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Med Law
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Medical law, ethics, and bioethics are necessary to understand | Health law, Differences in moral reasoning among individuals and groups, The need to confront biases and bigotry |
| Increasingly, hospitals find themselves in the ambulatory care business when | Individuals are turned away from a clinic setting |
| The Hippocratic Oath | Protected the rights of clients and appealed to the finer instincts of the physician |
| The most important code of ethics for the ambulatory care professional is the | Personal Ethics Check questions |
| Making an ethical and/or bioethical decision is based on | Accuracy, knowledge, and information of the particular issue |
| Ethics is a set of oral standards or a code of behavior | True |
| Bioethics relates to societal rules or regulations obligatory to observe | False |
| Increased numbers of specialists make it more difficult to coordinate client care. | True |
| National Healthcare Reform of 2010 is likely the most historic domestic policy since Medicare was created in 1965 | True |
| Blanchard and Peale identified a Patient Bill of Rights | False |
| Blanchard and Peale | created a set questions to determine if something is ethical |
| Nuremberg Code | was established between 1946 and 1949 and suggests guidelines for human experimentation and is directed to the world. |
| Declaration of Helsinki | written between 1964 and 1975 and is an update on human experimentation. It includes guidelines for both therapeutic and scientific clinical research and is directed to the world of medicine. |
| Geneva Convention Code of Medical Ethics | States that religion, race, and other such factors are not a consideration for care of the total person. |
| 2010 Healthcare Reform Bill | designed to ensure that there is affordable health care for everyone, it is designed to put consumers back in charge of their health coverage |
| The sole proprietor | Is the oldest form of business |
| A partnership | Is an agreement that should be in writing, has more financial strength than a sole proprietorship, and does not protect personal financial loss |
| Professional service corporations | allow deductions from taxable income to make contributions to pension plans |
| A health maintenance organization | Is one type of managed care and often identifies a gatekeeper for each member |
| Join ventures are created | Are designed to be profitable and advantageous to both entities |
| A co-payment is a member's medical expense paid to the provider. | True |
| SC, PSC, PA, and PSC, Inc. are all identification letters for professional service. | True |
| Providers often have problems finding time to perform business functions. | True |
| Capitation gives providers a variable monthly fee for services provided to HMO members under their care. | False |
| PHO's are physician-hospital organizations designed to provide clients "one-stop shopping" for services. | True |
| Type of managed care that encourages providers to improve the quality of their client's care | Pay for Performance |
| Sharing arrangement in which a member pays a set amount towards covered services before the insurance carrier begins to make any payments. | Deductible |
| Organization developed to perform office management services | multiple service organization |
| Type of business where hospitals, provider, and clinics form to offer client care | joint venture |
| Arrangement for health care in which a health insurance company acts as an intermediary between the client and the provider. | managed care |
| Medical expense that is a member's responsibility usually paid at time of service. | co-payment |
| Legal entity that is granted many of the same rights enjoyed by individuals | corporation |
| Pays providers for each service performed. | fee for service |
| Insurance contract that protects against financial loss to the employer caused by the act of an employee. | bond |
| Practice of medicine that looks at the whole person including mind, body, spirit, and lifestyle. | integrative medicine |
| When two states recognize the licensing procedures of each other, consider them valid, and grant licenses to practice based on the other state's licensure, this is called | Reciprocity and endorsement |
| Which of the following are specifically prepared to work in a medical clinic/practice | MA |
| A medical transcriptionist may become certified by passing a certifying examination offered by the | AHDI |
| What credentialing is required of a physician assistant in all states except MD, OH, and NY | Licensure |
| Once an MD has achieved the designation of "Board Certified," he/she | must recertify every 2 to 7 years |
| Medical transcriptionists perform an important part of the documentation process | True |
| A clinic manager may desire the CMAS certification through the AAMA | False |
| Inclusion is another term for reciprocity | False |
| MTs are required in all ambulatory care settings | False |
| The LPN and LVN receive the same education | True |
| Ethics is easier to define than law. | False |
| Honesty and integrity are two traits required of the ambulatory health-care professional | True |
| Medical law addresses licensure of health-care professionals; it does not address client safety | False |
| Since federal law permits abortions, a physician is required to perform abortions or risk being penalized by the state. | False |
| "Bond" is a document banked for an employee to provide a bonus for work well done | False |
| "Opt-out option" allows members to seek treatment outside their health-care plan | True |
| Physician-hospital organizations combine hospitals and insurance companies to offer a "one-stop shopping approach" | False |
| A MSO allows providers to focus on client care | True |
| Certification credentials imply that professionals have met certain standards identified by a particular organization | True |
| The nurse practitioner (NP) is a practical nurse who has successfully completed additional education and training | False |
| A custodian in a provider's office is considered part of the "team." | True |
| The LPN and LVN are interchangeable | True |
| Laws are | obligatory societal rules |
| Bioethic issues | relate to biomedical technology and its practices |
| The economics of health care | is, in part driven by medical technology |
| The three Codes of Ethics that apply to worldwide issues are ______, ________, and _______. | Geneva Convention Code, Nuremberg Code, Declaration of Helsinki |
| Which of the following influence the ethics of a health-care worker? | Culture of the worker |
| Making an ethical and/or bioethical decision is based on | Accuracy, knowledge, and information of particular issue |
| Advantages of partnership include | increased financial strength and increased managerial skill and shared workload |
| Preferred Provider Organizations | contract with providers for medical care to an established number of clients |
| Providers who practice in any integrated organization must remember | Medicare/Medicaid referrals cannot be made to any entity in which they have financial interest and Medicare/Medicaid may not recognize some business arrangements. |
| This health plan is one of the largest, not-for-profit HMO's in the country | Kaiser Foundation Health Plan |
| The sole proprietor | is the oldest form of business |
| A health maintenance organization | often identified a gatekeeper for each member and is one type of managed care |
| The medical assistant | is employed mostly in ambulatory care settings and performs administrative and clinical procedures |
| State statutes may determine | scope of practice for any and all health professionals, will vary from state to state and punishment for failure to comply. |
| The National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX) is administered to graduates to become: | RN |
| Which of the following permits a MA to give injections | Scope of practice |
| State regulations regarding health-care professionals vary from state to state. These state regulations are outlined in the: | medical practice acts |
| A medical transcriptionist may become certified by passing a certifying examination offered by the | AHDI |
| HIPAA requires standardization of only health and financial data. | False |
| In HIPPA, PHI means Patient Health Information. | False |
| The Controlled Substances Act is a statute that is enforced by the Drug Enforcement Administration. | True |
| Before becoming licensed in a state, an MD must first pass the USMLE. | True |
| Professional liability of providers is only a civil matter. | False |
| There are only a limited number of reasons for a provider to terminate care of a client. | False |
| Implied contracts are the most common form of contracts occurring in ambulatory health care. | True |
| Criminal liability for providers and their employees includes fraud in insurance billing. | True |
| Probate court simplifies and expedites the handling of small claims or debts | False |
| A misdemeanor is a serious crime that includes murder, assault, or larceny | False |
| Common law is also called judge-made law or case law. | True |
| The State Superior Court has general jurisdiction in all types of civil and criminal cases. | True |
| Three of the recommended childhood immunizations include hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and influenza. | True |
| Intimate partner violence (IPV) refers only to violence between spouses. | False |
| If a baby is born and then dies within 5 minutes of delivery, both birth and death certificates must be completed. | True |
| A death certificate for someone who dies as the result of an accident or an occupational hazard must be signed by a coroner. | True |
| Consent allows clients to determine what will be done with their bodies. | True |
| Consent is not a process; rather, it is the signing of the informed consent form. | False |
| A "blanket consent" form is one that is used when surgeons are not sure of all the procedures they might perform. | False |
| Once informed, the client can consent or refuse a treatment or choose other treatment options | True |
| Physicians who administer, prescribe, or dispense controlled substances are required to register with the | Drug Enforcement Administration |
| When health professionals believe their clients may be abusing or misusing substances, such as drugs and alcohol, their role includes the following: | Have a frank, open, honest discussion with clients. Continue to keep an open dialogue with clients. When caring for young people, it is best to talk with young clients without their parents. |
| State medical disciplinary boards must do the following the revoke or suspend a physician's license: | Give sufficient notice of the charges against the physician. Allow the physician legal counsel. Allow the physician a hearing. |
| Medical practice acts are: | state statutes. |
| The controlled substances act divides narcotics into how many schedules? | 5 |
| A provider's license may be revoked for which of the following reasons? | Conviction of a crime, professional incapacity, and personal incapacity. |
| Failure to do an act that a reasonable and prudent health-care professional would do is: | negligence |
| The legal nature of the provider-client relationship is that of a: | contract |
| Spoken and written statements that are malicious, false, and tend to damage a client's reputation are called: | defamation |
| The following would be an example of tort law as it applies to a MA: | The MA gives an allergy injection and allows the patient to leave immediately |
| Professional negligence | Is more easily prevented than defended, may be described as malpractice, and can be the result of either a provider or an employee error. |
| Tort | Identifies negligence and medical malpractice. |
| The party against whom relief or recovery is sought in a lawsuit is called the | defendant |
| If a person is found guilty in a civil case, the person will be expected to: | pay assessed monetary damages. |
| The Drug Enforcement Administration is subject to which branch of law? | Administrative law |
| Stealing a car is subject to which branch of law? | Criminal law |
| Which of the following statements about criminal law is true? | A case that is brought by a state against an individual. |
| A person who brings a claim against another individual is a | Plaintiff. |
| Birth and death certificates: | are legal documents that require prompt and proper completion. |
| Which of the following statements is true concerning substance abuse? | Substance abuse can be prevented, in part, if providers refuse to authorize prescriptions without first seeing the client. |
| Which of the following information is not needed when a medical assistant calls the local health department to report a notifiable disease? | The name of the client's insurance company. |
| Which organization assumes responsibility for the collection and publication of data concerning nationally notifiable diseases? | CDC |
| Child abuse includes which of the following? | Physical injury, sexual exploitation, psychological harm, and neglect. |
| The list of notifiable diseases comes from | The CDC. |
| The doctrine of informed consent requires that clients: | understand the nature of the illness, be told if no treatment is given, and be told of any alternative procedures, treatments, and the risks. |
| The responsibility for a medical bill of an emancipated minor belongs to the: | emancipated minor |
| OHRP's main purpose is to: | oversee the safety of participants in federally funded research. |
| When trying to determine a minor's rights in the consent process, a MA should turn to: | state laws. |
| When a client understands all aspects of a consent and signs a consent form, it is considered | informed express consent |
| In an uninformed consent, the client has done the following: | Read, not understood, but signed the consent form |
| To demagnetize | degausse |
| Computerized version of client's paper chart in a single clinic or facility | electronic medical record |
| Individually identifiable health information | PHI |
| Clearing away of old medical records that are no longer being used. | purge |
| Initiative to standardized computer applications so they can communicate back and forth. | consolidated health informatics |
| Electronic observance of a client's health status | telemonitoring |
| Small electrical pump that delivers pressurized air through a nasal mask. | CPAP |
| Combination of client's care from multiple sources in electronic format. | electronic health record |
| Method of filing data on film using minute images. | microfiche |
| Law that extends the HIPPA data privacy and security regulations to include business associates such as billing compliance. | HITECH Act |
| Regardless of the storage medium in which a medical record is saved, inactive charts should be protected with the same safety measures as active charts. | True |
| In all cases, medical records should be kept for a minimum of 5 years since first seen. | False |
| Proper and complete documentation is a provider's best defense against litigation. | True |
| As long as a client has signed a medical records release form, the health-care professional can make copies of the appropriate parts of a record without the provider's approval. | False |
| Faxing of medical records is preferable over mailing a copy of the records. | False |
| Identifies procedural categories | CPT |
| Identifies diagnostic categories | ICD-9CM |
| Describes how providers are reimbursed for their services and is widely accepted by insurance carriers | UCR |
| Cost-sharing arrangement in which a member pays a set amount toward covered services before insurer begins to make payments | deductible |
| Mandates that there is a that there is a continuation of group insurance coverage offered to persons who lose health coverage due to a qualifying event | COBRA |
| Federal insurance plan that covers military personnel and military retirees and their families. | TRICARE |
| Agreement between insurance carriers that if a client has two insurance plans, neither the provider nor subscriber will receive more than 100% of the covered charges | coordination of benefits |
| Amount that a member of an insurance plan must pay each time he visit his PCP | co-payment |
| Providers are paid a fixed monthly amount for each HMO in their care for that particular insurance | capitation |
| Prospective payment system that reimburses hospitals in a lump-sum rather than on a fee-for-service basis. | DRG |
| Clients are responsible only for the copayment portion of their bill. | False |
| A compliance plan can help prevent charges of fraud. | True |
| Once a visit has been denied by an insurance carrier, the provider has not other options for payment. | False |
| A health-care professional may need to help a client understand his or her insurance policy. | True |
| A procedure that is not clearly identified and appropriately documented cannot be billed. | True |
| With increased health awareness and HIPPAA, clients are not so concerned about what goes into their medical record. | False |
| Medical records are rarely used for clinical data and education research. | False |
| E-mailing of any kind should not be used in a health-care setting. | False |
| If an error is made in a paper medical record, a health-care professional should draw a line through the error using a red pen, write "correction" or "error," sign his or her initials, indicate the date, and write in the correction. | True |
| DRG is classification system grouping clients together who are similar in diagnosis, treatment, and their consumption of hospital resources. | True |
| In today's health-care climate of managed care, clients do not expect and are not interested in cost estimates of their medical services. | False |
| The Equal Credit Opportunity Act allows clients 60 days to complain about any error in their billing. | False |
| The medical reimbursement system in the United States changed with the passage of the Healthcare Reform Bill of 2009. | False |
| Hiring and keeping employees are expensive and time-consuming tasks. | True |
| At regular employment intervals, managers should evaluate employees. | True |
| Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is part of the OSH Act. | True |
| Benefits and compensation are of concern only to the employees. | False |
| In Purnell and Paulanka's book Transcultural Health Care, they state that the four stages of culturally sensitive care are continuous. | True |
| The way a person reacts to health and illness is an attitude and a perception that encompasses all the other cultural components. | True |
| Health-care professionals should encourage their clients to learn to speak English so that they can receive quality care. | False |
| When a MA becomes aware of a culture difference in a client, he should mark the chart accordingly so that everyone knows that the client is different in some wway. | False |
| The communication in a medical record privileged, and the right of that privilege belongs to the: | client. |
| SOAPER methods of charting imply the following: | Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan, Education, and Response |
| E-mail with clients: | should not be used without consent of clients. |
| The CCHIT announces new standards for EMRs every | year |
| Who owns the medical record? | The provider |
| Weeding out inactive charts that are older than their retention time frame is called | purging |
| Good collection practices include all but one of the following | bill for all co-payments, deductibles, or exclusions |
| The collection of overdue accounts: | should be described in an appropriate collection policy. |
| Federal Garnishing Law | Can be used to collect fairly large delinquent accounts and addresses debts utilizing employee salaries |
| Which part of Medicare is mandatory for all individuals who receive Social Security? | Part A |
| The _________ prohibits a provider from referring Medicare clients for services to a laboratory in which the provider has a financial interest. | Stark Laws |
| A CPT manual contains which of the following information? | Procedure codes |
| A policy manual is a working document that: | includes topics such as client confidentiality, smoking, work week and hours, and discipline. |
| A federal law states employers cannot discriminate on any form of application when the employer has how many employees? | 15 or more employees |
| The OSH Act is authorized to do which of the following? | Maintain record-keeping systems to monitor job-related injuries and illnesses |
| Employee evaluations | Establish a background for any necessary dismissal. |
| in an employment interview | Each candidate is asked the same questions. |
| Stage four, the last stage, in giving transcultural health care states that the individuals: | automatically provide culturally sensitive care. |
| Two pregnant women are entering the prenatal clinic. One has a PhD and works in the nursing department at the local college; the other woman is Amish and has three children. This is an example of what cultural component? | Educational preparation |
| A person who believes in voodoo is an example of: | ethnicity. |
| What is one of the best qualities a MA can possess when it comes to dealing with diversity? | Respectful |
| The cultural congruent care levels | Is one diagram that illustrates how individuals may be become culturally sensitive. |
| DNR | Order from a provider, usually at the request of the client or the family, that resusitation should not take place if the patient stops breathing. |
| Patient Self-Determination Act | Federal law requiring medical facilities to inform clients of their right to accept or refuse medical treatment. |
| living will | Advance directive stating an individual's wishes as to whether to be kept alive through the use of artificial means. |
| durable power of attorney | Someone appointed to make decisions regarding property and finances. |
| advance directive | Includes documents related to end-of-life choices for client. |
| Uniform Determination of Death Act | Federal law that states that irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem, is one of the criterions of death. |
| Code Red | Medical phrase used to indicate life-or-death emergency. |
| euthanasia | Often viewed as actively taking one's life. |
| health-care proxy | Legal right to act on another's behalf in making health-care decisions. |
| hospice | Lodging or service for those that are terminally ill. |
| The American Medical Association (AMA) has supported government health reform. | False |
| Microallocations are made on an individual basis by national organ centers. | False |
| All clients are directly affected by increased health-care costs. | True |
| Chronic renal disease is one of the many chronic diseases that are named specifically in the Medicare program. | False |
| Genetic testing is often used in treating certain lung cancers to determine how well a cancer will respond to a particular drug or combination of drugs. | True |
| To date, approximately 4,000 genetically related disorders have been identified. | True |
| Mutations in genes can occur randomly. | True |
| In cancer cells, genomics analyzes how the cells metastasize. | True |
| A mixture of cultural, social, and religious beliefs plays a strong role in the practice of female genital mutilation. | True |
| Physicians cannot refuse to perform an abortion. | False |
| Frozen sperm is commonly used for artificial insemination. | True |
| AIH raises more ethical and legal issues than does AID. | False |
| The Patient Self-Determination Act is federal law. | True |
| The Uniform Determination of Death Act identifies medical standards for writing living will documents. | False |
| Persons who are dying all experience the same psychological experiences. | False |
| Fear is often a traumatic psychological aspect of dying. | True |
| Plastic surgery to reduce the size of a woman's nose could be considered: | concierge medicine |
| House calls, which used to be the norm in the early 1900s, are now considered: | concierge medicine and premier medical services |
| Microallocation | decisions are made on an individual basis |
| Macorallocation | Helps to determine how much money is spent on medical research |
| In 2004, what organization was formed to complete the encoding of genes? | The International Human Genome Sequencing Consortium |
| Chorionic villus sampling is: | a test used to detect genetic defecs |
| A neural tube defect involving incomplete development of the brain or spinal cord that is caused by failure of the spine to close properly during development is called: | spina bifida |
| A genetic disorder that causes a moderate to severe mental disability is called: | Down syndrome |
| The human genome | Has two sets of 23 chromosomes, one of each parent. |
| The NCAA requires all athletes to be screened for | Sickle cell trait |
| Fertility awareness methods (FAM) of contraception: | require that a couple abstain from having intercourse during the time when an ovum is most likely to be fertilized |
| Which of the following is not a form of sterlization? | Cystectomy |
| The rationale given by those performing FGM is: | to prevent women from engaging in "illicit" sexual practices. |
| Spermicides comes in which of the following forms? | Jelly, cream and foam |
| FGM | Has been performed in more than 140 million woman around the world. |
| A critical time for the viability of a fetus is | When the pulmonary surfactant is formed. |
| Living wills and/or physician's directives: | allow clients some control over choices in dying, may dictate when and if extraordinary means are to be used to preserve life and should be made available to health-care providers and family members. |
| Medications given to those who are suffering and are dying: | help to relieve pain. |
| Which of the following states have passed physician-assisted death legislation? | Oregon and Washington |
| The law that allows a physician to prescribe a lethal dose of medication when asked by a terminally ill client is: | Death with Dignity Act. |
| Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care | Appoints an agent to act on the behalf of another |
| Assisted death | is legal in Washington and Oregon and is under consideration in a number of other states. |
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