Which diseases affect the neurological system? Select all that apply: -

multiple sclerosis, Bell's palsy, epilepsy, and Parkinson's disease.

when the opening that normally keeps the stomach contents in the stomach opens, allowing them to move upward into the esophagus. It is abbreviated and is commonly referred to as GERD. -

gastroesophageal reflux disease

tinea infection of the nails on the hands or feet -

nail fungal infection (tinea unguium or onychomycosis)

Which diseases affect the hematologic system? Select all that apply: -

thrombocytopenia, anemia, hematoma, and von Willebrand disease

a deficiency of red blood cells or its component, hemoglobin (Hgb) -

anemia (aplastic, folic acid deficiency, hemolytic, iron deficiency, pernicious, and sickle cell)

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Medical Review 2

Imported set

Term	Definition
Which diseases affect the neurological system? Select all that apply: -	multiple sclerosis, Bell's palsy, epilepsy, and Parkinson's disease.
GERD and diverticulitis are diseases of which body system? -	gastrointestinal
a generalized seizure, in which there are brief, rapid muscle contractions -	myoclonic seizure
chronic progressive neurological disease that leads to deterioration of motor function -	Parkinson's disease
a generalized seizure in which a lapse of awareness that begins and ends abruptly -	absence seizure
a generalized seizure in which the patient goes rigid and then begins jerking movements -	tonic-clonic seizure
when individuals have two or more seizures and there is no known cause -	epilepsy
when the opening that normally keeps the stomach contents in the stomach opens, allowing them to move upward into the esophagus. It is abbreviated and is commonly referred to as GERD. -	gastroesophageal reflux disease
chronic inflammatory disease of any part of the digestive system -	Crohn's disease
sores and inflammation in the lining of the colon or rectum -	ulcerative colitis
a disorder that includes recurring abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea or constipation, and cramping -	irritable bowel syndrome
ulcer(s) in the stomach or duodenum -	peptic ulcer disease
Diverticula are bulging pouches in the intestine, usually the large intestine. Inflammation of the diverticula (diverticulitis) causes abdominal pain and bowel movement changes. -	diverticulitis
occurs on moist areas of the skin that are not exposed to light, such as skinfolds -	candida
tinea infection of the foot -	athlete's foot (tinea pedis)
tinea infection in the groin area -	jock itch (tinea cruris)
tinea infection on the body or scalp -	ringworm (tinea corporis)
tinea infection of the nails on the hands or feet -	nail fungal infection (tinea unguium or onychomycosis)
bone disease that causes the bones to become weak and brittle -	osteoporosis
inflammation of the bursa -	bursitis
inflammation of the tendon -	tendinitis
disease characterized by chronic musculoskeletal pain, stiffness, tenderness, and fatigue -	fibromyalgia
muscles contract more than normal due to stress or injury -	muscle-over contraction
a contagious skin infection usually caused by staphylococcus bacteria -	impetigo
an infection of subcutaneous tissue; can be life-threatening if not treated -	cellulitis
an infection of the hair follicle that is not acne -	folliculitis
Which diseases affect the hematologic system? Select all that apply: -	thrombocytopenia, anemia, hematoma, and von Willebrand disease
thinning skin, easy bruising, acne, weight gain around midsection and upper back, moon face, stretch marks, and slow healing wounds -	Cushing syndrome
extreme fatigue, weight loss, darkening of skin, low blood pressure, low blood sugar, abdominal pain, depression, and salt craving -	Addison disease
anxiety, hand tremor, increased sweating, bulging eyes, fatigue, and thick red skin on the shins -	Graves' disease
fatigue, sensitivity to cold, dry skin, weight gain, puffy face, hoarseness, and thinning hair -	hypothyroidism
if a patient has small red bumps or white heads developed around hair follicles, what might the patient be developing? -	folliculitis
sends information out from the CNS -	efferent system
regulates non-voluntary activities like breathing, digestion, and circulation -	autonomic system
regulates voluntary skeletal muscles. The only neurotransmitter is acetylcholine. -	somatic system
brings information into the CNS -	afferent system
insects that remains in the hair and on the skin of the head; can lay eggs that cause reinfestation; easily transferred to other people if there are shared objects -	lice
can metastasize to other organs of the body -	squamous cell
insects that can be on the skin or burrow under the skin; can be transmitted to another person; entire body requires treatment -	scabies
on the skin surface, often as a result of sun damage -	basal cell
most severe and aggressive form of skin cancer -	melanoma
a deficiency of red blood cells or its component, hemoglobin (Hgb) -	anemia (aplastic, folic acid deficiency, hemolytic, iron deficiency, pernicious, and sickle cell)
a localized accumulation of blood -	hematoma
a decrease in platelets caused by either a reduced production or increased destruction -	thrombocytopenia
a deficiency in a protein (von Willebrand factor) that aids in forming blood clots -	von Willebrand disease
severe disease in which many tumors grow in the lymph system of the body -	lymphangiomatosis
localized fluid retention due to a blockage in the lymphatic system -	lymphedema
a rare disease of the lymph nodes -	Castleman disease
cancer of the lymph nodes -	lymphoma
can manifest later in life for someone who has previously had chicken pox; the virus can lay dormant for years and then become active -	shingles
herpes virus infection around the mouth or genital area -	herpes simplex
easily transmitted to another person. A person is contagious up to two weeks prior to symptoms and while blisters remain -	chicken pox
common warts are on the skin, but there are also genital or perianal warts -	warts
pain in the pelvis, abdomen, lower back and vagina, fever, nausea, cramping, vaginal discharge, and abnormal uterine bleeding -	pelvic inflammation
frequent urge to urinate, increased frequency of urination at night, weak urine stream, and the inability to completely empty bladder -	benign prostatic hyperplasia
painful periods, painful intercourse, painful bowel movements, heavy periods, infertility, bloating, and nausea -	endometriosis
inability in males to get or keep an erection and anxiety -	erectile dysfunction
infection of the kidney, ureter, bladder, or urethra -	urinary tract infection
a stonelike mass that forms in the kidneys due to high levels of minerals in the urine -	kidney stone
a gradual loss of kidney function. It cannot be cured and may lead to permanent kidney failure and other conditions. -	chronic kidney disease (CKD)
a loss of bladder control due to the muscles that control bladder emptying being too weak or too active -	urinary incontinence
Which of the following is an abnormal heart rhythm that can reduce the heart's ability to adequately pump blood? -	arryhthmia
Which class of antihypertensives inhibits norepinephrine action at the alpha receptors in the blood vessels, preventing vasoconstriction? -	alpha blockers
Which of the following is inflammation of the inside lining of the heart, usually caused by a bacterial, or sometimes fungal, infection? -	endocarditis
Which class of antihypertensives should be used cautiously in patients with lung disease, such as asthma? -	beta blockers
Which of the following is birth defects that affect the normal functioning of the heart? -	congenital heart disease
Which class of antihyperlipidemics are referred to as the statins? -	HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
Which of the following is a disease of the heart muscle that makes it thicker and rigid, making it difficult for the heart to pump blood? -	cardiomyopathy
Which class of antihypertensives should patients who have diabetes be cautious when taking? Select all that apply -	angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI) and beta blockers
Which class of antihypertensives should NOT be taken with grapefruit juice? -	calcium channel blockers
Which class of medication is used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythms? -	antiarrhythmics
Which of the following is when blood flow to the heart is blocked, which prevents the adequate delivery of oxygen to the heart muscle, causing damage or destruction? -	myocardial infarction
_________ are called statins. -	HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
Which class of diuretic is often the first choice and should not be used during pregnancy? -	thiazide
Which of the following develops when the major blood vessels that supply the heart with blood, oxygen, and nutrients become damaged or diseased? -	coronary artery disease
T/F: Lifestyle choices, like heredity and increasing age, can contribute to heart disease -	False
________ can cause an annoying cough -	angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
T/F: Patients taking anticoagulant medication should use a soft toothbrush and electric razor to avoid cuts and bleeding -	True
Which class of antihypertensives stimulates alpha-adrenoreceptors in the brain stem reducing heart rate and blood pressure? -	alpha agonists
Which class of antihypertensives should a patient's serum potassium levels be monitored? Select all that apply: -	angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI) and angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARB)
Which of the following is chest pain caused by an insufficient amount of oxygenated blood reaching the heart muscle? -	angina
Which population of patients are respiratory distress syndrome treatment medications typically used for? -	premature infant patients
Which of the following statements is true about cough/cold and allergy medications? -	antitussives help reduce cough
after using an inhaled corticosteroid, a patient should do which of the following? Select all that apply: -	drink water and rinse his mouth
Which of the following is a main type of lung disease or disorder? Select all that apply: -	airway disease, lung tissue disease, and Pulmonary circulation disease
Which of the following provides a gradual process to help a person quit smoking? -	nicotine replacement therapy
Which class of medication is used to prevent an allergic reaction that can cause an asthma attack? -	mast cell stabilizers
antitussives are used to reduce or stop a(n) ________ -	cough
The airways that carry oxygen are narrowed or blocked (for example, asthma). -	airway disease
The blood vessels in the lungs are affected and prevent the ability to properly exchange gases. -	pulmonary circulation disease
The structure of the lung tissue is affected. Scarring or inflammation prevent the tissue from being able to fully expand. -	lung tissue disease
Which class of medications is used as rescue medications? -	short-acting beta agonists
In the lungs, oxygen is exchanged for __________ -	carbon dioxide
T/F: Medications for respiratory conditions try to correct for lung dysfunction? -	True
How is tuberculosis treated? -	antibacterial medication for three to nine months
Medication combinations combine the action of more than one medication class, improving control and _________ the number of doses a patient must take in a day. -	reducing
T/F: Coughs, colds, and allergies have similar symptoms that can be relieved by many over-the-counter medications. -	True
T/F: There is one medication class that can treat the respiratory symptoms of a cold or allergy. -	False
T/F: Smoking deterrents that contain nicotine block nicotine receptors and prevent its effect. -	False
How many types of tuberculous are there? -	2
__________ are used to reduce nasal congestion due to cold or allergies. -	Decongestants
Which of the following statements is TRUE about cough/cold and allergy medications? -	antitussives help reduce cough.
Which type of medication requires serum level monitoring? -	xanthine derivatives
Alcohol is the single largest cause of preventable death and disease in the United States. -	False
Which of the following could cause a lung condition? -	reaction to an allergen, exposure to hazardous material, acute damage from an accident, genetic abnormalities
Which of the following can be used to treat motion sickness? -	antihistamines
T/F: A cold is the same as the flu. -	False
Which of the following is used to treat ulcers? -	H2 blockers
Which treatment for emesis blocks dopamine receptors producing antiemetic effect? -	dopamine antagonists
Which of the following are most commonly prescribed type of laxative? -	stool softeners
T/F: Medications that treat GERD are also used to treat ulcers -	True
Which treatment for GERD suppresses acid secretion by inhibiting an enzyme system at the secretory surface of gastric cells? -	proton pump inhibitors (PPI)
Which gastrointestinal disease involves sores in the lining of the stomach or in the duodenum? -	peptic ulcers
Which treatment for emesis blocks cholinergic receptors producing an antiemetic effect? -	anticholinergics
Which of the following is a treatment for GERD? -	proton pump inhibitors
Which class of antiemetics was developed for chemotherapy-induced nausea but is now widely used? -	5-HT3 receptor antagonists
T/F: Treatment of worm parasites usually takes several weeks -	False
T/F: Diarrhea may resolve quickly -	True
Which treatment for GERD alters the surface tension of gas bubbles allowing for dispersion or release? -	simethicone
The OTC product Alli causes which unpleasant side effect? -	leaky stools
Which gastrointestinal disease is an inflammatory bowel disease in which the lining in the rectum and colon become inflamed and develop ulcers? -	ulcerative colitis
Which treatment for emesis blocks serotonin 5-HT3 receptors in the GI tract and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) -	5-HT3 receptor antagonists
Which gastrointestinal disease is vomiting that can be preceded by nausea or other indications, such as an increase in salivation? -	emesis
Which treatment for obesity inhibits gastric lipases; therefore, decreasing fat absorption? -	orlistat (Alli)
Which treatment for ulcerative colitis targets proteins made by the immune system? -	biologic response modifiers
Which treatment for GERD decreases acid production by inhibiting binding of histamine at histamine H2 receptors on gastric cells? -	histamine antagonist (H2 blockers)
Which foods are part of the "BRAT" diet? -	banana, rice, applesauce, and toast
T/F: Medication that treat GERD are also used to treat ulcers. -	True
Which gastrointestinal disease involves damage to the esophagus? -	gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
Treatment for GERD requires than an antibacterial medication be taken in addition to which medication? -	H. pylori treatment
T/F: most medications used to treat diarrhea decrease peristalsis. -	True
Which type of diuretic derives its name from the fact that it has its effect in a portion of the tubule in the nephron? -	loop
The glomerulus is a filtering unit that keeps ___________ cells and eliminates excess fluid and waste -	normal
Which of the following medications is NOT used to treat symptoms of benign prostatic hyperlasia? -	Beta-3 antagonists
T/F: Mineral supplements can be OTC or prescription strength -	True
How are urinary tract infections treated? -	with an antibacterial medication
T/F: UTIs are more common in women -	True
Which medication used to treat UTIs needs to be taken with food for proper absorption? -	nitrofurantoin
T/F: the levels of electrolytes in a body cannot be altered -	False
Which are the organs of the renal system? Select all that apply. -	ureters, bladder, urethra
Which of the following can be used to treat hypokalemia? Select all that apply: -	bananas, orange juice, and potassium supplements
Which of the following is NOT used to treat symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia? -	Beta-3 agonists
Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys? -	produce insulin
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of an enlarged prostate? -	frequent bowel movements
Some diuretics may also be used to treat ________, a buildup of fluids in body tissues. -	edema
What is one of the MOST common symptoms of a UTI? -	urge to urinate
The kidneys remove _________ and ________ from the body -	waste and water
T/F: Diuretics can be used to treat high blood pressure? -	True
Which of the following is a common cause of chronic kidney disease? -	uncontrolled hypertension
Which of the following is NOT a type of diuretic? -	vasopressin
T/F: Chronic kidney disease cannot lead to other medical conditions -	False
Diuretics can cause too much of a loss and the need for the replacement of the electrolyte _________ -	potassium
Urinary incontinence is a loss of __________ control -	bladder
The ______________ are the primary organ of the renal system -	kidneys
Which type of diuretic is NOT used to treat hypertension? -	osmotic
What does the acronym, NSAID stand for? -	nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Which local analgesic requires a patient prescription? -	flector topical patch
T/F: Narcotic analgesics are controlled substances whether taken alone or in combination -	True
Which OTC medications are used to block COX-1 and COX-2, inhibiting or reversing pain, fever, and inflammation? Select all that apply. -	Anacin and Doan's Extra Strength
What is a common side effect of skeletal muscle relaxants that patients must be made aware? -	drowsiness
Which type of medication provides a systemic form of anesthesia? -	general anesthesia
Identify opioid medications that are used in anesthesia. Select all that apply. -	alfentanil and remifentanil
Which medication is used as an antidote for acetaminophen overdose? -	acetylcysteine
Gout is caused by the accumulation of _______ -	uric acid
Acetaminophen is the non-salicylate analgesic that treats _________ -	pain and fever
Which migraine medication may be administered as a STAT dose? -	sumatriptan
Which medication is used in conjunction with an NSAID to protect the stomach lining and reduce the incidences of GI bleeds? -	misoprostol
T/F: Narcotic analgesics have high abuse potential. -	True
Arthritis can be an autoimmune disease. If so, which type of medication may patients need? -	DMARD
What are some common side effects that could indicate a narcotic analgesic overdose? Select all that apply: -	pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression
Which medications are administered as a migraine preventative? Select all that apply: -	atogepant and eptinezumab
T/F: All narcotic analgesics are Schedule II. -	False
Which medication is used as an antidote for opioid overdose? -	naloxone
T/F: All analgesics treat inflammation. -	False
What are some common side effects of calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) inhibitors? Select all that apply: -	constipation, fatigue, rash
The musculoskeletal system is responsible for movement of the body, maintaining posture, and __________. -	stabilizing joints
Which analgesic is contraindicated in patients with a history of psychosis? -	ziconotide
A patient with two or more migraines per __________ should consider preventative therapy. -	month
_______________ are used to treat acute migraine headaches. -	selective serotonin agonists.
Which disease causes the adrenal gland to produce excessive hormones? -	Cushing's disease
Insulin can be used for the treatment of ___________ -	all types of diabetes
Which medication should be taken on an empty stomach? -	thyroid medications
T/F: A common use of corticosteroids is to treat inflammation. -	True
_____________ is the common cause of hyperthyroidism. -	Graves' disease
Which oral medication class used to treat diabetes should be taken with food? -	biguanide
Which diabetes medication should be taken in the morning? -	SGLT2 inhibitors
Which type of insulin has an onset action of one hour and no peak action? -	long-acting insulin
T/F: Histamine is found in every tissue of the body. -	True
Which minerals should be avoided when taking thyroid medications? Select all that apply. -	calcium, iron, magnesium, and zinc
Local Hormones: -	can affect an area of the body, synthesized in various tissue types
Systemic Hormones: -	can affect the entire body; are produced by one specific tissue
Which of the following medications is used to treat hypothyroidism? -	levothyroxine
_________ disease is the result of an underactive adrenal gland. -	Addison's
Type I -	the pancreas does not produce insulin
Type II -	the pancreas does not produce enough insulin, or the body is resistant to the insulin produced
Gestational -	develops during pregnancy and goes away when the baby is born, but there is risk of diabetes later in life
Which sentence BEST defines the endocrine system? -	a system of glands within the body that produces hormones
Which disease is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the United States? -	Hashimoto's disease
___________ are used to treat type II diabetes and work by reducing the production of glucose in the liver. -	biguanides
Which of the following do hormones affect? Select all that apply: -	metabolism, growth and development, mood
T/F: A patient who receives too much hypothyroidism medication may experience effects that mimic hyperthyroidism symptoms. -	True
Common side effects of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors include ___________, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. -	flatulence
T/F: Histamine and prostaglandins are local hormones. -	True
Which birth control method is inserted by a physician into the uterus? -	IUD
Which term best defines a low testosterone level? -	hypogonadism
Which osteoporosis medication may cause damage to the esophagus if refluxed? Select all that apply: -	alendronate and ibandronate
T/F: Medication used to treat breast cancer act by inhibiting the production or action of testosterone -	False
Menopause is when a woman ceases to have menstruation for twelve months; the time leading up to it is called ____________ -	perimenopause
Which medications act by inhibiting osteoclasts? Select all that apply: -	alendronate, risedronate, and zoledronic acid
When an egg is released from the follicle in the ovary, the corpus luteum is formed, which produces __________. -	progesterone
Which medication is used as a non-oral treatment for erectile dysfunction? -	alprostadil intracaverous
Which type of medication is used to increase blood flow in the penis during sexual stimulation? -	phosphodiesterase-type 5 inhibitors
The formation of bone exceeds the resorption until around the age of ___________. -	twenty
T/F: Medication used to treat breast cancer act by inhibiting the production or action of testosterone. -	False
Which birth control method is administered via injection? -	medroxyprogesterone acetate
Monophasic pills deliver the same strength of estrogen and progestin in each pack, while __________ pills deliver two different strengths of estrogen and progestin in each pack. -	biphasic
T/F: Medications used to treat prostate cancer act by inhibiting the production or action of testosterone. -	True
Which birth control medication must be used within 72 hours of unprotected sex? Select all that apply. -	Plan B One Step, My Way
Identify common side effects of birth control medications. Select all that apply: -	headache, spotting during a cycle, thromboembolism, and vomiting
T/F: Testosterone in males causes the progression of prostate cancer. -	True
T/F: Erectile dysfunction can be caused by a psychological condition. -	True
___________ is a type of anxiety disorder that is characterized by unwanted thoughts (obsessions) that lead to repetitive behaviors (compulsions) -	Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Benzodiazepines: Common Uses
short-term use (days to a few weeks) for insomnia
preoperative or pre-procedure sedation
________________________
adjunct treatment with analgesics for pain relief -	anxiety
Benzodiazepines: Mechanism of Action -	enhance the effect of GABA
Benzodiazepines: Common Side Effects
___________________
fatigue
lack of coordination
ataxia
confusion
dizziness
sleep behaviors -	drowsiness
______________ is a persistent problem of falling asleep or staying asleep. -	insomnia
_________________ is a general lack of contact with reality -	psychosis
T/F: Benzodiazepines and antidepressants are used to treat anxiety disorders. -	True
What is the most common class of medications used to treat psychosis? -	atypical antipsychotics
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: aid falling asleep by mimicking the action of melatonin
Common Side Effects: dizziness, somnolence, fatigue, nausea
Example: ramelteon (Rozerem) Rx -	melatonin receptor agonist
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: enhance the effect of GABA
Common Side Effects: headache, drowsiness, dizziness, sleep behaviors
Example: eszopiclone (Lunesta) CIV, zaleplon (Sonata) CIV, zolpidem (Ambien; Ambien CR; Edluar; Intermezzo; Zolpimist) CIV -	"Z" Hypnotics
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: inhibit the effect of neurotransmitter, orexin
Common Side Effects: headache, dizziness, abnormal dreams
Example: lemborexant (Dayvigo) CIV, suvorexant (Belsomra) CIV -	orexin receptor antagonists
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: alter cerebellar activities
Common Side Effects: somnolence, agitation, confusion
Example: butabarbital (Butisol) CIII, butabarbital (Butisol) CIII, pentobarbital (Nembutal) CII -	barbiturates
__________________ is a form of depression that can occur up to one year after childbirth. -	postpartum depression
T/F: When treating a sleep disorder, it is best to choose short-acting benzodiazepines to avoid daytime drowsiness -	True
________________ is a type of anxiety disorder that is characterized by flashbacks, avoidance (emotionally numb), and hyperarousal (easily startled, tense) -	Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
T/F: Addiction is the need for larger doses or an increase in the number of doses to achieve the desired response. -	false
______________ is a disorder that causes feelings of sadness to linger longer than would normally be expected and interfere with a patient's daily life. -	depression
T/F: Antipsychotic medications relieve the signs and symptoms of psychosis by blocking dopamine receptors -	True
_____________ is a form of depression that occurs with another psychotic illness. -	Psychotic depression
Which of the following substances has the potential for addiction?
opiates, all of the above, alcohol, nicotine -	all of the above
Some patients may experience episodes of ____________ when they feel euphoric, full of energy, and unusually irritable -	mania
Dependence -	altered state where continued administration of the medication is necessary to prevent physical and psychological withdrawal systems
tolerance -	need for larger doses or an increase in the number of doses to achieve the desired response
addiction -	pattern of compulsive use characterized by excessive medication use and abuse
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: inhibit the reuptake of serotonin
Common Side Effects: insomnia, nausea, headache, weakness, diarrhea, anorexia
Example: citalopram (Celexa), escitalopram (Lexapro), fluoxetine (Prozac; Prozac Weekly), olanzapine/fluoxetine (Symbyax), paroxetine (Paxil; Paxil CR), sertraline (Zoloft) -	selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: inhibit the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine
Common Side Effects: nausea, headache, dry mouth, weight loss, somnolence, fatigue
Example: desvenlafaxine (Pristiq), duloxetine (Cymbalta), levomilnacipran (Fetzima), venlafaxine (Effexor XR) -	serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake	Tricyclic and tetracyclic antidepressants
Common Side Effects: anticholinergic, drowsiness
Example: desipramine (Norpramin), imipramine (Tofranil), mirtazapine (Remeron; Remeron SolTab), nortriptyline (Pamelor) -	tricyclic acid tetracyclic antidepressants
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: inhibit monoamine oxidase, the enzyme that metabolizes serotonin and norepinephrine
Common Side Effects: orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, headache, insomnia, restlessness, CNS stimulation, muscle spasms, tremor, myoclonic jerks, anxiety, agitation
Example: isocarboxazid (Marplan), phenelzine (Nardil), selegiline transdermal (Emsam), tranylcypromine (Parnate) -	monoamine oxidase inhibitors
_____________ is a type of anxiety disorder that is characterized by unexpected and repeated episodes of fear that include physical symptoms. -	Panic disorder
SNRI medications block the reuptake of which neurotransmitters? -	serotonin and norepinephrine
____________ is a form of depression that occurs during the winter when there is less sunlight and is more prevalent in areas with shorter winter days. -	Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)
T/F: When treating a sleep disorder, it is best to choose short-acting benzodiazepines to avoid daytime drowsiness. -	True
______________ is a sleep disorder that causes irresistible bouts of sleep -	Narcolepsy
dependence example -	A patient becomes dependent on a laxative for a bowel movement after repeated and regular use
tolerance example -	A patient with chronic pain may need to gradually increase the dose of analgesics to get pain relief, but the patient is not addicted to the medication
addiction example -	A patient relies on the psychological and physiological effects of the medication
_________ is a type of anxiety disorder that is characterized by overwhelming anxiety in social situations. -	Social Phobia disorder
The following medications are used to treat ________________________: (EPS) amantadine benztropine diphenhydramine	Extrapyramidal symptoms
amantadine (Osmolex ER; Gocovri) oral capsule, oral tablet, oral solution, ER tablet, ER capsule
benztropine (Cogentin) oral tablet, injectable
diphenhydramine (Benadryl) OTC - oral tablet, oral capsule, oral solution
diphenhydramine Rx - injectable -	extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
The following medications are used to treat ______________: disulfiram (Antabuse) Rx - oral tablet gabapentin (Neurontin) Rx - oral capsule naltrexone (Vivitrol) Rx - injectable topiramate (Topamax) Rx - sprinkle capsule	Alcohol dependence or alcoholism
disulfiram (Antabuse) Rx - oral tablet
gabapentin (Neurontin) Rx - oral capsule
naltrexone (Vivitrol) Rx - injectable
topiramate (Topamax) Rx - sprinkle capsule -	alcohol dependence or alcoholism
__________ is a disorder that causes feelings of sadness to linger longer than would normally be expected and interfere with a patient's daily life. -	depression
Two types of medication that are anticoagulants that require no regular blood testing: -	direct thrombin inhibitors and factor Xa inhibitors
What is the most common leukemia found in young children? -	acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
If a patient is taking warfarin, an anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K in the clotting process, what types of food should they avoid? -	dark green, leafy vegetables
Which medication is used to treat acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)? -	asparaginase enzymes
What is used to treat excessive bleeding (for example, from surgical bleeding or hemophilia)? -	hemostatics
the fluid portion of blood that contains proteins (albumin, globulin, fibrinogen, prothrombin, electrolytes, and nutrients) -	plasma
called thrombocytes, they are essential for coagulation -	platelets
called leukocytes, they are part of the immune system and protect against infection -	white blood cells
called erythrocytes, they carry oxygen throughout the body utilizing hemoglobin -	red blood cells
_________________ is an inherited disorder that causes several red blood cell disorders, including anemia. The cells are malformed and die early, causing a shortage of red blood cells. The cells can also clog vessels causing pain, infection, and stroke. -	Sickle cell disease
__________________ is a cancer of the hematologic system. It occurs when there is a mutation in the DNA of blood cells, causing an overabundance of blood cells. Abnormal cells can hinder the functioning of healthy white blood cells, red blood cells, and p	leukemia
Which anticoagulant can only be administered by IV or subcutaneous injection, can be used during pregnancy, and has an antidote for it? -	heparin
Which medication is used to treat acute myeloid leukemia (AML), chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), and small lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)? -	BCL-2 inhibitors
What is the most common form of anemia? -	iron deficiency anemia
The abnormal cells are immature and do not function properly. They also multiply rapidly, and the disease progresses quickly. It requires aggressive treatment. -	acute leukemia
There are many types. Some types cause too few cells to be produced and other types too many. There are more mature cells. The accumulation occurs more slowly. -	chronic leukemia
This type affects lymphocytes that form the lymphatic tissue of the immune system. -	lymphocytic leukemia
This type affects the myeloid cells, the blood-forming cells in the bone marrow. -	myelogenous leukemia
These tests must be done regularly when patients are taking _____________________________-.
The following tests measure the time it takes for a blood clot to form:
PTT (partial thromboplastin time)
PT (prothrombin time) -	warfarin and heparin
______________is a decrease in hemoglobin or a decrease in the ability of hemoglobin to transport oxygen. -	anemia
What is used to treat intermittent claudication, which causes severe cramping in the legs due to blood flow problems? -	hemorheologic agents
T/F: the most common form of treatment for leukemia is chemotherapy. -	True
Aspirin, which is available OTC, is what type of anticoagulant? -	antiplatelet
T/F: Ferrous sulfate is the most common iron supplement. -	True
Which type of anemia is caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency and treated with vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) supplementation? -	pernicious anemia
_____________ block a specific chemical in the immune system that is produced in acute inflammation. These medications are used for moderate to severe disease. -	tumor necrosis factor inhibitors
Which of the following can be a cause of inflammation?
injury
all of the above
infection
allergy -	all of the above
releases chemicals that aid in immune defense, but also releases chemicals as part of an allergic reaction -	mast cell
a type of lymphocyte that attacks a pathogen -	T cell
a type of lymphocyte that produces antibodies against pathogens -	B cell
a type of lymphocyte that kills tumor cells -	natural killer (NK) cell
Organ transplant patients need to take immunosuppressant medication for _______________- -	the rest of their lives
Which part of the lymphatic system filters out organisms and debris? -	lymph nodes
__________________ address the autoimmune component of conditions and diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and Crohn's disease. They are also used to treat some cancers. -	disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs
Recommendations for scheduling vaccines can be found on the _____________ website. -	CDC
Angle:
Intramuscular (IM) Route -	90 degree angle
Injection Site for Children and Adults:
Intramuscular (IM) Route -	deltoid region of the arm about 2 inches below the acromion process
Injection Site for Infants:
Intramuscular (IM) Route -	anterolateral thigh muscle
Angle:
Subcutaneous (SC) Route -	45-degree angle
Injection Site for Children and Adults:
Subcutaneous (SC) Route -	fatty tissue over the triceps muscle
Injection Site for Infants:
Subcutaneous (SC) Route -	fatty tissue of the anterolateral thigh muscle
T/F: In some states, pharmacy technicians are approved to administer vaccines -	True
______________ alter immune response. These medications are used to treat conditions caused by the immune system mistaking parts of the body as foreign and attacking them causing dysfunction. -	immunosuppressants
____________ address the autoimmune component of conditions and diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and Crohn's disease. They are also used to treat some cancers. -	disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs
What does federal law require that healthcare staff provide to a patient, parent, or legal representative before administering certain vaccines? -	a vaccine information statement
Which of the following vaccines does the CDC recommend on the Immunization Schedule for children and adults in the United States? -	hepatitis B
In addition to lymph nodes, which of the following organs is part of the lymphatic system?
spleen
all of the above
bone marrow
thymus -	all of the above
attenuated vaccine definition -	a weakened versions of a live microorganism
attenuated vaccine booster requirements -	does not require a booster
inactivated vaccine definition -	a "killed" version of the pathogen
inactivated vaccine booster requirements -	requires one or more boosters
a type of white blood cell that acts as a phagocyte (ingests and destroys foreign substances, like bacteria) -	neutrophil
a type of white blood cell that fights certain types of infections and allergens -	eosinophil
a phagocyte that fights infection, ingests nonfunctional cells, and signals the T cells and B cells to fight infection -	macrophage
DMARD, TNF Inhibitors, and Biologic Response Modifiers act to decrease the ____________ response of the immune system. -	inflammatory
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: reduce aqueous humor production
Common Side Effects: conjunctival inflammation, ocular discomfort
Example: apraclonidine ophthalmic (Iopidine)*; brimonidine ophthalmic (Alphagan P) -	alpha agonists
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: increase aqueous humor flow
Common Side Effects: conjunctival inflammation, ocular discomfort, dry eyes, visual disturbance, foreign body sensation
Example: bimatoprost intracameral (Durysta), bimatoprost ophthalmic (Lumigan), latanoprost ophthalmic (Xalatan; Xelpros), latanoprostene bunod ophthalmic (Vyzulta), tafluprost ophthalmic (Zioptan), travoprost ophthalmic (Travatan Z) -	prostaglandin analogs
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: increase aqueous humor flow
Common Side Effects: conjunctival inflammation, ocular pain, blurred vision
Example: netarsudil ophthalmic (Rhopressa®) -	Rho Kinase Inhibitors
T/F: Medications that are used to treat wet age-related macular degeneration inhibit vascular growth -	True
Medications used to treat glaucoma try to reduce intraocular pressure by reducing _______________ -	aqueous humor volume
comprised of the auricle, the auditory canal, and the tympanic membrane -	external ear
serves as the entrance for sound waves -	auricle
canal through which sound waves travel -	auditory canal
serves to transmit sound waves to the middle ear and protect the middle ear from foreign objects -	tympanic membrane
has bony structures that further transmit sound waves and has the eustachian tube that relieves pressure -	middle ear
transmits sound through nerve impulses to the brain and has structures that maintain balance and equilibrium -	inner ear
________________ are available to treat eye pain. -	NSAID ophthalmic medications
Due to the possibility of contamination, what should the expiration date on a bottle of eye drops be? -	three months after dispensing
Decongestants, antihistamines, and mast cell stabilizers are useful for which type of eye condition? -	allergic conjunctivitis
Otitis media is a common infection of the ear that can be treated with _______________. -	antibacterial medicine
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: reduce aqueous humor production
Common Side Effects: ocular discomfort, blurred vision, photophobia, lacrimation
Example: betaxolol ophthalmic (Betoptic S), levobunolol ophthalmic (Betagan), timolol ophthalmic (Timoptic; Betimol; Timoptic-XE) -	beta-adrenergic blockers
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: decrease aqueous humor production
Common Side Effects: blurred vision, bitter taste, ocular discomfort
Example: acetazolamide (Diamox Sequels), brinzolamide ophthalmic (Azopt), dorzolamide ophthalmic (Trusopt), methazolamide (Neptazane) -	carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Type of Medication:
Mechanism of Action: constrict iris and ciliary body opening the angle
Common Side Effects: headache, conjunctival inflammation, blurred vision, ocular discomfort
Example: acetylcholine intraocular (Miochol-E), carbachol intraocular (Miostat), pilocarpine ophthalmic (Isopto Carpine)
Prostaglandin Analogs
Alpha Agonists
Rho Kinase Inhibitors
Beta-adrenergic Blockers
Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors
Cholinergic Agonists (Miotics) -	cholinergic agonists (miotics)
T/F: Eye ointments are commonly prescribed to be applied in the morning. -	False
An antibiotic and ____________ are typically used to treat otitis externa -	corticosteroid
Closed-angle glaucoma Cause -	The flow of aqueous humor is blocked. Condition can happen suddenly, and the symptoms are redness, pain, and loss of vision.
closed-angle glaucoma Treatment -	must be treated urgently with surgery and medication or vision may be permanently lost
open-angle glaucoma Cause -	The intraocular pressure is slowed and gradually rises. Vision fades as condition progresses.
open-angle glaucoma Treatment -	medications available to prevent the progression
Dry AMD Cause -	breakdown of the cells of the macula
Dry AMD Treatment -	OTC supplement that contains a high dose combination of antioxidants and zinc (Ocuvite PreserVision)
Wet AMD Cause -	abnormal blood vessels grow under the macula and leak blood
Wet AMD Treatment -	intravitreal (into the eye) injections usually given once a month
Which condition affects the inner ear and causes a ringing or buzzing in the ears? -	tinnitus
Which condition affects the inner ear and causes temporary or permanent hearing loss? -	ototoxicity
T/F: ear drops can be used in the eye -
covers the anterior eye, the white of the eye, and the underside of the eyelid -	conjunctiva
transparent covering that lets in light -	cornea
provides color to the eye and filters the light -	iris
has neurons that send nerve signals to the brain -	retina
a jellylike substance that holds the eye's shape -	vitreous humor
a fluid that maintains the shape of the anterior eye and carries nutrients -	aqueous humor
responsible for sight in dim light and detect black and white -	rods
detect color -	cones
If the dose for eye drops is for more than one drop in an eye, how long should the patient wait before instilling the next drop? -	3 to 5 minutes
Medications that treat dry eyes have which of the following mechanisms of action?
lubricate eye surface
all of the above
target the immune response causing dry eyes
increase tear production -	all of the above
The __________ is all the nerves that originate at the spinal cord and innervate the body. -	peripheral nervous system
Identify common side effects of ADHD medications: Select all that apply -	dry mouth, headache, abdominal pain, insomnia
When a person has ___________-or more unprovoked seizures, they may be diagnosed with epilepsy. -	two
T/F: Any anticonvulsant medication can treat any kind of seizure. -	False
What are the four primary symptoms of Parkinson's disease? -	bradykinesia, postural instability, rigidity, and tremor
What does the central nervous system consist of? Select all that apply: -	brain and spinal cord
T/F: All medications used to treat ADHD are controlled substances -	False
Which parts of the body do the parasympathetic nerves stimulate that the sympathetic nerves do not? -	eyes
T/F: A severe case of multiple sclerosis can cause paralysis. -	True
Which disease uses a medication that increases available dopamine or decreases the action of acetylcholine? -	Parkinson's disease
Which anticonvulsant medication is specifically used to treat Dravet syndrome? -	Diacomit
Which Alzheimer's disease medication may cause somnolence? -	memantine
Which type of seizure is considered life-threatening? -	status epilepticus
Which catechol O-methyltransferase (COMT) inhibitors work to block dopamine metabolism? Select all that applY: -	entacapone and opicapone
Which of the following is used to treat multiple sclerosis? -	disease-modifying medication
Which anticonvulsant medications are used to treat absence seizures? Select all that apply: -	ethosuximide and methsuximide
T/F: A patient who presents with possible symptoms of ADHD should be examined for cardiac issues prior to taking any ADHD medication. -	True
T/F: Alzheimer's disease is irreversible -	True
What is the ONLY FDA-approved medication used to treat primary progressive MS? -	Ocrevus
Identify common side effects of anticonvulsant medications. Select all that apply: -	loss of bone density, speech problems, skin rashes, and weight gain
Which type of nerves send messages back to the CNS? -	afferent nerves
Due to the suppression of acetylcholine activity in Parkinson's disease, there are side effects that occur, referred to as ________ side effects -	anticholinergic
Which viral infection causes blisters and severe pain and can manifest later in life for someone who has previously had chicken pox? -	shingles (herpes zoster)
The integumentary system consists of which of the following? -	skin, hair, and nails
Which condition is treated with an oral antifungal that requires liver function tests to be performed before and during treatment? -	onychomycosis
Treatment for _________ should begin within 48-72 hours. -	viral skin infections
____________ is a pre-malignant condition. It causes thick, scaly, or crusty patches of skin. It occurs more often in fair-skinned individuals and can serve as a warning to be on the watch for skin cancer. The lesions can be removed in a physician's offic	actinic keratosis
_____________ is an infection of the toenails or fingernails. A topical antifungal medication may not work if the infection is well embedded in the nail. -	onychomycosis
on the skin surface often as a result of sun damage; usually appears on the face first -	basal cell skin cancer
on the skin surface often as a result of sun damage; typically seen in areas other than the face -	squamous cell skin cancer
the most severe form of skin cancer; is aggressive and causes irregularly shaped, discolored, raised areas that change size; may appear to be just moles but are not and should be monitored -	melanoma
Fungal Infections: -	athlete's foot (tinea pedis), ringworm (tinea corporis), jock itch (tinea cruris)
Bacterial Infections: -	impetigo, cellulitis, folliculitis
thin outer layer that protects the underlying layer; has five sub-layers -	epidermis
thick underlying layer that contains collagen, blood and lymph vessels, hair follicles, sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and nerve endings; stores water, regulates body temperature, and supplies nutrients to the epidermis -	dermis
subcutaneous layer that contains fat; functions as a shock absorber and insulator for the body, and stores fat for energy -	hypodermis
_______________ is a skin condition marked by scaly, red, itchy patches of skin. It is a result of an immune system that causes cell turnover to happen faster than normal resulting in a pile up of cells on the top of the skin. Treatment is determined by t	psoriasis
T/F: The most common type of eczema is atopic dermatitis. -	True
Which of the following is an example of a bacterial infection on the skin?
cellulitis
impetigo
all of the above
folliculitis -	all of the above
Which acne medication requires that a patient enroll in the FDA pledge program to receive the medication? -	isotretinoin, such as Absorica and Claravis
Viral Infections: -	chicken pox, shingles (herpes zoster), herpes simplex, warts
Parasitic Infections: -	scabies, lice
T/F: Treatment for scabies is a shampoo. -	False
T/F: Some skin cancers can be treated with topical agents. -	True
Which class of medications used to treat osteoporosis can cause esophageal damage if not used properly? -	bisphosphonates
______________ block a component of the immune system. They also increase the risk for infection. -	biologic response modifiers
If a patient is experiencing frequent, burning urination with cloudy urine, what should a pharmacy technician suspect the patient has? -	urinary tract infection
What are cytokines? -	proteins produced by immune cells (and other types of cells) that signal inflammation and activate the immune response
Gout is a disease caused by the overproduction or insufficient elimination of ___________ within the body. -	uric acid
Which medication is used to prevent blood clot formation and to treat or prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? -	anticoagulants
T/F: The most common treatment for acne is proper cleansing and a topical medication. -	True

Created by: jmh2023

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