Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Paramedic Quiz 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| As a paramedic one of your ethical responsibilities is? | Treating all patients and their families with courtesy and respect |
| Your best protection from liability is to | Perform systematic assessments |
| The area of law in which the federal state or local government will prosecute an individual on behalf of society for violating laws meant to protect society is | Criminal law |
| The filing of complaint answering complaint and settlement are three components of a | Civil lawsuit |
| If a paramedic into beats the esophagus of a patient instead of the trachea does not conform to placement and leaves the tube in place he has breached his duty by | Misfeasance |
| Elements of negligence include proof that the Paramedic | Was the proximate cause of actual damages to the patient |
| To show the existence of proximate cause the plaintiff needs to prove that the damage to the patient was | Reasonably foreseeable |
| A patient may sue for violating his civil rights if you | Fail to render care for a discriminatory reason |
| The act of injuring a persons character name or reputation by false or malicious statements spoken with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements is called | Slander |
| If you respond to a seven-year-old child with a life-threatening injury and no parent or guardian is available you may still treat the child because of | Implied consent |
| If a competent adult refuses care you should | Document the situation thoroughly |
| The termination of the Paramedic patient relationship without assurance that an equal or greater level of care will continue is | Abandonment |
| A paramedic who starts an IV on a patient who does not consent to such treatment may be sued for | Battery |
| During transport of a patient to a healthcare facility the level of care of the patient receives must | Be the same level of care received at the scene |
| A document created to ensure that certain treatment choices are honored when a patient is unconscious or otherwise unable to express his choice of treatment is called a | Advance directive |
| If you have any doubt about whether a DNR order is valid you should | Initiate resuscitation efforts |
| Which type of instruction on a DNR order is legal | Withhold CPR |
| When you are treating a patient at a crime scene your responsibilities include | Trying not to touch the body at all if the patient has an obvious mortal wound such as decapitation |
| When should the PCR be completed | Promptly after patient contact |
| Illegal document that allows a person to specify the kinds of medical treatment he wishes to receive should the need arise is called | A living will |
| The best protection from liability is to perform ? Provide appropriate? And maintaining accurate and complete? | Systematic assessments, medical care, documentation |
| Diplomatic mistreat patients and their families with ? And ? | Courtesy and respect |
| Is civil wrong committed by one individual against another is called | Tort |
| Lager is derived from society’s acceptance of customs and norms overtime is called | Common law |
| ? Is a process used to regulate occupations | Licensure |
| ? Is the recognition granted to an individual who has met predetermined qualifications to participate in a certain activity | Certification |
| The range of duties and skills permits are allowed and expected to perform is their | Scope of practice |
| You may function as a paramedic only under the? Of a licensed physician through a delegation of authority | Direct supervision |
| The commonly mandated reporting that is expected of the Paramedic includes | Elder abuse, animal bites, sexual assault, child abuse |
| An example of ? Is the paramedics breaching his duty by failing to immobilize a patient from a rollover motor vehicle collision | Nonfeasance |
| The maximum time. During which certain actions can be brought into court is called the | Statute of limitations |
| ? Is the action or in action of the paramedic that immediately causes or worsens the damage suffered by a patient | Proximate cause |
| ? Is the act of injuring a persons character name or reputation by false or malicious statements written with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements | Libel |
| If your patient is able to make an informed decision about medical care He is considered | Competent |
| Consent for treatment granted by the authority of a court order is called | Involuntary consent |
| A person under the age of 18 years who is married pregnant a parent a member of the Armed Forces or financially independent and living away from home is considered an | Emancipated minor |
| The unlawful touching of another individual without his consent is | Battery |
| Intentional and unjustifiable detention of a person without his consent or other legal authority is called | False imprisonment |
| Preserve? At a crime scene whenever possible | Evidence |
| A well-documented PCR is completed currently after | Patient contact |
| Termination of the Paramedic patient relationship without assurance that an equal or greater level of care will continue | Abandonment |
| Consent for treatment that is presumed for a patient who is mentally physically or emotionally unable to grant consent | Implied consent |
| Range of duties and skills paramedics are allowed and expected to perform | Scope of practice |
| Legal responsibility | Liability |
| A breach of duty by failure to perform a required act or duty | Nonfeasance |
| Exemption from legal liability | Immunity |
| And intentionally false communication that injures another persons reputation or a good name | Defamation |
| Formal contractual or informal legal obligation to provide care | Duty to act |
| The unlawful touching of another individual without his consent | Battery |
| Is civil wrong committed by one individual against another | Tort |
| A breach of duty by performance of a wrongful or unlawful act | Malfeasance |
| Provision that gives immunity to certain people who assist at the scene of a medical emergency | Good Samaritan law |
| The division of the legal system that deals with wrongs committed against society or its members | Criminal law |
| Action or in action of the paramedic that immediately causes or worsens the damage suffered by the patient | Proximate cause |
| The division of the legal system that deals with non-criminal issues and conflicts between two or more parties | Civil law |
| Deviation from excepted standards of care recognized by law for the protection of others against the unreasonable risk of harm | Negligence |
| The degree of care skill and judgment that would be expected under similar circumstances by a similarLT trained reasonable Paramedic in the same community | Standard of care |
| A breach of duty by performance of a legal act in a manner that is harmful or injurious | Misfeasance |
| The principle of law that prohibits the release of medical or other personal information about a patient without the patient’s consent | Confidentiality |
| An act that unlawfully place is a person in apprehension of immediate bodily harm without his consent | Assault |
| Rules or standards that govern the conduct of members of a particular group or profession are known as | Ethics |
| Social religious or personal standards of right and wrong are | Morals |
| Allowing a person to decide how to behave and excepting whatever decision that person makes is called | Ethical relativism |
| Utilitarians who believe that the purpose of an action should be to bring the greatest happiness to the greatest number of people believe in | Consequentialism |
| The single most important question a paramedic has to answer when faced with an ethical challenge is | What is in the patients best interest |
| The principle of doing good for the patient is known as | Beneficence |
| The obligation to treat all patients fairly is known as | Justice |
| The term for a competent adult patients right to determine what happens to his own body is | Autonomy |
| The Latin phrase “primum non nocere” or First do no harm since of the principle of | Nonmaleficence |
| One of the three basic steps in solving an ethical problem is | Listing the implications or consequences of the action |
| Asking whether you can justify or defend your actions to others is called the | Interpersonal justifiability test |
| A general principle for paramedics to follow regarding advanced directives is that you should | When in doubt resuscitate |
| A competent patient of legal age has the right to decide what healthcare he does not wish to receive. The exercise at this rate a patient must have | The mental faculties to weight the risks and benefits |
| An ethical issue raised by the role of a paramedic as a preceptor as whether | Patients should be informed that’s student is caring for them |
| One of the three most common sources of conflict between physicians and paramedics is a situation in which | The physician orders something that the paramedic believes is medically acceptable but morally wrong |
| Saying that people should just fulfill their duties is known as the | Deontological method |
| Believing that actions can be judged as good or bad only after we know the consequences of those actions is called | Consequentialism |
| The single most important question a paramedic has to answer When faced with an ethical challenge is | What is in the patients best interest |
| The principle of doing good for the patient is called | Beneficence |
| A competent adult patients right to determine what happens to his own body is called | Autonomy |
| The obligation to treat all patients Fairly is called | Justice |
| Primum non nocere means | First do no harm |
| The first element in solving an ethical problem is | State the action in a universal form |
| The second element in solving an ethical problem is | List the implications or consequences of the action |
| The third element in solving an ethical problem is | Compare the results to relevant values |
| One of the quick ways to test ethics is by asking whether you would be willing to undergo this procedure or action if you were in a patient’s place is called the | Impartiality test |
| The ? Tests whether you would want this action performed in all relevantly similar circumstances | Universalizability test |
| Asking whether you can defend or justify your actions to others is called the | Interpersonal justifiability test |
| Providing the most care to the most seriously injured patients is the ? Form of triage | Civilian |
| Military triage distributionally concentrated on helping the | Least seriously injured |
| What are the three different approaches for determining how in medical professional should behave under different circumstances | Ethical relativism Deontological method Consequentialism |
| What are the four fundamental principles used in solving bioethics problems | Beneficence Nonmaleficence Autonomy Justice |
| What are the three steps in solving an ethical problem | State action in universal form List implications or consequences of action Compare to relevant values |
| List the three quick ways to test ethics | Impartiality test universability test Interpersonal justifiability test |
| In the basic communications model the | Sender encodes the message |
| The term? Can be defined as related to the meaning of words | Semantic |
| When you repeat back each statement to confirm accurate reception and understanding you are implying what type of procedure | Echo |
| Structures that contain steel and concrete may ? To radio transmissions | Interfere |
| An incomplete patient care report indicates | Inefficient care |
| The first link in the chain of events of an EMS response is | Detection and civilian access |
| The dispatchers telling colors how to perform appropriate emergency measures while waiting for emergency responders to arrive is called | Prearrival instructions |
| A? Communications systems of those simultaneous two way communication is by using two frequencies for each channel | Duplex |
| Ambulances responding within a city will usually transmit radio communications on | Ultrahigh frequency |
| If a communications system is described as trunked it means that all frequencies are | Pooled |
| The gathering of specific patterns of patient complaints and signs and symptoms in a specific demographic region is known as | Syndromic surveillance |
| The future of combining a wide range of radio bands is called | Multiband radio |
| Do you radio term meaning end of transmission is | Clear |
| ?Are electronic devices that capture crash data in the few seconds before during and after a crash | Event data recorders |
| A medical dispatcher’s interrogating a distressed caller and following established guidelines To determine the appropriate level of response is called | Priority dispatching |
| A ? Communications system transmits and receives on the same frequency | Simplex |
| A ? Communication system can transmit voice and data simultaneously | Multiplex |
| A ? Communications system can transmit and receive on the same frequency | Duplex |
| A ? Communication system pools all frequencies and routes transmissions to the next available frequency | Trunked |
| A vehicle mounted computer keyboard with display is called | Mobile data terminal |
| ?Has the potential to significantly reduce death and disability because of the need for rural crashes to be discovered | Advanced automatic crash notification |
| List the elements of the patient care report given via radio | Agency, unit, level of certification Scene description/MOI Patients age, sex, weight Chief complaint Brief history of present illness Associated symptoms Past medical history Vitals, LOC, general appearance, all other pertinent findings |
| Using the information on a prehospital care report to identify problems with an EMS system is an example of a | Administrative use |
| Analyzing data from a prehospital care report to determine the efficiency of certain medical devices or interventions such as drugs is a | Research use |
| Hey scannable run sheet on which you feel in boxes to record assessment and care information is known as a | Bubble sheet |
| Which of the following is a characteristic of a well written PCR | Complete identification of all additional resources and personnel |
| A patient who has a history of CABG in 1978 has had a | Coronary artery bypass graft |
| The abbreviation for paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is | PND |
| If a medication label is labeled to be taken Pc it should be taken | After eating |
| The letter a in the abbreviation a.c. Means | Before |
| The route of administration of a medication abbreviated Po means | Orally |
| One common problem with documenting times is that | Inconsistencies exist between dispatch times equipment times and paramedic watches |
| Additional or supplemental information to the original PCR is called a | Addendum |
| To make a correction on a PCR that you have written you should | Draw a single line through the error and initial it |
| A chief complaint of chest pain is an example of what type of information | Subjective |
| The refusal of care documentation checklist includes | Assessing the competency of the patient |
| Vital signs are an example of ? Data | Objective |
| Symptoms are an example of ? Data | Subjective |
| Abbreviation for chief complaint | CC |
| Abbreviation for private medical doctor | PMD |
| Abbreviation for abdomen | Abd |
| Abbreviation for war nose and throat | ENT |
| Abbreviation for no apparent distress | NAD |
| Abbreviation for antecubital | AC |
| The greatest changes in the range of vital signs are in | Pediatric patients |
| In infants head is equal to what percentage of the total body weight | 25% |
| After birth and infants cardiovascular system changes by constricting the ductus arteriosus once this closes | There is a decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance |
| The lungs of a full-term fetus continually secrete surfactant the purpose of which is to | Reduce the surface tension so that the lungs expand more easily |
| SOAP stands for | Subjective Objective Assessment Plan |
| CHART stands for | Chief complaint History Assessment Rx Transport |
| An infant can easily become dehydrated and develop water and electrolyte imbalance because | Infants urine is relatively dilute fluid w/specific gravity that rarely exceeds 1 |
| Reflex that occurs when a newborn is startled causing the arms to be thrown wide in the fingers to spread followed by a graphing motion is called the | Moro reflex |
| The fontanelles allow for | Impression of the head during childbirth |
| And infants sense that his needs will be met by his caregivers is called | |
| Secure attachment | |
| A stage of psychosocial development that last from birth to about 1 1/2 years of age | Trust vs mistrust |
| A child characterized by regularity and body functions low or moderate intensity of reactions and acceptance of new situations is called a | Easy child |
| When are the kidneys well developed | Toddler years |
| The parenting style in which parents are demanding and desire instant obedience from a child is called | Authoritarian |
| When does the development of a self-concept occur | School age children |
| School-age children experience three levels of moral development. The punishment and obedience stage takes place at which level | Preconventional reasoning |
| Depression and suicide are most common in which age group | Adolescence |
| Cardiovascular health becomes a major concern with cardiac output decreasing and cholesterol levels increasing for which age group | Middle adulthood |
| What percent does kidney mass decrease at 61 years of age and older | 25-30% |
| Are you hearing loss of pure tones that increases with age is called | Presbycusis |
| The major cause of death for adults 40 years of age and older is | Ill health |
| The ? Reflex occurs when an infants cheek is touched by a hand or cloth and the hungry infant turns his head to the right or left | Rooting reflex |
| The ? Is a reflex on the newborn that is elicited by placing a finger in the infants palm | Palmer grasp |
| ? Is initially based on secure attachment | Bonding |
| ? Is The type of bonding that occurs when an infant learns to be uncertain about whether his caregivers will be responsive or helpful when needed | Anxious resistant attachment |
| A type of bonding that occurs when an infant learns that his caregivers will be responsive and helpful when needed is called | Secure attachment |
| ? Is a type of bonding that occurs when an infant learns that his caregivers will not be responsive or helpful when needed | Anxious avoidant attachment |
| ? Is A teaching/learning technique in which one builds on what has already been learned | Scaffolding |
| Children develop separation anxiety between what ages | 18-24 months |
| ? Parenting takes a tolerant and accepting view of a child’s behavior | Permissive |
| Is stage of moral development during which children desire approval from individuals and society is called | Conventional reasoning |
| The theoretical species specific longest duration of life excluding premature or a natural death is called | Maximum life span |
| The theory that death is preceded by a five-year period of decreasing cognitive functioning is called the | Terminal drop hypothesis |
| Newborn vitals | Pulse: 100-180 Resp: 30-60 BP: 60-90 systolic |
| Infant vitals | Pulse: 100-160 Resp: 30-60 BP: 87-105 systolic |
| Toddler vitals | Pulse: 80-110 Resp: 24-40 BP: 95-105 systolic |
| Preschool age vitals | Pulse: 70-110 Resp: 22-34 BP: 95-110 systolic |
| School age vitals | Pulse: 65-110 Resp: 18-30 BP: 97-112 systolic |
| Adolescence vitals | Pulse: 60-90 Resp: 12-26 BP: 112-128 systolic |
| Early/middle adulthood vitals | Pulse: 60-100 Resp: 12-20 BP: 120/80 |
| Late adulthood vitals | Depends on individuals health |
| Toddler age range | 12-36 months |
| Preschool age range | 3-5 years |
| School age range | 6-12 years |
| Adolescence age range | 13-18 years |
| Early adulthood age range | 19-40 years |
| Middle adulthood age range | 41-60 years |
| Late adulthood age range | 61+ years |
| Infancy age range | 0-12 months |
Created by:
Joequitit902