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Xray
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| who discovered xrays | william roentgen |
| When were xrays discovered | November 8th 1895 at the university of wiirzburg in germany |
| What is ASRT | American society radiologic technologist |
| What is ASRT primary purpose | It is the world’s oldest and largest professional radiologic science organization. Provides continuing education, a professional journal, a newsletter, guidelines and assistance for radiography educators, and an annual national meeting. |
| What is ARRT | American Registry of Radiologic Technologist |
| What is ARRT primary purpose | formed in 1922 to establish standards and examinations necessary to certify radiologic technologists. Radiologic technologists certified by ARRT use the initials RT(R) after their names. means registered technologist ARRT publishes a Code of Ethics. |
| What is JRCERT | Joint Review Committee on Education in Radiologic Technology |
| What is JRCERT primary purpose | National organization that formally conducts the accreditation of schools of radiologic technology. |
| Demonstrate the radiation field and define the central ray | The body part you are x raying. An imaginary line in the center of the x-ray beam and perpendicular to the long axis of the x-ray tube |
| What is primary radiation | The x-ray beam that leaves the tube is unattenuated, except by air. Its direction and location are predictable and controllable. |
| What is scatter radiation | Radiation from the primary beam that travels in all directions from the patient and is very difficult to control and has less energy than the primary beam. The patient is the primary source for this radiation. Creates unwanted image. |
| What is remnant radiation | What remains of the primary beam after it has been attenuated by matter (the patient). Contains a varied pattern of x-ray energies that reflects the different absorption rates. The pattern of this radiation creates the x-ray image. |
| List the components of the image receptor (IR) system | Consists of a cassette that contains a phosphor imaging plate with special phosphors that store the x-ray image until it is processed. |
| List the essential features of a typical xray room | x-ray equipment itself, a counter area, and a protective control booth. The x-ray machine consists of the x-ray tube, the tube support, the control console (located in the control booth), and the transformer cabinet |
| Explain the purpose of the control booth | This area is separated from the x-ray room by a lead barrier to protect the limited operator from scatter radiation during exposures. There is usually a lead glass window so that the limited operator can observe the patient. |
| Explain the purpose of the transformer cabinet | Its produces the high voltage required for x-ray production and the low milliamperage needed in the x-ray tube. It is a large square unit standing in a corner of the x-ray room, connected by cables to both the control console and the x-ray tube |
| Demonstrate a detent and explain its function | is a special mechanism that tends to stop a moving part in a specific location. are built into tube supports to provide ease in attaining placement at standard locations. |
| Explain the purpose of a collimator | boxlike device attached under the tube housing, It allows the limited operator to vary the size of the radiation field. Includes a light that indicates the beam size and location and the center of the field. |
| What is a grid | Device that absorbs most of the scatter radiation coming off the patient and tabletop and prevents it from reaching the IR. This is only needed when x raying large body parts. Is called a Bucky named after its inventor, American radiologist Gustav Bucky. |
| What is the control console | Also known as control panel,” is the access point at which the limited operator sets the exposure factors and initiates the exposure |
| Describe precautions to be taken to ensure personal safety from radiation exposure | Stand behind lead barrier, lead apron, thyroid shield, collimation |
| Define matter and list its three forms | Anything that occupies space and has shape or form. solids, liquids, and gases |
| Name the fundamental particles of the atom and list its characteristics | neutrons(neutral) protons(positive) and electrons(negative) |
| List 5 forms of energy | mechanical, chemical, thermal, nuclear, electric |
| Describe mechanical energy | classified as either kinetic energy or potential energy. Kinetic energy is energy of motion, the ability of a moving object to do work. |
| Describe chemical energy | released through chemical changes in atoms or molecules. |
| Describe thermal energy | commonly called heat and is the result of atomic motion. As temperature rises, electrons move faster in their orbits and the orbits expand, which causes the electrons to move farther from the nucleus. |
| Describe nuclear energy | energy released by radionuclides. This is the energy used to produce electricity in a nuclear power plant or the explosion of a nuclear bomb. |
| Describe electric energy | the ability of electric charges to do work. Also may exist in the form of potential energy. Potential electric energy exists in a battery or at an unused wall socket. |
| Describe electromagnetic energy | consists of light, x-rays, radio waves, microwaves, and other forms of energy. These energies have both electric and magnetic properties, changing the field through which they pass both electrically and magnetically. |
| Current | the quantity of electrons flowing in a circuit. |
| Resistance | any property of the circuit that opposes or hinders the flow of current. |
| Potential difference | the force, or speed, of the electron flow in the current. |
| Volt | abbreviated V, is the unit used to measure potential difference. |
| Ampere | abbreviated A, is the unit used to measure the rate, or volume, of current flow in the circuit. |
| Direct current (DC) | a current that stays constant |
| Alternating current (AC) | a current that's constantly changing. |
| Describe the process of electromagnetic induction. | When a conductor is placed in a magnetic field and there is movement between the lines of magnetic force and the conductor, electric current will flow in the conductor. |
| Step-up transformer | When there are more windings in the secondary coil than in the primary coil, the voltage on the secondary side is greater, and the transformer |
| Step-down transformer | On the other hand, if the secondary side has fewer turns, the secondary voltage will be less than the primary voltage and the transformer |
| What are the are four essential requirements for the production of x-rays.? | (1) a vacuum, (2) a source of electrons, (3) a target, and (4) a high potential difference (voltage) between the electron source and the target. |
| Associate the terms anode and cathode with appreciate parts of the x-ray tube: | Electrons emit from the cathode side of the tube and strike the target/anode creating xray photons. |
| What is the cathode? | A negative charge in the tube that consists of filament wire. |
| What is the anode? | Positive charge in the tube that is a hard, smooth, slanted metal surface that is also made of tungsten. |
| What is thermionic emission? | Electrons in the outermost orbital shells move so far from the nucleus that they are no longer held in orbit but are flung out of the atom, forming an “electron cloud” around the filament |
| What is space charge? | An electron cloud is the source of free (in air) electrons for x-ray production. |
| Describe the production of bremsstrahlung radiation. | X-rays are produced when an incoming electron misses all the electrons in the tungsten atom, gets very close to the nucleus, and then suddenly slows down and abruptly changes direction. As a result, the electron loses energy. |
| What is the source of electrons? | Filament tungsten wire |
| Describe the production of characteristic radiation. | X-rays are produced when an incoming electron collides with the K-shell (inner shell) electron of the tungsten atom and ejects it out of orbit. Both the incoming electron and the K-shell electron are removed. |
| Explain what is meant by a dual focus tube and describe its advantages. | They contain two filaments, one large and one small. Only one filament is used at a time. |
| Explain the significance of the target angle with respect to the line focus principle and the maximum field size. | Target angle determines the maximum possible size of the x-ray beam and the radiation field. The steeper the target angle, the greater the difference between the actual and the effective focal spot sizes. |
| What is the focal track? | The tungsten focal area all around the beveled edge of the rotating anode |
| What is the focusing cup? | Each filament situated in a hollow area in the cathode is called this. Also has a slight negative charge |
| What is the focal spot? | The shape of the focusing cup and its negative electric charge cause the electrons to be repelled in the direction of a very precise area on the target |
| Define “effective focal spot” and state its significance with respect to the radiographic image | refers to the vertical projection of the actual focal spot onto the patient and image receptor and also influences resolution in the image. Is always smaller than the actual focal spot. |
| Explain the function of a rotating anode and state its purpose | in the form of a solid disk, with a beveled-edge target. An electromagnetic induction motor is used to rotate the disk, so it spins during the exposure, Its purpose is to dissipate heat. |
| What is the actual focal spot? | refers to the area on the target surface that is struck by the electron stream. |
| What does milliampere-seconds (mAs) measure? | Measure of total quantity of electrons involved in exposure. mA x Time (seconds)=mAs |
| What is the anode heel effect? | Variation in radiation intensity across the length of the radiation field, Greater radiation intensity toward the cathode end of the field, Place thinner portion of body part toward anode end of tube |
| What is filtration? | the process of removing the long-wavelength photons from the x-ray beam. material placed between the x-ray tube and the patient absorbs these long-wavelength photons |
| What determines the size of the effective focal spot? | The target angle |
| What determines image resolution? | The effective focal spot |
| Which focal spot will create the better image, large or small? | Small |
| What forms the basic structure of the x-ray tube? | Pyrex glass-strong, heat-resistant glass and contains both the source of electrons and the target. The air is removed from the glass envelope to form a near-perfect vacuum so that gas molecules will not interfere with the process of x-ray production. |
| Explain what is meant by rectification | prepares the current for x-ray production by ensuring that it flows in the right direction, in this case from the filament to the target. |
| What are three ways in which current is rectified | self-rectification, half-wave rectification, and full-wave rectification. |
| What is self rectification? | was an inefficient form of rectification and is no longer used. |
| What is half wave rectification? | AC electrical current travels in the copper wire as a sine wave. It moves in a pulsating manner from positive to negative at a rate of 60 pulses, or waves, per second and is stated as 60 Hz |
| What if full wave rectification? | By employing four diodes in the circuit, the current can be “redirected” during the negative half of the electric cycle so that current will flow in the same direction during both the positive and negative halves of the cycle. |
| List the primary features of all x-ray control panels and discuss the principal differences between conventional and computerized control consoles | Newer, computerized models have button-like controls and digital readouts. Some control panels are operated by touch-control on a computer monitor. These computerized consoles automatically perform some functions that were previously done manually. |
| Describe the components of the automatic exposure control system | terminating the exposure time when a certain quantity of radiation has been detected at the image receptor |
| Describe anatomically programmed exposure system | A microprocessor controls the exposure technical factors. By selecting only one or two controls, usually the body area and the projection, the kVp, mA, time, AEC detectors, body habitus, Bucky, and (SID) will be selected automatically |
| How to extend xray tube life | Warm up the anode/tube. Don't hold down the rotor switch for long periods. Use low mA settings. Use the low-speed rotor whenever possible. Don't make repeated exposures near the tube limits. Don't use a tube when you can hear the rotor bearings. |
| List the four prime factors of exposure | Milliamperes (mA), Exposure time (seconds), Kilovolts (kVp), Source-image receptor distance (SID) |
| State the formula for determining milliampere-seconds (mAs) and explain how this unit is useful to the radiographer | mA x time (sec) = mAs |
| Milliamperes (mA) | Controls radiographic density, quantity of x-rays produced, by adjusting the mA, quantity of exposure is directly proportional to mA |
| Exposure Time (Seconds) | Controls radiographic density, quantity of x-rays produced, by adjusting the timer in x-ray circuit, duration of exposure, quantity of exposure is directly proportional to exposure time |
| Kilovolts (kVp) | • Controls radiographic contrast, x-ray penetration, the quantity and quality of the x-ray beam. • Increased kVp results in increased quantity of photons • Increased kVp results in increased penetration of the body par |
| Source-Image Receptor Distance (SID) | Affects the density and intensity of the x-ray beam. Quantity of exposure is inversely proportional to the square of the distance. |
| What is tissue density? | refers to the mass density, or atomic number, of the body part |
| Define radiographic distortion | a geometric property and refers to differences between the actual subject and its radiographic image. |
| What is subject contrast? | Contrast is significantly influenced by the tissue densities within the patient. Ex: hand, foot, chest, abd. |
| Explain size distortion? | occurs when the part is magnified. |
| List and explain the geometric factors that affect spatial resolution and explain why magnification affects resolution | Poor resolution can look“fuzzy” or unclear. Patient motion (blurred look), OID(decrease this increases spatial resolution), SID(increase in this is better), and the focal spot(smaller focal spot the better resolution). |
| What is spatial resolution? | sharpness of the image |
| List and discuss methods for minimizing motion blur on radiographs | Have the patient hold their breath. Space their feetmfor stability. Minimize the time that a patient must maintain an uncomfortable position. Instructions should be clear. Immobilization devices are used to minimize motion in certain cases |
| What is involuntary motion? | involves movements over which the patient has no control, such as tremors, peristalsis, and heartbeats. |
| What is Quantum mottle? | a grainy or mottled (spotty) image is created by not using enough mAs. |
| What is spatial resolution controlled by? | OID, SID, focal spot, motion, and quantum mottle. |
| What is voluntary motion? | normally controllable, although certain patients may be unable to control them (unconscious patients or small babies who cannot hold their breath for a few seconds; patients who are in severe pain; or those who are unable to cooperate). Cough, sneeze. |
| What is penumbra? | describes the “unsharp edges” of the umbra, or body part. The goal in radiographic imaging is to reduce this as much as possible. |
| What is umbra? | the actual anatomic area, body part, or structure shown in the radiographic image |
| What is the modulation transfer function (MTF)? | used to measure the capacity or accuracy of the digital detector to pass its spatial resolution characteristics to the final image |
| What helps increase spatial resolution? | The larger the matrix and the smaller the pixels, the greater the spatial resolution. |
| What is contrast resolution? | the ability to distinguish anatomical structures of similar subject contrast, such as liver–spleen and gray matter–white matter. |
| What is dynamic range? | the response of the detector to different levels of radiation exposure. A digital image can be produced with a wider range of exposures. Because of this response, overexposures and underexposures may not need to be repeated. |
| What is the Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)? | describes the ability of the digital system to convert the x-ray input electric signal into a useful radiographic image. |
| Describe the relationship between signal to noise ratio and how it effects xrays. | Signal refers to the useful information in the image. Noise refers to the amount of information that is not useful. Noise can be caused by quantum mottle or inherent electrical noise. |
| What is automatic rescaling? | When the x-ray exposure is greater or less than what is required to produce an image this occurs. |
| What is the exposure indicator number? | Located bottom left on xray. Should be between 200-500. Ex: if the number is in the 50’s then you overexposed. If the number is in the 1000’s you underexposed and didn't use enough technique. |
| What is DICOM? | Digital imaging and communications in medicine. universally accepted standard for exchanging medical radiographic images within the institution and in the many areas where the images are viewed. |
| Explain the computed radiography (CR) digital system | cassette-based digital imaging owing to the fact that the image of the body part is obtained using a cassette that contains a storage phosphor plate. |
| Explain the digital radiography (DR) system | acquiring images of the body using x-rays, displaying them digitally, and viewing and storing them on a computer and in computer files. |
| What is a charged coupled device? | type of indirect conversion detector. In this system, there is no photodiode and instead the CCD converts the light from the scintillator to the electric signal. The CCD device uses optics and light and therefore is often referred to as a CCD camera. |
| What is a complementary metal oxide semiconductor (CMOS)? | Another type of indirect conversion detector. convert light into electrons very similar to CCD technology. Electrons are stored in capacitors. An ADC is used with this detector to convert the image into digital format. |
| What is Direct conversion? | one-step process. Detectors convert the x-ray energy directly to an electric signal through an amorphous selenium detector without the light conversion. |
| Describe terms used in image processing? | To process and view the image, five additional equipment components are required: a CR reader unit, a limited operator computer workstation, a computer system with monitors for the radiologist to view the images and a computer server to store the images |
| What are CR cassettes also called and made of? | Imaging plates, contains a photostimulable phosphor (PSP) that stores the latent image of the body part until it is processed. Most IP phosphors are made of barium fluorohalide with europium. |
| What are the are two types of IPs? | standard-resolution IP and High-resolution IPs |
| High-resolution IP | has a thin phosphor layer which produces greater resolution. the front of this is made of radiolucent material that does not absorb primary x-rays. The back has lead lining to prevent backscatter radiation from reaching the |
| What is dose creep? | an increase in doses to patients and operators, because of inappropriately increasing the exposure technique in an effort to avoid a repeat examination |
| What are two common postprocessing techniques | subtraction-the computer can remove anatomy such as the bones or organs. and contrast enhancement-contrast can be changed from very high to very low; however, the more an image is postprocessed, the less information is transferred to the physician. |
| What is PACS? | picture archival and communications system. Which contain all the digital images that are produced in the department, including CT, MRI, ultrasound, and nuclear medicine images. |
| What are common artifacts? | Quantum mottle, Moiré pattern, Light spots, White line, Histogram analysis error, Phantom or ghost images, Scratches or tears, grid lines, Extraneous line patterns, Fogging, Jewelry, bra with underwire/adjustables, cigarette pack and lighter. |
| Quantum mottle | caused by an inadequate exposure technique. This can be caused by either low mAs or low kVp |
| Moiré pattern | This artifact occurs when the grid lines are not aligned with the laser scanning frequency of the CR reader |
| Light spots | are usually caused by dust or other foreign material on the IP. CR phosphor plates can be cleaned, but this must be done carefully according to the manufacturer’s recommendations to avoid permanent damage. |
| White line | artifacts appear along the length of travel on the image due to dust on the light guide. |
| Histogram analysis error | may be caused by any of the following: improper collimation, improper technique, beam alignment error, scatter, and extreme subject density differences. |
| Phantom or ghost images | may appear as a result of incomplete IP erasure. This artifact requires troubleshooting of both the CR plate preparation system and the display systems. Extreme overexposure may require two erasure cycles to completely remove the image |
| Scratches or tears | are permanent artifacts caused by damage to CR plates. Replacement of CR plates is expensive, but it is the only solution because these artifacts cannot be repaired |
| Extraneous line patterns | are linear lines caused by noise in the image reader electronics. They can run lengthwise or crosswise |
| Fogging | from background or scatter radiation is caused by the CR plates being much more sensitive than the former film. |
| List three types of interactions between radiation and matter that produce scatter radiation | Coherent scattering, Compton effect, and photoelectric effect. |
| Coherent scattering, | also known as Thompson scatter. This type of interaction takes place at relatively low energy levels (less than 10 keV) |
| Compton effect | occurs at energy levels throughout the diagnostic x-ray range of 40 to 125 kVp. The incoming x-ray photon interacts with an outer orbital electron of an atom, removing it from the atom (ionization), and then proceeds in a different direction. |
| photoelectric effect | incoming photon from the primary beam hits inner orbital electron of an atom. The photon is absorbed and creates an absorbed dose in the patient. The electron’s departure leaves a “hole” in the orbit, which is filled by an electron from an outer shell. |
| Explain the problems caused by scatter radiation in radiography | The production of scatter radiation during an exposure results in fog on the radiograph. Fog is unwanted exposure to the image. |
| List factors that affect the quantity of scatter radiation fog on a radiograph | Larger the body part is, the greater are the scatter/fog. Higher kVp results in more scatter radiation fog density of the matter-Smaller the body part, the less the scatter Field size-As collimation is increased(bigger) scatter radiation fog increases. |
| When is a grid used? | when the body part becomes greater than 10 to 12 cm in thickness or kVp settings are greater than 60. |
| What is a grid? | device placed under the table between the patient and the IR, appearance of a thin metal plate, is constructed of tiny, tissue-thin lead strips, placed on edge to absorb scatter. |
| Define grid ratio? | determines how much variation in the direction of the incoming photon is allowed without the photon being absorbed by the grid. The higher the ratio, the less variation is permitted, efficiency of the grid in absorbing the unwanted photons. |
| Define grid frequency? | The number of lead strips per inch |
| What is grid focal range? | The range of source–image receptor distances at which the grid will not absorb significant amounts of primary radiation. |
| What is a moving grid? | is called a Bucky. Moving the grid during the exposure blurs the image of the grid lines so that the grid image is not visible on the film. |
| What is a stationary grid? | A high-frequency grid that does not move during the exposure. Should have many very fine lines (high frequency) to avoid objectionable grid lines on images. Commonly used today in upright cassette holder. |
| Define grid radius? | The lead strips of a focused grid are precisely aligned with the x-ray beam at a specific source–image receptor distance (SID) |
| What are Methods of Scatter Radiation Fog Control? | Use grid device to absorb scatter, use air gap. Increased OID: decreases scatter intensity at film. minimize field size: Decreases volume of scattering tissue, decrease kilovoltage: Decreases energy of scatter and increases contrast |
| What can cause grid cutoff? | Caused by misalignment between grid and x-ray beam. • Lateral decentering • Source–image receptor distance outside focal range • Lateral angulation or grid off level • Grid reversed |
| Define what is meant by grid cutoff | Excessive absorption of useful radiation by the grid. Any misalignment of the primary x-ray beam will result in undesirable absorption of useful radiation by the grid. |
| What is Variable kVp chart and its advantages? | One of the advantages is that overall image contrast is higher, which may provide greater visibility of the spatial resolution. Also, it enables small incremental changes in exposure techniques that mA and exposure time cannot. |
| Fixed kVp chart | an optimum kVp value is established for each projection and the mAs is varied according to the patient/part thickness. When the kVp levels are kept to the high end of the optimum range, exposures will have more latitude for exposure error. |
| Latitude | a wider range of densities, especially grays, are shown on the image. |
| Optimum kVp | use the highest kVp setting that will produce sufficient contrast for acceptable image quality this will result in the least patient exposure and the greatest exposure latitude. |
| What is the 15% rule? | a 15% change in kVp will produce approximately the same change in radiographic density as a doubling or halving of the mAs. |
| State the units used to measure radiation exposure | Air Kerma (Gy-a) |
| State the units used to measure absorbed dose | Gray(Gy-t) |
| State the units used to measure dose equivalent | Sievert(Sv) |
| What is ionizing radiation? | radiation that, when passing through the body, produces positively and negatively charged particles. |
| What is air kerma? | the SI unit term for radiation exposure. It represents a measurement of the radiation intensity in the air. This is determined by the ionization of air resulting from interaction with the x-ray beam. Air kerma is measured with an ionization chamber |
| What is Dose equivalent? | is the term used to describe or clarify the absorbed dose in the body based on the type and energy of the radiation the person was exposed to. |
| What is Sievert (Sv)? | the SI system’s unit of dose equivalent. |
| What is entrance skin exposure (ESE)? | Patient dose in radiography is usually calculated according to the exposure level at the skin |
| What is absorbed dose? | the amount of energy (x-ray) absorbed by the irradiated tissue. |
| What is naturally occurring radiation? | Internal, terrestrial, radon, cosmic. |
| What is man-made radiation? | Xray, ct, mri, nuclear med, interventional. |
| What is Linear energy transfer (LET)? | the amount of x-ray energy transferred on average, per the length of passage through the tissue. It explains how much radiation was absorbed in a given section of tissue corresponding to the path through the tissue of the x-ray photons. |
| How can high linear energy transfer (LET) effect a person? | Radiation with high LET transfers a large amount of x-ray energy into a small area and can do more biological damage than radiation with low LET. |
| What is ALARA? | all radiation exposure should be “as low as reasonably achievable.” Try not to repeat xrays, collimate, stand 6 feet away if you are not the one being xrayed, use lead apron, anything you can do to preveat the patient from unneccary exposure. |
| What is oxygen enhancement ratio (OER)? | another concept that describes radiation absorbed in tissues. When there is more oxygen in the tissues, it is more sensitive to radiation compared to tissues with low oxygen. |
| List and explain methods for minimizing patient dose during radiography? | Know how to set techniques, collimate, use lead apron, decrease repeat exposure, make sure to communicate well. |
| What is the Bergonié-Tribondeau law? | The relative sensitivity of different types of cells. |
| Cell sensitivity to radiation exposure depends on four characteristics of the cell which are? | Age: younger cells are more sensitive than older ones. Differentiation: simple cells are more sensitive than highly complex ones. Metabolic rt: cells that use energy rapidly are more sensitive. Mitotic rt: cells that multiply rapidly are more sensitive. |
| Explain what is meant by “low-dose techniques” | using optimum kVp and a minimum SID of 40 inches |
| What can produce biologic damage? | Ionizing radiation |
| What are the Classification of Radiation Effects? | Short term, long term. Somatic. And genetic. |
| What is a short term effect of radiation? | They are associated with high radiation absorbed doses, typically greater than 500 mGy-t. Referred to as acute radiation syndrome (ARS). Patients become sick very fast because they receive whole-body doses in a very short period of time. |
| What is a long term effect of radiation? | sometimes referred to as latent effects, are not observed until several years after exposure; in fact, they may not be apparent for as long as 30 years. |
| What is a somatic effect of radiation? | those that affect the body and tissues of the individual who is irradiated. There are both short-term and long-term somatic effects. |
| What is a genetic effect of radiation? | occur as a result of damage to the reproductive cells of the irradiated person and are observed as defects in the children or grandchildren of the irradiated individual. |
| What are the three principal methods used to protect limited operators from unnecessary radiation exposure? | Time, distance, shield. |
| What is the minimum standard lead equivalency for the aprons? | 0.5 mm |
| What is the minimum standard lead equivalency for the gloves? | 0.25 mm |
| When do radiographers perform this quality control check? | Every 6 months |
| How do the radiographers perform the quality control check? | simply by placing the apron or glove on a fluoroscopic x-ray table and checking the entire area of lead using the fluoroscopic beam. If any cracks are seen, the apron or glove must be taken out of service. Must be documented in the quality control logs. |
| What is a personal dosimeter? | Devices for monitoring radiation exposure of radiation workers |
| What is Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL)? | refers to a recently developed monitoring dosimeter that uses aluminum oxide as a radiation detector. This dosimeter is processed using laser light. Similar to TLDs. can measure small doses more precisely. |
| What is Thermoluminescent dosimeters (TLD)? | were used until recently but are now becoming obsolete. |
| What is the EfD measured by? | personal dosimeter readings. |
| What is cumulative effective dose (CumEfD)? | To ensure that the lifetime risk of occupationally exposed persons remains within acceptable limits, also indicates that the lifetime effective dose in mSv should not exceed 10 times the occupationally exposed person’s age in years. |
| Radiation exposure during pregnancy may result in what? | spontaneous abortion, congenital defects in the child, increased risk of malignant disease in childhood, and an increase in significant genetic abnormalities in the children of parents who were exposed before birth. |
| What are the greatest risks for spontaneous abortion during the first trimester? | fetal death, and birth defects |
| What is the NCRP-recommended monthly EqD limit to the embryo/fetus for a pregnant worker? | 0.5 mSv |
| How many dosimeters should a pregnant xray operator wear and where do you put them? | 2 dosimeters. One at the collar of your shirt and one at the waist. If a lead apron is worn you are to wear the dosimeters underneath the apron. |
| What is erythema? | Short-term somatic effects occur with high doses of radiation and they are predictable. One observable short-term effect is reddening of the skin or burn. |
| What is acute radiation syndrome (ARS)? | short-term effects are those observed within 3 months of the exposure. They are associated with high radiation absorbed doses, typically greater than 500 mGy-t. |
| Explain ways to reduce potential risks of radiation exposure during pregnancy? | Ask females of child bearing age if she is pregnant. Use gonad shield(shield that protects the bladder), or lead apron depending on the area of interest you are xraying. Avoid repeat xrays. Use the lowest dose possible. |
| List the three classifications of joints? | Synarthrosis, Amphiarthrosis, Diarthrosis |
| Synarthrosis | refers to a joint that does not move |
| Amphiarthrosis | refers to a joint that has very limited motion. |
| Diarthrosis | refers to a joint that can move freely. |
| Long bones? | Long shaft with thick cortex and medullary canal; the two ends form joints. Ex. Humerus (upper arm), femur (thigh bone) |
| Short bones? | made primarily of cancellous bone with a thin cortex. Bones of wrist and ankle |
| Flat bones? | Two layers of compact bone with a thin cancellous layer between them. Cranium (outer skull), scapula (shoulder blade) |
| Irregular bones? | Wide variety of shapes and structures. Vertebrae (spine), bones of the face |
| The skeletal system is divided into what two parts? | axial skeleton and the appendicular skeleton. |
| What is the axial skeleton? | consists of the skull, spine, sternum (breast bone), and ribs. |
| What is the appendicular skeleton? | includes the bones of the extremities (arms and legs), as well as those of the pelvis and shoulders. |
| Sagittal plane | divides the body into right and left parts |
| Midsagittal or median plane | divides the body into equal right and left parts. |
| Coronal plane | divides the body into anterior and posterior parts. |
| Midcoronal or midfrontal plane | divides the body into relatively equal parts; it passes through the external auditory meatus (the opening of the ear) |
| Transverse or horizontal plane | divides the body into superior and inferior portions. |
| What are the plans of the body? | Sagittal, midsagittal/median, coronal, midoronal/midfrontal, transverse/horizontal. |
| Prone | Lying face down |
| Recumbent | lying down; the position is further described by adding the name of the body surface on which the patient is lying: dorsal recumbent, lateral recumbent, ventral recumbent |
| Supine | Lying on back |
| Upright | Erect, standing or seated. |
| What are the different types of body positions? | Prone, supine, recumbent, upright |
| Four types of movement are found in diarthrodial joints? | Rotation, Circumduction, Supination, Pronation. |
| Rotation movement | pivoting of a bone on its axis. Moving the head from side to side (indicating “no”) requires pivoting the first cervical vertebra around the odontoid process of the second cervical vertebra. |
| Circumduction movement | moves the distal end of a bone in a circle, resulting in a conical-shaped motion. A baseball pitcher’s throwing motion requires circumduction of the arm at the shoulder. |
| Supination movement | is lateral (or external) rotation of the bones of the forearm so the palm of the hand is facing up or anterior. |
| Pronation movement | the opposite of supination, is medial (or internal) rotation of the bones of the forearm so the palm of the hand is facing down or posterior. |
| Anterior | forward or front portion of the body or body part |
| Posterior | backward or back portion of the body or body part; the opposite of anterior |
| Caudal/caudad | away from the head |
| Cephalic/cephalad | pertaining to the head; toward the head; the opposite of caudal |
| Central | pertaining to the middle area or main part of an organ or body part |
| Peripheral | away from the central mass of an organ, toward its outer limits; the opposite of central |
| Distal | away from the source or point of origin; for example, the wrist is distal to the elbow, being farther from the point of origin of the arm, which is at the shoulder |
| Proximal | toward the source or point of origin; the opposite of distal |
| Dorsal | pertaining to the back part or surface of the body or part; the top surface of the foot; or the back of the hand |
| Ventral | forward, front part; the opposite of dorsal |
| External | to the outside, at or near the surface of the body or a body part |
| Internal | deep, near the center of the body or a body part; the opposite of external |
| Inferior | below, farther from the head |
| Superior | above, toward the head; the opposite of inferior |
| Lateral | referring to the side, away from the center to the left or right |
| Medial/mesial | toward the center of the body or the center of a part; the opposite of lateral |
| Palmar | referring to the palm (anterior surface) of the hand |
| Plantar | referring to the sole of the foot |
| Parietal | referring to the walls of a cavity |
| Visceral | pertaining to organs |
| What are Angular movement? | commonly referred to as bending, resulting in a change in angle between the long axis of the two bones making up the joint. These angular movements include flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction. |
| What is Gliding movement? | occurs when one bone slides over another. |
| What are special movements? | The final types of diarthrodial joint movements. They do not fit into the other types and occur in a limited number of joints.Include inversion, eversion, protraction, retraction, elevation, and depression. |
| What are the different xray projections? | AP, PA, Lateral, Oblique, Axial(angle), Tangential projections(ex. patella sunrise view) |
| When the cause of a disease is unknown, it is said to be? | Idiopathic |
| Diseases that occur as the result of treatment by health professionals are? | Iatrogenic |
| What is nosocomial? | refers to diseases that are acquired in hospitals. |
| What is atrophy? | a decrease in the size or number of cells. |
| What is Neoplasms? | are growths or tumors. |
| Malignant | neoplasms are cancers. |
| Benign | neoplasms are single masses of cells that remain at one location and are limited in their growth. |
| Name and identify the significant bony prominences and depressions of the upper limb and shoulder girdle and identify significant positioning landmarks by palpation? | The styloid process of the radius is a bony prominence that can be palpated on the lateral aspect of the wrist. The ulnar styloid can be felt on the posteromedial aspect of the wrist; it is most prominent when the hand is pronated. |
| What is a boxer’s fracture? | a common fracture of the fifth metacarpal, usually caused when the patient strikes a solid object with a closed fist. |
| What is a Colles fracture? | a common fracture of the distal radius, accompanied by posterior and medial displacement. |
| What is a Monteggia fracture? | consists of a fracture of the ulna and dislocation of the radial head. |
| What is the humerus’s weak point that is most commonly fractured? | the surgical neck. |
| What is the most common elbow fracture? | a fracture of the radial head, which may occur as the result of a fall on an outstretched arm |
| What is Osteomyelitis? | inflammation of bone, especially the marrow, caused by a pathogenic organism. Bone infection may be caused by a number of different bacteria, including Staphylococcus and Mycobacterium tuberculosis. |
| What are osteophytes? | The enlarged, deformed portions of the bone |
| What are pathologic fractures? | Fractures caused by underlying disease |
| What is the Acromioclavicular Joints examination? | bilateral AP projections, both with and without weights. SID- 40 inches. Central ray is perpendicular for both images. Breathing instruction-stop breathing dont move. |
| Most accidental fires are traceable to one of four causes: | (1) spontaneous combustion, (2) open flames, (3) smoking, and (4) electricity. |
| Three components must be present for a fire to burn | a flammable substance (fuel), oxygen, and heat |
| Spontaneous combustion | occurs when a chemical reaction in or near a flammable material causes sufficient heat to generate a fire. |
| Types of fire extinguishers: | • Class A fires involve combustibles, such as paper or wood. • Class B fires involve flammable liquids or gases. • Class C fires involve electric equipment or wiring. |
| PASS: | Pull the pin. Aim the nozzle. Squeeze the handle. Sweep. Use a sweeping motion from side to side. |
| prions | Infectious agents include microorganisms and infectious proteins |
| pathogens | Microorganisms that cause disease |
| Where is the reservoir, or source, of infection? | The human body. Any place where pathogens can thrive in sufficient numbers to pose a threat. Such an environment must provide moisture, nutrients, and a suitable temperature, all of which are found in the human body. |
| What is a susceptible host? | are frequently patients whose natural resistance to infection is diminished. |
| What are the six main routes of transmission? | transport of organisms by fomite, vectors, vehicles, and airborne particles or droplets. Indirect routes may include these. |
| Direct contact transmission disease | In this transmission mode the host is touched by an infected person in such a manner that the organisms are placed in direct contact with susceptible tissue |
| What is a fomite? | An object that has been in contact with pathogenic organisms. Ex:of fomites in the radiology department are the x-ray table, upright Bucky, image receptors, calipers, and positioning sponges that have been contaminated with infectious body fluids. |
| What is a vector? | an insect in whose body an infectious organism develops or multiplies before becoming infective to a new host. the bites of infected insects transmit diseases to humans. |
| What is a vehicle transmission disease? | is any medium that transports microorganisms. Examples include contaminated food, water, drugs, and blood. |
| What is airborne contamination? | is spread by dust containing either endospores or droplet nuclei (tiny infectious particles from evaporated droplets that contain microorganisms). |
| What is droplet contamination? | often occurs when an infectious individual coughs, sneezes, speaks, or sings in the vicinity of a susceptible host. |
| What is the The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)? | monitors and studies the types of infections occurring in the nation, compiles statistical data about these infections, and publishes this information in both a weekly report and an annual surveillance summary report. |
| What is nosocomial infections/health care–associated infections or hospital-acquired infections (HAIs)? | infections within the health care setting. |
| What is Universal Precautions (UP)? | all patients are treated as potential reservoirs of infection. It is based on the use of barriers for all contacts with blood and certain body fluids known to carry blood-borne pathogens. |
| What is Body Substance Isolation (BSI)? | This system focused on the use of barriers to prevent contact with all moist and potentially infectious body substances from all patients. |
| What is standard precautions? | most recent system that incorporates guidelines for isolation in hospitals. As applied in an outpatient setting, This is essentially the same as BSP. |
| Standard Precautions involve the use of barriers whenever contact is anticipated with any of the following: | • Blood • Any body fluid or wound drainage • Secretions and excretions (except sweat), regardless of whether they contain visible blood • Nonintact skin • Mucous membranes |
| What is medical asepsis? | is the process of reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual. |
| microbial dilution | The process of reducing the total number of organisms |
| What is Surgical asepsis? | is the complete removal of all organisms and their spores from equipment used to perform specific procedures. |
| Sterile Field | • They are clean, dry, and unopened. • Their expiration date has not been exceeded. • Their sterility indicators have changed to a predetermined color, confirming sterilization. |
| What is angina pectoris? | often simply called angina, is the term for chest pain that occurs when the coronary arteries are unable to supply the heart with sufficient O2 to meet current needs. |
| Four Loss of consciousness (LOCs) are generally recognized and may be described as follows: | 1. Alert and conscious 2. Drowsy but responsive 3. Unconscious but reactive to painful stimuli 4. Comatose |
| moderate allergic reaction | characterized by erythema (redness of the skin), urticaria (hives), and/or dyspnea. |
| severe allergic reaction | anaphylaxis or anaphylactic shock |
| cerebrovascular accident (CVA) | also called a stroke, is caused by lack of adequate blood circulation to the brain. |
| What is epistaxis? | Nosebleed |
| What is syncope? | Fainting |
| Where do you center for on a PA, oblique, and lateral hand xray? | Perpendicular to third MCP joint |
| What is the source to image distance (SID) for a hand xray? | 40 inches |
| What should you see on a PA hand xray? | entire hand (including fingertips), carpus, and distal radius and ulna. |
| What should you see on a oblique hand xray? | No or minimal overlay of metacarpal shafts, with some overlap of metacarpal heads and bases. IP joint spaces open |
| What should you see on a lateral hand xray? | Superimposition of second through fifth metacarpals. Superimposition of second through fifth phalanges r phalanges individually demonstrated. Thumb is seen in PA projection. |
| Do you need a grid for a hand xray? | No grid needed |
| Do you need a grid for a finger xray? | No grid needed |
| Where do you center for a finger xray? (digits 2-5) | Perpendicular to proximal IP joint. |
| What should you see on a finger xray? | Entire digit and distal portion of metacarpal with IP and MCP joint spaces open and clearly visualized. |
| Where do you center at for a thumb xray (digit 1) | Perpendicular to first MCP joint. |
| What positions do you need to complete a hand xray? | PA, oblique, and lateral. Depending on the facility they may add more view for a specific area of interest. |
| What positions do you need to complete a finger xray? | PA, oblique, and lateral. |
| What positions do you need to complete a thumb xray? | AP, oblique, lateral. |
| Where do you center at for a PA, oblique, and lateral wrist xray? | Perpendicular to the midcarpal area. |
| What all should you see on a wrist xray? | Distal portion of radius and ulna, carpal bones, and proximal halves of metacarpals |
| What is the SID for a wrist xray? | 40 inches |
| What position is useful for demonstration of the medial aspect of the carpus, particularly the lunate and the pisiform in the wrist. | AP Oblique Projection—Medial Rotation |
| What position is performed when fracture of the scaphoid is suspected in the wrist. It reduces foreshortening of the scaphoid. | PA Projection—Ulnar Deviation |
| Where do you center for a PA Projection—Ulnar Deviation of the wrist? | Perpendicular, centered to scaphoid (a point slightly proximal and medial to first metacarpal base). |
| What position is used to demonstrate the carpal canal, usually in patients with symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome or suspected fracture. | Tangential Projection (Gaynor-Hart Method) |
| Where do you center for a Tangential Projection (Gaynor-Hart Method)? | Directed to the palm at a point approximately 1 inch (2.5 cm) distal to the base of the third metacarpal and at an angle of 25 to 30 degrees in direction of elbow. Greater angle may be required when the wrist cannot be extended |
| What should you see on a Tangential Projection (Gaynor-Hart Method) view? | Carpal canal—anterior arch of carpal bones, including portions of the scaphoid, trapezium, pisiform, and hook of hamate |
| Where do you center for a AP and lateral forearm? | Perpendicular to midpoint of the forearm |
| What should you see on a forearm xray? | Entire forearm, including both elbow and wrist joints |
| What is the SID for a forearm? | 40 inches |
| Where do you center at for a AP and lateral elbow? | Perpendicular to elbow joint. For AP projection, joint is midway between humeral epicondyles. For lateral projection, it is at lateral epicondyle. |
| What should you see on a eblow xray? | Elbow joint with portions of distal humerus and proximal forearm |
| What is the SID for a any elbow xray? | 40 inches |
| When the patient is unable to fully extend the elbow joint for an AP projection what angle should you use to compensate? | 5-15 degrees in proximal direction to avoid superimposing distal humerus over proximal forearm. |
| What position is performed when injury to the lateral portion of the elbow (radial head or capitulum) is suspected. | AP Oblique—Lateral Rotation |
| Where do you center at for a AP Oblique—Lateral Rotation view? | Directed to center of elbow joint. |
| What should be seen on a AP Oblique—Lateral Rotation view? | Radial head and capitulum without superimposition of ulna |
| How should a AP Oblique—Lateral Rotation view be performed? | From AP position, leaning laterally and rotating shoulder externally so that posterior lateral aspect of elbow is in contact with IR. Coronal plane of elbow forms angle of 45 degrees with IR |
| What is performed when injury to the medial portion of the elbow (coronoid process or trochlea) is suspected. | AP Oblique—Medial Rotation |
| How should a AP Oblique—Medial Rotation view be performed? | Hand pronated, which allows coronal plane of elbow to assume a 45-degree angle with IR |
| Where do you center at for ALL elbow positions? | The elbow joint |
| What should be seen on a AP Oblique—Medial Rotation view? | Coronoid process and trochlea without superimposition |
| Where do you center at for a AP and lateral humerus? | Perpendicular to midhumerus. |
| What SID do you use for any humerus view? | 40 inches |
| What should you see on a humerus xray? | Entire humerus, shoulder joint, and elbow joint |
| Where do you center for a shoulder xray? | Perpendicular to a point 1 inch inferior to coracoid process. |
| What should be seen on a shoulder xray? | Entire clavicle and scapula and proximal third of humerus. |
| How should a internal shoulder xray be performed? | Humerus and arm rotated internally until back of hand is against thigh. Arm adjusted to place coronal plane of humeral epicondyles perpendicular to IR |
| How should a external shoulder xray be performed? | Arm slightly abducted with palm of hand supinated. Arm adjusted to place coronal plane of humeral epicondyles parallel to IR |
| What should be seen on a internal shoulder xray? | demonstrates lesser tubercle in profile |
| What should be seen on a external shoulder xray? | demonstrates greater tubercle in profile |
| What position demonstrates the glenoid fossa in profile, allowing evaluation of glenohumeral joint integrity of the shoulder? | AP Oblique Projection (Grashey Method) |
| What should be seen on a AP Oblique Projection (Grashey Method) view of the shoulder? | Glenohumeral joint with open joint space and glenoid process in profile; coracoid process will usually obscure superior aspect of joint space |
| Where should you center for on a AP Oblique Projection (Grashey Method) view of the shoulder? | Perpendicular through glenohumeral joint, at a point 2 inches (5 cm) medial and 2 inches (5 cm) inferior to superolateral border of shoulder. |
| How is a AP Oblique Projection (Grashey Method) view performed? | Posterolateral aspect of shoulder in contact with upright Bucky or table; scapular body parallel to IR; arm in internal, external, or neutral rotation. |
| How is a PA oblique (scapular Y) view of the shoulder performed? | Anterolateral aspect of shoulder against upright Bucky. Coronal plane of body 45 to 60 degrees to IR. Body rotation adjusted to place scapular body perpendicular to IR |
| What SID is used for the shoulder? | 40 inch |
| Where do you center for a PA oblique (scapular Y) view of the shoulder? | Perpendicular to center of IR, with top of IR 1.5 inches to 2 inches above top of shoulder. |
| What should be seen on a PA oblique (scapular Y) view of the shoulder? | Proximal half of humerus and portions of scapula and clavicle |
| What is the breathing instructions for a AP and PA oblique shoulder? | Stop breathing. Do not move. |
| Where do you center for a PA or AP clavicle xray? | Perpendicular to midclavicle. |
| Where do you center for a PA axial clavicle? | 15 to 30 degrees caudad to midclavicle. |
| Where do you center for a AP axial clavicle? | 15 to 30 degrees cephalad to midclavicle. |
| What should be seen on a clavicle xray? | Entire clavicle and its articulations |
| What is the breathing instructions for a clavicle xray? | Stop breathing. Do not move. |
| What SID do you use on a clavicle xray? | 40 inches |
| Where do you center at for a scapula xray? | Perpendicular to midscapula. For the AP, this point is approximately 2 inches (5 cm) inferior to the coracoid process. For the lateral, this point is the middle of the medial border of the scapular body. |
| What is the breathing instructions for a scapula xray? | Stop breathing. Do not move. |
| Do you need a grid for a scapula xray? | Yes a grid is needed |
| What should you see on a AP scapula xray? | Entire scapula and its articulations with clavicle and humerus. AP projection demonstrates portions of scapula not obscured by ribs and clavicle. |
| What should you see on a lateral scapula xray? | Lateral projections demonstrate body of scapula free of superimposition by ribs, acromion, and coracoid process. |
| What is the SID for a scapula xray? | 40 inches |
| How do you perform a AP scapula xray view? | Arm abducted so that humerus is perpendicular to long axis of body. Elbow flexed 90 degrees. When patient is upright, patient may support position by grasping a pole |
| How do you perform a lateral scapula view? | Anterior oblique body position with affected side nearest IR. Adjust rotation of body (45 to 60 degrees) so that blade (body) of scapula is perpendicular to IR. Patient’s forearm is positioned behind back with elbow flexed 90 degrees. |
| Where do you center for Acromioclavicular Joints? | Perpendicular to midline at level of acromion processes. Exposure field collimated to cover half of the IR |
| Do you need a grid for acromioclavicular Joints xray? | A grid is not required but may be used |
| How many views do you need for acromioclavicular Joints xray? | 2 view. One with weights and one without weights. |
| How do you perform First exposure (no weights) for the acromioclavicular Joint xray? | Back of shoulders against lower half of IR(s). Arms relaxed at sides in neutral position |
| How do you perform Second exposure (weights) for the acromioclavicular Joint xray? | Back of shoulders against upper half of IR(s). Arms at sides with 5- to 10-lb sandbag attached to each wrist |
| What should be seen on a acromioclavicular Joints xray? | Both AC joints for comparison to evaluate ligament integrity |
| What is the breathing instructions for acromioclavicular joint xray? | Stop breathing. Do not move. |
| Where do you center for AP axial toes | Angled 15 degrees posteriorly (toward heel) to MTP joints. |
| Where do you center for AP, AP oblique, and lateral toes? | Perpendicular to MTP joints. |
| What should you see on a toes xray? | Entire digit and distal half of metatarsal with IP and MTP joint spaces open and clearly visualized |
| Do you need a grid for a toe xray? | No grid is needed |
| What are the patient instruction for a toe xray? | Do not move |
| Where should you center at for a sesamoid bone view? | Perpendicular and tangential to the first MTP joint. |
| How is a sesamoid view performed? | Plantar surface of foot resting on IR in a position of dorsiflexion, and adjusted to place the ball of the foot perpendicular to the IR |
| What is seen on a sesamoid view? | Sesamoids and first metatarsal head in profile |
| What is the SID for toes and sesamoid views? | 40 inches |
| Where do you center at for a AP axial foot xray? | Angled 10 degrees posteriorly (toward heel) and entering base of third metatarsal. |
| Where do you center at for a AP oblique and lateral foot xray? | Perpendicular to base of third metatarsal. |
| What should be seen on a foot xray? | Entire foot, including toes, metatarsals, and tarsal bones. |
| What should be seen on a AP oblique projection with medial rotation | should demonstrate the metatarsals and some tarsals (cuboid, navicular, lateral cuneiform) with minimal superimposition on one another. Too much superimposition of these structures indicates that everted to much. |
| What should be seen on a lateral foot xray? | shows superimposition of metatarsals, more proximal than distal. It should include the ankle joint |
| Is a grid needed for a foot xray? | No grid is needed |
| What is the SID for a foot xray? | 40 inches |
| Where do you center at for a Axial (plantodorsal) calcaneus view? | Angled 40 degrees cephalad to center of IR, entering at third metatarsal base. |
| Where do you center at for a lateral calcaneus view? | Perpendicular to center of IR, entering about 1 inch (2.5 cm) distal to medial malleolus. |
| How do you perform a Axial (plantodorsal) calcaneus view? | Posterior surface of ankle and heel is in contact with IR. Place foot so that malleoli are centered with regard to middle of IR. Sagittal plane of foot is perpendicular to IR. Foot is dorsiflexed as much as possible. |
| What SID is used for a calcaneus view? | 40 inches |
| Is a grid needed for a calcaneus view? | No grid needed |
| What is seen on a Axial (plantodorsal) calcaneus view? | Both projections demonstrate entire calcaneus and its articulation with talus |
| What is seen on a lateral calcaneus view? | calcaneal articulations with cuboid and navicular anteriorly |
| Where do you center at for a AP and AP obliques ankle xray? | Perpendicular to point midway between malleoli. |
| Where do you center at for a lateral ankle xray? | Perpendicular to medial malleolus. |
| Is a grid needed for a ankle xray? | No grid needed |
| What is the SID for a ankle xray? | 40 inches |
| What do you see on a AP ankle xray? | Posterior surface of heel and lower leg is in contact with IR. Midpoint between malleoli is centered to IR. Foot is dorsiflexed so that plantar surface of foot forms a 90-degree angle with coronal plane of lower leg. leg and foot are perpendicular to IR |
| How do you perform a AP oblique (medial rotation) of the ankle? | From position for AP projection, entire leg is rotated medially 45 degrees. Sagittal planes of foot and leg must remain aligned to each other |
| How do you perform a AP oblique (medial rotation—mortise joint) of the ankle? | From position for AP projection, entire leg is rotated 15 to 20 degrees medially. Sagittal planes of foot and leg must remain aligned with each other |
| Where do you center at for a tib/fib leg xray? | Perpendicular to center of IR entering midshaft of tibia. |
| What is seen on a tib/fib xray? | Entire lower leg including knee joint and ankle joint. |
| Is a grid needed for a tib/fib xray? | No grid needed |
| What is the SID for a tib/fib? | 40 inches |
| How do you perform a AP tib/fib? | Leg is fully extended with posterior surface of lower leg in contact with IR. Foot is dorsiflexed so that plantar surface of foot forms a 90-degree angle with coronal plane of lower leg. |
| How do you perform a lateral tib/fib? | Knee may be flexed, if necessary, to ensure a true lateral position. Lateral surface of lower leg is in contact with IR. Leg is rotated to place sagittal plane of leg parallel to IR and coronal plane through patella perpendicular to IR. |
| Where do you center at for a AP knee xray? | Entering 0.5 inch distal to apex of patella |
| Where do you center at for a PA and lateral CXR? | Perpendicular to center of IR. Center point should be at the level of T7, which corresponds to the level of the inferior angle of the scapulae. |
| Is a grid needed for a humerus? xray? | Yes |
| Is a grid needed for a shoulder xray? | Yes |
| Is a grid needed for a wrist xray? | No |
| What views are needed for a forearm xray? | AP and lateral |
| What views are needed for a elbow xray? | AP and lateral |
| What views are needed for a humerus xray? | internal/external and lateral |
| What is the SID for a knee xray? | 40 inches |
| Where do you center for a lateral knee xray? | Angled 5 to 7 degrees cephalad entering 1 inch distal to medial epicondyle of femur. |
| What is seen on a AP knee xray? | Knee joint with portions of distal femur and proximal lower leg |
| What is seen on a lateral knee xray? | a profile of tibial tuberosity. It should demonstrate distal femur with condyles superimposed and joint space free of superimposition. Entire patella and retropatellar joint space should also be clearly visualized |
| What is a alternative view for a AP knee? | PA knee xray, patient is prone, affected leg extended and sagittal plane of leg perpendicular to IR; foot on affected side is plantar flexed and rests on its dorsal aspect |
| Where do you center for a PA knee xray? | Directed 5 to 7 degrees caudad to exit 0.5 inch (1.3 cm) inferior to the patellar apex. |
| Why is the Pa Axial Projection—Holmblad Method view of the knee performed? | For demonstration of the intercondylar fossa. There is less distortion caused by tube angulation, is often preferred. |
| How is a Pa Axial Projection—Holmblad Method view of the knee performed? | Patient is on hands and knees on radiographic table with affected knee flexed so that angle between femur and table is 70 degrees. Contralateral knee is flexed more and is forward to provide support |
| Where do you center for Pa Axial Projection—Holmblad Method view of the knee | Perpendicular to center of IR through center of knee joint. |
| What is seen on a Pa Axial Projection—Holmblad Method view of the knee | Knee joint with portions of distal femur and proximal lower leg. Open intercondylar fossa |
| How is the Pa Axial Projection—Camp-Coventry Method of the knee performed? | Prone with affected knee flexed to form an angle of 40 or 50 degrees between tibia and table |
| Where do you center for a Pa Axial Projection—Camp-Coventry Method of the knee? | Angled 40 degrees caudad through knee joint to center of IR if leg is 40 degrees, and 50 degrees if leg is 50 degrees. |
| What is seen on a Pa Axial Projection—Camp-Coventry Method of the knee? | Knee joint with portions of distal femur and proximal lower leg. Open intercondylar fossa |
| What views of the knee can you xray to see the intercondylar fossa? | Pa Axial Projection—Holmblad Method and Pa Axial Projection—Camp-Coventry Method |
| Why is a Tangential (“Sunrise”) —Settegast Method xray performed of the knee? | to see the patella in profile and open patellofemoral joint |
| How is a Tangential (“Sunrise”) —Settegast Method xray performed? | Prone with affected knee flexed as much as possible or until the patella is perpendicular to the IR. Sagittal plane of femur is perpendicular to IR. |
| Where do you center at for Tangential (“Sunrise”) —Settegast Method xray of the knee? | Angled 15 to 20 degrees cephalad and centered to inferior margin of patella. Angulation is adjusted so that central ray passes between patella and distal femur. |
| Where do you center at for a AP CXR? | Perpendicular to center of IR. Center point should be on the midsagittal plane at a level 3 inches below the jugular notch. |
| Where do you center at for a lateral CXR? | Perpendicular to center of IR. Center point should be on the midcoronal plane at the level of T7. |
| What is seen on a CXR? | Heart, lungs, and mediastinum. No rotation of the sternoclavicular joints on the PA projection |
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smcdougal27