Save
Upgrade to remove ads
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or

Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

Anatomy Week 1-7

Nightingale College Test Prep Questions

QuestionAnswer
The sternal region is ________ to the scapular region. Anterior
Physiology is defined as the study of the _____ of a living organism. Function
A coronal section through the human body can... pass through both ears.
Which branch of anatomy studies the structural changes that occur as one ages? Developmental Anatomy
The ________ system is involved in immunity. Lymphatic
The dorsal body cavity is subdivided into a cranial cavity and a spinal cavity. (T/F) True
Which structure is located entirely within the right upper quadrant? Gallbladder
The space that encloses the brain and spinal cord forms one continuous cavity called the _____ cavity. Dorsal
The knee is ________ to the foot. Proximal
The chest is ________ to the abdomen. Superior
Atoms with fewer than eight electrons in the outer energy level will attempt to lose, gain, or share electrons with other atoms to achieve stability. This tendency is called the... octet rule.
For sodium to transform from a neutral atom to a positive ion, it must: lose an electron.
What term is used to describe all of the chemical reactions that occur in body cells? Metabolism
Which subatomic particles carry a charge? Protons and Electrons
The most abundant element essential to life is... carbon.
The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen needed to form water is an example of a: synthesis reaction.
A molecule that is polar: can form a hydrogen bond AND has an unequal charge.
The total number of electrons in a neutral atom equals the number of: protons in its nucleus.
A chemical bond formed by the sharing of one or more pairs of electrons between the outer shells of two atoms is called a(n) _____ bond. covalent
Ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the: transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
The gluteal region is ________ to the popliteal region. superior
_____ refers to an inner region of an organ, whereas _____ refers to an outer region or layer of an organ. Medullary; cortical
Another name for the midsagittal plane is median
Anatomy is defined as the study of the _____ of a living organism. structure
The body as a whole can be subdivided into two major divisions. They are axial and appendicular
The abdominopelvic cavity is subdivided into the _____ cavities. abdominal and pelvic
An example of a tissue in the body is epithelium
As an anatomical region, lumbar refers to the infero-medial aspect of the back
The brain is ________ to the skull. deep
Muscles are ________ to the skin. deep
Regarding directional terms, superior means toward the head.
Which organ is not found in the ventral body cavity? spinal cord
The plane that divides the body into front and back portions is the _____ plane. coronal
A frontal plane is the same as a ________ plane. coronal
The body as a whole can be subdivided into two major divisions. They are axial and appendicular
The inguinal region lies where the thigh joins the trunk
A sagittal section divides the body into _____ portions. right and left
Popliteal refers to the: area behind the knee.
The smallest living units of structure and function in the body are: cells
Which of the following does not describe anatomical position? Arms extended from the shoulders, palms up
The number of abdominal regions is: nine
A surgeon removing a gallbladder should know to find it in the _____ region. right hypochondriac
The lungs are located in the: thoracic cavity.
Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum are examples of: organelles
Blood production is a function of which system? Skeletal
The structure that is called the “powerhouse” of the cell is the: mitochondria
When many similar cells specialize to perform a certain function, it is referred to as a(n): tissue
The plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts is the _____ plane. transverse
The reproductive system includes all of the following except the: (testes/ovaries/ureter/penis). ureter
If your reference point is “farthest from the trunk of the body” versus “nearest to the trunk of the body,” where does the knee lie in relation to the ankle? Proximal
The abdominopelvic cavity contains all of the following except the: (stomach/pancreas/heart/reproductive organs) heart
What is the anatomical direction term that means nearer the surface? Superficial
An x-ray technician has been asked to make x-ray films of the liver. Which of the abdominopelvic regions must be included? Right hypochondriac, epigastric, and left hypochondriac
A plane through the body that divides the body into right and left sides is called: sagittal
From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are: chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism.
A frontal section divides the body into _____ portions. front and back
An organization of many similar cells that are specialized to perform a certain function is called a(n): tissue
The gallbladder lies in the: abdominal cavity
The mediastinum contains all of the following except the: right lung
Molecules are: atoms combined to form larger chemical aggregates.
Several kinds of tissues working together are termed a(n): organ
The abdominal quadrants are located with what structure as their midpoint? Umbilicus
Two major cavities of the human body are: ventral/dorsal.
An organ is one organizational level higher than a(n): tissue
A plane through the body that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is: coronal
Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of life? Balance
The element oxygen has an atomic number of 8, which means it contains: eight protons
Which type of chemical reaction results in the breakdown of a complex substance into two or more simpler substances? decomposition reaction
A substance that cannot be broken down or decomposed into two or more different substances is called a(n) element
The water molecule has two distinct ends, each with a partial electrical charge. Because of this structure, water is said to be polar
Hydrolysis _____ a water molecule. breaks down compounds by adding
The type of chemical reaction most likely to require energy is a(n) _____ reaction. synthesis
Which of the following is not a subatomic particle? Radon
Chemical bonds formed by the sharing of electrons are called: covalent
The atomic number tells you the number of protons in the nucleus.
An element that contains the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons is called a(n) isotope
As a result of which reaction during catabolism is a water molecule added to break a larger compound into smaller subunits? hydrolysis
Salts: can form as the result of a chemical reaction between acids and bases, are electrolytes, and will form crystals if the water is removed
A force holding two atoms together is a(n) chemical bond.
As the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) increases, the: solution becomes more basic and pH rises
A weak acid: dissociates very little in solution.
Acids release hydrogen ions (H+).
Electrolytes are: called cations if they have a positive charge.
What decomposition reaction requires the addition of a water molecule to break a bond? hydrolysis
The elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen make up which percentage of the human body? 96%
Acids, bases, and salts belong to a large group of compounds called electrolytes
An atom can be described as chemically inert if its outermost electron shell contains _____ electrons. eight
Hydrogen bonds result from unequal charge distribution on a molecule. Such molecules are said to be polar
As the concentration of hydrogen ions increases, the pH goes _____, and the solution becomes more _____. down; acidic
The octet rule refers to the: stability of the atom when there are eight electrons in the outermost energy level.
Which of the following is not one of the major elements present in the human body? (oxygen/zinc/carbon/potassium) Zinc
A solution that contains a greater concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) than hydrogen ions (H+) is a(n) _____ solution. alkaline (basic)
In the presence of a base, red litmus paper will: turn blue
An example of an element would be: Ne
The process of the digestion of food is an example of which type of reaction? Decomposition
The approximate pH of gastric fluid is: 2
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: dehydration synthesis.
A magnesium atom has an atomic number of 12, an atomic mass of 25, and a +2 charge. This atom would contain _____ protons, _____ neutrons, and _____ electrons. 12; 13; 10
A negatively charged subatomic particle that moves around the nucleus is a(n): electron
The most abundant and important compound(s) in the body is(are): water
When atoms combine, they may gain, lose, or share: electrons
The atomic number of carbon is 6. How many unpaired electrons are in its outer shell? Four
The hydrogen isotope tritium consists of: one proton and two neutrons.
Carbon has an atomic number of 6. The number of electrons found in the first shell is: two
Which of the following elements is least likely to combine with another element? (hydrogen/helium/oxygen/carbon) helium
An ionic bond is formed by: a positive and a negative ion attracting each other.
The type of reaction in which substances are combined to form more complex substances is called a(n) _____ reaction. synthesis
An example of a catabolic process is: hydrolysis
Which of the following represents properties of water? high specific heat, high heat of vaporization, strong polarity
The study of metabolism includes examination of: catabolism, anabolism, ATP requirements
Approximately what percentage of the body weight of an adult female is water? 50%
Substances that accept hydrogen ions are called: bases
Which of the following bonds are the weakest? (ionic/hydrogen/electrovalent/covalent) hydrogen
The kind of element is determined by the number of: protons
As the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) increases, the: solution becomes more acidic.
An isotope of an element contains different numbers of ____ from other atoms of the same element. neutrons
Which of the following represents a trace element in the body? Iron
AB + CD → AD + CB is an example of a(n) _____ reaction. exchange
Acids: are proton donors, taste sour, and release hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution
Atomic mass is determined by the number of: protons and neutrons.
Often referred to as the “power plant” of the cell, which organelle is the site of ATP production? mitochondrion
Which of the following is a type of cell extension that lines the intestines and other areas of the body? (cilia, flagella, microvilli, microfilaments) microvilli
Cisternae of this organelle are continuous with the nuclear envelope. rough endoplasmic reticulum
Ribosomes are organelles that float in the cytoplasm and attach to the endoplasmic reticulum.
Of the following, the only organelle that has a double membrane structure is the (mitochondria, golgi apparatus, endoplasmic reticulum, centriole) mitochondrion
In the matrix of the plasma membrane, a variety of proteins are embedded. Some of these proteins serve as passageway for Na+ ions or glucose. These proteins are called transport proteins
Phospholipids of the plasma membrane are arranged as a bilayer with their nonpolar tails sandwiched between the polar heads
Which area of the cytoplasm near the nucleus coordinates the building and breaking of microtubules in the cell? centrosome
A spherical membrane-bound structure that contains the genetic material of the cell and is often referred to as the “command center” of the cell is the nucleus
Ribosomes may be either free within the cytoplasm or bound to a membrane system known as the rough endoplasmic reticulum
The outer boundary of a human cell is called the plasma membrane
Which of the following statements about integral proteins in the plasma membrane is false? (Some attach to the glycocalyx/Most extend all the way through the membrane/They are more abundant by volume than the membrane phospholipids. ) They are more abundant by volume than the membrane phospholipids.
This organelle has both a cis and a trans face. Golgi apparatus
This organelle is characterized by folded membranes called cristae. mitochondria
This membranous organelle contains oxidase and catalase enzymes. peroxisome
This organelle is primarily a sac of powerful digestive enzymes called acid hydrolases. lysosome
Which of the following cytoskeleton elements are the largest in diameter? (intermediate filaments/microfilaments/centrioles/microtubles) microtubules (microfilaments->intermediary filaments->microtubles)
This organelle primarily modifies products from the rough ER, and it resembles a stack of hollow saucers, one cupped inside the next. Golgi apparatus
This organelle is numerous in liver and kidney cells. peroxisome
Which of the following is not a cytoskeleton element? (intermediate filament/microfilament/centriole/microtuble) centriole
The inside of the cell is composed largely of a gel-like substance called cytoplasm
This membranous organelle is the site of protein synthesis for proteins that are secreted by the cell. rough endoplasmic reticulum
The plasma membrane is composed of all of the following except (phospholipids/cholesterol/glycoproteins/tubulin protein) tubulin protein
A major function of the cell membrane is to control what enters and leaves the cell
Which type of junction is formed when membrane channels of adjacent plasma membranes adhere to each other? gap junction
Skin cells (epithelial) are held tightly together by: desmosomes
Which of the following is not true about ribosomes? (Contain protein/Composed of a large unit and a small unit/Surrounded by a membrane structure/Contain RNA) Surrounded by a membrane structure
Which cell extension lacks a central pair of microtubules, is not found in blood cells, and functions in the kidney to monitor urine flow? Primary cilium
The barrier function of the plasma membrane is accomplished by the: phospholipid bilayer
The nucleolus is composed chiefly of: rRNA
The structure in cells that is associated with the enzymatic breakdown (digestion) of foreign material is the: lysosome
Which of the following is not a function of the integral membrane proteins? (Acting as receptors/Signal transduction/Identification of "self"/All of the above) All of the above are functions of the integral membrane proteins.
Rafts are stiff groupings of membrane molecules. What is their function? Help organize the various components of the plasma membrane, Play an important role in the pinching of a parent cell into two daughter cells, Sometimes allow the cell to form depressions that form a means of carrying substances into the cell
Which organelles consist of vesicles that have pinched off from the Golgi apparatus? Lysosomes
Which of the following recognize and destroy nonself cells? (gland cell/immune cells/nerve cells/red blood cells) Immune Cells
Main cell structures include all of the following except: (organelles, plasma membrane, interstitial fluid, cytoplasm) interstitial fluid
The fundamental organizational unit of life is the: cell
Which of the following is not a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? (Provides a site for ribosome attachment Supplies membrane for use throughout the cell/Makes steroid hormones/Makes glycoproteins) Provides a site for ribosome attachment
Which are the organelles that allow for the recycling of amino acids in the cell? (Peroxisomes/Mitochondria/Ribosomes/Proteasomes) Proteasomes
The largest human cell, measuring about 150 μm, is a: female sex cell or ovum
Granules or threads within the nucleus are called: chromatin
Which of the following organelles is considered a nonmembranous organelle? (Golgi apparatus/Ribosome/Mitochondria) Ribosome
The inner membrane of what double-membrane structure is contorted into folds called cristae? Mitochondrion
The ____ is often called the microtubule organizing center. centrosome
A list of the cell fibers from largest to smallest would read: microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments.
The cell extension that contains microfilaments is called: microvilli
Which of the following is not true of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? (It makes lipids and carbohydrates/It is made of broad, flattened sacs/It has many ribosomes attached to it/All of the above are true of rough endoplasmic reticulum.) It makes lipids and carbohydrates.
Damage to the centrosome and centrioles in a cell would have the greatest impact on which cell function? Cell division
DNA is a major constituent of which cell organelle? Nucleus
The structure that separates the contents of a cell from the surrounding tissue is known as: plasma membrane
The membranous structure containing substances that protect the cell from harm are: lysosomes and peroxisomes
ATP production occurs within which organelle? Mitochondrion
Tiny indentations of the plasma membrane that resemble caves are called: caveolae
The cell extension that assists epithelial cells in absorption is called: microvilli
Which cell fiber serves as part of our “cellular muscles?” Microfilament
The enzyme catalase is an important chemical in the functioning of the: peroxisomes
Which organelle processes and packages material to be secreted? Golgi apparatus
What are the structures or functions of the proteasome? Breaking down abnormal and misfolded proteins released from the ER, Looks like a hollow cylindrical drum made of protein subunits, Requires the small protein called ubiquitin to pull proteins in
Projections from the cell that move materials and mucus are called: cilia
The identification function of the cell membrane is carried out by the: glycoprotein molecules
Which of the following contains intercalated disks? (smooth muscle/striated muscle/cardiac muscle/blood) cardiac muscle
Stratified squamous (keratinized) epithelial cells are found in the epidermis
The structure that lies deep to the dermis and forms a connection between the skin and the underlying structures of the body is the hypodermis
Cells in a tissue are surrounded by or embedded in a complex extracellular material called a matrix
The epidermis is composed of several types of epithelial cells. One type, called keratinocytes, become filled with a tough, fibrous protein called keratin
The fluid environment that fills the spaces between the cells of the body is called extracellular matrix
The union of basal and fibroreticular laminae forms the basement membrane
A lubricating substance produced by goblet cells is called mucus
The skin glands include three kinds of microscopic glands. They are the __________ glands. sweat, sebaceous, and ceruminous
The conducting unit of the nerve tissue is the neuron
Which of the following is an example of a serous membrane? (pleura/peritoneum/pericardium/all of the above) All of these are examples of a serous membrane.
All glands in the body can be classified as either exocrine or endocrine
Adipose tissue is a storage tissue (for fat)
Which is the most superficial layer of the epidermis? stratum corneum (stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum are all 5 layers in order)
The mixed secretions of sebaceous and ceruminous glands form a brown waxy substance called the cerumen
Besides water, extracellular matrix contains proteins and proteoglycans
Each hair follicle has a small bundle of involuntary muscles attached to it called the arrector pili muscle
The most abundant and widespread tissue in the body is connective
Which of the following is not a principal type of tissue? (cardiac, epithelial, nervous, connective, muscle) cardiac
The External Ear is composed of what type of cartilage? elastic cartilage
The _____ junction “glues” the epidermis and dermis together and provides mechanical support for the epidermis. dermoepidermal
Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue? (cardiac, blood, adipose, cartilage) cardiac
Around the sixth month of pregnancy, the developing fetus is almost entirely covered by a fine soft hair coat called the lanugo
The two major categories of body membranes are epithelial and connective
The connective tissue membranes that line the spaces between bones and joints are called _____ membranes. synovial
Which of the following tissues lacks a direct blood supply and consequently heals very slowly? (bone, muscle, adipose, cartilage) cartilage
Of the many different kinds of protein compounds in the body, which is the most abundant? collagen
Which of the following is not a primary germ layer? (endoderm, ectoderm, mesoderm, epiderm) epiderm
The basic determinant of skin color is melanin
The two main layers that compose the skin are the dermis and epidermis
The strongest and most durable type of cartilage is fibrocartilage
Which of the following contains osteocytes? bone
Which type of tissue has cube-shaped cells and can be found lining the kidney tubules? simple cuboidal epithelium
The dermis is composed of two layers, a thin papillary layer and a thick _____ layer. reticular
Which principal type of tissue covers and protects body surfaces and lines body cavities? epithelial
Bone marrow is a specialized type of soft, diffuse connective tissue called myeloid tissue
Which lower leg bone is smaller and is located laterally? fibula
Which of the following is a facial bone? (zygomatic bone, occipital bone, parietal bone, all of the above) zygomatic bone
Cartilage is classified as _____ tissue. connective
Compact bone contains many cylinder-shaped structural units called osteons
Anteriorly, each rib of the first seven pairs attaches to the sternum
Which of the following is not a type of bone? (flat, irregular, short, long, regular) regular
The extracellular components of bone matrix are hard and calcified
What structures normally hold the foot bones firmly in their arched positions? ligaments and tendons
Which of these pelvic bones is the most anteriorly placed? pubis
The main shaft-like portion of a long bone is the diaphysis
Which of the following is not a bone in the leg? (mandible, femur, fibula, tibia) mandible
Which two bones compose the shoulder girdle? clavicle and scapula
Which two bones join to form the posterior part of the hard palate? palatine
The vertebral bones that support the small (lower section) of the back are the lumbar vertebrae
The human skeleton system consists of two divisions. They are axial and appendicular
The largest sesamoid bone in the body is the patella
Fibrocartilage can be found in the pubis symphysis
The bone that claims the distinction of being the only bone in the body that articulates with no other bones is the hyoid
If you are working on an archeological dig and find the remains of a human pelvis with a subpubic angle of 110 degrees, you can assume that this pelvis belongs to a (male or female) female
The joint between the pubic portions of each coxal bone is the pubic symphysis
Spongy bone is characterized by open spaces partially filled by an assemblage of needle-like structures.
The dense, white fibrous membrane that covers bone except at joint surfaces is the periosteum
Which of the following bones form the framework of the hand? (metacarpals, metatarsals, carpals, and tarsals metacarpals
Why are the last two pairs of false ribs designated as floating ribs? Floating ribs do not attach even indirectly to the sternum.
The very small bone that lies just posterior and lateral to each nasal bone is the lacrimal
The medial part of the anterior chest wall is supported by a dagger-shaped bone called the sternum
Which of the following is(are) not in the appendicular skeleton? (vertebrae, tarsals, femur, clavicle) vertebrae
_____ fibers are present in all three types of cartilage, but they are most numerous in fibrocartilage. Collagenous
The most common type of cartilage is hyaline
The term _____ is used to describe a muscle that directly performs a specific movement. agonist
The innermost muscle of the abdominal wall is the transverse abdominis.
The common tendon of the gastrocnemius and soleus is called the calcaneal tendon (achilles tendon)
Muscles with this type of muscle fascicle arrangement are either fusiform or straplike in appearance. parallel
The individual muscle fibers are covered by a connective tissue membrane called the endomysium
The point of attachment that does not move when the muscle contracts is the origin
The long axes of the fascicles run parallel to the long axis of the muscle is a description of this type of fascicle arrangement. parallel
A muscle with fascicles that insert into only one side of the tendon is categorized as unipennate
In addition to the Pectoralis major, another muscle that displays this pattern of fascicle arrangement is Latissimus dorsi. convergent
An example of a muscle with this type of fascicle arrangement is the orbicularis oris. circular
The Sartorius muscle, a thin straplike muscle would have muscle fascicles arranged in parallel
The fibrous connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle and is outside the epimysium and tendon is called the fascia
This arrangement of muscle fascicles tends to be triangular in shape. The Pectoralis major is an example of a muscle with this type of muscle fascicle arrangement. convergent
The muscle fascicle arrangement for Orbicularis oris is best characterized as circular
The continuous low level of sustained contraction maintained by all skeletal muscles is muscle tone
A muscle with fascicles that insert into the tendon from both sidesis categorized as bipennate
The biceps brachii has this fascicle arrangement, which maximizes the range of motion possible. parallel
Muscles that move the wrist, hand, and fingers can be extrinsic or intrinsic
The muscle that helps hold the scapula against the thorax and is useful in pushing or punching movements is the serratus anterior
Muscles that move the forearm include which of the following? (brachioradialis, pronator teres, biceps brachii, all of the above) All of these are correct.
The Achilles tendon is common to both the gastrocnemius and the soleus. (T/F) True
The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the: latissimus dorsi
The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. Its fibers run parallel to the body. Which of the following terms might be part of its name? Flexor
The pectoralis major muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. convergent
The action of the brachialis muscle is to _____ the forearm. flex
Another name for a skeletal muscle cell is a(n): muscle fiber
The muscle that allows the thumb to be drawn across the palm to touch the tip of any finger is the: opponens pollicis
The latissimus dorsi muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. spiral
In pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following muscles is least utilized? (Triceps Brachii, Biceps Brachii, Deltoid) Biceps Brachii
Muscles located on the lower leg move the: foot
When an athlete injures a muscle of the hamstring group, the injury is on the: posterior thigh
What do the muscles do to the thorax when breathing? When the diaphragm contracts, it decreases the volume of the thoracic cavity and expels air from the lungs
The muscle that flexes the semipronated or semisupinated forearm is the: brachioradialis
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of a muscle named for its: points of attachment
The muscle that raises or lowers the shoulders or shrugs them is the: trapezius
The origin of a muscle is on the femur, and the insertion is on the tibia. When it contracts, it bends the knee. What is the knee doing? The knee is acting as a fulcrum.
The most common type of lever in the body is a _____-class lever. third
Skeletal muscles constitute approximately ____ of our body weight. 50%
The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the: triceps brachii
The teres major and teres minor muscles move the: arm
What is true about the muscles of the head? They are paired muscles. They have different actions depending on whether one or both parts of the pair contract.
The flexor muscles that move the fingers are mostly located on the: anterior medial surface of the forearm
Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the thigh? (Adductor Longus, Gracilis, Iliopsoas, Sacrospinalis) Sacrospinalis
Muscles that move the upper arm originate on the: clavicle and scapula
Which of the following muscles has fibers on a transverse plane? (rectus abdominis, external oblique, transverse abdominis, internal intercostals) transverse abdominis
Which of the following body systems assists the muscles in maintaining posture? (digestive, endocrine, excretory, all of the above) all of the above
Which of the following is not a group of pennate muscles? (bipennate, tripennate, multipennate, all are correct) tripennate
Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the foot? (sartorius, peroneus longus, tibialis anterior, soleus) sartorius
There are more than 600 muscles in the body. (T/F) True
Muscles may be named according to: function, direction of fibers, and points of attachment
All of the following muscles are part of the rotator cuff muscles except the: (deltoid, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, teres minor) deltoid
Moving from superficial to deep, the connective tissue components would be: epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
Muscles that contract at the same time as the prime mover are called: synergists & fixators (is a type of synergist)
Which of the following is not a posterior muscle that acts on the shoulder girdle? (trapezius, levator scapulae, rhomboideus) Pectoralis minor
The covering of individual muscle fibers is the: endomysium
Another name for a sphincter muscle is a _____ muscle. circular
A muscle that assists with mastication is the: masseter (mastication means "to chew" food)
The soleus muscle is an example of a _____ muscle. pennate
Groups of skeletal muscle fibers are bound together by a connective tissue envelope called the: perimysium
The somatic nervous system carries information to the skeletal muscles
The _____ nervous system is a complex network of nerve pathways embedded in the intestinal wall with a network of integrators and feedback loops that can act somewhat independently. enteric
This tends to be the longest cytoplasmic projection from a neuron. axon
Bundles of myelinated fibers make up the white matter of the nervous system.
The _____ of a neuron is a single process that usually extends from a tapered portion of the cell body. axon
These regions of the neuron direct electrical currents toward the cell body. dendrite (telodendrites are at the end of the axon)
The structural and functional center of the entire nervous system is the _____ nervous system. central (CNS)
What term describes the bundles of nerve fibers within the central nervous system? tracts
Excitable cells that conduct the impulses are called neurons
What structure of the Schwann cell is essential to normal nerve growth and the regeneration of injured nerve fibers? neurilemma
What capacity do neurons have to heal themselves? very limited capacity to repair themselves
The ________ of a presynaptic neuron associates with the dendrite of a postsynaptic neuron. axon terminal
The efferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into the __________ divisions. parasympathetic and sympathetic (Efferent = "ew" away & Afferent = "aja" come)
Which of the following is not a structural classification of neurons? (bipolar, unipolar, multipolar, polar) polar
Chemical signals diffuse between neurons at this location. synapse (where two neurons come together and exchange information)
A signal conduction route to and from the central nervous system is a(n) reflex arc
Which of these glia cells are located in the peripheral nervous system? (astrocytes, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes, Schwann cells, microglia) Schwann cells
The glia cells that help form the blood-brain barrier are the astrocytes
This is the site of communication between neurons. synapse
Nerves that originate from the brain are called _____ nerves. cranial
Along a neuron, the correct pathway for impulse conduction is: dendrite, cell body, and axon
The efferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system consist of the ________ nervous systems. sympathetic and parasympathetic
Astrocytes attach to: neurons and blood vessels
The nervous system can be divided: according to its structure, according to the direction of information flow, and by the control of effectors
The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate: skeletal muscles
Fascicles are held together by a connective tissue layer called the: perineurium
In the human nervous system, what is the ratio of glia cells compared to neurons? there are almost equal numbers of glia cells and neurons
Interneurons reside in the: CNS only
Most unipolar neurons are usually: sensory neurons
The afferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system: carry feedback information to integrating centers in the brain
The white matter of the nervous system is made up of: myelinated fibers
One of the components of the blood-brain barrier is: astrocytes
Which of the following compounds cannot cross the blood-brain barrier? (water, carbon dioxide, glucose, or dopamine) dopamine
Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of: cell bodies
Regeneration of nerve fibers will take place only if the cell body is intact and the fibers have: a neurilemma
What is true about the myelin sheath? It is associated with white fibers in the brain, It is important for nerve impulse conduction, It is destroyed in those with multiple sclerosis
Nerves that contain mostly afferent fibers are called _____ nerves. sensory
Dendrites conduct impulses _____ cell bodies. toward
Schwann cells have a function in the PNS that is similar to that of which cells in the CNS? Oligodendrocytes (only found in the CNS and are not found in the PNS)
Small distinct regions of gray matter in the CNS are called: nuclei
The part of the nervous system that transmits impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscle is the: somatic nervous system
What are the functions of the central nervous system (CNS)? Integrating sensory information, Evaluating the information, Initiating an outgoing response
Multipolar neurons have: multiple dendrites and one axon
Which of the following is the deepest connective tissue layer of a nerve? (endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium, fascicle) Endoneurium
What is the nervous system organized to do? Detect changes in the external environment, Detect changes in the internal environment, Evaluate changes in the environment
Which is true of a reflex arc? It always consists of an afferent neuron and an efferent neuron.
A neuron that has only one axon but several dendrites is classified as a _____ neuron. multipolar
Neurons in the CNS have less chance of regenerating for all of the following reasons: there is no neurolemma in cells of the CNS and astrocytes fill in the path of regrowth
The largest and most numerous types of neuroglia are the: astrocytes
Created by: askhalsa1998
 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards