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Forensics 1116 Final
Chapters 11-17
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| A regenerated fiber can be derived from... a. acetate b. rayon c. cellulose d. polyester | c. Cellulose |
| Which is NOT a synthetic fiber? a. polyester b. acrylic c. rayon d. all are synthetic | c. rayon |
| Nuclear DNA typing can be most successfully accomplished on hairs that have been removed during which stage of growth? a. catagenic b. anagenic c. mutagenic d. telogenic | b. anagenic |
| A fiber whose microscopic appearance includes being ribbon-like in shape (flat) with twists at irregular intervals is... a. linen b. kapok c. polyester d. cotton | d. cotton |
| Which part of the hair shaft is most resistant to chemical decomposition? a. cortex b. cuticle c. follicle d. medulla | b. cuticle |
| Which race is most likely to have head hair with continuous medullae? a. caucasian b. native american c. negroid d. mongoloid | d. mongoloid |
| Which would produce "fingerprints" of the fibers? a. Infrared spectrophotometry b. Examination of dye composition using visible light microspectrophotometer c. Microscopic examination for color and diameter of fibers d. Making a cross sectiona | a. Infrared spectrophotometry |
| The central canal running through many hairs is known as the... a. cortex b. shaft c. cuticle d. medulla | d. medulla |
| Microscopic hair comparisons must be regarded by police and courts as... a. individualizing b. useless c. presumptive d. conclusive | c. presumptive |
| Forcibly removed hairs are most likely to provide useful DNA evidence because they bear... a. catagenic roots b. telogenic roots c. follicular tissue d. mitochondria | c. follicular tissue |
| Which statement is true? a. Hair can be individualized through its trace elemental composition. b. Two hairs from the same head may not have the same morphological characteristics. c. Hair is routinely examined to determine sex. d. The racial | b. Two hairs from the same head may not have the same morphological characteristics. |
| Rayon is classified as a... a. plant fiber b. synthetic fiber c. regenerated fiber d. natural fiber | c. regenerated fiber |
| By far the most prevalent plant fiber is... a. silk b. linen c. cotton d. kapok | c. Cotton |
| The visible light microspectrophotometer is a convenient tool with which to compare the color of fibers because... a. very small samples can be compared b. fibers can be studied right on a microscope slide c. fibers are not destroyed d. all | d. all of the above |
| Which of the following properties should be examined when comparing two fibers? a. diameter b. birefringence c. color d. all of the above | d. all of the above |
| The rate of human hair growth per month is... a. 1 cm b. 1 dm c. 1 in d. 1 mL | a. 1 cm |
| Beard hairs are coarse and normally ________ in cross-section. a. triangular b. oval c. ribbon-like d. round | a. triangular |
| A human head hair is best characterized by... a. its scale pattern b. a medulla that is more than 1.2 the overall diameter of the hair shaft c. a medulla that is absent or is less than 1/3 the overall diameter of the hair shaft d. the absence | c. a medulla that is absent or is less than 1/3 the overall diameter of the hair shaft |
| The cortex of hair derives its major forensic importance from the fact that it contains... a. DNA b. pigments c. medullae d. scales | b. pigments |
| It is a virtual certainty that two fabrics share a common origin if their fibers... a. can be fitted together at their town edges b. have the same color c. appear identical in cross section d. have the same striations | a. can be fitted together at their torn edges |
| Which step in the examination of fibers would logically be taken first? a. infrared spectrophotometry b. examination of dye composition using visible light microspectrophotometer c. microscopic examination for color and diameter of fibers d. | c. microscopic examination for color and diameter of fibers |
| The layers of the hair shaft are the ________, the ________, and the ________. a. cuticle, root, medulla b. pigment, cortex, pigment c. cuticle, cortex, medulla d. cortex, mitochondria, pigment | c. cuticle, cortex, medulla |
| Which feature of hair is MOST important in making a species identification? a. scale pattern b. shaft length c. bulb size d. follicle shape | a. scale pattern |
| Medullae may be classified as being... a. continuous b. interrupted or absent c. fragmented d. all of the above | d. all of the above |
| Which of the following properties should not be examined when comparing two synthetic fibers? a. diameter b. lengthwise striations c. medullary index d. presence or absence of delustering particles | c. medullary index |
| Marijuana is considered to be a... a. stimulant b. narcotic c. hallucinogen d. depressant | c. hallucinogen |
| Which of the following is considered to be a hallucinogen? a. psilocybin b. all of the above c. phencyclidine(PCP) d. mescaline b. all of the above | b. all of the above |
| Use of which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to lead to psychological dependence? a. heroin b. cocaine c. codeine d. alcohol | c. codeine |
| Drugs deemed to have the highest potential for abuse and having a current medical use are listed in which schedule of the Controlled Substances Act? a. IV b. III c. I d. II | d. II |
| Barbiturates act to... a. all of the above b. produce sleep c. create a feeling of well-being d. promote relaxation | a. all of the above |
| Heroin is a chemical derivative of... a. morphine b. methadone c. codeine d. barbituric acid | a. morphine |
| The Controlled Substance Act established five schedules of classification for substances based on the drugs... a. potential for physical dependence b. all of the above c. potential for psychological dependence d. medical value | b. all of the above |
| Which is true of the use of mild tranquilizers? a. they reduce tension b. they do not produce dependency c. they induce sleep d. they impair high-thinking faculties | a. they reduce tension |
| The use of which drug will NOT lead to physical dependence? a. cocaine b. heroin c. alcohol d. barbiturates | a. cocaine |
| The Dillie-Koppanyi reagent is useful in screening for... a. barbiturates b. amphetamines c. marijuana d. opiates | a. barbiturates |
| Which hallucinogen can be synthesized by a simple chemical process and is often manufactured in clandestine laboratories? a. marijuana b. LSD c. mescaline d. PCP | d. PCP |
| Which physical symptom is part of the abstinence syndrome? a. body chills b. convulsions c. stomach cramps and vomiting d. all of the above | d. all of the above |
| Which is the most widely used illicit drug in the United States today? a. cocaine b. alcohol c. marijuana d. heroin | c. marijuana |
| The specificity of microcrystalline tests is ________ the specificity of color tests. a. less than b. the same as c. none of the above d. greater than | d. greater than |
| Duquenois-Levine solutions were used on a sample and the chloroform layer turned purple. This suggests that the tested substance is... a. cocaine b. valium c. marijuana d. heroin | c. marijuana |
| The tranquilizers Valium and Librium are classified in which schedule of the Controlled Substances Act? a. I b. II c. III d. IV | d. IV |
| Methamphetamine is a... a. stimulant b. hallucinogen c. depressant d. tranquilizer | a. stimulant |
| A compound can tentatively be identified by gas chromatography from its... a. retention time b. carrier gas c. Rf value d. partition coefficient | a. retention time |
| The Marquis Reagent was used on drug evidence and it turned purple. The drug being tested could be... a. cocaine b. heroin c. either A or B d. methadone | b. heroin |
| What is true about the "club drug" Rohypnol? a. It is enhanced when combined with alcohol. b. All of the above c. It results in loss of memory of what happened in the hours after ingestion. d. It is odorless, colorless, and tasteless. | b. All of the above |
| Which is the most widely used and abused drug? a. heroin b. alcohol c. marijuana d. cocaine | b. alcohol |
| Which absorption spectrum is equivalent to a "fingerprint" of a substance and can be used for identification purposes? a. x-ray b. visible c. UV d. IR | d. IR |
| Which part of cannabis contains the LEAST amount of THC? a. resin b. seeds c. leaf d. flower | b. seeds |
| The emission spectrograph is used to determine the... a. crystalline structure of a substance b. elemental composition of a substance c. weight of a substance d. mass of a substance | b. elemental composition of a substance |
| Neutron activation analysis involves bombarding specimens with neutrons and then measuring the resultant... a. beta particles b. x-rays c. alpha particles d. gamma rays | d. gamma rays |
| Paint binders can be chemically analyzed using... a. TLC b. Pyrolysis GC c. IR spectrophotometry d. Both B and C | d. Both B and C |
| If soil is found adhering to an object, the investigator should remove the soil particles from the object and send them to the laboratory. TRUE or FALSE | FALSE |
| The variety of coatings applied to the body of an automobile adds significant diversity to automobile paint and contributes to the forensic significance of automobile paint comparisons. TRUE or FALSE | TRUE |
| The minerals found in different soil samples cannot effectively be used to determine whether or not they have the same origin. TRUE or FALSE | FALSE |
| Emission spectroscopy measures the frequency of light emitted by an atom when one of its electrons moves to a higher orbital. TRUE or FALSE | FALSE |
| Which is NOT part of the composition of paint? a. adhesive b. binder c. pigment d. solvent | a. adhesive |
| An element is selective in the frequency of light it will absorb. This selectivity is due to its... a. proton cloud b. electron energy levels c. number of neutrons d. atomic mass | b. electron energy levels |
| Paint chips may be individualized to a single source by examining their... a. color and layer structure b. ultraviolet spectra c. pyrograms d. infrared spectra | a. color and layer structure |
| Automobile finishes typically contain which layer(s)? a. an electrocoat primer, colorcoat, and clearcoat b. colorcoat c. electrocoat primer and colorcoat d. clearcoat | a. an electrocoat primer, colorcoat, and clearcoat |
| After the paint has been applied to a surface, the solvent evaporates. TRUE or FALSE | TRUE |
| After examining small paint chips from an auto accident scene and using the PDQ database, the crime lab worker can determine the ________ of the vehicle. a. year b. make c. model d. all of the above | d. all of the above |
| What type of evidence would be expected to have trace elements? a. paint and bullet fragments b. glass and metal objects c. soil and gun primer particles d. all of the above | d. all of the above |
| What is the logical first step in soil analysis? a. Examination of minerals and rocks under high-power magnification b. Use of the density-gradient tube technique c. Comparison of dried soil sample for color and texture d. Examination for pres | c. Comparison of dried soil sample for color and texture |
| Standard/reference soil samples should be collected at the site of the crime at various intervals within a 100-foot radius of the crime scene. TRUE or FALSE | TRUE |
| Which property imparts paint with its most distinctive forensic characteristics? a. color-layer sequence b. gloss c. color d. texture | a. color-layer sequence |
| The ________ properties of crystals, such as refractive index and birefringence, provide points of identification that help characterize them. a. chemical b. optical c. amorphous d. physical | b. optical |
| Which coat represents the "eye appeal"? a. electrocoat primer b. clearcoat c. basecoat d. primer surface | c. basecoat |
| Which would be LEAST useful in identifying a mineral crystal? a. geometric shape b. size c. color d. refractive index | b. size |
| It is not necessary that the collected paint from a vehicle involved in a hit-and-run accident be close to the area of the car suspected of being in contact with the victim. TRUE or FALSE | FALSE |
| Which coating provides resistance to corrosion? a. basecoat b. electrocoat primer c. clearcoat d. primer surface | b. electrocoat primer |
| vPaint as physical evidence is most frequently encountered in... a. burglary b. a hit and run c. car theft d. Both A and B | b. a hit and run |
| The concentration of the absorbing element is directly proportional to the quantity of the light absorbed. TRUE or FALSE | TRUE |
| The investigator should not try to remove trace paint evidence found on a tool but package the tool for laboratory examination instead. TRUE or FALSE | TRUE |
| Nonmotile sperm generally survive for up to four to six hours in the vaginal cavity of a living female. TRUE or FALSE | FALSE |
| Chromosomes are the fundamental units of heredity. TRUE or FALSE | FALSE |
| A stain can tentatively be identified as blood by... a. the luminol test b. the phenolphthalein test c. the benzidine test d. all of the above | d. all of the above |
| Biological evidence should be packaged in plastic or airtight containers. TRUE or FALSE | FALSE |
| In which phenotype pairings can the genotypes of the individuals be directly known? a. Type B and type O b. Type A and type AB c. Type AB and type O d. Type A and type B | c. Type AB and type O |
| Aspermia is an abnormally low sperm count. TRUE or FALSE | FALSE |
| Acid-phosphatase is a major constituent of... a. perspiration b. blood c. semen d. saliva | c. Semen |
| The D antigen is also known as the ________ antigen. a. Rh b. X c. AB d. Monoclonal | a. Rh |
| Luminol can be used at crime scenes to... a. Light up the crime scene with a high degree of illumination. b. Detect traces of blood without compromising potential DNA typing. c. Make hair evidence fluoresce. d. Locate latent prints that otherw | b. Detect traces of blood without compromising potential DNA typing. |
| Antibodies are found... a. in the blood serum b. in the solid portion of blood c. in the red blood cells d. in the white blood cells | a. in the blood serum |
| One parent is type AB; the other parent is type O. A possible genotype for an offspring is... a. AO b. OO c. AB d. None of the above | a. AO |
| In routine blood banking, which antigen(s) must be determined in testing for compatibility? a. A b. B c. D d. All of the above | d. all of the above |
| Buccal cells are obtained from... a. the mouth and inside the cheek b. blood c. urine d. semen | a. the mouth and inside the cheek |
| If blood is found to have both A and B antigens it is typed as... a. A b. B c. AB d. O | c. AB |
| What is true about monoclonal antibodies? a. They are produced by injecting a mouse with an antigen. b. They are produced utilizing rapidly multiplying blood-cancer cells. c. They are expected to be medicine's version of the "magic bullet." d. | d. all of the above |
| Which of the following statements is false? a. The Kastle-Meyer test is used to determine whether blood is of human origin. b. All bloods contain the enzyme peroxidase. c. A-B-O antigens are present in all human blood. d. Dried bloodstains may | a. The Kastle-Meyer test is used to determine whether blood is of human origin. |
| People with type O blood have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells. TRUE or FALSE | FALSE |
| The clumping together of red blood cells by the action of an antibody is known as... a. Clotting b. Radioimmunology c. Serology d. Agglutination | d. Agglutination |
| A gene pair made up of two similar alleles—for example, AA and BB—is said to be... a. homozygous b. monoclonal c. heterozygous d. complementary | a. homozygous |
| The presence of ________ indicates that a stain is seminal in nature. a. p30 b. PGM c. DNA d. Peroxidase | a. p30 |
| Most human cells contain forty-six chromosomes, arranged in twenty-three mated pairs. TRUE or FALSE | TRUE |
| An individual who is type O has... a. O antibodies b. B antibodies c. A antibodies d. Both A and B antibodies | d. Both A and B antibodies |
| The amount of acid phosphatase in seminal fluid is ________ the amount of acid phosphatase in blood. a. greater than b. the same as c. less than d. none of the above | a. greater than |
| Type AB blood contains... a. Anti-A antigens and anti-B antibodies b. Anti-A antibodies and B antigens c. Both A and B antigens d. Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies | c. Both A and B antigen |
| Means to detect the amelogenin gene are included in commercial STR kits used in crime labs because the gene allows determination of... a. enthnicity b. blood type c. gender d. eye color | c. gender |
| The molecular structure of DNA was deduced by... a. Gregor Mendel b. James Watson c. Francis Crick d. Both B and C | d. Both B and C |
| Which nitrogenous base is NOT found in DNA? a. uracil b. adenine c. cytosine d. thymine | a. uracil |
| The building blocks of the DNA molecule are known as... a. nucleotides b. amino acids c. polysaccharides d. hydrocarbons | a. nucleotides |
| What is the number of nitrogenous bases needed to code for a specific amino acid? a. 3 b. 2 c. 5 d. 6 | a. 3 |
| STRs normally consist of repeating sequences of... a. 3-7 bases b. 13-17 bases c. 18-20 bases d. 8-12 bases | a. 3-7 bases |
| Assume that two strands of DNA have been separated and that the base sequence on one strand is ATGC. State the sequence of bases on the second strand. a. GCAT b. TGGC c. ACTC d. TACG | d. TACG |
| Which component of DNA forms the backbone of the molecule? a. sugar b. nitrogenous base c. phosphate group d. Both A and C | d. both A and C |
| As currently performed, DNA-profiling technology cannot provide information helpful in... a. Matching a suspect to biological evidence found at a crime scene. b. Settling matters of questioned paternity/maternity. c. Determining whether an indivi | c. Determining whether an individual carries a genetic defect. |
| In the PCR process, the first step is to heat the DNA strands. This is to permit the... a. Double-stranded molecules to separate completely. b. Hybridization to take place. c. Process to take place without DNA degradation. d. DNA to coil very | a. Double-stranded molecules to separate completely. |
| The concept of simultaneously extracting, amplifying, and detecting a combination of STRs is known as... a. PCR b. THO1 c. Electrophoresis d. Multiplexing | d. multiplexing |
| A typical STR DNA type emanating from a single individual shows a ________ band pattern. a. Three b. zero c. two d. one | c. two |
| Use this DNA STR pattern of evidence from a rape investigation to answer the following question(s). a. He is homozygous for the gene. b. He is trisomic for the trait. c. His DNA was contaminated during the collection process. d. Band shifting | a. He is homozygous for the gene. |
| PCR is a technique that... a. Provides a statistical analysis of the nitrogenous-base pairings. b. Virtually eliminates operator error from DNA analysis. c. Produces information regarding the sequence of nitrogenous bases. d. Can produce many | d. Can produce many exact copies of segments of DNA. |
| Which of the following depicts correct base-pairing in DNA? a. C-T b. A-U c. T-A d. G-A | c. T-A |
| The technology of DNA typing had its beginnings in 1985 with the work of... a. Henry Lee b. Francis Crick c. James Watson d. Alec Jeffreys | d. Alec Jeffreys |
| How many different bases are associated with the makeup of DNA? a. 6 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 | c. 4 |
| The amount of DNA material required for STR analysis is ________ the amount of DNA required for RFLP analysis. a. the same as b. greater then c. less than d. none of the above | c. less than |
| In DNA replication, polymerases... a. Separate the strands of the double helix. b. Enable the strands to unwind from the helix. c. Help assemble the new DNA strands in proper base sequence. d. All of the above | polymerases... a. Separate the strands of the double helix. b. Enable the strands to unwind from the helix. c. Help assemble the new DNA strands in proper base sequence. d. All of the above c. Help assemble the new DNA strands in proper ba |
| How should blood-containing clothes from a victim be packaged? a. in an airtight clear plastic container b. in a metal paint can c. in an airtight metal container d. in breathable paper after blood has dried | d. in breathable paper after blood has dried |
| The rate at which large DNA fragments move through the electrophoretic gel is ________ the rate at which small DNA fragments move through the same apparatus. a. less than b. greater than c. the same as d. none of the above | a. less than |
| Whole blood collected for DNA typing purposes must be placed in a vacuum containing the preservative... a. CODIS b. Rh factor c. ethylene glycol d. EDTA | d. EDTA |
| DNA is a(n)... a. protein b. enzyme c. starch d. polymer | d. polymer |
| The separation of STRs using capillary electrophoresis... a. is currently the preferred method b. evolved from the flat-gel electrophoresis approach c. decreases analysis time d. all of the above | d. all of the above |
| The discriminating power of mtDNA is ________ the discriminating power of STR analysis. a. greater than b. less than c. the same as d. none of the above | b. less than |
| Which is available in commercial form as fertilizer? a. Triacetone triperoxide b. Ammonium nitrate c. Diazodinitrophenol d. Potassium chlorate | b. Ammonium nitrate |
| Which is a homemade explosive that has been used by terrorist organizations in the Middle East? a. RDX b. TATP c. TNT d. PETN | b. TATP |
| What is the major advantage of using the vapor concentration technique with gas chromatography? a. Ability to determine relative concentration of solid residues b. Low resolution of peaks associated with volatile residues c. High sensitivity for | c. High sensitivity for detecting volatile residues |
| Which is a chemical used to synthesize the explosive TATP? a. Aluminum b. Magnesium c. Hydrogen peroxide d. Potassium chlorate | c. Hydrogen peroxide |
| A fuel can only achieve combustion in... a. The gaseous state. b. A liquid-solid phase. c. The liquid state. d. The solid state | a. The gaseous state. |
| Which is NOT a high explosive? a. TNT b. black powder c. RDX d. dynamite | b. black powder |
| Which type(s) of screening and confirmation tests are used for analyzing evidence of explosives? a. TLC b. gas chromatography/mass spectrometry c. color spot tests d. All of the above | d. all of the above |
| Most explosives can be recovered from debris for future study by being rinsed with... a. toluene b. water c. kerosene d. acetone | d. acetone |
| What is the concentration at which a vapor-to-fuel mixture in the air is capable of burning? a. flammable range b. lethal range c. heat of combustion d. spontaneous concentration | a. flammable range |
| High explosives can be classified as either ________ or ________ explosives. a. initial; secondary b. primary; secondary c. military grade; non-military grade d. civilian; military | b. primary; secondary |
| What is the rapid combination of oxygen with a fuel, which produces a noticeable release of energy? a. explosion b. combustion c. ignition d. the flash point | b. combustion |
| Hydrocarbon accelerants can be detected by... a. a portable detector(sniffer) b. trained dogs c. most people d. both A and B | d. both A and B |
| Arson investigators must work quickly to collect evidence at a fire scene because... a. Accelerants in soil may rapidly degrade. b. Accelerant residues may quickly evaporate. c. Safety requirements may require that cleanup and salvage operations | d. All of the above |
| Which of the following CANNOT be determined from a laboratory examination of evidence recovered from an arson? a. The ignition mechanism used by the arsonist b. The presence of gasoline, kerosene, or turpentine in debris c. The brand name of gaso | c. The brand name of gasoline used to start the fire |
| Which is the most widely used low explosive? a. potassium chlorate and sugar b. black powder c. smokeless powder d. both B and C | d. both B and C |
| Telltale signs of arson include... a. trails of burn patterns b. separate points of origin c. the presence of containers d. all of the above | d. all of the above |
| Which is an explosive readily detonated by heat or shock? a. ANFO b. primary explosive c. secondary explosive d. dynamite | b. primary explosive |
| Which is an initiating explosive often used in detonators? a. PETN b. dynamite c. TNT d. lead azide | d. lead azide |
| Which chemical reaction is associated with a fire? a. reduction b. oxidation c. precipitation d. none of the above | b. oxidation |
| When investigators search a fire scene, the first focus must be on... a. Finding the origin of the fire. b. Taking photographs and making sketches. c. Interviewing eyewitnesses. d. All of the above | a. finding the origin of the fire |
| Many explosives must have their own source of... a. energy b. oxygen c. heat d. fuel | b. oxygen |
| Complex chromatographic accelerant patterns can be simplified by... a. mass spectrometry b. thin-layer chromatography c. gas chromatography d. headspace analysis | b. mass spectrometry |
| Which is a technique used to screen objects for the presence of explosive residues? a. X-ray diffraction b. Mass spectrometry c. Ion-mobility spectrometry d. Infrared spectrophotometry | c. Ion-mobility spectrometry |
| Which instrumentation is considered the most sensitive and reliable for detecting and characterizing flammable residues? a. GC b. IR c. NAA d. TLC | a. GC |
| Which is often used as the explosive core in a detonating cord? a. TNT b. RDX c. PETN d. C-4 | c. PETN |
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Imaglich