Question 1

TRUE or FALSE. AF personnel assigned to duties involving flying/jump statuses are required to meet stringent medical standards.

Accepted Answer

TRUE

Question 2

TRUE or FALSE. Failure to meet these medical standards will result in fly/jump termination, and may affect the member's entitlement to incentive pay.

Accepted Answer

TRUE

Question 3

A/M/P Aviation/Missileer/Parachutist candidates must have/adhere to what?

Accepted Answer

have the physical ability to endure the stresses of flight
and adhere to higher professional standards.

Question 4

The requirements that A/M/P candidates must meet are set to make sure:

Accepted Answer

that only the medically and professionally qualified are permitted to fly/jump/or perform missile duties.

Question 5

Aviation Resource Management Personnel have the duty to what?

Accepted Answer

monitor compliance with the standards to find A/M/P fit for duties, recommend or initiate management actions when standards are broken.

Question 6

TRUE or FALSE.  ARM Personnel must allow A/M/P  members to perform duties when they are not physically  or medically qualified.

Accepted Answer

FALSE

Question 7

Physically Qualified:

Accepted Answer

means the member is medically fit for A/M/P duties as determined by medical authority and medically certified.

Question 8

Flight Medical Source Document-

Accepted Answer

DD Form 2992 Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special operational Duty.

Question 9

DD Form 2992:

Accepted Answer

is the source document used to convey medical qualification for flying or special operational duty. ( it is used to document the exam given to the A/M/P member(s) all members on active status must maintain a current flight physical).

Question 10

What circumstances is the DD Form 2992 used for:

Accepted Answer

medically ground member(DOWN status), medically disqualify member, medically clear member,  and document a medical or categorical waiver.

Question 11

Types of Flight Medical Examinations: Most common Types

Accepted Answer

Initial 
Periodic

Question 12

Types of Flight Medical Examinations: Definition

Accepted Answer

Medical exams are commonly referred to as Flight Physicals, members on active A/M/P duties must maintain a valid flight physical.

Question 13

TRUE or FALSE. the HARM, SARM, and scheduling offices must work together to ensure ARMS is appropriately updated.

Accepted Answer

TRUE

Question 14

Who is authorized to give  A/M/P personnel exams and is located at the FME Flight Medical Element?

Accepted Answer

Flight Surgeons (FS)

Question 15

What publication outlines all medical examinations, and establishes the standards that members must meet?

Accepted Answer

DAFMAN 48-123 Medical Examinations and Standards. ( also identifies different classes of physicals and requirements)

Question 16

Initial Examination:

Accepted Answer

A/M/P must maintain physical fitness by completing a flight physical when initially placed on flying, jump, or alert status. ( valid up to 48 months or until the completion of formal training)

Question 17

Periodic Examination:

Accepted Answer

A periodic examination/preventative health assessment(PHA) is a physical completed annually. (become due 366days after previous physical).

Question 18

Periodic Examination:  Completion time period:

Accepted Answer

all members must complete a physical every 455 days from the date of their last flight physical. (physicals expire on the 465th day and can not be completed any earlier than 30days before PHA due date.)

Question 19

Periodic Examination: CONUS PCS

Accepted Answer

if a members physical expires within 3(three) months after their departure date, they must complete another physical before departing.

Question 20

Periodic Examination:  OCONUS PCS

Accepted Answer

if a member is going over seas and their physicals due date occurs before departure they must complete another physical before departing.

Question 21

Other reasons to complete a Flight Physical (medical examinations)

Accepted Answer

RTFS (return to flying status) after a break in flying duties, Appearing before a (FEB), Suspended (for 12 months or more for medical reasons, reporting to a new base, Rated member of another military service, an Aircraft mishap, commander/FS

Question 22

Waiver Actions:

Accepted Answer

Some members may require a medical waiver to pass their flight physical. Some waivers medically restrict members from flying a particular group of aircraft. (CFW found in DAFMAN 48-123)

Question 23

Who is the waiver authority for medical waiver actions?

Accepted Answer

MAJCOM/SGP

Question 24

ARMs personnel  will be notified of waivers or categorical flying waivers(CFW) from the flight surgeons' annotations in what section of a DD Form 2992?

Accepted Answer

remarks section

Question 25

If an individual is authorized to fly with a medical waiver, this info is indicated in what database.

Accepted Answer

ARMS

Question 26

TRUE or FALSE. If a member is on a Waiver they may have a different physical due date.(required frequency may vary to address waivers and/or individual physical limitations, but in no case will it exceed 455days)

Accepted Answer

TRUE

Question 27

Where can A/M/P members' medical documentation be found?

Accepted Answer

(ASIMS)Aeromedical Service Information Management System

Question 28

What is ASIMS?

Accepted Answer

a web-based computer system that houses key medical and duty data elements concerning medical qualifications for duties. (system is installed with a HIPPAA-compliant feature that allows ARMS personnel to track medical clearance, requirements)

Question 29

HARM/SARM use ASIMS to track :

Accepted Answer

physicals, DOWN,UP, suspended, expired status, and recent RTFS return to flight status.

Question 30

Navigating ASIMS

Accepted Answer

Step 1. Click on ASIMS link. Step 2. Click OK, then the drop down menu select LIST TYPE: includes DOWN, SUSPENDED,EXPIRED,UP,DD2992 MEMBER NOT SIGNED, RECENT RTFS,EXPORT to EXCEL. Step 3. click SELECT Step 4. select members name. Step 5.View PDF of 2992.

Question 31

Physical qualification status function as:

Accepted Answer

a GO/NO-GO and readiness item.

Question 32

Medical Certification Status:

Accepted Answer

When a DD Form 2992 notification is received from the ASIMS database, the first thing to check for is the type of 2992 it is.

Question 33

TRUE or FALSE. A flight physical will be identified by a checkmark placed in section 11 in the box labeled CLEARED AFTER FLIGHT DUTY MEDICAL EVALUATION.

Accepted Answer

TRUE

Question 34

When updating ARMS what block should be used to determine the effective date?

Accepted Answer

11b

Question 35

What window in ARMS will be updated when a 2992 is received?

Accepted Answer

the Flyer Availability Window

Question 36

What is the Exception with PHA dates?

Accepted Answer

If there is a different date in block 13 (waiver) with PHA accompanied by remarks from the flight surgeon , use that instead to update ARMS.

Question 37

What are the steps for inputting 2992s into ARMS:

Accepted Answer

Step 1. Log into ARMS click RESOURCE and type in members name. Next click on the FLYER AVAILABILITY window. Step 2. enter the effective date (block 11b of the 2992 form) into the PHYSICAL INFORMATION field FLIGHT PHYS DATE. Step 3. select the appropriate

Question 38

What are the steps for inputting 2992s into ARMS: Continued

Accepted Answer

code in the FLIGHT PHYSICAL STATUS CODE field. Step 4. enter effective date in the PHYSICAL AVAILABILITY DATE field. Step 5. select appropriate Availability CODE. 6. SAVE.

Question 39

Updating Categorical Flying Waiver Codes in ARMS:

Accepted Answer

Once a categorical flying waiver is granted the flight surgeon will annotate in the remarks section of the DD Form 2992 specifying the type of aircraft the member is allowed to fly. (USE CATEGORICAL FLYING WAIVER field in ARMS to update)

Question 40

Physical Availability Status:

Accepted Answer

AFMAN 11-421 requires HARM/SARM offices to monitor the medical status of all assigned personnel.  The member's medical status is briefed  to the unit commander and updated in the ARMS database. (primary point of contact is the FME)

Question 41

Physical Availability Status: Continued

Accepted Answer

Members who are incapacitated due to an illness or injury must immediately report to the flight surgeon. If the flight surgeon determines the member's physical condition is severe, could compromise flight safety the member will be placed in DOWN status.

Question 42

DNIF-

Accepted Answer

Duty Not Involving Flying also known as Down status- member will not perform in-flight/jump/missile duties.

Question 43

Exception: to down status

Accepted Answer

If not otherwise restricted by  a DD Form 2992 or MAJCOM guidance, aircrew members on DOWN status( but not disqualified) may perform aircrew duties in the simulator for which they are qualified.

Question 44

Updating ARMS with a DOWN status DD Form 2992:

Accepted Answer

Step 1. log in to ARMS click resource  find member, then FLYER AVAILABILITY. Step 2. PHYSICAL AVAILABILITY DATE enter EFFECTIVE DATE (block 12b). Step 3. update AVAILABILITY CODE accordingly then SAVE.

Question 45

Suspense File: CEAs and RATED Officers:

Accepted Answer

the DOWN status DD Form 2992 is filed in the suspense file not to exceed 365 days for career enlisted aviators  (CEAs) and Rated officers.

Question 46

Suspense File: non-Rated, non-CEAs, and parachutists:

Accepted Answer

the DOWN status DD Form 2992 is filed in the suspense file for 180 days.

Question 47

Suspense File: Disqualifying a member:

Accepted Answer

If a member cannot resolve their medical incapacitation by the 365th or 180th day the HARM will publish an AO to medically disqualify them on the 366th or 181st day. The HARM will also submit an MPO to stop incentive pay.

Question 48

Suspense File: Removal of down status or permanent disqualification.

Accepted Answer

A DOWN DD Form 2992 is kept in a suspense file until receiving another DD Form 2992 to either remove the DOWN status or to permanently disqualify the member is received.

Question 49

Suspense File: UP status DD Form 2992

Accepted Answer

Once an UP status DD Form 2992 is received the Down status and the UP status DD Form 2992 are destroyed after updating ARMS( if member PCS while DOWN the DD Form 2992 must be given to the member or placed in an electronic JRF/MRF)

Question 50

Updating ARMS with an UP Status DD Form 2992:

Accepted Answer

to be taken off of DOWN status the member must return to the flight surgeon and obtain an UP status DD Form 2992. ( An UP status will be identified by checkmarks placed in section 11 in the box labeled CLEARED AFTER and temporary medical disqualification)

Question 51

Updating ARMS with an UP status DD Form 2992: STEPS

Accepted Answer

Step 1. log into ARMS click on RESOURCE window, type in the members last name click on FLYER AVAILABILITY. Step 2. PHYSICAL AVAILABILTY DATE enter EFFECTIVE DATE. STEP 3. in the AVAILABILITY CODE field select A then SAVE. Step 4. destroy DOWN and Up 2992s

Question 52

AF FORM 1274 Individual Physiological  Training Record:

Accepted Answer

The Physiological Training program teaches  Aircrew/Parachutists physiological and gravitational stresses, and human factor implications of modern aviation.

Question 53

AF FORM 1274 Individual Physiological  Training Record: continued

Accepted Answer

The physiological training program  also prepares members to meet the mental and physical challenges associated with aviation, and enhanced flight safety by helping reduce human factor mishaps involving aircraft ofperations.

Question 54

What publication outlines Physiological training requirements?

Accepted Answer

AFMAN 11-404

Question 55

What is the AF Form 1274?

Accepted Answer

The source document used to record aerospace physiological training. (Aircrew/Parachutist keeps the original during training/missions and a copy is given to the HARM for ARMS input and filed electronically.)

Question 56

What publication governs the physiological training Program?

Accepted Answer

AFMAN 11-403

Question 57

TRUE or FALSE. All aircrew/ parachutists who perform duties above 10,000 feet are required to complete physiological training, which include lectures on cabin pressurization, human and physiological performance.

Accepted Answer

True.
(physiological training also allows personnel to apply preventive countermeasures and practice emergency procedures.)

Question 58

What are the three main accomplishment methods of physiological training?

Accepted Answer

1. Centrifuge.
2. Hyperbaric Chamber (Altitude Chamber) .
3. Reduced Oxygen Breathing Device (ROBD).

Question 59

Centrifuge Training:

Accepted Answer

is an equipment driven by a motor that puts an object in rotation around a fixed axis, it is used to simulate the pull of gravity, and is required for members selected to fly High-G capable aircrafts (GLOC).

Question 60

What is the best device for teaching the proper anti-G straining maneuver (AGSM)?

Accepted Answer

Centrifuge training.

Question 61

What is the purpose of Centrifuge training?

Accepted Answer

to enhance combat capability and safety by optimizing aircrew defense against GLOC.

Question 62

What methods are used against GLOC?

Accepted Answer

1. Increase aircrew awareness of the potentially incapacitating effects of GLOC.
2.Train/evaluate aircrew on how to properly perform ASG.
3. Address strategy to improve aircrew perfomance under G-stress. 
3.Identify aircrew with low G-tolerance/ AGSM.

Question 63

Initial Training: Centrifuge

Accepted Answer

Conducted during advanced phases of the (SUPT) and (JSUNT) as students switch from the primary trainer aircraft to a more sophisticated /powerful aircraft. This training exposes the demands of sustained high-G flight.

Question 64

What do SUPT and JSUNT stand for?

Accepted Answer

Specialized Undergraduate Pilot Training.
Joint Specialized Undergraduate Navigator Training.

Question	Answer
TRUE or FALSE. AF personnel assigned to duties involving flying/jump statuses are required to meet stringent medical standards.	TRUE
TRUE or FALSE. Failure to meet these medical standards will result in fly/jump termination, and may affect the member's entitlement to incentive pay.	TRUE
A/M/P Aviation/Missileer/Parachutist candidates must have/adhere to what?	have the physical ability to endure the stresses of flight and adhere to higher professional standards.
The requirements that A/M/P candidates must meet are set to make sure:	that only the medically and professionally qualified are permitted to fly/jump/or perform missile duties.
Aviation Resource Management Personnel have the duty to what?	monitor compliance with the standards to find A/M/P fit for duties, recommend or initiate management actions when standards are broken.
TRUE or FALSE. ARM Personnel must allow A/M/P members to perform duties when they are not physically or medically qualified.	FALSE
Physically Qualified:	means the member is medically fit for A/M/P duties as determined by medical authority and medically certified.
Flight Medical Source Document-	DD Form 2992 Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special operational Duty.
DD Form 2992:	is the source document used to convey medical qualification for flying or special operational duty. ( it is used to document the exam given to the A/M/P member(s) all members on active status must maintain a current flight physical).
What circumstances is the DD Form 2992 used for:	medically ground member(DOWN status), medically disqualify member, medically clear member, and document a medical or categorical waiver.
Types of Flight Medical Examinations: Most common Types	Initial Periodic
Types of Flight Medical Examinations: Definition	Medical exams are commonly referred to as Flight Physicals, members on active A/M/P duties must maintain a valid flight physical.
TRUE or FALSE. the HARM, SARM, and scheduling offices must work together to ensure ARMS is appropriately updated.	TRUE
Who is authorized to give A/M/P personnel exams and is located at the FME Flight Medical Element?	Flight Surgeons (FS)
What publication outlines all medical examinations, and establishes the standards that members must meet?	DAFMAN 48-123 Medical Examinations and Standards. ( also identifies different classes of physicals and requirements)
Initial Examination:	A/M/P must maintain physical fitness by completing a flight physical when initially placed on flying, jump, or alert status. ( valid up to 48 months or until the completion of formal training)
Periodic Examination:	A periodic examination/preventative health assessment(PHA) is a physical completed annually. (become due 366days after previous physical).
Periodic Examination: Completion time period:	all members must complete a physical every 455 days from the date of their last flight physical. (physicals expire on the 465th day and can not be completed any earlier than 30days before PHA due date.)
Periodic Examination: CONUS PCS	if a members physical expires within 3(three) months after their departure date, they must complete another physical before departing.
Periodic Examination: OCONUS PCS	if a member is going over seas and their physicals due date occurs before departure they must complete another physical before departing.
Other reasons to complete a Flight Physical (medical examinations)	RTFS (return to flying status) after a break in flying duties, Appearing before a (FEB), Suspended (for 12 months or more for medical reasons, reporting to a new base, Rated member of another military service, an Aircraft mishap, commander/FS
Waiver Actions:	Some members may require a medical waiver to pass their flight physical. Some waivers medically restrict members from flying a particular group of aircraft. (CFW found in DAFMAN 48-123)
Who is the waiver authority for medical waiver actions?	MAJCOM/SGP
ARMs personnel will be notified of waivers or categorical flying waivers(CFW) from the flight surgeons' annotations in what section of a DD Form 2992?	remarks section
If an individual is authorized to fly with a medical waiver, this info is indicated in what database.	ARMS
TRUE or FALSE. If a member is on a Waiver they may have a different physical due date.(required frequency may vary to address waivers and/or individual physical limitations, but in no case will it exceed 455days)	TRUE
Where can A/M/P members' medical documentation be found?	(ASIMS)Aeromedical Service Information Management System
What is ASIMS?	a web-based computer system that houses key medical and duty data elements concerning medical qualifications for duties. (system is installed with a HIPPAA-compliant feature that allows ARMS personnel to track medical clearance, requirements)
HARM/SARM use ASIMS to track :	physicals, DOWN,UP, suspended, expired status, and recent RTFS return to flight status.
Navigating ASIMS	Step 1. Click on ASIMS link. Step 2. Click OK, then the drop down menu select LIST TYPE: includes DOWN, SUSPENDED,EXPIRED,UP,DD2992 MEMBER NOT SIGNED, RECENT RTFS,EXPORT to EXCEL. Step 3. click SELECT Step 4. select members name. Step 5.View PDF of 2992.
Physical qualification status function as:	a GO/NO-GO and readiness item.
Medical Certification Status:	When a DD Form 2992 notification is received from the ASIMS database, the first thing to check for is the type of 2992 it is.
TRUE or FALSE. A flight physical will be identified by a checkmark placed in section 11 in the box labeled CLEARED AFTER FLIGHT DUTY MEDICAL EVALUATION.	TRUE
When updating ARMS what block should be used to determine the effective date?	11b
What window in ARMS will be updated when a 2992 is received?	the Flyer Availability Window
What is the Exception with PHA dates?	If there is a different date in block 13 (waiver) with PHA accompanied by remarks from the flight surgeon , use that instead to update ARMS.
What are the steps for inputting 2992s into ARMS:	Step 1. Log into ARMS click RESOURCE and type in members name. Next click on the FLYER AVAILABILITY window. Step 2. enter the effective date (block 11b of the 2992 form) into the PHYSICAL INFORMATION field FLIGHT PHYS DATE. Step 3. select the appropriate
What are the steps for inputting 2992s into ARMS: Continued	code in the FLIGHT PHYSICAL STATUS CODE field. Step 4. enter effective date in the PHYSICAL AVAILABILITY DATE field. Step 5. select appropriate Availability CODE. 6. SAVE.
Updating Categorical Flying Waiver Codes in ARMS:	Once a categorical flying waiver is granted the flight surgeon will annotate in the remarks section of the DD Form 2992 specifying the type of aircraft the member is allowed to fly. (USE CATEGORICAL FLYING WAIVER field in ARMS to update)
Physical Availability Status:	AFMAN 11-421 requires HARM/SARM offices to monitor the medical status of all assigned personnel. The member's medical status is briefed to the unit commander and updated in the ARMS database. (primary point of contact is the FME)
Physical Availability Status: Continued	Members who are incapacitated due to an illness or injury must immediately report to the flight surgeon. If the flight surgeon determines the member's physical condition is severe, could compromise flight safety the member will be placed in DOWN status.
DNIF-	Duty Not Involving Flying also known as Down status- member will not perform in-flight/jump/missile duties.
Exception: to down status	If not otherwise restricted by a DD Form 2992 or MAJCOM guidance, aircrew members on DOWN status( but not disqualified) may perform aircrew duties in the simulator for which they are qualified.
Updating ARMS with a DOWN status DD Form 2992:	Step 1. log in to ARMS click resource find member, then FLYER AVAILABILITY. Step 2. PHYSICAL AVAILABILITY DATE enter EFFECTIVE DATE (block 12b). Step 3. update AVAILABILITY CODE accordingly then SAVE.
Suspense File: CEAs and RATED Officers:	the DOWN status DD Form 2992 is filed in the suspense file not to exceed 365 days for career enlisted aviators (CEAs) and Rated officers.
Suspense File: non-Rated, non-CEAs, and parachutists:	the DOWN status DD Form 2992 is filed in the suspense file for 180 days.
Suspense File: Disqualifying a member:	If a member cannot resolve their medical incapacitation by the 365th or 180th day the HARM will publish an AO to medically disqualify them on the 366th or 181st day. The HARM will also submit an MPO to stop incentive pay.
Suspense File: Removal of down status or permanent disqualification.	A DOWN DD Form 2992 is kept in a suspense file until receiving another DD Form 2992 to either remove the DOWN status or to permanently disqualify the member is received.
Suspense File: UP status DD Form 2992	Once an UP status DD Form 2992 is received the Down status and the UP status DD Form 2992 are destroyed after updating ARMS( if member PCS while DOWN the DD Form 2992 must be given to the member or placed in an electronic JRF/MRF)
Updating ARMS with an UP Status DD Form 2992:	to be taken off of DOWN status the member must return to the flight surgeon and obtain an UP status DD Form 2992. ( An UP status will be identified by checkmarks placed in section 11 in the box labeled CLEARED AFTER and temporary medical disqualification)
Updating ARMS with an UP status DD Form 2992: STEPS	Step 1. log into ARMS click on RESOURCE window, type in the members last name click on FLYER AVAILABILITY. Step 2. PHYSICAL AVAILABILTY DATE enter EFFECTIVE DATE. STEP 3. in the AVAILABILITY CODE field select A then SAVE. Step 4. destroy DOWN and Up 2992s
AF FORM 1274 Individual Physiological Training Record:	The Physiological Training program teaches Aircrew/Parachutists physiological and gravitational stresses, and human factor implications of modern aviation.
AF FORM 1274 Individual Physiological Training Record: continued	The physiological training program also prepares members to meet the mental and physical challenges associated with aviation, and enhanced flight safety by helping reduce human factor mishaps involving aircraft ofperations.
What publication outlines Physiological training requirements?	AFMAN 11-404
What is the AF Form 1274?	The source document used to record aerospace physiological training. (Aircrew/Parachutist keeps the original during training/missions and a copy is given to the HARM for ARMS input and filed electronically.)
What publication governs the physiological training Program?	AFMAN 11-403
TRUE or FALSE. All aircrew/ parachutists who perform duties above 10,000 feet are required to complete physiological training, which include lectures on cabin pressurization, human and physiological performance.	True. (physiological training also allows personnel to apply preventive countermeasures and practice emergency procedures.)
What are the three main accomplishment methods of physiological training?	1. Centrifuge. 2. Hyperbaric Chamber (Altitude Chamber) . 3. Reduced Oxygen Breathing Device (ROBD).
Centrifuge Training:	is an equipment driven by a motor that puts an object in rotation around a fixed axis, it is used to simulate the pull of gravity, and is required for members selected to fly High-G capable aircrafts (GLOC).
What is the best device for teaching the proper anti-G straining maneuver (AGSM)?	Centrifuge training.
What is the purpose of Centrifuge training?	to enhance combat capability and safety by optimizing aircrew defense against GLOC.
What methods are used against GLOC?	1. Increase aircrew awareness of the potentially incapacitating effects of GLOC. 2.Train/evaluate aircrew on how to properly perform ASG. 3. Address strategy to improve aircrew perfomance under G-stress. 3.Identify aircrew with low G-tolerance/ AGSM.
Initial Training: Centrifuge	Conducted during advanced phases of the (SUPT) and (JSUNT) as students switch from the primary trainer aircraft to a more sophisticated /powerful aircraft. This training exposes the demands of sustained high-G flight.
What do SUPT and JSUNT stand for?	Specialized Undergraduate Pilot Training. Joint Specialized Undergraduate Navigator Training.
What is the primary purpose of centrifuge initial training?	to refine the AGSM, reinforce the importance of physical and mental preparedness in the high-G environment.
Where is the completed centrifuge training documented?	on an AF Form 1274.
Qualification Training:	is a one-time requirement for all active , sustained high-G aircraft aircrew(SHGA). (given before students are introduced to fighter fundamentals)
Refresher Training:	Refresher Acceleration Training(RAT) is designed for aircrew who previously completed Primary Acceleration training (PAT), or AAT, & are returning to TYPE 1 or 2 aircraft after more than 39 months in a non-flight billet.
Type 1 aircraft:	any aircraft capable of rapid G-onset rates greater than 6.0G/sec, but not employed above 7.5G.
What are aircrafts that fit the Type 1 definition:	A/O/A10, T/AT-38, F-4, F-15E, and F/A-18
Type 2 aircraft:	any aircraft capable of rapid G-onset rates greater than 6.0G/sec and sustained G-loading greater than 5 seconds above 7.5G.
What are the aircrafts that fit the Type 2 definition:	F-15C/D, F-16, F-22A, and F35
Refresher training is designed for:	All experienced Rated Officers who have not previously completed qual training, Members being reassigned to fly High-G following a non flying assignment, members converting from non-SGHA to SGHA, members upgrading to SGHA to a higher-G SGHA.
Altitude Chamber:	exposes aircrew/parachutists to other physiological stresses related to modern aviation other than G-forces.
Altitude Chamber: what physiological effects are monitored?	altitude, acceleration, noise and vibration.
Altitude chamber training provides...	members the opportunity to learn the principles of human performance, cabin pressurization, decompression, use of oxygen equipment, and pressure breathing, & teaches characteristics/effects of sensory phenomena in flight.
What are examples of sensory phenomena:	spatial disorientation, parallax, and flash blindness.
Altitude Chamber: Training requirements	personnel who are/will be placed on active flying status. HALO parachutists above 10,000 MSL Officer cadets to meet the needs of USAFA/ROTC local wing Commanders may authorize civilian/passengers when required for military orientation/incentive flights
Original Training:	valid for 5(five) years and expires on the last day of the month the training was accomplished.
High-Altitude (HALO) parachutist(HAP) initial training:	is required for qualified parachutists who participate in parachute operations above 10,000 feet MSL (mean sea level). this course is 8 hours long and includes one altitude chamber and academic instruction. (is valid for 5yrs)
Officer cadet training:	this course is designed for USAFA and ROTC cadets scheduled to fly as part of their training program. (upon completion individuals are certified for 4 years. )
Civilian:	wing commanders may authorize altitude chamber training for civilian personnel when required for military orientation flights.
Refresher Training:	designed to recertify those who complete the original or HAP initial training. all members must complete refresher training once every five years unless exempt.
Track E- Formally Executive refresher training:	General Officers and colonels (O-6 or higher) serving as wing commanders/vice, group/vice wing commanders, E-9 command chief, and MAJCOM surgeons may attend an academic refresher course.
ROBD reduced oxygen breathing device:	system that provides aircrew/parachutists with hypoxia recognition and emergency training procedures.
Refresher Training ROBD: requirements:	Aircrew whose aircraft oxygen systems and emergency procedures are not adequately represented. All other aircrews may attend instead of altitude chamber. FTUs in transition physiological training.
TRUE or FALSE. RPA aircrew has no hypoxia training requirements. Altitude chamber and ROBD training is not a part of RPA initial or refresher physiological training.	TRUE
Physiological training requisites:	The HARM office is responsible for notifying the member of physiological training expiration three months in advance, proper filing of 1274s and monitoring the return of the form during refresher training attendance.
Physiological training requisites: continued	The member must hand carry their IDS, and a current 2992. DNIF members can not perform physiological training until they are UP.
TRUE or FALSE. The aerospace and operational physiological personnel will generate an AF Form 1274 to document physiological training which the physiologist will sign.	TRUE
What two windows in ARMS are updated when processing AF Form 1274?	The flyer availability window. The formal training window.
What are the steps to process physiological training in ARMS:	Step1. Click resource, type in last name, click on members name, click the FLYER Availability window. Step2. under the Physiological Information check the Required box. Step3. update info in the Physiological training date according to the 1274. SAVE.
What are the steps to process physiological training in ARMS: continued	Step4. click Formal training and click the (+/- sign), enter course number (TASK ID) based on the 1274. Step5. Enter the type in the Title field. Step6. enter accomplishment date in the Completed Date according to the 1274. click SAVE.
Before updating new AF Form 1274 you must Delete what in ARMS?	any old refresher training ( training with the same name) in the formal training window as ARMS will not accept the training with the same identifier.
For Rated officers aviation service begins when...	they are in training leading toward the award of the basic rating. The member must be qualified for aviation service before the publication of an AO authorizing aviation service.
For CEAs, ASD is based on....	initial entry into flying training awarding DAFSC 1AXXX/1UXXX.
ASD will not be established for all aircrew members before what?	before the member is medically certified for flying duty.
ASD aviation service date determines ___by establishing ____...	entitlement to incentive pay, the start date to a member's aviation service.
ASD adjustment reasons:	dis-enrolled from training & later reentered training medical disqualification break in service previous US military flying service
TRUE or FALSE. Adjusting a member's ASD, buys rated officers time to meet OFDA gate requirements and extends flying incentive pay entitlements by discounting the time spent while separated, retired, or in non-permanent disqualified status.	TRUE
ASD adjustments for CEAs does what?	helps them meet badge requirements and accurately track years of aviation service.
What publication outlines the rules for ASD adjustments?	AFMAN 11-402
ASD adjustments may be....	automatic or by request of the aircrew member.
the HARM office will first process the new ASD where?	In ARMS.
Once the ASD is adjusted by HARM and the new date is in ARMS and finance system the HARM must....	publish a MPO military pay order( this adjusts the member's rate of pay.)
When will the HARM stop the member's AVIP entitlement?	one calendar day before the member returned to aviation service, and restart the member's AVIP entitlement one calendar day after the pay stop date on the same MPO.( the HARM will list the new ASD in the remarks section of the MPO.)
Processing an MPO: Harm will take the following actions:	Use the ASD adjustment calculator and update the new ASD in the CAREER AVIATION window in ARMS. Publish an AO with the new ASD. Send the AO to AF/A3TM(for regular mbrs) or AFRC/A3RA (for ARC mbrs) for MILPDS update.
MPO actions: If an ASD adjustment changes a member's flight incentive pay from conditional to continuous the...	HARM will publish an MPO.
MPO actions: HARM actions	HARM offices will list the new ASD in the remarks section Disqualification/break in service the member will not receive incentive pay. (different for CEAs).Harm will stop mebr's CEFIP eff.30SEP99. as of 01OCT17 CSIP/OFDA were elim'd for Advanced badges.
Ratings and badges symbolize degrees of....	achievement and experience in an aircrew or parachutist specialty.
What publication outlines the rules for ratings and badges?	DAFMAN 11-401
Aeronautical Ratings:	Commissioned officer(Rated Members) are eligible for USAF aeronautical ratings.
Aeronautical Ratings: Two Types	Basic Advanced
Pilots, RPA Pilots, Navigators, CSOs and ABMs receive their Basic aeronautical rating when?	upon completion of undergraduate flying training (UFT). the AETC commander awards this rating
Different Types of Aeronautical Ratings:	Pilot: Basic, Senior, and Command RPA Pilot: Basic, Senior, and Command Navigator: Basic, Senior, and Command ABM: Basic, Senior, and Command
Different Types of Aeronautical Ratings: continued	Flight Surgeon: Basic, Senior, Chief Observer: Basic, Senior, and Master CSO: Basic, Senior, and Master
What rating signifies a member has achieved a higher level of flying experience with the rated specialty?	Advanced Aeronautical Rating
Advanced Ratings are awarded based on what?	Years of service and number of flying hours or months of OFD. (operational flying duty)
Years of Rated Service:	are computed from the date the officer received their Basic USAF aeronautical rating minus any breaks in service/suspended/disqualified(except 07), resigned, separated, or relieved of their commission.
Military Flying Time:	is creditable toward an Advanced Aeronautical rating
Military Flying Time: requirements may be satisfied in two ways:	1. the sum of all flight times logged under the current rating.(Total time on the flying history report) 2. Combine the different flight time categories to meet the minimum hours. ( primary, instructor, and/or evaluator time) (both not req)
Operational Flying Duty Accumulator (OFDA):	If a member does not have sufficient military flying time, they may still be awarded the Advanced Rating as long as the member has accumulated enough OFDA.
Aviation and Parachutist Badges:	Non-rated officers are awarded the Basic badge upon completion of the qual eval and assigned DAFS prefix. (permanently awarded after completion of 18 months aviation service, and 12 paid months of operational flying must fly 4 hours per month).
What publication should be referenced in regards to specific requirements for badges?	AFMAN 11-402
How to out-process a member: member responsibilities	notify HARM at least 5 duty days before departure pick up FEF from stan/eval provide a copy of orders to HARM, complete HARM out-process checklist, complete PHA and physiological training within 3 months after departure or departing overseas.
Harm responsibilities: Out-processing a member:	1. Initiate out-process checklist 2. Contact SARM to ensure all of the member's flying time/jump and training events have been processed in ARMS (SARM will provide the members ITS), Set up JRF pickup for parachutists, out process member in ARMS.
Out-process steps in ARMS:	Click resource, type member's last name in, Click flyer widow under Organization assign 9999sqdsq, Out process data click out-process, click reason, enter gaining HARM info (if separating/retiring enter FGWD, enter close out date, click SAVE,
Out-process steps in ARMS: continued	click yes for the pop-up window that says print products, (these reports will be a part of the out-process package sent to member via email), prepare JRF for parachutist( HARM maintains package for 60days)
How to in process a member:	initiate checklist and inspect content of the JRF or electronic records for required documents, in-process member in ARMS, click resource type in name of member select in-process button
What are the minimum products required for in-process:	ITS, AF Form 1520/152a/1521, Down status 2992, entitlement status letter and conditional pay briefings.
What are the most common flying hour reports?	FHR flying history report, IFR individual flight record, and IFTS individual flying time summary
FHR:	records the entire flying history of a n aircrew member.
FHR: two sections:	Aircraft totals= lists individuals totals for each MDS assigned Career total= lists individual's totals of each crew position(s)
What is total time?	the combination of primary, secondary, instructor, evaluator, and other time.
IFR:	defined as a line by line of flying transactions input since last annual or PCS report.
IFTS:	provides info for the member's primary aircraft and includes a transaction by transaction listing of all flying hours and sorties logged for a specific requested time , up to 18 months back from the date of request.
IFTS: Three parts:	Part one: aircraft MDS, date of each flight, serial number, and time logged. Part2: summary of part one. Part 3: summary of part one and two.
AMSL: Aviation Management Suspense List-	designed to identify errors in a member's ARMS records and provides a detailed list of suspense actions required by the HARM office.
AMSL: Nine sections	Part 0=ERRORS Part 1= ASC 06 Part 2= DNIF/Suspended Part 3= Disqualification action Part 4= Reassignment pending Part 5= Inbound Part 7= aircrew rating Part 8= Withhold OFDA credit Part 9= ASC change for OFDA credit
CHARMS Report Audit List- Consolidated Headquarters Aviation Resource Management System Report Audit List:	Shows all members with logic errors in their records.
ASPL- Aviation Service Period Suspense List:	provides information needed to administer the ACIA of 1974, the ACIA of 1989 and the NDAAs of 1996 and 2000. has two parts: Valid reports and Error records
ASPL- Aviation Service Period Suspense List: shows the following:	lists each record with data not compatible with ACIA criteria provides a 4mon projection of mandatory ASC changes presents info that is needed to prep new AOs serves as a source doc to publish an AO and update member's records
Valid records: sections	Projected for continuous entitlement. Will pass 25 years aviation service. Projected for conditional entitlement.
Error Records:	is a one line entries for each member with errors in ARMS (lists info whose ARMS data isn't compatible with the incentive pay criteria)
TRUE or FALSE. IAW AFMAN 11-402, commanders must provide a 120 day notice in writing before involuntarily terminating the aviation service of a non-CEA enlisted member(except parachutist).	TRUE
Entitlement status letter:	used to notify career aviators of incentive pay entitlement termination or change in status(continuous to conditional or vice versa). The CHARM will sign and send one copy to the member for signature and file the other copy in the member's record.
UMD: Unit manpower document-	is used to determine by the minimum manpower requirements to accomplish organization missions, and balances the manpower resource budget and consults w/commander/leadership to ensure resources are utilized efficiently.
UPMR: Unit Personnel Management	Used to manage flying and jump positions, Shows projected assignment leaving the base, projected departure date(month&YR), and projected inbound personnel(month and YR).
UMD:	is a computer product detailing a unit's organization and manpower composition. provides commanders a consolidated doc detailing org structure, req for the number of personnel, skills, grades, sec req for manpower auths, and API for each auth.
Importance of UPMR and UMD:	used in conjunction with each other to prevent double billet (assignment of two or more members to the same position number).
HARM responsibility	validate changes of personal info with the unit's CSS. Validate DAFSC, API, and effective date of duty, and UMD position upon in-processing.
What are circumstances in which 1C0X2s will review flying hour reports with members?	in-processing, prior to conducting a flight records review, during a records review and after reconciling flying hours.
Steps once discrepancies are found:	locate the source document update the ARMS database with the correction perform a new audit of the info that was updated

BLOCK 2 CDCS

STUDY GUIDE B2 UNIT 2

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