Which of the following does not describe anatomical position? Head pointing forward Body standing erect Arms extended from the shoulders, palms up

arms extending from the shoulders, palms up

hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution

An ionic bond is formed by:

a positive and a negative ion attracting each other.

A list of the cell fibers from largest to smallest would read:

microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments.

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A&P final

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Question	Answer
The number of abdominal regions is:	9
An organization of many similar cells that are specialized to perform a certain function is called a(n):	tissue
Which of the following does not describe anatomical position? Head pointing forward Body standing erect Arms extended from the shoulders, palms up	arms extending from the shoulders, palms up
A plane through the body that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is:	coronal
Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum are examples of:	organelles
When many similar cells specialize to perform a certain function, it is referred to as a(n):	tissue
The abdominal quadrants are located with what structure as their midpoint?	umbilicus
Popliteal refers to the:	area behind the knee
A plane through the body that divides the body into right and left sides is called:	sagittal
The plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts is the _____ plane.	transverse
An example of a catabolic process is:	hydrolysis
What bond is the weakest?	hydrogen
As the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) increases, the:	solution becomes more acidic
When atoms combine, they may gain, lose, or share:	electrons
Acids taste	sour
acids release	hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution
Acids are ___ donors	proton
An isotope of an element contains different numbers of ____ from other atoms of the same element.	neutrons
The kind of element is determined by the number of:	protons
An ionic bond is formed by:	a positive and a negative ion attracting each other.
Approximately what percentage of the body weight of an adult female is water?	50 and men are 60
Which of the following elements is least likely to combine with another element?	helium
Which organelle processes and packages material to be secreted?	golgi
A list of the cell fibers from largest to smallest would read:	microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments.
ATP production occurs within which organelle?	mitochondria
Which of the following is not a function of the integral membrane proteins? Acting as receptors Signal transduction Identification of “self” All of the above are functions of the integral membrane proteins	all of the above
The structure in cells that is associated with the enzymatic breakdown (digestion) of foreign material is the:	lysosome
The ____ is often called the microtubule organizing center.	centrosome
Damage to the centrosome and centrioles in a cell would have the greatest impact on which cell function?	cell division
A specialized cell structure that propels the sperm is the:	flagellum
The membranous structure containing substances that protect the cell from harm are:	lysosomes & peroxisomes
Which organelles consist of vesicles that have pinched off from the Golgi apparatus?	lysosomes
The connective tissue membranes that line the spaces between bones and joints are called _____ membranes.	synovial
The skin glands include three kinds of microscopic glands. They are the __________ glands.	sweat,sebaceous and ceruminous
The basic determinant of skin color is	melanin
Adipose tissue is a ____ _____	storage tissue
The epidermis is composed of several types of epithelial cells. One type, called keratinocytes, become filled with a tough, fibrous protein called	keratin
Which of the following is not a primary germ layer? endoderm ectoderm mesoderm epiderm	epiderm
The most abundant and widespread tissue in the body is	connective
The conducting unit of the nerve tissue is the	neuron
Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue? cardiac blood adipose cartilage	cardiac
Which principal type of tissue covers and protects body surfaces and lines body cavities?	epithelial
The dense, white fibrous membrane that covers bone except at joint surfaces is the	periosteum
_____ fibers are present in all three types of cartilage, but they are most numerous in fibrocartilage.	collagenous
Which of the following is a bone in the axial skeleton? vertebra tarsal femur clavicle	vertebra
The medial part of the anterior chest wall is supported by a dagger-shaped bone called the	sternum
Which pelvic bone is the most anteriorly placed?	pubis
Anteriorly, each rib of the first seven pairs attaches to the	sternum
Anatomically speaking, which bones compose the wrist?	carpals
Which lower leg bone is smaller and is located laterally?	fibula
Which bone is the longest and heaviest bone in the body?	femur
what bones form the framework of the hand?	metacarpals
A muscle is attached to the femur and tibia. Its function or action is to bend the knee. When it contracts, it is acting as the:	prime mover
Another name for a sphincter muscle is a _____ muscle.	circular
The muscle that allows the thumb to be drawn across the palm to touch the tip of any finger is the:	opponens pollicis.
Moving from superficial to deep, the connective tissue components would be:	epimysium, perimysium, endomysium.
Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the foot? Sartorius Peroneus longus Tibialis anterior Soleus	sartorius
The most common type of lever in the body is a _____-class lever.	third
The covering of individual muscle fibers is the:	endomysium
Which of the following statements about the muscles of the head is incorrect? They are paired muscles. They have different actions depending on whether one or both parts of the pair contract. The splenius capitis muscle is sometimes called the pr	The splenius capitis muscle is sometimes called the prayer muscle because it causes the head to bow.
When an athlete injures a muscle of the hamstring group, the injury is on the:	posterior thigh
When an athlete injures a muscle of the hamstring group, the injury is on the:	posterior thigh
The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate:	skeletal muscles
The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate:	The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate:
The autonomic nervous system does not stimulate:	skeletal muscles
The nervous system is organized to do which of the following Detect changes in the external environment. Detect changes in the internal environment. Evaluate changes in the environment. All of the above are true.	all of the above
Most unipolar neurons are usually:	sensory neurons
Dendrites conduct impulses _____ cell bodies.	toward
Fascicles are held together by a connective tissue layer called the:	perineurium
One of the components of the blood-brain barrier is:	astrocytes
The efferent pathways of the autonomic nervous system consist of the ________ nervous systems.	sympathetic and parasympathetic
Nerves that contain mostly afferent fibers are called _____ nerves.	sensory
The pyramids are formed in the:	medulla
The part(s) of the cerebrum associated with anger, fear, and sorrow is (are) the:	limbic system
Parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located in:	nuclei of the brainstem and the lateral gray columns of the sacral cord.
True or False: All cell bodies of the autonomic nervous system are located within the CNS.	false
True or False: Visceral effectors are innervated by sympathetic fibers.	true
Which part of the brain releases the hormone melatonin?	pineal gland
Beta receptors bind:	bind norepinephrine
The sensory cranial nerves include only the:	olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear.
The brainstem does not include the:	cerebellum
The peripheral nervous system includes only ___ ___ and their ____	only cranial and spinal nerves and their branches
Which of the following statements does not correctly describe the spiral organ of Corti? The "hairs" of the receptor cells are embedded in the tectorial membrane. The tectorial membrane bends with vibrations, whereas the basilar membrane is rigid an	The tectorial membrane bends with vibrations, whereas the basilar membrane is rigid and fixed.
Endolymph-filled structure containing receptors for hearing.	cochlear duct
Endocrine gland of the thorax that is also important in immune function.	thymus gland
Pyramid-shaped gland consisting of neural crest-derived cells and endocrine secretory cells.	adrenal gland
Transparent mucous membrane covering the inner surface of the eyelid.	conjunctiva
Receptors for hearing are located in the	cochlear duct
Gustatory cells are located in all of the following areas except on the posterior wall of the pharynx. on the fungiform papillae of the anterior tongue. on the apical surface of vallate papillae on the tongue. on the inner surface of the che	on the apical surface of vallate papillae on the tongue.
The nerve carrying taste information from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is the	facial
Largest purely endocrine gland in the body.	thyroid gland
the fovea centralis has the highest concentration of ____	cones
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as:	hematopoietic stem cells.
During pregnancy, what happens to the oxygenated blood returned from the placenta via the umbilical vein?	it flows into the inferior vena cavity
Renal veins drain blood from the	kidneys
A glycoprotein hormone that is secreted to increase oxygen concentration in the tissues is	erythropoietin
The heart has its own special covering, a loose-fitting inextensible sac called the	pericardium
____ is not a formed element found in the blood?	plasma
Which sphincters function as regulatory valves that reduce the flow of blood through a network of capillaries when they contract and constrict the arterioles?	precapillary sphincters
Blood from the brachiocephalic vein drains into the	head neck and upper extremities
Blood from the brachiocephalic vein drains into the	great saphenous vein
In _____, blood moves from veins to other veins or arteries to other arteries without passing through an intervening capillary network.	vascular anastomosis
Masses of lymphoid tissue located in a protective ring under the mucous membranes in the mouth and the back of the throat are called	tonsils
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the	lymphocytes
Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in	cytolysis
Which of the following is a powerful poison that acts directly on any cell and quickly kills it?	lymphotoxin
A tumor of the lymphoid tissue is called	lymphoma
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity.	cell-mediated
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies.	clonal selection theory
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as	natural killer cells
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an	Antigen's epitopes fit into and bind to an antibody molecule's antigen-binding sites
Which protein interferes with the ability of viruses to cause disease?	interferon
In the right lung, the superior and middle lobes are separated by the:	horizontal fissure
Which of the following lists the correct sequence of air as it passes through the nose into the pharynx? Vestibule anterior nares inferior, middle, and superior meatus posterior nares Inferior, middle, and superior meatus nostrils vestibule posteri	Anterior nares vestibule inferior, middle, and superior meatus posterior nares
The structures that deflect air as it passes through the nose are called:	conchae
Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system? Assists with homeostasis of body pH Distributes oxygen to cells Filters air Warms air	Distributes oxygen to cells
The respiratory portion of the nasal passage is lined with a mucous membrane made up of _____ epithelium.	pseudostratified columnar
The small openings in the cribriform plate function to:	allow branches of the olfactory nerve to enter the cranial cavity and reach the brain.
Paranasal sinuses are normally filled with:	air
The external openings to the nasal cavities can be referred to as:	nostrils, anterior nares and external nares
The smallest branches of the bronchial tree are:	bronchioles
Which of the following is not a function of the pharynx? Aids in forming vowel sounds Provides pathway for food Determines the quality of the voice Provides pathway for air	it does NOT determine the quality of the voice
The numerous small elevations on the surface of the tongue that support taste buds are called:	papillae
The extrinsic tongue muscles differ from the intrinsic tongue muscles in that the _____ outside the tongue.	extrinsic muscles insert into the tongue but have their origin
All of the following are classified as accessory organs of the digestive system except the: tongue. mouth. liver. pancreas.	mouth
The hard palate consists of portions of:	4 bones: 2 maxillae and two palatines
What structure is anatomically the longest?	ileum
The walls of the GI tract are composed of ____ layers of tissue.	4
The flap of tissue suspended from the midpoint of the posterior border of the soft palate is the:	uvula
Phagocytic cells lining liver sinusoids are called _____ cells.	kupfer
Surgical removal of the gallbladder is referred to as:	cholecystectomy
The right angle between the transverse colon and the ascending colon is the:	hepatic flexure
ADH has the greatest effect on the reabsorption of water in the:	distal tube
Which hormone tends to decrease the amount of urine produced?	aldosterone and ADH
A portion of the nephron that can lie within the medulla is the:	nephron loop
There are how many openings in the urinary bladder?	3
There are how many openings in the urinary bladder?	1/5th
Which structure of the kidney narrows as it exits the kidney to become the ureter?	renal pelvis
Which of the following ions is not normally secreted into the distal or collecting tubules?	sodium
The portion of the nephron tubule that is essentially always impermeable to water is the:	ascending nephron loop
A drop in systemic blood pressure would cause the filtration rate to:	decrease
The normal osmotic pressure of the capsular filtrate is _____ mm Hg.	0
Which of the following is not true concerning the uterus? It produces estrogen. It sloughs compact and spongy layers of lining tissue. It is the site for embryo implantation. Uterine muscle contraction expels the infant	it DOES NOT produce estrogen
The uterus is suspended between two folds of parietal peritoneum that form a partition across the pelvic cavity. These ligaments are _____ ligaments.	broad
fibrous envelope that extends the length of the corpora cavernosa penis (containing erectile tissue) and corpus spongiosum penis (containing the male urethra). It is a bi-layered structure that includes an outer longitudinal layer and an inner circular la	tunica albuginea
_ _ stimulates the interstitial cells to increase their secretion of testosterone.	LH
The tube connecting the ovaries to the uterus is called the:	uterine tubes, oviducts, and fallopian tubes.
The efferent ductules:	drain the rete testis
To be capable of fertilizing an ovum, sperm must undergo a process called:	capacitation
what may put one at risk for developing a given disease?	environment, stress, lifestyle
Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? Viruses Tapeworms Bacteria Protozoa	tapeworms
Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? Circulatory Endocrine Lymphatic Reproductive	reproductive system
The body’s thermostat is located in the:	hypothalamus
Intrinsic control is sometimes called	is sometimes called autoregulation
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Effector mechanism Transmitter Sensor Integrating center	transmitter
The normal reading or range of normal is called the:	setpoint
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of:	the body maintaining homeostasis and a negative feed back loop
Negative-feedback control systems oppose a ____	change
Pathogenesis can be defined as:	the course of disease development
The basic building blocks of fats are:	fatty acids and glycerol
What is the most important factor in determining the physical and chemical properties of fatty acids?	degree of saturation
Which lipid is part of vitamin D?	steroids
All of the following substances are organic except: lipids. electrolytes. carbohydrates. proteins.	electrolytes
Peptide bonds join together molecules of:	amino acids
The types of lipids found that form hormones, such as cortisone, estrogen, and testosterone are:	steroids
DNA	is a double helix strand of nucleotides
Which of the following is not one of the major groups of organic substances in the human body? Proteins Salts Lipids Nucleic acids	salts
___ __ will kink or bend because of the double bonds between the carbon atoms.	unsaturated fats
Which of the following is not true of RNA? It contains ribose sugar. It contains adenine. It is composed of smaller molecules called nucleotides. All of the above are true of RNA.	all of the above
Prostaglandins and steroids share which of the following characteristics?	both have a ring structure in their molecule
The roles played by proteins can be divided into which categories?	structural and functional
The alpha helix is an example of which level of protein structure?	secondary
The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component.	carbohydrate and protein: protein
If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be:	GATCCGAC
Which of the following statements is true? Amino acid chains form DNA. The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm. Uracil is present in DNA in place of thymine. None of the above is	The site of transcription is within the nucleus, whereas the site of translation is in the cytoplasm.
A saline solution that contains a higher concentration of salt than a red blood cell would be:	hypertonic
Diffusion requires:	concentration gradient
The pairing of bases of a strand of DNA is obligatory. If a strand of DNA were composed of the base sequence of ATCG, what would be the obligatory sequence of its opposing base pairs?	TAGC
Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be:	an even exchange of material across the membrane
f a sequence of nitrogen bases in nucleic acid were A-U-C-G-A, which of the following would be true about the nucleic acid? It contains deoxyribose sugar. It could be found only in the nucleus. It contains ribose sugar.	contains ribose sugar
Materials can be moved from a low concentration to a high concentration through:	active transport
An individual’s entire set of DNA can be referred to as a:	genome
The small water channels in the cell membrane are called:	aquaporins
All of the following occur as a result of meiosis except: chromosome number remains at 46. primitive sex cells become mature gametes. the cells become haploid. meiosis occurs in two steps.	chromosome number remains at 46.
Which is not true about the sodium and potassium pump? It uses cellular energy. Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell. A carrier system is used. It can move substances against their concentration gradient.	Sodium moves into the cell and potassium moves out of the cell.
Which is true about the sodium and potassium pump? Two sodium ions are taken into the cell. Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell. Three potassium ions are taken into the cell. Two potassium ions are taken out of the cell.	Three sodium ions are taken out of the cell.
During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell?	prophase
The correct order of the phases of mitosis is:	prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
Water will move through the cell membrane by:	osmosis
What epithelial function is a primary activity of glandular epithelium?	secretion
functions of epithelial tissue?	Absorption, secretion, protection
Functions of the skin?	Defense against disease organisms, Regulation of body temperature, Excretion of water and salts
What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina?	basement membrane
Which tissue is most likely to form a keloid scar as it heals?	connective
Which type of connective tissue helps newborns maintain body temperature by producing heat?	brown fat
The area referred to as true skin is the:	dermis
Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate?	epithelial
Basement membrane is composed of molecules made by _____ tissue.	muscle and epithelial
Hematopoietic tissue can be found in the:	bones
Calcification of the organic bone matrix occurs when	complex calcium salts are deposited into the matrix
Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes begin to divide and secrete ____ ___	additional matrix
In the epiphyseal plate, the zone of hypertrophy is in the _____ layer.	third
Until bone growth in length is complete, a layer of the cartilage, known as the _____, remains between the epiphysis and diaphysis.	epiphyseal plate
During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the:	pelvic outlet
In bone growth, the medullary cavity is enlarged because of the activity of:	osteoclasts
true/false:One similarity between the structures of the foot and hand is the equivalent degrees of movement of both the thumb and the big toe.	false
Which structures are unique to the fetal skull and provide additional space for molding the head shape as the baby passes through the birth canal?	fontanels
true/false: When the knee is flexed, the patella can be easily distinguished.	false
The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the:	thumb
If the cribriform plate is damaged, there is a chance of:	infectious material passing from the nose to the brain
true/false:Young children’s bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone.	false
The ulna articulates proximally with the:	humerus
The ulna articulates proximally with the:	calcium
functions of the bones	protection, support, mineral storage, hematopoiesis
major muscle functions	movement, heat production, posture
The ulna articulates proximally with the:	lack of ATP, high levels of lactate, and failure of the sodium-potassium pumps
The lactate produced by anaerobic respiration is converted back to glucose in the:	liver
Which joint allows for the widest range of movement?	ball and socket
non inflammatory joint disorders include	dislocation and osteoarthritis
juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is a NOT a noninflammatory joint disorder	true
The ability of muscle cells to respond to nerve stimuli is called:	irritability
The first event to occur in muscle relaxation is that:	the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins actively pumping calcium back into its sacs.
The largest and most frequently injured joint is the:	knee
A condyloid joint is an example of a(n) _____ joint.	biaxial
Thick myofilaments extend the length of the:	A-band
Endurance training is also known as:	aerobic training
The rotator cuff muscles and tendons form a cufflike arrangement around the _____ joint.	shoulder
The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is:	myosin
The strength of a muscle contraction is influenced by the:	amount of the load, initial length of muscle fibers and recruitment of motor units
The knee joint is an example of a _____ joint.	hinge
A synapse consists of:	synaptic knob, synaptic cleft and the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron
Amino acid neurotransmitters are all inhibitory neurotransmitters	TRUUUU
A synaptic knob would be located on a(n):	axon
a neuron with a resting potentials sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane.	TRUUU
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge	negative
A slight shift away from the resting membrane potentials in a specific region of the plasma membrane is called a _____ potential.	local
Neurotransmitters released simultaneously from several presynaptic knobs converge on one postsynaptic neuron.	tru
For a neurotransmitter to produce an inhibitory postsynaptic potential, which of the following channels must open?	potassium and or chloride channels
Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as:	catecholamines
What is used by the body as a neurotransmitter?	nitric oxide, acetylcholine and carbon monoxide
Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to:	initiate action potential
Which of the following antidepressants acts by blocking the action of monoamine oxidase (MAO)?	phenelzine
Stimulus-gated channels open in response to:	sensory stimuli
The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are):	enkephalins
in action potential the outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged.	tru
description of the principle of autonomic antagonism as it relates to the autonomic nervous system -if sympathetic impulses tend to inhibit the effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to stimulate it -if sympathetic impulses inhibit autonomic centers,	If sympathetic impulses tend to stimulate an effector, parasympathetic impulses tend to inhibit it.
Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors.	nicotinic
If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway.	sensory perception
Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, a preganglionic fiber may synapse with sympathetic _____ neuron	postganglionic
The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic.	true
Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate.	vagus
Nerve impulses over the _____ nerve cause increased peristalsis and decreased heart rate.	impulses that mediate it enter and leave the same segment of the cord.
Afferent nerves or fibers are found only in the _____ nervous system.	sensory and autonomic
The spinal tract that is located in the side of the cord, originates in the brain, and terminates in the spinal cord is the _____ tract.	lateral corticospinal
The dorsal nerve root is also called the	posterior root
the dorsal nerve root includes the ___ ____	spinal ganglion
the dorsal nerve root includes ___ fibers	sensory
examples of parasympathetic stimulation	contraction of the urinary bladder, relaxation of sphincter muscles in digestive tract and increased salivation
How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector?	A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division.
Which of the following statements is not true? The parasympathetic division is the dominant controller of most autonomic effectors most of the time. Under quiet, nonstressful conditions, more impulses reach autonomic effectors by cholinergic parasy	The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system.
Sympathetic responses generally have widespread effects on the body because:	preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers.
preganglionic fibers synapse with several postsynaptic fibers.	carries both sensory and motor fibers
Accommodation for near vision necessitates an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes. all of the above.	all of the above
The somatic senses enable us to detect sensations, including:	touch, temperature, pain
In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are:	slow to appear but long lasting
The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is:	progesterone
The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is:	malleus, incus, stapes
One of the few hormones that functions on a positive-feedback loop is:	oxytocin
All of the following are true statements except: there are at least 16 different prostaglandins. the first prostaglandin was identified in semen. aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis. PGFs have been used to induc	aspirin produces some of its effects by increasing PGE synthesis.
alpha fibers are associated with ___ _____ pain	sharp localized
Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition.	tectorial
The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with:	smell
Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness?	thalamus
All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except: oxytocin. calcitonin. cortisol. glucagon.	cortisol
endocrine system characteristics	have no ducts, are vascular, and commonly have intracellular vacuoles or granules that store their hormones
function of glucagon	tends to INCREASE blood glucose concentrations
Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the	crista ampullaris
Blood viscosity stems mainly from the red blood cells but also partly from the _____ molecules present in blood.	protein
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as:	hematopoietic stem cells
All of the following are true statements except: the right coronary artery is dominant in about 50% of all hearts. both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary arteries. the more abundant blood supply goes to t	both atria receive their blood supply from branches of the right and left coronary arteries.
The heart begins beating in the fetus at about what stage of development?	after 4 weeks... NOT SECOND MONTH
_____ is used to determine the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood.	hematocrit
Cardiac output is determined by	stroke volume and heart rate
Blood volume per kilogram of body weight varies inversely with:	body fat
Which of the following is(are) involved in determining a person’s total blood volume?	age, body type, sex
_____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels.	heparin
Which are the two baroreceptors that are located near the heart?	aortic and carotid
The primary organ of the lymphatic system is the	thymus
Antibodies are proteins of the family called	immunoglobulins
Molecules formed by the reactions of the complement cascade assemble themselves on the enemy cell’s surface, which results in	cytolysis
The body’s defense mechanisms can be organized into one of two major categories of immune mechanisms; these are	innate and adaptive immunity
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? sebum mucus enzymes hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa all of the above	all of the above
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an	antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site.
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as	natural killer cells
Each cortical nodule is composed of packed lymphocytes that surround a less dense area called a	germinal center
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the	lymphocyte
The internal environment of the human body is protected by the _____, which is(are) referred to as the first line of defense.	skin
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called	lymphokinetic activities.
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies.	clonal selection theory
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called	diapedesis
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called	phagocytosis
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of	prostaglandins
During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes:	decrease in alveolar pressure
If the tidal volume of a given individual is 500 ml, then the anatomical dead space is approximately _____ ml.	150
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure:	expiration occurs
Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature.	inversely with a pressure at a constant
The major form by which carbon dioxide is transported in the circulatory system is:	as bicarbonate ions
About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to:	hemoglobin
Normal, quiet breathing is known as:	eupnea
The PCO2 in the atmosphere is:	less than alveolar air
Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg.	760
A drop in the body’s production of carbonic anhydrase would hinder the formation of:	carbonic acid
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as:	amylase
Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus?	deglutition and peristalsis
The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called:	gastric inhibitory peptide
Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver?	portal vein
Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver?	oral stage
Which of the following is not one of the openings that must be blocked when food moves from the pharynx into the esophagus?	oropharynx
Which of the following is not true of enzymes? They accelerate chemical reactions. They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction. They are vital to chemical reactions. Many contain vitamins in their structure.	They change chemically and are in the end products of the reaction.
The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is:	cholecystokinin.
is sucrose a disaccharide?	yes
Which phase(s) of gastric secretion is(are) stimulated by the sight, taste, and smell of food?	cephalic phase
The enzyme pepsin begins the digestion of:	protein
The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ out of the GI lumen.	passively out of
The process of fat emulsification consists of:	breaking fats into smaller droplets
The intestinal hormone cholecystokinin: causes the pancreas to increase exocrine secretions high in enzyme content. opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder. all of the above.	all of the above
The process of swallowing is known as:	deglutition
What substance is released by the juxtaglomerular cells?	renin
The total fluid or water content of the human body ranges from _____ of its total weight.	45-75
Which of the following is not one of the seven basic solutions used for parenteral therapy? Ammonium chloride Lactate solutions Carbohydrate in water Liquid protein	liquid protein
Blood colloid osmotic pressure tends to draw fluid back into the capillaries.	true
When the kidney secretes hydrogen ions, it primarily reabsorbs _____ ions.	sodium
Edema may occur when: sodium is retained in the extracellular fluid as a result of increased aldosterone secretion or after serious renal disease such as acute glomerulonephritis. an increase in capillary blood pressure occurs. a decrease in th	all of the above occur
A decrease in blood pH below normal tends to:	stimulate increased respirations
Which of the following is(are) classified as an acid-forming food? Meat Eggs Poultry All of the above	all of the above
Which of the following would be important in treating metabolic alkalosis? Chloride ions Bicarbonate ions Sodium ions Potassium ions	chloride ions
The regulation of acid-base balance in the body fluids refers to the control of _____ ion concentration.	hydrogen
Which body location is not one that is usually impacted by edema?	kidneys
What is the most abundant cation in intracellular fluid?	potassium
true or false: Overweight people have lower water content per kilogram of body weight than slender people.	true
Edema is defined as abnormally large amounts of fluid in the:	INTERcellular spaces
almost identical when compared chemically?	plasma and INTERstitial fluid
The ___ is a part of the male reproductive system:	scrotum
The main factor determining male fertility is the:	number of sperm ejactulated
The hormone that causes the alveoli of the mammary glands to secrete milk is:	prolactin
Which of the following cells contain 46 chromosomes? Sperm cells Primary spermatocytes Secondary spermatocytes Spermatids	primary spermatocytes
A high blood concentration of estrogens stimulates	epithelial cells of the endometrium to proliferate
Which of the following glands is not a paired accessory gland of the male reproductive system? Prostate Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland Cowper gland	prostate
The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is the same as the:	postmenstrual phase
Which of the following hormones causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts, making it accessible for the infant?	oxytocin
What reproductive duct is divided into the head, body, and tail?	epididymis
Which of the following is true of the essential organ in the reproductive system? It produces gametes. It is called the testis in the male. It is called the gonad in both sexes. All of the above are true.	all of the above

Created by: jhuzzard

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