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Final Review

A&P chapter seen on tests this semester

QuestionAnswer
What is the sequence of organelles involved in milk secretion? Nucleus → Endoplasmic reticulum → Ribosomes → Golgi apparatus → Lysosomes → Plasma membrane.
What are the three main parts of a human cell? plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
The DNA damage response replaces mismatched nucleotides. True
How many codons specify the twenty types of amino acids? 61
Which of the following is an example of catabolism? The breakdown of glucose in the cytoplasm and mitochondria.
Catabolism refers to chemical reactions that release energy.
An example of an anabolic reaction is many monosaccharides bonding, forming glycogen.
In dehydration synthesis of a carbohydrate, monosaccharides are joined
Dehydration synthesis reactions _____, whereas hydrolysis reactions _____. lose H2O to form bonds/ use H2O to break bonds
Which of the following is not a characteristic of enzymes? They are most active at temperatures above 53 degrees C
One reason that protein synthesis is important is that enzymes are proteins and enzymes are essential to metabolism
An example of an anabolic reaction is Many monosaccharides bonding, forming glycogen
Anaerobic respiration occurs in _____, whereas aerobic respiration occurs in ______. cytoplasm without O2 required; mitochondria with O2 required
The metabolome includes all of the small molecules that are part of metabolism.
The enzyme catalase acts on the substrate hydrogen peroxide.
A peptide bond forms between adjacent amino acids held on a ribosome and bound to tRNAs.
Begins chapter 7 A bone shaft is the diaphysis; the expanded parts at the ends are the epiphyses. TRUE
Perforating canals form transverse channels in bone tissue. TRUE
If the supply of blood cells is deficient, yellow marrow may change into red marrow TRUE
Anemia could prompt the conversion of yellow marrow into red marrow. TRUE
Testosterone has a stronger effect on epiphyseal plates than estrogens. FALSE
Bone remodeling occurs as osteoblasts resorb bone tissue and osteoclasts replace the bone. FALSE
The small intestine requires vitamin D to adequately absorb calcium. TRUE
The thyroid gland secretes growth hormone. FALSE
Osteoclasts are , whereas osteoblasts are . bone-resorbing cells, bone-forming cells
Which of the following bone shape is stated with an incorrect example? Flat bone - thigh bone
Compact bone has ________ whereas spongy bone has ________. osteons; trabeculae
Articular cartilage is hyaline cartilage
Articular cartilage of a long bone is found on the outer surface of the epiphyses
A bone thicken as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.,
A bone lengthens as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate
Osteoblasts are ________ whereas osteocytes are ________. bone-forming cells; mature bone cells
Osteoclasts are cells that break down bone matrix
Men and women begin to lose bone at the same rate by about age 70. True
The number of bones in most people is 206. True
Lordosis is excess curvature of the thoracic part of the vertebral column. False
As a person ages, osteoblasts outnumber osteoclasts. False
Kyphosis is excess curvature of the thoracic part of the vertebral column. True
Osteoporosis is more severe than osteopenia. True
The atlas is one of the... cervical vertebrae
The parietal bones meet each other along the sagittal suture. True
What vitamin is necessary for proper absorption of calcium in the small intestines? Vitamin D
A compound fracture exposes the broken bone to the outside
At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified? 25
All of the following are functions of bones except to provide a set point for the control of blood pressure and body temperature
Which of the following is not a step in endochondral bone formation? Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue
Which of the following is not a function of bones? contraction
Begin Chapter 8/9
Joints are also called articulations.
In craniosynostosis, the bones of the skull fuse together at the sutures prematurely, causing the brain to grow abnormally. Why would this cause abnormal brain growth? The sutures are amphiarthrotic and slightly move during brain growth, so the plates of the skull can easily move to suit any direction of brain growth. Fusion at the sutures will prevent this free movement.
Types of fibrous joints include syndesmosis, suture, and gomphosis joints.
The intermediate radioulnar joint exists between the radius and the ulna. The two bones are joined together by a high-collagen sheet of dense connective tissue. This joint allows slight movements and flexibility between the two bones. A fibrous syndesmotic joint
A patient has a condition in which collagen fibers are incorrectly manufactured and are nonfunctional. Which types of joints will be most heavily affected? Syndesmosis, suture, and gomphosis joints
Suppose the pubic symphysis did not exist in the pelvic girdle and the two pubic bones were fused in the middle. Which of the following best describes the way the region would be affected if this joint was removed? Childbirth would have a high mortality risk because the pelvic girdle would be rigid and unmoving.
A suture is an example of a fibrous joint.
A tooth root attached to a jawbone by a periodontal ligament is a ________. gomphosis
The joint between adjacent vertebral bodies is a symphysis that is amphiarthrotic.
Cartilaginous joints are connected by hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage.
A fibrous joint in which an interosseous ligament binds bones is a syndesmosis.
A gomphosis is a ________ joint. fibrous
A synchondrosis allows bone growth
Which of the following is not a type of fibrous joint? Symphysis
A synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid.
If the synovial membrane could not secrete synovial fluid the cartilage contained within the capsule would not receive nutrients from synovial membrane blood vessels.
Bones of a synovial joint are held together by a joint capsule.
A joint capsule is reinforced by ligaments binding articular ends of bones together.
Fluid-filled sacs containing synovial fluid are called bursae
Which of the following is not a synovial joint? Symphysis
In which of the following is rotational movement possible? Ball-and-socket joint
Most of the joints between the short bones in the ankle and wrist are plane joints
Which of the following correctly pairs a term with its definition? Abduction—lifting the arm out to the side of the body so that it is parallel to the ground
You turn your head to look at something. What type of joint movement is this? Rotation
Displacement of a joint is dislocation
Movements permitted by the elbow joint between the humerus and the ulna are flexion and extension.
movement at the ankle that brings the foot closer to the shin Dorsiflexion
Activity and exercise keep joints functional longer.
Disuse of the joints ________, which hastens stiffening hampers blood flow
A person works an office job that requires them to be in a sitting position for 10 hours a day. They go home and sit until they go to bed. This person never exercises and rarely gets up to move around after being seated. Lack of movement hinders blood from moving through the vessels of the synovial membrane, which starves the ligaments of nutrients and causes them to lose elasticity.
Connie recently celebrated her 45th birthday. She feels okay most of the day, but in the morning, for about a half hour after she gets out of bed, all of her joints feel stiff. This is due to change in collagen structure
A muscle end attached to a less movable or relatively fixed part is called the Origin.
Which of the following best describes the causes of common forms of arthritis? Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease and osteoarthritis is caused by effects of aging.
The rotator cuff of the shoulder is composed mainly of Tendons and fibrous connective tissue.
A sprain involves Overstretched or torn ligaments and tendons in a joint.
Disuse of the joints ___________ which hastens stiffening. Hampers blood flow.
Fluid-filled sacs containing synovial fluid are called Bursae.
People with myasthenia gravis have a deficiency of Acetylcholine receptors.
Transverse tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum are well developed in Skeletal muscle fibers.
Muscle fibers are basically a collection of Sarcomeres.
A muscle fiber exposed to a series of stimuli of increasing frequency combines individual twitches (summation) which results in Complete sustained contraction
the buccinator muscle is in the Cheek
The discoloration and swelling of a muscle strain is due to Ruptured blood vessels.
A sign of aging of the muscular system is Decreased supplies of myoglobin to muscles.
Smooth muscle has ___________ and not troponin. Calmodulin.
At a neuromuscular junction, the muscle fiber membrane folds, forming a Motor end plate.
Binding sites on the surface of actin allow the formation of cross-bridges with molecules of Myosin.
Bones and muscles function as mechanical devices called Levers.
The functional connection between a neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber is a Synapse.
Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles in Motor neuron endings.
A shift in metabolism that breaks down pyruvic acid to lactic acid is called Lactic acid threshold.
The amount of oxygen liver cells require to support the conversion of lactic acid to produce glucose or glycogen is the Oxygen debt.
Activities such as distance swimming and distance running are most likely to stimulate development of Slow fatigue-resistant fibers.
The type of muscle cell that lacks transverse tubules has a single nucleus and is under involuntary control is Smooth muscle.
Myofibrils are composed primarily of Actin and myosin.
Which of the following is not a muscle of mastication? Zygomaticus.
Transverse tubules Transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior.
A tendon is ______, whereas an aponeurosis is ______. Tendon - cord like and connects muscles to bones; aponeurosis - a broad sheet of dense connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles.
The more movable end of a muscle is its Insertion
Short muscle cells with centrally located nuclei are smooth muscle fibers.
The striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibers results from the sarcomere organization.
When ATP levels are low, the relationship between ATP and creatine phosphate is that . Creatine phosphate supplies energy to regenerate ATP from ADP and phosphate
The soleus is a muscle that forms part of the Calf.
The functional unit of muscle contraction is The sarcomere
The structures that connect cardiac muscle cells are Intercalated discs.
At a neuromuscular junction Neurotransmitters are released.
The muscle that causes an action is the Agonist.
Smooth muscle lacks Transverse tubules and striations.
A sarcomere is best described as A unit within a muscle fiber.
Muscle fibers are basically a collection of sarcomeres
Supplies energy for the synthesis of ATP Creatine phosphate
Muscle cramps are most likely due to a temporary deficit of ATP
Rigor mortis affects skeletal muscles a few hours after death, due to a decrease in ATP and increased permeability to calcium
__________ degrades acetylcholine, keeping it from accumulating in the synapse Acetylcholinesterase
A shift in metabolism that breaks down pyruvic acid to lactic acid is called lactic acid threshold
What may occur if the respiratory and circulatory systems to supply enough oxygen to skeletal muscles when used strenuously for a minute or two? Oxygen debt in muscles
What is the minimum strength of stimulation required to contract a muscle fiber is called Threshold stimulus
The increase in the number of motor units activated as a result of more intense stimulation is called recruitment
In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the latent period
Compared to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle contracts more slowly and relaxes more slowly
Which of the following statements is correct? Actin filaments slide along myosin filaments.
A motor unit is A motor neuron and the muscle fibers connected to it.
Both acetylcholine and norepinephrine can affect smooth muscle contraction.
Which of these options lists the structures in order, from smallest to largest? Filament, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle, muscle
Which of the following is not true Red fibers have fewer mitochondria than white.
Regina began an exercise program six months ago, and the muscles of her upper limbs and lower limbs are more prominent. Exercise can lead to formation of new muscle by stimulating skeletal muscle cells to release IL-6, which stimulates satellite cells to divide, producing more muscle cells.
Calcium ions bind to _____ in order to initiate a muscle contraction troponin
Tawanda finishes a sprint and suffers great pain in her calf muscles. Her muscle cramps are most likely due to a temporary deficit of ATP
The amount of oxygen needed to repay the oxygen debt includes the amount of oxygen that muscle cells need to resynthesize ATP. True
In order for a skeletal muscle fiber to contract, calcium must bind to_____ Troponin
Site for storage of calcium sarcoplasmic reticulum
Certain natural plant poisons and animal venoms that contain substances that inhibit the function of acetylcholinesterase. If a person is poisoned by one of these substances, which of the following will be the cause of their symptoms? acetylcholine won't be broken down and cleared from the neuromuscular junction.
What enzyme degrades acetylcholine, keeping it from accumulating in the synapse? Acetylcholinesterase
What is a function of transverse tubules? To transmit action potentials (impulses) into the cell interior
Many muscles are named for their location in the body, particularly in relation to bones. In what body region would you expect to find the frontalis muscle? The cranial region
A shift in metabolism that breaks down pyruvic acid to lactic acid is called anaerobic threshold.
Smooth muscle lacks transverse tubules and striations
Short muscle cells with centrally located nuclei are smooth muscle fibers.
Which of the following is unique in that its insertion is to fascia and not bone palmaris longus
A sign of aging of the muscular system is decreased supplies of myoglobin to muscles
Liver cells convert lactic acid to ATP. True or False FALSE
White muscles have an increased capacity to carry on aerobic respiration. True or False FALSE
The masseter muscle functions in mastication. True or False TRUE
Rotations of the forearms so the palms face upwards is called pronation. T/F False
A saddle joint forms between bones whose articulating surfaces have both convex and concave regions: T/F True
Types of fibrous joints include: Syndemosis, suture, & gomphosis
The symphysis pubis is a fibrous joint. T/F False
When you reach up to scratch your nose, you have to ___________ your elbow flex
The synovial membrane reabsorbs fluid and may help remove substances from an infected joint cavity. T/F True
The presence of a joint capsule is associated with what type of joint? Synovial
A synchrondosis is a cartillaginous joint: T/F True
Bones of a synovial joint are held together by: a joint capsule
Synovial fluid moistens and lubricates the cartilaginous surfaces in a joint. T/F True
The joint stiffness that occurs with aging is typically due to changes in ____________________ within the joint. collagen
The hip joint is a ball and socket joint. T/F True
Begins chapter 10,11,12
Which of the following neuroglia are NOT found in the CNS? Schwann cells
Over a lifetime, the brain shrinks by about ___ percent. 10
Most cerebrospinal fluid is secreted from the choroid plexuses in the lateral ventricles.
Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by ______ and it __________. choroid plexuses in the ventricles; protects the brain from blows to the skull
Which of the following terms and definitions is correct? cerebral cortex-a thin layer of gray matter forming the outermost part of the cerebrum
Which of the following is a major portion of the diencephalon? Thalamus
The part of the brain that coordinates voluntary muscular movements is the cerebellum.
Which of the following are descending tracts in the spinal cord? Rubrospinal
If the reticular formation is injured, the person might exhibit signs of unconsciousness, or coma.
Receptors for the general senses are only located in the head. FALSE
Sensory receptors are specialized cells or multicellular structures that detect changes in the environment. TRUE
Where are receptors for the general senses located? Widely distributed throughout the body
What condition is due to an abnormality in the curvature of the lens or cornea, resulting in some areas of blurry vision? Astigmatism
What condition can be treated with a cochlear implant? Sensorineural deafness
What change results in farsightedness after the age of forty-five? Loss of lens elasticity
What is glaucoma? Increased pressure in the eye due to excess aqueous humor
Jared has been an avid fan of rock music for many years and has attended numerous concerts, getting as close to the stage as possible. He has never worn earplugs or protective earwear. Now in his 50s, he has become hard-of-hearing His hair cells are permanently damaged and desensitized to loud sounds
Violet has a condition in which her auditory ossicles have fused together. As a result, she exhibits __________ conductive deafness
What causes the lens of the eye to thicken? Ciliary muscles contract.
Masses of myelinated nerve fibers appear white
Saltatory conduction ________________________. faster than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber
The part of the peripheral nervous system that carries sensory information to the CNS is designated afferant
How is stereoscopic vision produced? Each eye sees a slightly different view of an object.
Where are the receptors for hearing located? In the spiral organ
What occurs as a result of the tympanic reflex? Vibrations are transmitted less effectively to the inner ear.
What type of receptor allows a pole vaulter to keep track of his position in mid-air? Proprioceptors
What is the destination of fibers of the spinothalamic tract transmitting pain and temperature information? Thalamus
sensory receptors are stimulated in your mouth. What is the order of information flow that results? Stimulation of sensory receptors → impulse sent to CNS → sensation→ perception
In hyperopia, the eyeball is too short and the focal point is in front of the retina. FALSE
The area of the retina with the sharpest vision is the optic disc. FALSE
Some sensory nerve fibers from the retina of the right eye cross over to the left side of the CNS in the thalamus. FALSE
Impulses from the spiral organ travel to the central nervous system via the vestibulocochlear nerve. TRUE
Sound vibrations are conducted from the malleus to the stapes to the incus. FALSE
Impulses from taste receptors travel to the central nervous system via the facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves. TRUE
Cones are more sensitive to light than rods, but rods are important for color vision. FALSE
When the radial muscles of the iris contract, the diameter of the pupil decreases. FALSE
The auditory ossicles are located in the inner ear. FALSE
The conjunctiva is a layer of tissue that lines the inner surface of the eyelids and covers most of the anterior surface of the eye. TRUE
The stapes transmits vibrations to the round window of the inner ear. FALSE
Nodes of Ranvier lie between neurons FALSE
What cytoplasmic extensions, together with the cell body, provide the main receptive surfaces for neurons Dendrites
What cytoplasmic structure supports the axon? Neurofibrils
In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the immune system attacks and degrades the myelin sheath of PNS axons. Predict the effect this will have on nerve impulse and motor function. Lost insulation from myelin will cause neurons of the PNS to lose saltatory conduction, resulting in poor muscle function.
Which cells produce myelin in the brain and spinal cord? Oligodendrocytes
Organize the following list of nervous system elements by their classifications as CNS or PNS elements _brain, oligodendrocytes, interneurons PNS_ thermoreceptors, satellite cells, motor
A test organism develops a genetic mutation that causes neurons to develop without synaptic knobs. How will this impact neuronal function? No neurotransmitters will be stored or released into the synapse to signal the postsynaptic neuron.
A neuron receives a series of stimuli that increases the membrane permeability of Na +, but not enough to cause membrane potential to surpass -55mV. This neuron is said to be __________ because it received a subthreshold stimuli. facilitated
A neuron receives a stimulation that causes Cl- channels to open, resulting in a hyperpolarization of the neuronal membrane. This is an example of what type of potential? Inhibitory postsynaptic potential
Axon terminals from several different neurons synapse onto a single neuron. Some of these presynaptic neurons are sending excitatory signals, while others are sending inhibitory signals. the postsynaptic membrane potential reaches around -90mV. The postsynaptic neuron is inhibited from generating action potentials.
A physiologist testing signal transduction rates in two different nerve fibers notices that one fiber conducts signals much faster than the other. Which is the most likely difference between the two? the faster nerve fiber is myelinated and the slower one is not.
A positive feedback loop occurs when the outcome of an event causes the event to continue occurring and amplifies its effects. Which of the following aspects of an action potential constitutes a positive feedback loop? An initial flow of sodium ions into the neuron causes the opening of more voltage-gated sodium channels, rapidly causing more sodium to enter.
A neuron is exposed to a drug that completely blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, but has no effect on non-gated channels or the sodium-potassium pump. Which of the following describes the effect on action potential generation? Repolarization will still occur, but at an inefficiently slow rate
What is the correct sequence of events that occurs along an axon after the membrane reaches threshold? 1. The membrane depolarizes. 2. Sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward. 3. The membrane repolarizes. 4. Potassium channels open 2,1,4,3
If a resting potential becomes more negative, the membrane is said to be __________. hyperpolarized
How does a neuron cell membrane become depolarized? Na + channels open and Na + ions diffuse into the cell.
Roughly how long does an excitatory postsynaptic potential last? 15 milliseconds
What is the effect of drugs that inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase? Increased activity of norepinephrine
What is convergence? Axons from neurons in different parts of the nervous system contact the same neuron.
How do diverging axons amplify an impulse? By stimulating many neurons
What disorder involves an immune response that affects the myelin coating on axons throughout the spinal cord and brain, triggering inflammation and leaving scars? Muscular dystrophy
A certain drug decreases the membrane permeability of nerve fibers to sodium. What would be a possible effect? A decrease in pain
A person is exposed to a drug that prevents vesicles from forming in neurons. Predict the effect this will have on nerve function. Neurotransmitters won't be released into the synapse.
A neuron branching from the spinal cord innervates a group of muscle fibers in the biceps brachii and stimulates them to contract. This neuron is part of the __________ pathway. efferent
If a neurotransmitter hyperpolarizes a cell membrane and an action potential is less likely to occur, the change is called __________ potential. inhibitory postsynaptic
Which is the correct order of the parts of a reflex arc? Receptor/sensory neuron/ interneuron/motor neuron/effector
________coordinates voluntary muscular movements. cerebellum
Bob sees an accident. Impulses from what division of the autonomic nervous system raises his heart rate? sympathetic
Stacy has been tired and bruising easily, and she's had three respiratory infections in the past few months. She has also had headaches and a few nosebleeds. A physician should check her for leukemia
A man is taking a prescription blood thinner. His doctor informs him that if he sustains a minor injury, he needs to take vitamin K supplements to help prevent excessive bleeding and related complications. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin.
Which of the following are most active as phagocytes? Neutrophils
The enzyme acetylecholinsterase caused acetylcholine to ________. Decompose.
A nerve cell membrane becomes depolarized as a result of Some ion channels being opened while others are closed
The most rapid conduction of an impulse along an axon occurs on a fiber that is think and myelinated
What ions cross neuron cell membranes most readily? Potassium
The meninges consist of the pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater
Lists the parts of a reflex arc in the correct sequence. Receptor, Sensory Neuron, Interneuron, Motor Neuron, and Effector
Stephanie is in a car accident, flung from her vehicle and landing on her back on pavement. At the scene, an emergency medical technician checks her Babinski reflex, in which the great toe extends upward and the smaller toes fan apart. This reflex my indicate an injury to the coricospical tract
The expected response to the triceps-jerk reflex is extension of the forearm
The ________ separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum. Transverse Fissure
Aphasis is loss of the ability to speak
Brain waves are recordings of activity in the Cerebral Cortex
Created by: yanise2006
 

 



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