Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
PATHO MIDTERM
MID TERM
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| A patient has Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. Which typical assessment findings should the nurse monitor for in this patient? a.Decreased IgM and bleeding b.Increased IgE and clotting c.Decreased IgG and wheezing d.Increased IgA and coughing | A. Decreased IgM and bleeding Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is an X-linked recessive disorder, where IgM antibody production and platelets are depressed. DERMATITIS, REPEAT INFECTION,MICROTHROMBCYTOPENIA, VERY FEW PLATELETS |
| When a patient has tissue ischemia and a decrease in mitochondrial oxygenation, which of the following does the nurse expect? | A decrease in oxygen delivery results in a decrease in ATP production. |
| The nurse is caring for a new mother who just gave birth to a baby with Down syndrome. The nurse explains that this syndrome is a result of trisomy with which chromosome? | The karyotype of an individual with Down syndrome shows trisomy 21. |
| A geneticist is teaching a class that includes information about DNA. Which information should be included? a.the enzymes necessary for cell division. b.the genetic code for all parts of the body. c.a genetic blueprint for making carbohydrates only. | DNA contains: B. the genetic code for all parts of the body |
| The nurse documents "tattooing and stippling" in a trauma patient. Which type of injury does this patient have? | Gunshot wounds Tattooing and stippling are caused by gunpowder and occur on the skin surrounding the entrance wound. |
| Blunt force injuries involve | tearing, shearing, or crushing of tissues |
| If a patient has Gaucher disease, which of the following organ(s) should the nurse monitor? | Gaucher disease is caused by the accumulation of a fatty substance called glucocerebroside in the spleen, liver, and CNS. It also affects the lungs and brain. |
| The nurse is caring for a patient with a genetic disease that is transmitted through autosomal recessive inheritance. Which is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? | Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease. |
| If an ovum has chromosomal nondisjunction, which conditions(s) could result in the embryo? | Monosomies and trisomies. Failure of a chromosome to separate results in an ovum with 2 copies of the chromo & an ovum with no copies of the chromo. ova encounter sperm the resulting embryo will have either an extra copy (trisomy) or 1 copy (monosomy). |
| When the clinician is discussing the DNA helix, which information should be included? In the DNA helix, guanine pairs with: | cytosine. In the DNA helix, cytosine pairs with guanine. |
| When a patient has an extreme laceration (laceration with a flap), which medical term should the nurse document on the chart? | An avulsion An extreme laceration in which a wide area of tissue is torn is called an avulsion. |
| If a patient has liquefactive necrosis, which organ should the nurse assess first? | Brain Hypoxic injury to the brain results in liquefactive necrosis because the central nervous system contains little connective tissue. |
| A nurse recalls that adaptive cellular mechanisms function to: | protect cells from injury. Adaptive cellular mechanisms help cells adjust to environmental changes, thereby protecting them from injury and death. |
| An individual who is heterozygous for a gene has: | alleles at a given locus that are different from one another. An individual who is heterozygous for a gene has alleles at a given locus that are different from one another. |
| A couple has two offspring; one child has an autosomal recessive disease trait and one is normal. What most likely conclusions can the nurse make about the parents? | Both parents could be carriers. In most cases, both parents are carriers, although in rare cases, one or both may express the disease. |
| When an infant has been identified as having had fetal exposure to alcohol, which assessment parameters should be considered? | Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by low birth weight, facial anomalies, mental retardation, and other congenital abnormalities. |
| What term does the nurse use to describe the exudate that is characterized by the movement of watery fluid, containing few cells and little protein? | A serous exudate is primarily composed of water without the accumulation of cells or proteins. |
| A patient asks about the role of clotting mechanisms during inflammation. The nurse should indicate that the function of the clotting cascade during inflammation is to: | trap microorganisms. The clotting cascade keeps bacteria close to the phagocytes, helps stop any bleeding, and prevents the spread of infection by trapping microorganisms. |
| A patient with cancer sustains an excessive amount of tumor necrosis factor alpha. For which condition should the nurse be particularly alert? | Cachexia Tumor necrosis factor-alpha causes muscle wasting with severe weight loss (cachexia) and intravascular thrombosis in cases of severe infection and cancer. |
| A patient has DiGeorge syndrome. Which organ should the nurse discuss when describing the pathophysiology of this disease? | Thymus DiGeorge syndrome (congenital thymic aplasia or hypoplasia and diminished parathyroid gland development) is caused by the lack or partial lack of the thymus. |
| Which cells are primarily responsible for phagocytic activity during inflammation? | Neutrophils and macrophages The major phagocytic cells in inflammation are neutrophils and macrophages. |
| The patient is having a reaction to a bee sting. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction does the nurse expect to see documented in the patient’s chart? | Type I Typical allergic responses are characterized as type I hypersensitivity reactions. |
| The nurse is caring for a patient with B-lymphocyte deficiency. The nurse should protect the patient primarily from: | A.capsulated viruses B.Fermented yeast C.wet fungi D.Encapsulated bacteria Correct answer: encapsulated bacteria.B-lymphocyte deficiencies result in an increased susceptibility to infection, especially those caused by encapsulated bacteria. |
| While discussing the complement system, which information should the nurse include? The alternative pathway of the complement system is activated by: | bacteria. The alternative pathway of the complement system is activated by the presence of bacterial cell wall polysaccharides (endotoxin). |
| Among the many innate defenses the body has to pathogens, the first line of defense is the: | skin and mucous membranes. The skin and mucous membranes form a barrier to prevent microorganisms from entering the body. |
| A patient asks a nurse what leukotrienes do. Which of the following is the best answer? Leukotrienes: | cause increased vascular permeability. Leukotrienes (slow-reacting substances of anaphylaxis [SRS-A]) are sulfur-containing lipids that produce histamine-like effects: smooth muscle contraction and increased vascular permeability. |
| What is the role of plasmin in the inflammatory response cycle? | It controls clotting by breaking down fibrin. Plasmin is an enzyme that will degrade fibrin during clot dissolution or at the resolution of inflammation. |
| What term does the nurse use to describe the process of endocytosis? | Engulfment |
| A nurse wants to teach about the most common primary immune deficiency condition. Which of the following should the nurse describe? | ANSWER: COMMON VARIABLE IMMUNE DEFIECENCY The three most commonly diagnosed deficiencies are common variable immune deficiency (34%), selective immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency (24%), and IgG subclass deficiency (17%). |
| A patient has a combined immune deficiency. Which important principle should the nurse remember? A patient with a combined immune deficiency lacks: | T and B lymphocytes. Combined deficiencies result from defects that directly affect the development of both T and B lymphocytes. |
| most frequently reported symptom of cancer and cancer treatment. | Fatigue |
| a multiorgan energy wasting syndrome where energy intake is decreased and energy expenditure is increased. Two factors are most significant: muscle loss and inflammation | Cachexia |
| Type of chemotherapy given after surgical excision of a cancer with the goal of eliminating micrometastases | Adjuvant chemotherapy |
| proto-oncogenes vs oncogenes | Genes that encode components of receptor-mediated pathways designed to regulate normal cellular proliferation are called proto-oncogenes . Cancerous cells characteristically express mutated /overexpressed proto-oncogenes, which are called oncogenes. |
| The nurse should evaluate the cancer patient with fatigue for which of the following? | Depression |
| what type of gene is a retinoblastoma gene? | A tumor-suppressor gene |
| Which symptom will surprise the nurse when assessing a patient with cachexia? A.Anorexia B.heart murmur C.weight loss D. weakness | Correct answer B.Heart murmur the other choices are all common symptoms of Cachexia |
| A patient is experiencing leukopenia from cancer and chemotherapy treatment. Which condition should the nurse assess for in this patient? A.Allergic reactions B. Autoimmune disease C.Bleeding D.Infection | Correct answer D. Infection d/t a weakened immune system leukopenia-A low white blood cell count, wbc’s are a major component of our immune system they help to protect us against bacteria, viruses, and parasites. |
| Which statement made by the cancer patient indicates the need for more teaching? A major cause of cancer pain is: A. DIRECT PRESSURE ON THE TISSUS B.METASTASIS TO BONE C. CANCER CELLS RESIDING IN LYMPH NODES D. RELEASE OF INFLAMMATORY CHEMICALS | C. BECAUSE ALL THE OTHER ANSWERS ARE REASONS FOR OAIN DURING CANCER |
| Common side effects of cancer and cancer therapy include | anemia, bone density loss, cachexia, cardiac and pulmonary damage, fatigue, gastrointestinal issues, hair loss and skin conditions, infection, infertility, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia, lymphedema, and pain. |
| Which statement made by the cancer patient indicates the need for more teaching? A major cause of cancer pain is: | CA cells residing in lymph nodes. CA cells in lymph nodes are not associated with pain. Direct pressure, obstruction, invasion of a sensitive structure, stretching of visceral surfaces, tissue destruction, infection, and inflammation all can cause pain. |
| The most notable infections implicated in new cancer cases include | Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), Helicobacter pylori, hepatitis B and C viruses (HBV and HCV), and human papillomavirus (HPV). |
| The nurse is reviewing a patient’s laboratory report. Which finding correlates to the patient’s diagnosis of cervical cancer? A.HIV B. Hep B C.Epstein Barr D. HPV | Correct answer D HPV is linked with cervical, penis, vulvar, vaginal, anal, and some oropharyngeal |
| The development of sensory and motor symptoms in multiple sclerosis is caused by: | immunologic and inflammatory demyelination of CENTRAL nervous system neurons. |
| The individual in myasthenic crisis is in danger of | respiratory arrest this occurs when severe muscle weakness causes extreme quadriparesis or quadriplegia, respiratory insufficiency with shortness of breath, and extreme difficulty in swallowing. |
| Positive Kernig sign | straightening the knee with the hip and knee in a flexed position produces pain in the back and neck regions |
| Positive Brudzinski sign | passive flexion of the neck produces neck pain and increased rigidity |
| Which patient is at highest risk for a cerebral vascular accident (stroke)? The patient with A.hypertension and diabetes B.a herniated intervertebral disk and pneumonia C.Alzheimer disease and spinal stenosis D.Parkinson disease and low back pain | answer A. hypertension and diabetes Risk factors include: family hx, african americans,diabetes, sickle cell, a-fib, polycythemia,thrombocytopenia, elevated lipid panel,smoking, high NA+ intake, postmenaposal hormone therapy, CHF, PVD, sleep apnea |
| Autonomic hyperreflexia/dysreflexia is caused by | stimulation of sensory/pain receptors below the level of the spinal cord lesion. spinal cord injury at level T6 or above. symptoms hypertension up 300 systolic,bradycardia 30 -40,nasal congestion most common cause is a distended bladder or rectum |
| ALS is caused by: A.degeneration of lower and upper motor neurons. B.neurofibromin, a tumor suppressing protein. C.degeneration of myelin in the brain and spinal cord. D.spinal cord compression with radicular pain. | Correct answer:A.degeneration of lower and upper motor neurons. |
| A patient has a subdural hematoma. A nurse realizes that the bleeding is occurring: A.deep within the herniated nucleous. B.deep within the brain. C.between the dura mater and the skull. D.between the dura mater and the brain. | Correct answer D.between the dura mater and the brain. A subdural hematoma is bleeding between the dura mater and the arachnoid membrane covering the brain and is caused by tearing of veins. |
| spinal cord injury (T6 level) reports a headache. BP is 296 systolic, and the patient is sweating. Which is most appropriate? A.Prepare the patient for surgery. B.Administer pain med for headache. C.Start CPR. DCheck the patient's bladder. | Correct answer D.check patient’s bladder These symptoms are indicative of Autonomic hyperreflexia/(dysreflexia). Most common cause is a distended bladder or rectum |
| A nurse is discussing the pathophysiology of cerebral infarction. Which point is correct? Cerebral thrombosis develops most frequently from: A.clot fragments. B.bleeding. C.atherosclerosis. D.ischemic lesions. | Correct answer C.atherosclerosis.Cerebral thrombosis develops most often from atherosclerosis and inflammatory disease processes that damage arterial walls. |
| Which information should the nurse include when teaching about focal brain injury? Most forms of focal brain injury are associated with increased: A.blood pressure. B.reflexes. C.brain swelling. D.mental capacity. | Correct answer C.brain swelling. Causes of focal brain injury include closed (blunt) trauma or open (penetrating) trauma. |
| pathophys of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Which info should the nurse include? A.Muscle spasms occur in response to injury. B.Intracranial pressure is unchanged. C.Brain myelin is demylinated by bleeding. D.Impaired reabsorption of CSF occurs. | Correct answer is D.Impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid(SAH) is the escape of blood from a defective or injured vessel into the subarachnoid space,the escaped blood coats nerve roots, clogs arachnoid granulations impairing CSF reabsorption. |
| a spinal cord tumor causing an irritative syndrome means? A. compression symptoms plus radicular pain. B. gradual motor and sensory dysfunction. C. mental and emotional issues from the tumor. D. tumors originating from the neural tissues. | Correct answer A.experiencing compression symptoms plus radicular pain.irritative syndrome combines the clinical manifestations of a cord compression with radicular pain that occurs in the sensory root distribution and indicates root irritation. |
| Describe spinal shock | temp loss of spinal cord functions below the lesion, spinal cord cells at & below the level of injury ceases, w/complete loss of reflexes, flaccid paralysis, no sensation, loss of bladder &rectal control, drop in blood pressure, bradycardia. |
| A patient has a recent spinal cord injury. Which term should the nurse use to describe the loss of reflex function below the level of injury/lesion? A.Autonomic hyperreflexia B.Spinal shock C.Degenerative dis | Correct answer B.Spinal shock |
| Which type of injury will the nurse prepare to care for when a patient has a diffuse brain injury? a.Concussion b.Focal brain injury c.Multiple sclerosis d.Myasthenia gravis | Correct answer a.Concussion There are two main types of diffuse brain injuries: concussions and diffuse axonal injury. |
| patho of a herniated disk. a.The nucleus pulposus extrudes & compresses the nerve root. b.A tangle of malformed vessels is obstructing the annulus fibrosus. c.The arachnoid villi is obstructed & leads to hydrocephalus placing pressure on the cord. | Correct answer A. Herniation of an intervertebral disk is a displacement of the nucleus pulposus ,the ligament and posterior capsule of the disk are usually torn, allowing the nucleus pulposus to extrude and compress the nerve root. |
| .If either a myasthenic or cholinergic crisis occurs, the nurse should: a.administer edrophonium chloride (Tensilon). b.monitor for respiratory arrest. c.assess for levels of IgM. d.check for spondylolysis. | Correct answer b.monitor for respiratory arrest. |
| During the assessment of a patient with meningitis, the nurse wants to test for nuchal rigidity. Which test will the nurse implement? a.Homan b.Babinski c.Kernig d.Temperature | Correct answer c.Kernig |
| A patient's forehead hit the steering wheel during a motor vehicle accident. Which part of the brain received the coup injury? a.Occipital b.Left hemisphere c.Frontal d.Brainstem | Correct answer c.Frontal The injury may be a coup injury (injury at site of impact) or a contrecoup injury (injury from brain rebounding and hitting the opposite side of skull) |
| A patient developed a subdural hematoma within 12 hours of the injury. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart? a.Subacute subdural hematoma b.Acute subdural hematoma c.Chronic subdural hematoma d.Subchronic subdural hematoma | Correct answer B Acute subdural hematomas develop rapidly, commonly within hours. Subacute subdural hematomas develop more slowly, often over 48 hours to 2 weeks. Chronic subdural hematomas develop over weeks to months. |
| A patient has a brief episode of neurological deficits that resolves within 12 hours with a return to normal functioning. a.Transient ischemic attack b.Stroke c.Cerebrovascular accident d.Cluster attack Correct answer a.TIA | Correct answer a.TIA is a brief episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by a focal disturbance of brain or retinal ischemia with clinical symptoms typically lasting more than 1 hour; no evidence of infarction; and complete clinical recovery. |
| what is the complement system | An immune response which includes 1) the activation of inflammation (2) the opsonization (labeling) of pathogens and cells for clearance/destruction (3) the direct killing of target cells/microbes by lysis. |
| Describe Tay-Sachs disease | A disease resulting in accumulation of lipids in the nerve cells of the brain |
| Define metaplasia and its causes | Metaplasia—reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another, less mature cell type or a change in cell phenotype. Causes include damage or cell injury from noxious stimuli, repair and regeneration. |
| cri du chat syndrome | Cause by DNA deletions of chromosome 5. name means "cry of the cat" symptoms low birth weight, severe intellectual disability, microcephaly (smaller than normal head size), and heart defects. |
| Klinefelter syndrome | Sex chromosome aneuploidy Individuals with at least two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome in each cell (47,XXY karyotype) |
| Cystic fibrosis | the most common lethal1 /25 whites carry autosomal recessive gene disease salt imbalance cause thick dehydrated mucus. Pancreas becomes obstructed, causing malnutrition, lungs become clogged with mucus causing high susceptibility to bacterial infections. |
| Turner syndrome | Sex chromosome aneuploidy individual has a total of 45 chromosomes(karotype 45, X) |
| Huntington disease | auto dom disorder CNS disease characterized by disruption of the extrapyramidal system and various involuntary or exaggerated motor movements. effects brain decline in memory mood changes. auto dom effecting |
| Duchenne muscular dystrophy | X-linked recessive disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration. Affected individuals usually are unable to walk by age 10 or 12 years |
| neurofibromatosis | autosomal DOMINANT disease varies from a few harmless café-au-lait (light brown) spots on the skin to numerous neurofibromas, scoliosis, seizures, gliomas, neuromas, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors, hypertension, and learning disorders |
| Heterozygous vs Homozygous | At any given locus in a somatic cell, an individual has two genes, one from each parent. An individual may be homozygous (alleles are identical) or heterozygous (alleles are different) for a locus |
| Genotype vs Phenotype | An individual's genotype is his or her genetic makeup, and the phenotype reflects the interaction of genotype and environment |
| allele | are different forms of genes located at the same locus on a chromosome. |
| Down syndrome | Autosomal aneuploidy trisomy of chromosome 21 A cell containing three copies of one chromosome is said to be trisomy |
| Aneuploidy/ Nondisjunction | Aneuploidy is usually the result of nondisjunction, an error in which homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate normally 46during meiosis or mitosis |
| Transcription | In transcription, RNA is synthesized from a DNA template, forming messenger RNA (mRNA). |
| Hashimoto disease | autoimmune disorder hypothyroidism, Iodine deficiency symptoms : low resp., wt gain, fatigue, alopecia ,constipation, depression, dry skin tx: Levothyroxine(take on empty stomach in am always 30 min - 1hr before meals), takes approx 21 day to work |
| Graves disease | autoimmune disorder causing hyper thyroidism symptoms bulging eyes(aka expothalamos), tachcardia, hot sweaty skin (heat intolerance), restlessness, agitation,HTN, Goiter, wt loss, diarrhea tx thyroidectomy, radioactive iodine, SSKI, beta blocker |
| thyroid storm | high BP, High HR, high temp over 101, agitation, confusion |
| Myexedema coma | low respirations, hypotension, bradycardia, low body temp have trach kit ready at bedside |
| Bradykinin | Bradykinin is the most important product of the kinin system and causes vascular permeability, smooth muscle contraction, and pain. |
| Hypersensitivity I | Immunoglobulin E (IgE)–mediated reaction Seasonal allergic rhinitis, Asthma, Bee sting, peanut allergy anaphylaxis |
| Hypersensitivity II | Tissue-specific reaction. IgG & IgM Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura, Graves disease, autoimmune hemolytic anemia |
| Hypersensitivity III | Immune complex–mediated reaction IgG & IgM Systemic lupus erythematosus |
| Hypersensitivity IV | Cell-mediated reaction....no immmunoglobs just skin reactions Contact sensitivity to poison ivy, metals (jewelry), and latex |
| subdural Hematoma | LOCATED BTWEEN DURA MATTER AND THE BRAIN |
| Stroke vs TIA Ischemic stroke,Lacunar stroke, Hemorrhagic stroke | TIA SYMTOMS RESOLVE W/I 12 HR |
| DM I | Type 1 diabetes (caused by autoimmune beta-cell destruction, usually leading to absolute insulin deficiency) p 457 Poly uria,dypsia, phagiaDiabetic ketoacidosis (DKA |
| Intracranial aneurysm | A weakness in a blood vessel in the brain that balloons and fills with blood. CAUSED BY HTN , ATHEROSCLEROSIS |
| DM II | p. 460 mech insulin resistance and decreased insulin secretion by beta cells |
| Addisons | adrenal gland disorder underproduction of steroids everything is low bronzed skin including sodium and glucose. low wt from water loss. only highs are 2 P's pigmentation and potassium |
| Cushing | adrenal gland disorder over production of steroids buffalo hump weight gain in abdomen high bp,glucose, Na+, truncal obesity, moon face hiturism(hair),purple stria "stretch marks", rosy cheeks |
| Diabetes insipidus | p 449 insufficient ADH activity, leading to the loss of too much free water into the urine.excretion of large volumes of dilute urine. Dehydration develops rapidly. DI include polyuria, nocturia, continuous thirst, and polydipsia. |
| Encephalitis | USUALLY CAUSE BY VIRAL INFECTION. INFLAMMATION OF THE BRAIN D/T INFECTION OR AUTOIMMUNE RESPONSE BACTERIAL VIRAL FUNGAL PARASITES |
| Meningitis | BACTERIAL VIRAL OR FUNGAL INFLAMMATION OF THE MENINGES NEXT TO THE BRAIN CAUSES HA AND STIFF NECK |
| Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) | disorder of impaired water excretion caused by the inability to suppress the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) SEVERE HYPONATRIEMIA SIADH makes it harder to release water., SIDAH causes sodium, to fall as a result of water retention. |
| The outward manifestation of a disease often influenced by both genes and the environment | Phenotype |
| process by which cells program themselves to die | apoptosis |
| For metastasis to occur the tumor cell must be able to | survive in the bloodstream |
| A herniated disc allows the gelatinous material (nucleus pulposus) | extrude and compress the nerve root |
| Loos of function below the level of injury | spinal shock |
| Eukaryotic cell 3 general components | plasma membrane, cytoplasm, intracelluar organelles |
| Metaplasia | the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another less mature cell type |
| Water Balance in regulated by 1-______ 2-_______ | 1-Sensation of thirst 2-ADH (antidiuretic hormone) |
| ________ is regulated by the kindney as well as aldosterone and insulin secretion as well as changes in PH | K+ (potassium) |
| Immunodeficiency ___ is a clinical hallmark/propensity to unusual or recurrent severe infections | Immunodeficiency I |
| Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) | Kussmaul respirations (hyperventilation in an attempt to compensate for the acidosis), fruity breath,dizziness, central nervous system depression, ketonuria, anorexia, nausea, abd. pain, thirst, and polyuria metabolic acidosis and hyperkalemia. p464 |
| Which term describes “obvious changes in cell function that result from stimulation by a particular hormone”? Upregulation Permissive effects Direct effects Downregulation | DIRECT EFFECT |
| Which is a characteristic of the hypothalamus? a.made up of neurosecretory neurons that secrete releasing hormones. b. connected to the anterior pituitary by a single membrane. c.connected to the posterior pituitary by blood vessels. | ANSWER A |
| Which hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary? Androgen Oxytocin Thyroid Prolactin | answer prolactin |
| Which is a characteristic of the parathyroid gland? a. It is made up of at least 6–10 pairs of glands. b.secretes the most important factor in Ca++ regulation. c.influences the production of thyroid hormone. | Parathyroid glands produce parathyroid hormone, which plays a key role in the regulation of calcium levels in the blood. |
| Respiratory alkalosis | PH IS UP PACO2 iIS DOWN REMEMBER RESP OPPOSITE FROM ROME |
| RESP ACIDOSIS | PH IS DOWN PACO2 IS UP REMEBER RESP IS OPPOSITE FROM ROME |
| Metabolic alkalosis | REMEBER metabolic equal from ROME PH IS UP HCO3 IS UP |
| Metabolic Acidosis | Remember metabolic is equal from ROME PH IS DOWN HCO3 is DOWN |
| Normal blood PH | 7.35-7.45 |
| Normal PACO2 | 38-44 |
| Normal HCO3 | 22-26 |
| auto recessive disorders ARE | CYSTIC FIBROSIS, sickle cell anemia, and Tay-Sachs disease, DOWN SYNDROME |
| auto dominate disorders | autosomal dominant Huntington's disease, Marfan syndrome,NEUROFIBROMAS |
| aut dom vs auto recessive | Autosomal dominant traits pass from one parent onto their child. Autosomal recessive traits pass from both parents onto their child. |
| autosomal is | Autosomal is a gene that is not on a sex chromos and is a # chromo we have 46 total chromo. Each of your parents gives you 23 chromo for a total of 46. There are two sex chromosomes (X and Y) and 22 numbered chromosomes are the only chromos that use aut |
| DiGeorge syndrome | thymus atrophy auto recessive or x linked catch 22 cardiac abnormalities, abnormal face, thymic aplasia ,cleft palate, hypocalcemia hypo parathyroid |
| Radicular pain | pain that radiates from your back and hip into your legs through the spine. COMMON IN IRRITATIVE SYNDROME INVOVLING SPINAL CORD TUMOR |
| WHICH INERTVERTEBRAL DISC SHOULD THE NURSE ASSESS FIRST FOR HERNIATION | L4-S1 |
| THE PT HAS A SPINAL CORD TUMOR THAT ORIGINATED WITHIN THE NEURAL TISSUES. NAME THIS TYPES OF TUMOR | INTRAMEDULLARY |
| CEREBRAL THROMBOSIS DEVELOPS MOST OFTEN FROM? | ATHEROSCLEROSIS AND INFLAMMATORY DISEASE PROCESS |
| PT WITH GUILLAIN BARRE ..THE NURSE SHOULD ASK ABOUT HX OF | VIRAL GI OR RESP INFECTIONS |
| CLASSIC SIGN OF CEREBRAL CONCUSSION | LOSS OF CONSCIOUSNESS |
| DEVELOPMENT OF SENSORY AND MOTOR NEURON SYMPTOMS IN MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS IS CAUSED BY | IMMUNOLOGIC AND INFLAMMATORY DEMYELINATION OF THE CNS NEURONS |
| THE PROCESS BY WHICH ONE PIECE OF ONE CHROMOSOME IS MOVED TO ANOTHER CHROMOSOMES IS CALLED | TRANSLOCATION |
| WHAT IS THE LEADING CAUSE OF DEATH IN DEVELOPED COUNTRIES | CANCER |
| WHAT WOULD YOU EXPECT TO OCCURS WHEN A PT'S CANCER IS CAUSED BY MUTATIONS OF A PROTO-ONCOGENE/ | INCREASED CELL DIVISION |
| MALIGNANT TUMORS HAVE A TENDENCY TO ? 3 THINGS | INVADE SURROUNDING TISSUE GROW RAPIDLY METASTASIZE |
| WHEN ASSESSING A PT'S WITH SLE YOU SHOULD EXPECT TO FIND ? | ARTHALGIA, RASH, ANEMIA |
| WHICH SUBSTANCE IS RELEASED DURING A VIRAL INFECTION AND SIGNALS OTHER NEIGHBORING CELLS TO ENHANCE VIRAL DEFENSES | INTERFERON |
| WHICH GROUP OF PEOPLE SHOULD THE NURSE TARGET TO EDUCATE ON SLE | WOMEN 20-40 YEARS OLD |
| WHAT CAUSES METAPLASIA IN HUMANS | CELL INJURY FROM NOXIOUS STIMULI |
| METAPLASIA | THE REVERSIBLE REPLACEMENT OF ONE MATURE CELL TYPE BY ANOTHER LESS MATURE CELL TYPE |
| A PROPENSITY TO UNSUAL OR RECURRENT SEVERE INFECTIONS IS A CLINICAL HALLMARK OF | IMMIUNODEEFIECENCY I |
| POSTMORDEM DECREASE IN BODY TEMP | ALGOR MORTIS |
| DYSPLASIA IS ABNORMAL CHANGES IN CELL_______ | SECRETIONS |
| CLASTOGENS ARE AGENT THAT CAUSE | CHROMOSOMAL BREAKAGE |
Created by:
christensenmjc