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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| 4. The best location for a central venous catheter is: (multiple answers) a. brachiocephalic vein at junction to superior vena cava b. vena cava c. subclavian d. all of the above | a. brachiocephalic vein at junction to superior vena cava C. Subclavian |
| 5. When is it appropriate to recap needles? a. always b. only over sterile fields c. never d. whenever it’s not used on a patient | C.never |
| 6. Where would a reservoir of infection be found? a. only on already contaminated surfaces b. only on a patient who is already on isolation c. on all surfaces d. anywhere organisms can thrive | D. Anywhere organisms can thrive |
| 7. Mrs. Z was visiting her sister Mrs. D, who was hospitalized at the Valley Community Hospital for a respiratory tract infection. During the visit, they shared a vanilla pudding. A few days later, Mrs. Z started exhibiting symptoms of a respiratory infec | B. Indirect contact by fomite |
| 8. Medical asepsis is defined as: a. any practice that helps reduce the number and spread of microorganisms b. complete removal of microorganisms and their spores from the surface of an object c. destruction of microorganisms and their spores by mea | A. Any practice that helps reduce the number and spread of microorganisms |
| 9. Jane is at her new employee orientation at a new facility where she will work as a casual employee. The presenter is asking the new employees to name the top work-related injury. Which of the following is the right answer? | A. Abuse of spine when lifting and moving patients |
| 10. Offering a pillow under the knees during long examinations can help prevent what? a. immobility b. decubitus ulcers c. leg edema d. pooling of blood on extremities | D. Pooling of blood on extremities |
| 11. A patient who was recently brought down to the imaging department started feeling of spinning, or the room spinning about him, this is called: a. epistaxis b. vertigo c. orthostatic hypotention d. syncope | b. vertigo |
| 12. Torts are defined by: a. violations of civil law that are part of personal injury law and provide compensation for injury b. violations of criminal law c. considered part of personal injury law d. provides for compensation for injury | a. violations of civil law that are part of personal injury law and provide compensation for injury |
| 13. Lead aprons and thyroid shields should have a minimum thickness of: a. 2.5 mm Pb b. 2.5 mm Al c. 0.25 mm Pb d. 0.25 mm Al | c. 0.25mm Pb |
| 14. A contusion is defined as: a. Accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity resulting in collapse of the lung b. collection of blood in the pleural cavity c. an injury that does not break skin caused by a blow to the body d. an oozing of bloo | c. an injury that does not break skin caused by a blow to the body |
| 15. A patient who is about to get a CT study with iodine contrast is asking about early signs of anaphylactic reaction. What is the best answer? a. syncope b. burping c. high body temperature d. itching of the palms | d. itching of palms |
| 16. Mrs. Smith is a diabetic patient who is insulin dependent. What would be the best time to schedule her upper GI study? a. as early in the day as possible b. later in the day to give her time to build her strength c. only after she had her insulin | a. as early in the day as possible |
| 17. What is the usual rate at which oxygen is administered? a. 5 to 6 L/min b. 3 to 5 L/min c. 3 to 5 lb./min d. 3 to 5 L/hour | c. 3 -5 lb./min |
| 18. Which of the following is related to the person born of people who were the ones actually irradiated? a. somatic effects b. hereditary effects c. genetic effects d. biological effects | c. genetic effects |
| 19. A pneumothorax is defined as: a. accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity resulting in collapse of the lung b. collection of blood in the pleural cavity c. an injury that does not break skin caused by a blow to the body d. an oozing of b | a. an accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity resulting collapse of the lungs |
| 20. Which of the following is the most common nosocomial infection? a. bloodborne infections b. respiratory tract infections c. UTIs d. wound infections | c. UTI's |
| 21. What is the mechanical method utilized to help clear a patient’s airway? a. Heimlich maneuver b. NG tube placement c. CPR d. suctioning | a. Heimlich maneuver |
| 22. If called to the operating room and radiographs must be taken after the patient has been prepped, how should the image receptor be treated in order to maintain surgical asepsis? (multiple answers) | a. the radiographer should disinfect the equipment used prior to entering b. the radiographer should pass the image receptor to the scrub nurse to be placed in a sterile plastic bag as the radiographer holds it |
| 23. An adult patient is said to be hypertensive if the systolic blood pressure and the diastolic blood pressure and consistently greater than: a. 140 systolic and 90 diastolic b. 130 systolic and 86 diastolic c. 120 systolic and 80 diastolic d. 100 | a. 140 systolic and 90 diastolic |
| 24. Route of transmission involving a contaminated object touching a susceptible person is called: a. airborne transmission b. indirect contact c. droplet transmission d. direct contact | b. indirect contact |
| 25. Which of the following is true about urinary bladder catheterization? a. the urinary bladder is sterile b. urinary catheterization requires sterile technique c. the bladder can easily be infected; any object or solution must be bacteria free d. | c. the bladder can easily be infected; any object or solution must be bacteria free |
| 26. Apical pulse is commonly taken by: a. a stethoscope b. feeling on the brachial artery c. feeling on the radial artery d. feeling on the femoral artery | a. a stethoscope |
| 27. Which is true about immobilization techniques? a. unauthorized use of immobilization techniques can be viewed as false imprisonment b. using immobilization techniques with a physician order can be viewed as false imprisonment c. the use of medica | a. |
| 28. An ileostomy is a stoma made in the ________. a. small intestine b. large intestine c. stomach d. any of the above | a |
| 29. How can you help ease a geriatric patient’s anxiety of his/her urinary incontinence? a. by keeping the rails down in the stretcher so the patient can access lavatory easily c. by having a urinal or bedpan readily available d. all of the above | c |
| 30. If a patient has difficulties breathing, what condition might the patient be suffering from? a. tachycardia b. cyanosis c. dyspnea d. bradycardia | c |
| A 23-year old male patient is in the imaging department getting a CT scan of the chest with contrast. As the radiographer is setting up the patient for the scan, she notices the patient violently shaking and jerking. What is the patient experiencing? | seizure |
| Jane the radiographer is helping transfer a quadriplegic patient from a gurney to the x-ray table, she notices that the patient’s shoulder is laying on a wet towel. From Jane’s brief interaction, how can she help this patient avoid getting decubitus ulcer | a. by removing any wet clothing items from the patient b. by making sure the patient is not transferred with shearing force |
| Which is true about aseptic hand-washing technique? a. approach the sink. lean against the sink. turn water on b. keep hands and forearms leveled with elbows c. approach the sink. don’t lean against the sink. turn water on d. keep hands and fo | c |
| 1. What are the three methods of electrification? a. friction, contact, static b. contact, static, induction c. friction, contact, induction d. static, friction, induction | c |
| 2. As LET increases, the ability of ionizing radiation to cause biological effects: a. also generally increases until it reaches a maximal value b. decreases considerably c. decreases slightly d. remains constant, not increasing or decreasing | a |
| 3. A material that allows the free flow of electrons is known as what? a. conductor b. insulator c. capacitor d. semiconductor | a |
| 4. What is a device called that stores electrical charges? a. capacitor b. voltmeter c. ammeter d. ground | a |
| 5. What is the unit of electrical current? a. watt b. volt c. farad d. ampere | d |
| Which of the following is the reason why the ovaries should be shielded whenever possible during all imaging procedures? | c. gonadal irradiation of the ovaries can result in genetic mutations that can be passed onto future generations |
| The indirect effect of radiation has occurred when: a. radiation strikes a DNA molecule and severs one of the strands b. radiation interacts with water to form free radicals c. radiation interacts with water to form bound radicals | c |
| Uranium miners in the Colorado plateau who developed lung cancer years after exposure provide an example of which of the following? | b. late stochastic somatic effects |
| 9. Which of the following causes electrons to move in a conductor? | voltage |
| What are the two kinds of electrical charge? | positive and negative |
| Which of the following are not affected by electrostatically charged matter? | photons |
| Radiation-induced abnormalities are caused by unrepaired damage to: | b. DNA within ova or sperm |
| Which of the following statements is true? | c. unlike charges attract each other |
| Which of the following are classified as early (acute) deterministic somatic effects of ionizing radiation? | nausea, epilation, intestinal disorders |
| An electrical charge can be neutralized if it is conducted to what? | ground |
| Which of the following is the best electrical insulator? | wood |
| The term “linear nonthreshold curve” implies that the biologic response to ionizing radiation is _____ the dose. | directly proportional to |
| Radiation dose-response curves can be used to predict the risk of ________ in human populations that have been exposed to low levels of ionizing radiation. | genetic effects |
| The flow of electrons is known as what? | current |
| Direct action may occur after exposure to any type of radiation, but it is much more likely to happen after exposure to: | high-LET radiation such as alpha particles |
| The term LD 50/30 signifies the whole-body dose of radiation that can be lethal to __% of the exposed population in _____ days. | 50; 30 |
| During the major response stages of acute radiation syndrome after the initial stage, the period when symptoms that affect the hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and cerebrovascular systems become visible is called: | manifest illness |
| Which change causes a decrease in resistance and an increase in current flow? | increasing the diameter of the conductor |
| What is the minimum thickness of lead required for protective lead curtains? | 0.25 mm lead equivalence |
| Which factor will decrease the patient’s dose during fluoroscopy? | bring the image intensifier as close as possible to the patient |
| Which is the most appropriate reason for the application of gonadal shielding? | to safeguard the reproductive potential of patients |
| Which radiation dose is required to produce mitotic death? | less than the dose needed to produce apoptosis in slowly dividing cells or nondividing cells |
| Which feature of fluoroscopic equipment is designed to reduce entrance skin exposure to the patient? | beam filtration |
| Which is the genetically significant dose (GSD) for the population of the United States? | 0.20 mSv |
| Which factor determines the amount of energy of a bremsstrahlung x-ray? | the distance between the filament electron and the nucleus of the target atom |
| If a radiographer receives an exposure of 0.05 mSv at a distance of 1.5 feet from the tube of a portable x-ray unit, what will the exposure be at a distance of 6 feet from the tube? | 0.003 mSv |
| Which is an advantage of using an optically stimulated luminescent (OSL) dosimeter as opposed to a film badge? | not fogged by heat---FILM BADGE |
| Which aspect of electrical power is responsible for accelerating electrons in an x-ray tube? | potential difference |
| For which long term effect is a 28-year-old radiographer with a cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) of 200 mSv (20 rem) at an increased risk? | cataracts |
| The bucky slot cover should offer at least what lead thickness? | . 0.25 mm pb |
| What causes the build-up of heat at the anode? | electrons colliding with the target |
| What is the impact of using 2.5 millimeters of aluminum equivalent filtration on the primary x-ray beam? | reduction of the patient’s skin dose |
| Which condition must be met before diagnostically useful characteristic x-rays can be produced? | . an inner shell electron must be completely removed |
| Which item can be used as an indicator of the quality of the diagnostic x-ray beam? | kVp |
| Which term describes stray radiation that is emitted through the x-ray tube housing? | leakage |
| The majority of x-rays in the useful beam are created as a result of which process? | fast-moving electrons approach the nucleus of the target atom and slow down |
| Which process describes the electron-target interaction in which most diagnostic x-rays are produced? | the filament electron misses all of the orbital electrons and interacts with the target atom nucleus |
| What is the dose area product (DAP) if the collimated field is 10 x 10 cm with a dose of 2 mGy/min? | 200 mGy per cm squared |
| What characteristics do high linear energy transfer (LET) radiations have when compared with low-LET radiation? | increased mass, decreased penetration |
| What is the most likely consequence for a cell when an x-ray photon interacts with and inactivates the cell’s master molecule? | . cell death |
| What is the dose-response relationship of radiation-induced skin cancer? | . nonthreshold |
| Which statement correctly describes the LD 50/30? | lethal dose for 50% of the population in 30 days |
| Which term refers to the radiation that exits the x-ray tube through the collimator? | primary |
| In a typical x-ray examination room, what is considered a secondary protective barrier? | ceiling |
| What type of relationship does cell growth rate have on the sensitivity of tissues to ionizing radiation? | direct |
| Which input image intensifier screen provides the best radiation protection to the patient during fluoroscopy? | 25 cm |
| A portable knee exam performed in the operating room results in a beam intensity of 2.5 mGy at 32 inches. What is the intensity of the beam if the same exposure factors are used for a post-operative knee at a distance of 40 inches? | 1.60 mGy |
| A bremsstrahlung interaction is best described by which statement? | an electron is slowed and changes direction |
| As grid ratio increases: | contrast increases |
| Using the line focus principle to gain sharper images will enhance a side effect known as: | anode heel effect |
| A satisfactory lumbar spine radiograph is performed using 60 mAs at 85 kVp. If a coned down view of L-3 is done using the same technique, the film density will ______ and contrast will be ______. | decrease/higher |
| Which of the following sets of technical factors would result in an image with the greatest recorded detail? | 500 mA, 0.02 s, 75 kVp, 150 cm SID, 25 cm OID, 1 mm FSS |
| Which of the following would affect shape distortion? | tube angulation |
| When an object is placed halfway between the tube and the film the image will be how many times larger? | 2x |
| What new exposure factors should be used to create a longer scale of contrast without altering the radiographic density if the original radiograph is produced using exposure factors of 300 mA, 1/10 s, and 60 kVp? | 300 mA, 1/20 s, 70 kVp |
| When performing magnification radiography, if the SID is 40 in. and the OID is 6 in., how much would the object be magnified? | 1.18x |
| Which of the following sets of technical factors would result in the radiograph with the least density? | 800 mA, 0.001 s, 80 kVp, 12:1 grid, 150 cm SID, 10 cm OID, 2 mm FSS |
| A chest radiograph is taken with the patient erect against the chest Bucky with a 12:1 grid using technical factors of 110 kVp and 5 mAs. What new technical factors should be used on a dedicated chest unit that has an 8:1 grid? | 110 kVp, 4 mAs |
| Which of the following advanced pathological conditions would require an increase in the technical factors normally used? | ascites |
| Which of the following radiographic procedures typically requires an image demonstrating a long scale of contrast? | chest |
| A radiograph that shows a small differential attenuation is best described as having a: | low contrast |
| The output screen in an image intensifier serves to convert the electronic image into a: | visible light image |
| Which of the following should be consideration when using an AEC device? | 2. proper selection of ionization chamber 3. precise positioning over the desired chambers |
| What is the mA setting if the desired mAs is 40 and the time setting is 50 ms? | 800 mA |
| All other factors being equal, which of the following body types will produce the greatest subject contrast? | asthenic |
| A picture archiving and communication (PAC) system is best defined as a: | a computer assisted file and storage system for digital images |
| All other factors remaining the same, what effect does excessive filtration have on a radiographic image? | reduced contrast |
| Which of the following sets of technical factors will result in the image with the shortest scale of contrast? | 200 mAs, 70 kVp, 16:1 grid, 200 cm SID, 20 cm OID, 2 mm FSS |
| Increasing kVp will result in which of the following? | produce shorter wavelength |
| Which of the following would not be located in the primary side of the x-ray circuit? | d. x-ray tube |
| A technique chart accompanies each AEC x-ray unit and should contain the following information for each type of examination | a. photocell(s) used b. optimum kilovoltage c. backup time d. all of the above* |
| Which of the following is the current indicated by the milliammeter? | tube current |
| Methods of decreasing patient dose during fluoroscopic examinations including: | use of last image hold b. using the lowest practical pulse rate c. keeping the patient/part close to the image intensifier as possible d. all of the above* |
| Environmental radiation can contribute to ___________. | exposure artifacts |
| Which of the following is not a device for controlling filament current? | rectifier |
| Which of the following is an advantage of three-phase equipment over single-phase equipment? | can achieve shorter exposure times |
| The time for the AEC unit to respond to radiation and send the signal to terminate the exposure is termed the: | minimum response time |
| The regular measurement and evaluation of radiographic equipment components and their performance is most accurately termed as: | quality control |
| The SMPTE pattern was developed by the Society of Medical Picture and Technology Engineers. | false |
| . _____ describes the format, dimensions, and contrast characteristics of a pattern used to make measurements of the resolution of display systems. | . SMPTE |
| What effect does adjusting the filament control have on the production of x-rays? | controls the quantity |
| The fastest time that an AEC can terminate an exposure is: | 1/1000 s |
| CT and CR are the only examples of digital imaging. | false |
| What conversion occur in the image at the input phosphor of an image intensification tube? | c. x-rays are converted to light |
| QC technologist should learn how to acquire the _____ test pattern and use it on each digital display device regularly. | TG 18-QC |
| ________ was developed as an acceptance testing standard to address the requirements for digital display devices. | DIN 2001 |
| Which of the following meters does not register until an x-ray exposure is made? | mA meter |
| Which type of system uses a two-part process to convert incoming x-ray photons to an electronic digital signal? | indirect conversion |
| Digital radiographic image receptors have unique artifacts associated with __________. | pixel failure |
| Partition is when multiple digital images are on a single IP without proper separation but tight collimation of each image. | true |
Created by:
Bgebert