in a secondary immune response generally have a higher affinity for antigen than antibodies formed in a primary response. | true |
| T,F ) Somatic hypermutation of V region genes may contribute to changes in antibody affinity observed during secondary responses. | True |
| T,F) Isotype switching occurs in the presence of antigen. | True |
| Immature B lymphocytes B) are progenitors of T as well as B lymphocytes. C) express both IgM and IgD D) are at a stage of development where contact with antigen may lead to unresponsiveness. E) must go through the thymus to mature. | are at a stage of development where contact with antigen may lead to unresponsiveness. and deletion has gene edting cause them to recognize self |
| Antigen binding to the B-cell receptor A) tranduce sugnal via A binding chain B) activates B cell C)tranduces signal via I alpha and Beya D) results in marcophage activity E)lead to cytokine synthesis then T cell activation | transduces a signal through the Ig and Ig molecules |
| Which of the following would not be found on a memory B cell: A) Ig and Ig B) heavy chains C) heavy chains D) surrogate light chains E) light chains | suurogate late chain ( only one pre B cell stage) |
| In B cell development when the heavy chain first rearranges it may be expressed on the cell surface prior to light chain rearrangement. If this occurs, the heavy chain is associated with which of the following on the surface of the cell? | CLIP |
| All the following are characteristics of both MHC class I and class II molecules except: | They are expressed constitutively on all nucleated cells. (MHC II is not and is only express in APC |
| MHC class I molecules are important for which of the following? A) bind CD8 molecules T cells B) presenting exogenous antigen B cells C) presenting viral protein to apc such as macrophages D) bind to CD4 molecules on T E) bind to Ig on B | binding to CD8 molecules on T cells |
| Which of the following is incorrect concerning MHC class II molecules? | MHC class II molecules are associated with 2-microglobulin on the cell surface. ( microglobin applies to MHC I , CLIp would be the one assoicted with MHC 2 |
| Products of TAP-1 and -2 genes A) bind 2-microglobulin. B) prevent peptide binding to MHC molecules. C) are part of the proteasome. D) transport peptides into the er binding to MHC I. E) transport peptides into the erfor binding to MHC II. | transport peptides into the endoplasmic reticulum for binding to MHC class I. |
| Which of the following statements about the MHC is incorrect? A) codes for complement components. B) codes for both chains of the M I . C) codes for both chains of the M II. E) The total set of MHC alleles is the MHC haplotype. | It codes for complement componets |
| When the sequences of different MHC class I molecules are compared, the variation between molecules is concentrated within which of the following? | Areas of the molecule that bind to the T cell receptor and to the antigenic peptide ( microglobin is for stability and folding,transmembrance of the alpha bind the cell to the surface and B1 and CD4 binding is MHC II |
| Cell-mediated immune responses are A) enhanced by depletion of complement. B) suppressed by cortisone. C) enhanced by depletion of T cells. D) suppressed by antihistamine. E) enhanced by depletion of macrophages. | B) suppressed by cortisone. |
| Delayed skin reactions to an intradermal injection of antigen may be decreased by A) exposure to a high dose of X-irradiation. B) treat with antihistamines. C) treat with an antineutrophil serum. D) removal of the spleen. E) decreasing complement. | exposure to a high dose of X-irradiation. ( and to a safer extent antihistamines |
| Patients with DiGeorge syndrome who survive beyond infancy would be capable of A) rejecting a bone marrow transplant. C) resisting intracellular parasites. D) forming antibody to T-dependent antigens. E) All of the above | None of the above |
| Which of the following statements is characteristic of contact sensitivity? | D) Some chemicals acting as haptens induce sensitivity by covalently binding to host proteins acting as carriers. |
| Serum sickness occurs only A) when anti-basement membrane antibodies are present. B) in cases of extreme excess of antibody. C) when IgE antibody is produced. D) when soluble immune complexes are formed. E) in the absence of neutrophils. | D) when soluble immune complexes are formed. |
| Immune complexes are involved in the pathogenesis of Immune complexes are involved in the pathogenesis A) poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis. B) pigeon breeder's disease. C) serum sickness. | Serum sickness |
| Which of the following does not involve cell-mediated immunity? A) contact sensitivity to lipstick B) rejection of a liver graft C) serum sickness D) tuberculin reaction E) immunity to chicken pox | Serum sickness |
| The glomerular lesions in immune complex disease can be visualized microscopically with a fluorescent antibody against | immunoglobulin or complement (C3) |
| The lesions in immune complex-induced glomerulonephritis A) are dependent on erythrocytes and complement. B) result in increased production of urine. C) require both complement and neutrophils. E) require all nine components of complement. | both complement and neutrophils |
| Complement is required for A) lysis of erythrocytes by lecithinase. B) NK-mediated lysis of tumor cells. C) phagocytosis. D) bacteriolysis by specific antibodies. E) All of the above. | All of the above |
| Deficiencies in what complement is associated with the development of Sytemic lupus erythematosus | Complements C1,C4 and C2 |
| Active fragments of C5 can lead to the following, except A) contraction of smooth muscle. B) vasodilation. C) attraction of leukocytes. D) attachment of lymphocytes to macrophages. E) All of the above. | Attraction of lymphocytes to macrophages |
| The alternative pathway of complement activation is characterized by the functions listed below, except A) activation of complement components beyond C3 in the cascade. B) participation of properdin. C) generation of anaphylatoxin. D) use of C1 | Use of C1 |
| The following activate(s) the alternative pathway of complement: A) lipopolysaccharides B) some viruses and virus-infected cells C) fungal and yeast cell walls (zymosin) D) many strains of gram-positive bacteria E) all of the above. | All of the above |
| An antigen—antibody immune complex in a C3-deficient individual will still result in A) anaphylatoxin production. B) depression of factor B. C) production of chemotactic factors. D) activation of C1 E) activation of C5. | Activation of C1 ( classical pathway) |
| Epinephrine A) causes bronchodilation. B) is effective even after anaphylactic symptoms commence. C) relaxes smooth muscle. D) decreases vascular permeability. E) All of the above | All of the above |
| Which of the following clinical diseases is most likely to involve a reaction to a hapten in its etiology? A) Goodpasture's syndrome B) hemolytic anemia after treatment with penicillin C) rheumatoid arthritis D) farmer's lung E) Arthus reaction | hemolytic anemia after treatment with penicillin |
| IgA antibody to a rbc antigen is unlikely to cause autoimmune hemolytic anemia A) it would be made only in the gastrointestinal tract B) its Fc region would not bind receptors for Fc on phagocytes D)oo-low affinity E)secretory component | its Fc region would not bind receptors for Fc on phagocytic cells. |
| The glomerular lesions in immune complex disease can be visualized microscopically with a fluorescent antibody against | C3 |
| Which complement-mediated function would remain intact in absence of C3? A) lysis of bacteria B) opsonization of bacteria C) generation of anaphylatoxins D) generation of neutrophil chemotactic factors | None |
| 2. Which of the following statements about interleukin 2 (IL-2) is incorrect? A) produced primarily by activated macrophages. B) produced by CD4+ T cells. C) It can induce the proliferation of CD4+ T cells. E) active cd8T cell with antigen | primarily produced by activated macrophages |
| Which of the following statements about cytokines synthesized by CD4+ TH1 and TH2 subsets is incorrect? | TH2 cells secrete cytokines that activate CD8 + T cells. |
| What primarily produces IL- and IL-5 | CD4+ T helper 2 (Th2) cells |
| What produces IL 1 cells | macrophages, monocytes, and dendritic cells. |
| What produces IL-2 cells | CD4+ T cells (primarily) secondarily - CD8+ T cells, natural killer (NK) cells, and regulatory T cells |
| What produces IL-3 | Activated T cells, mast cells, and eosinophils |
| When antigen binds to the T cell receptor, which of the following is involved in signal transduction? A) CD3 B) CD21 C) LFA-1 (CD11a/CD18) D) Ig/Ig (CD79,) | CD3 |
| Which of the following statements is incorrect? A) Interact of Fas and FasL can lead to apoptosis. B) Fas and Fas L can be expressed on activated T cells. C) Fas and Fas L can be expressed on B cells. D) Cells in i privileged sites can express FasL. | Both Fas and Fas L can be expressed on B cells. |
| Which of the following is incorrect concerning immune tolerance? A) Tolerance induction is antigenic C) Tolerance can be induced in both young and old individuals. D) Immature neutrophils are more susceptible to tolerance than mature neutrophils. | Immature neutrophils are more susceptible to tolerance than mature neutrophils. |
| Blocking of ______________________________ does not result in peripheral tolerance | negative selection of thymocytes. |
| Blocking of what process result in peripheral tolerance of T cells | the interaction of costimulatory molecules on T cells with their ligands on APC. intracellular signal transduction mechanisms. activation of the IL-2 gene. the binding of antigen with MHC molecules. |
| An individual with a defect in CTLA-4 (CD152) will be most likely to have which of the following? A) Type I hypersensitivity C) recurrent Neisseria infections B) immunodeficiency D) lymphoproliferative disease | lymphoproliferative disease |
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