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Health Alterations
Exam one
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| A nurse assesses several clients who have a history of asthma. Which client should the nurse assess first? c. A 35-year-old client who has a longer expiratory phase than inspiratory phase d. A 27-year-old client with a heart rate of 120 beats/min | d. A 27-year-old client with a heart rate of 120 beats/min |
| A nurse cares for a client with arthritis who reports frequent asthma attacks. Which action should the nurse take first? b. Ask about medications the client is currently taking. c. Assess how frequently the client uses a bronchodilator. | b. Ask about medications the client is currently taking. |
| Which method is the best way to prevent outbreaks of pandemic influenza? 1. Avoiding public gatherings at all time 2. Early recognition and quarantine 3. Vaccinating everyone with pneumonia vaccine 4. Vaccination for pandemic influenzae | 2 Early recognition and quarantine |
| Which condition is caused by group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus? 1. Rhinitis 2. Sinusitis 3. Bronchitis 4. Pharyngitis | 4. Pharyngitis |
| A patient has been started on ethambutol for tuberculosis. What adverse effect requires the patient to notify the provider? 1. Changes in vision 2. Darkening of the urine 3. Yellowing appearance of skin 4. Increased bruising or bleeding | 1. Changes in vision |
| A client has been admitted for suspected inhalation anthrax infection. What question by the nurse is most important? a. Are any family members also ill? b. Have you traveled recently? c. How long have you been ill? d. What is your occupation? | d."What is your occupation?" |
| A nurse has educated a pt on isoniazid (INH). What indicates teaching was effective? b. I should take this medicine with milk or juice. c. I will take this medication on an empty stomach. d. My contact lenses will be permanently stained. | c. I will take this medication on an empty stomach. |
| A pt has been taking isoniazid (INH) for tb for 3 weeks. What lab results need to be reported to the hcp immediately? a. Albumin: 5.1 g/dL b. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 180 U/L c. Red blood cell (RBC) count: 5.2/mm3 d. WBC count: 12,500/mm3 | b. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 180 U/L |
| respiratory INFECTION. It is highly contagious and spreads easily from person to person via respiratory droplets. Once considered a childhood disease, a resurgence is occurring in adults, perhaps due to waning vaccination effectiveness | Pertussis |
| collection of pus in pleural space caused by infection, lung abscess, infected pleural effusion therapy: empty empysema cavity, reexpanding lung, treat infection w antibiotics s/s: compromised cardiac function, displaced PMI, hypotension | pulmonary empyema |
| collection of pus in the pleural space most commonly caused by pulmonary INFECTION, lung abscess, or infected pleural effusion Often the patient has a fever, chills, night sweats, and weight loss. | pulmonary edema |
| excess fluid in lungs resulting in inflammation triggered by many infectious organisms and by inhalation of irritating agents. | Pneumonia |
| H5N1 | avian (bird) flu |
| H1N1 | swine flu |
| most common cause of tonsillitis | streptococcus |
| what is the most serious complication of pharyngitis | epiglottis!! can obstruct airway and throat can close up (monitor for swelling, striodor, drool) |
| "sore throat" INFLAMMATION of the pharyngeal mucous membranes that often occurs with rhinitis and sinusitis. | pharyngitis |
| INFLAMMATION of the mucous membranes of one or more of the sinuses and is usually associated with rhinitis can be caused by allergies or infection, polyps, tumors, inhalants, cocaine use, facial trauma | rhinosinusitis |
| inflammation of the nasal mucosa | rhinitis |
| coryza | common cold |
| Types of Pneumonia | CAP- community acquired pneumonia HAP- hospital acquired pneumonia VAP- ventilator associated pneumonia |
| Which statement should the nurse include cystic fibrosis teaching? a. "Take an antibiotic each day." b. "Contact your provider to obtain genetic screening." c. "Eat a well-balanced, nutritious diet." d. "Plan to exercise for 30 minutes every day." | c. "Eat a well-balanced, nutritious diet." |
| A patient is experiencing an asthma attack and shows an increased respiratory effort. Which arterial blood gas value is more associated with the early phase of the attack? A. PaCO2 of 60 mmHg B. PaCO2 of 30 mmHg C. pH of 7.40 D. PaCO2 of 98 mmHg | B. PaCO2 of 30 mmHg |
| A patient who has well-controlled asthma has what kind of airway changes? A. Chronic, leading to hyperplasia B. Temporary and reversible C. Open alveoli D. Permanent and irreversible | B. Temporary and reversible |
| A patient with chronic bronchitis often shows signs of hypoxia. Which clinical manifestation is the priority to look out for in this patient? A. Chronic, nonproductive, dry cough B. Clubbing of fingers C. Large amounts of thick mucus D. Barrel chest | C. Large amounts of thick mucus |
| Purpose of pulmonary function testing? A. Measures blood gas levels before bronchodilators are administered B. Evaluates the movement of oxygenated blood from lung to the heart C. Distinguishes airway disease from restrictive lung disease | C. Distinguishes airway disease from restrictive lung disease |
| Whats the purpose of fluticasone (Flovent) inhaler? A. Relaxes the smooth muscles of the airway B. Acts as a bronchodilator in severe episodes C. Reduces obstruction of airways by decreasing inflammation | C. Reduces obstruction of airways by decreasing inflammation |
| What is the priority medical-surgical concept for patients with noninfectious lower respiratory problems such as emphysema? a. perfusion b. gas exchange c. cellular regulation d. tissue integrity | b. gas exchange |
| characteristics of asthma? Select all that apply. a. narrowed airway lumen due to inflammation b. increased eosinophils c. increased secretions d. intermittent bronchospasm e. loss of elastic recoil f. stimulation of disease process by allergies | a. narrowed airway lumen due to inflammation b. increased eosinophils d. intermittent bronchospasm f. stimulation of disease process by allergies |
| benign, grapelike clusters of mucosa in the nasal passages. * related to chronic inflammation, and people with allergies are prong to developing them. * also assoc with cystic fibrosis. | Nasal polyps |
| Larynx - what is it also known as | "voicebox" |
| Microscopic sacs in the lungs where oxygen is exchanged for carbon dioxide. | Alveoli |
| A condition of the lungs characterized by enlargement of the air spaces distal to the bronchioles. | Emphysema |
| The division of the respiratory system composed of organs located outside the chest cavity (thorax). | Upper respiratory tract (URT) |
| The division of the respiratory system composed of organs located almost entirely within the chest. | Lower respiratory tract (LRT) |
| Caused by either too few hydrogen ions in the body or too much bicarbonate. | alkalosis |
| Caused by too many hydrogen ions in the body or to little bicarbonate | Acidosis |
| The bicarbonate level indicates how well the ____ are excreting or reabsorbing base as needed | kidneys |
| ______ refers to impaired perfusion, whereas infarction is complete tissue death | Ischemia |
| S/s of inadequate ____ perfusion: dyspnea, dizziness or syncope and chest pain | Central |
| S/s of decreased ______ perfusion: decreased hair distribution, pallor, coolness, and/or cyanosis of the extremities. | Peripheral |
| ____ causes bronchospasm and narrowed airways, which diminishes the amount of oxygen available for gas exchange. | asthma |
| Chest expansion is improved when the patient is sitting or is in a _______position? | Semi Fowlers |
| Gas exchange is the oxygen transport to the cells and carbon dioxide transport away from the cells through ____ and ___? | ventilation and diffusion. |
| The waste gas created in the tissues, then diffuses from the blood into the lungs so it can be exhaled | Carbon dioxide (CO2) |
| Provide resonance to speech, decrease the weight of the skull, and act as shock absorbers in the event of facial trauma | the sinuses |
| The _____ is divided into the nasopharynx, the oropharynx, and the laryngopharynx. | throat |
| A continuous smooth membrane with two surfaces that totally enclose the lungs | pleura |
| ________branch from the respiratory bronchioles and resemble a bunch of grapes | alveolar ducts |
| The larynx is located above the trachea, just below the throat at the base of the tongue. It is composed of several cartilages. The thyroid cartilage is the largest, and is commonly called what? | Adams apple |
| _____ is a small, elastic flap attached to the top of the larynx. It opens during breathing and prevents food from entering the trachea by closing over the _____ during swallowing. | Epiglottis. Glottis |
| Blood flow in the lungs occurs through two separate systems: ________ and pulmonary. | Bronchial |
| Normally, the ribs slope downard. Patients with air trapping in the lungs caused by emphysema have ribs that are more ___? | horizontal. |
| ______ sounds are additional breath sounds along with normal sounds, and they indicate pathologic changes int eh lung | Adventitious |
| Lower-pitched, coarse, continuous snoring sounds. Arise from the large airways | Rhonchus (rhonchi) |
| Squeaky, musical, continuous sounds associated with air rushing through narrowed airways; may be heard without a stethoscope. Arise from the small airways. Usually do not clear with coughing. | Wheeze |
| These tests are used to measure lung volumes and capacities, flow rates, diffusion capacity, gas exchange, airway resistance, and distribution of ventilation | Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTS) |
| A pt has returned to the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) after a bronchoscopy. Which of these nursing tasks is best for the charge nurse to delegate to the experienced NA? A. Assess breath sounds. D. Monitor blood pressure and pulse. | D. Monitor blood pressure and pulse. |
| Which of these assessment findings will be of greatest concern when the nurse is assessing a client with emphysema? A. Barrel-shaped chest B. Bronchial breath sounds heard at the bases C. Hyperresonance to percussion of the chest | B. Bronchial breath sounds heard at the bases |
| Additional breath sounds superimposed on normal sounds. They indicate pathologic changes in the lung. | Adventitious breath sounds |
| The nurse auscultates popping, discontinuous sounds over the client's anterior chest. How does the nurse classify these sounds? A. Crackles B. Rhonchi C. Pleural friction rub D. Wheeze | A. Crackles |
| In the older adult client, which respiratory change does not require further assessment by the nurse? A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) diameter B. Increased respiratory rate C. Shortness of breath D. Sputum production | Increased anteroposterior (AP) diameter Increased AP diameter is normal with aging. |
| The pt returns to the medical unit after a therapeutic bronchoscopy. Which does the nurse apply first? A. Assess the puncture site for drainage. B. Implement NPO status. C. Monitor for signs of anaphylaxis. D. Perform aggressive chest physiotherapy. | B. Implement NPO (nothing by mouth) status. Correct: Until the client has a gag reflex and is fully alert, he should be maintained on NPO status to prevent aspiration |
| Why are the turbinates important? A. They increase the surface area of the nose for heating and filtering. B. They move inspired particles from nose to throat for removal. C. They separate two nasal passages down the middle. | A. They increase the surface area of the nose for heating and filtering. The turbinates increase the surface area of the nose, so that more heating, filtering, and humidifying of inspired air can occur before air passes into the nasopharynx. |
| A client is having surgery. He asks his nurse, "When they put that tube in my throat, where does it really go?" What is the name of the opening of the vocal cords? A. Arytenoid cartilage B. Epiglottis C. Glottis D. Palatine tonsils | C. Glottis Correct: The glottis is the opening of the vocal cords into which the endotracheal tube is passed during intubation for surgery. |
| A client is admitted to the surgical floor with chest pain, SOB, and hypoxemia after having a knee replacement. What test will help confirm the diagnosis? A. Bronchoscopy B. Chest x-ray C. Computed tomography (CT) scan D. Thoracoscopy | C. Computed tomography (CT) scan Correct: CT scans, especially spiral or helical CT scans, with injected contrast can detect pulmonary emboli. |
| A client had a thoracentesis 1 day ago. He calls the home health agency and tells the nurse that he is very short of breath and anxious. What is the major concern of the nurse? A. Abscess B. Pneumonia C. Pneumothorax D. Pulmonary embolism | C. Pneumothorax Correct: A pneumothorax would be the complication of thoracentesis that causes the greatest concern, along with these symptoms. |
| A client has a bone density score of 2.8. What action by the nurse is best? a. Asking the client to complete a food diary b. Planning to teach about bisphosphonates c. Scheduling another scan in 2 years d. Scheduling another scan in 6 months | ANS: B A T-score from a bone density scan at or lower than 2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The nurse should plan to teach about medications used to treat this disease. One class of such medications is bisphosphonates. |
| A pt has been advised to perform weight-bearing exercises to help minimize osteoporosis. The pt admits to not doing the exercises. What action is best? a. Ask the pt about fear of falling. b. Suggest other exercises the pt can do. | ANS: A Fear of falling can limit participation in activity. The nurse should first assess if the client has this fear and then offer suggestions for dealing with it. The client may or may not need extra calcium, other exercises, or weight lifting. |
| A pt has been rx'd denosumab (Prolia). What instruction is most appropriate? a. Drink at least 8 ounces of water with it. b. Make appointments to come get your shot. c. Sit upright for 30 to 60 minutes after taking it. | ANS: B Denosumab is given by subcutaneous injection twice a year. |
| Pt is at high risk for osteomalacia and won't take meds. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ensure the client gets 15 minutes of sun exposure daily. b. Give the client daily vitamin D injections. c. Plan to serve foods naturally high in vitamin D. | ANS: A Sunlight is a good source of vitamin D, and the nursing staff can ensure some sun exposure each day. |
| The nurse studying osteoporosis learns that which drugs can cause this disorder? (Select all that apply.) a. Antianxiety agents b. Antibiotics c. Barbiturates d. Corticosteroids e. Loop diuretics | ANS: C, D, E Several classes of drugs can cause secondary osteoporosis, including barbiturates, corticosteroids, and loop diuretics. Antianxiety agents and antibiotics are not associated with the formation of osteoporosis. |
| The nurse is assessing a client for chronic osteomyelitis. Which features distinguish this from the acute form of the disease? (Select all that apply.) a. Draining sinus tracts b. High fevers c. Presence of foot ulcers d. Swelling and redness | ANS: A, C Draining sinus tracts and foot ulcers are seen in chronic osteomyelitis. High fever, swelling, and redness are more often seen in acute osteomyelitis. Pain or tenderness can be in either case. |
| The biggest risk factor for hip fractures | osteoporosis |
| An inelastic tissue that surrounds groups of muscles, blood vessels, and nerves in the body | Fascia |
| Type of surgery: -Done under general anesthesia -More complications/risk A. Emergency B. Major C. Ablative D. Transplant | Major |
| Type of surgery: Ex: Ruptured Appendix | Emergency Surgery: Life threatening, trauma, ruptured appendix, two physcians can consent |
| Type of surgery: -Done for comfort -Debulk and remove a tumor to decrease pain | Palliative |
| Name 3 baseline labs done prior to surgery? | Chest xray, ultrasound, ekg, cbc, electrolytes, coagulation studies, urinalysis, kidney function (BUN, Creatnine), Liver function (AST, ALT) |
| Major complication of anesthesia is ____? -signs and symptoms are: tachy dyshytnmia, jaw and upper chest rigidity (close airway), low BP, tachypnea, low oxygen saturation | Malignant Hyperthermia |
| Initial infection of TB is seen more often in what lobe/lobes of the lung? A: Middle and upper B: Lower C: Middle and lower D: Middle | C: Middle and lower |
| This type of pneumonia may have multidrug resistant organisms A: Ventilator associated B: Health Care associated C: Community acquired D: Hospital acquired | B: Health Care associated |
| A patient with hypoxia and reduced gas exchange may be uncomfortable in this position? A: Bending B: Sitting upright C: Laying down D: Standing up | C. laying down |
| Increases the risk for dysrhythmias, especially with the use of anesthesia A: Hyponatremia B: Hyperkalemia C: Hypernatremia D: Hypokalemia | B: Hyperkalemia |
| Increases the risk for toxicity if pt is taking digoxin, slows recovery from anesthesia, and increases cardiac irritability A: Hyperkalemia B: Hypernatremia C: Hypokalemia D: Hyponatremia | Hypokalemia, C |
| If rapid emptying of the stomach is needed, this drug may be prescribed? A: hydroxyzine (Atarax) B: metoclopramide (Reglan) C: midazolam (Versed) D: atropine | B: metoclopramide (Reglan) |
| What is atelectasis? | Collapse of alveoli |
| This type of surgery is performed to resolve a health problem by repairing or removing the cause | Curative |
| These machines suction, wash, and filter blood so it can be given back to the patients body instead of being discarded | Cell savage |
| List TWO of the FOUR categorizes of pneumonia | -community acquired -hospital acquired -health care aquired -ventilator associated |
| Xerostomia is a condition associated with which of the following types of treatment? A) Biotherapy B) Chemotherapy C) Speech therapy D) Radiation therapy | Correct D) Radiation therapy |
| Where is the nasopharynx positioned in the throat? A) Behind the nose B) Behind the larynx C) Behind the mouth D) Behind the esophagus | Correct A) Behind the nose |
| Which member of the surgical team is responsible for keeping track of the number of sponges used during surgery? A) Anesthesiologist B) Holding area nurse C) Nurse assistant D) Circulating nurse | Correct D) Circulating nurse |
| Which type of anesthesia causes minimal disturbance to physiologic functions and is used in older and high-risk patients? A) Regional B) Balanced C) Inhalation D) Intravenous | Correct B) Balanced |
| What is the drug of choice for treating malignant hyperthermia? A) Morphine B) Pancuronium C) Nitrous oxide (N 2O) D) Dantrolene sodium | D) Dantrolene sodium |
| If wound dehiscence occurs, a sterile nonadherent dressing may be applied on the wound. Which sterile nonadherent dressing is typically used for this? A) Telfa B) Iodoform-soaked gauze C) Nylon D) Ace bandage | A) Telfa |
| A patient has an allergy to bananas. To which other allergy may the patient be susceptible? A) Latex B) Folic acid C) Morphine D) Povidone-iodine | Correct A) Latex |
| Which speech organ is the opening between the true vocal cords? A) Costal cartilage B) Cricoid cartilage C) Epiglottis D) Glottis | D) Glottis |
| Which sound is an expected finding when auscultating the peripheral lung fields? A) Vesicular B) Bronchovesicular C) Bronchial tracheal D) Bronchial tubula | Correct A) Vesicular |
| Which procedure involves removal of the hyoid bone? A) Laser surgery B) Transoral cordectomy C) Vertical laryngectomy D) Supraglottic partial laryngectomy | Correct D) Supraglottic partial laryngectomy |
| What will be the drug of choice for a patient whose cancer overexpresses the epidermal growth factor receptor? A) Salagen B) Salivart C) Cisplatin D) Cetuximab | Correct D) Cetuximab |
| What should the temperature and humidity level be kept at in an operating room? A) 1 o C and 25% B) 20 o C and 50% C) 25 oC and 65% D) 30 o C and 80% | Correct B) 20 o C and 50% |
| Which procedure describes a tube inserted into the airway in order to view airway structures and obtain tissue samples for a biopsy? A) Bronchoscopy B) Thoracentesis C) Pulmonary function test D) Transthoracic needle aspiration | Correct A) Bronchoscopy |
| A patient has wounds on several areas of the body. The nurse expects that the wound in which site will heal more quickly than the others? A) The wound on the leg B) The wound on the foot C) The wound on the head D) The wound on the abdomen | Correct C) The wound on the head |
| What is the term for the opening between the vocal cords? A) Glottis B) Epiglottis C) Palatine tonsils D) Arytenoid cartilage | Correct A) Glottis |
| The nurse is percussing the lungs of a patient. The nurse hears a high-pitched, soft intensity, extremely dull sound over the sternum. How does the nurse document this finding? A) Flatness B) Dullness C) Tympany D) Resonance | Correct A) Flatness |
| Which surgical treatment has a high cure rate with a normal resulting voice quality? A) Laser surgery B) Laryngofissure C) Total laryngectomy D) Transoralcordectomy | Correct B) Laryngofissure |
| While auscultating breath sounds, the nurse notes increased vocal resonance. Which condition is associated with this finding? A) Asthma B) Pleural rub C) Pneumonia D) Subcutaneous crepitus | Correct C) Pneumonia |
| The patient is a marathon runner who has asthma. Which category of medication is used as a rescue inhaler? A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) B) Short-acting beta agonists C) Long-acting beta agonists D) Corticosteroids | Correct B) Short-acting beta agonists |
| What term describes increased vibrations felt on the chest wall that indicate areas of the lung where air spaces are replaced with tumor or fluid in patients with lung cancer? A) Fremitus B) Palliation C) Mucositis D) Thrombocytopenia | Correct A) Fremitus |
| What are the two major categories of asthma medications? A) Control and reliever B) Preventive and quick acting C) Steroids and bronchodilators D) Bronchodilators and anti-inflammatories | Correct A) Control and reliever |
| What is the most important reason a patient with lung cancer should be handled carefully while the nurse repositions and ambulates him or her? A) Dysrhythmias B) Low bone density C) Cardiac tamponade D) Super vena cava syndrome | Correct B) Low bone density |
| Which complication does the nurse suspect in a patient with cystic fibrosis? A) Hypoglycemia B) Hypothyroidism C) Respiratory failure D) Hyperpigmentation | Correct C) Respiratory failure |
| Which viral agent is responsible for the most common community-acquired pneumonia? A) Adenovirus B) Rhinovirus C) Parainfluenza virus D) Respiratory syncytial virus | Correct D) Respiratory syncytial virus |
| Which anesthetic effect is most common with balanced and nerve block anesthesia? A) Loss of memory B) Loss of consciousness C) Loss of motor function D) Loss of sensory perception | Correct D) Loss of sensory perception |
| Antibiotics are prescribed to prevent infection during surgery. How soon after surgery are antibiotics typically re-evaluated? A) 6 hours B) 12 hours C) 48 hours D) 24 hours | Correct D) 24 hours |
| During what stage of general anesthesia can laryngospasms and vomiting occur? A) Stage I B) Stage II C) Stage III D) Stage IV | Correct B) Stage II |
| Which is a complication that occurs only with local or regional anesthesia? A) Overdose B) Patient sensitivity C) Systemic absorption D) Intubation complications | Correct C) Systemic absorption |
| Which condition may arise due to nasogastric tube drainage? A) Pneumonia B) Constipation C) Urinary retention D) Metabolic alkalosis | Correct D) Metabolic alkalosis |
| Who is the most likely person to administer blood products in an operating suite? A) Circulating nurse B) Holding area nurse C) Scrub nurse D) Specialty nurse | Correct A) Circulating nurse |
| What pain management does a patient who has been admitted to the postanesthesia care unit typically receive? A) Intramuscular nonopioid analgesics B) Intramuscular opioid analgesics C) Intravenous nonopioid analgesics D) Intravenous opioid analgesics | D) Intravenous opioid analgesics |
| The radiology report of a patient who has had a chest x-ray shows consolidation in a segment of the patient's left lung. This is typical of which type of pneumonia? A) Viral B) Lobar C) Bronchial D) Bacterial | Correct B) Lobar |
| The nurse recognizes that which postoperative condition is considered to be a neuromuscular complication? A) Sepsis B) Atelectasis C) Hypothermia D) Pressure ulcers | Correct C) Hypothermia |
| Which condition is characterized by the appearance of lung tissue in a honeycomb pattern in a high-resolution computed tomography? A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases B) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis C) Cystic fibrosis D) Sarcoidosis | Correct B) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis |
| The nurse is administering azathioprine to a patient diagnosed with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. What common side effect should the nurse assess for? A) Nausea B) Wheezing C) Constipation D) Poor sputum clearance | Correct A) Nausea |
| In patients with lung cancer, what quality of sputum may occur if infection or necrosis is present? A) Thick B) Minimal C) Purulent D) Blood-tinged | Correct C) Purulent |
| Occupational exposure to which material increases an individual's risk for lung cancer? A) Tar B) Tin C) Turpentine D) Tartaric acid | Correct A) Tar |
| Which medication exposure in a patient increases the risk for primary pulmonary arterial hypertension? A) Warfarin C) Dasatinib D) Verapamil | Correct C) Dasatinib |
| Musculoskeletal system diagnostic test: -normal range 8.5 to 10.2 -increases with osteoclast activity | Calcium |
| Musculoskeletal system diagnostic test: -normal range 42-136 -increases with bone or liver damage | Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) |
| Musculoskeletal system diagnostic test: -normal range 2.4 to 4.1 -inverse relationship with calcium | Phosphorus |
| Decreases calcium in the blood by inhibiting bone resorption and increases excretion of calcium by the kidneys | Calcitonin |
| Musculoskeletal system diagnostic test: -Normal range 0-5 -Inflammation somewhere in the body. Increases faster than ESR. | CRP |
| This type of fracture is commonly in the spine | Compression fracture |
| Cast treatment: CMS checks - stands for? | Color, movement, sensation |
| A pulling force that is applied to a body part to reduce the fracture and realign it to relieve pain and muscle spasms. | Traction |
| What does ORIF stand for? | Open Reduction Internal Fixation |
| Infection in bone from bacteria that causes ischemia and necrosis | Osteomyelitis |
| Loss of bone mass and deterioration of bone structure causing brittle bones that are prone to fractures | Osteoporosis |
| Causes of ___________ are: -chronic low calcium levels -Estrogen deficiency -smoking, ETOH, sedentary -thin build | Osteoporosis |
| ________ include: -Fosamax -Reclast IV -Prolia | Bisphosphonate **Medications used for osteoporosis |
| Bone remodeling process is abnormal. New bone is made in incorrect places. Bone is removed from incorrect places | Paget's Disease |
| Stretching or tearing of a ligament. Caused by injury | Sprain |
| Stretching or tearing of muscle or tendon. Caused by overuse | Strain |
| A connective tissue disorder where uric acid builds up in blood and settles in joints and connective tissues. This causes inflammation and pain | Gout |
| A degenerative joint disease that the ends of bones and joints deteriorate from wear and tear | Osteoarthritis |
| Acetabular cup inserted into the pelvic acetabulum and femoral component insereted into the femur in what kind of surgery? | Total hip replacement |
| ABG imbalance: -Respiratory failure, too much CO2 as lungs aren't able to excrete CO2 -Increased CO2 decreases breathing drive | Respiratory Acidosis |
| Respiratory disorder: -infection of the respiratory tract transmitted by droplets -Viral -sudden onset -treat with antivirals | Influenza |
| Respiratory disorder: -Coryza -viral -slow onset | Rhinitis |
| Obstructive disorder: -the inner wall of the alveoli weaken and rupture creating large air spaces instead of the many tiny ones. Surface area is decreased which reduces oxygen that gets into blood stream. -develops over many years | Emphysema |
| Adrenergic Bronchodilator example | Albuterol |
| Anticholinergic Agent used for COPD, Emphysema, Bronchiits | Atrovent/Spiriva |
| Inflammation of bronchioles and alveoli that is caused by microorganisms settling into the alveoli. The inflammatory response causes gunk to build up in the lungs. | |
| Genetic defect in a protein that disrupts the functioning of exocrine glands that affect the organs that cause ducts and/or tubes to become clogged with thick mucus. Both parents must be carries of gene. | Cystic Fibrosis |
| Generally a pediatric illness. Has been a spike in the eldery population this year. Barky cough, stridor caused by inflammation/swelling of airway | Croup |
| Autologous blood can be used in an ______ surgery | Elective |
| Which operative device is typically used for joint surgery? 1 1. Otoscope 2. Uteroscope 3. Arthroscope 4. Laparoscope | 3. Arthroscope An endoscope is a tube which helps to view and manipulate internal organs. Special endoscopes related to various organs are used during medical procedures. An arthroscope is the endoscope used for joints. |
| Which test sample is required in the caffeine halothane contracture test (CHCT) to evaluate an individual's risk for malignant hyperthermia? 1. sputum 2. blood 3. urine 4. muscle | The CHCT is the best way to determine if a person is at risk for developing malignant hyperthermia when undergoing anesthesia. A muscle biopsy is taken to perform this test. The test is not performed with sputum, blood, or urine. |
| What is a common side effect of endotracheal intubation? 1. Sore throat 2. Cardiac arrest 3. Respiratory failure 4. Malignant hyperthermia | 1-sore throat. Endotracheal (ET) intubation involves introducing an ET tube into the airway of a patient with compromised respiration. The most common side effect is sore throat. |
| Which category of drug is usually administered in a patient undergoing a cholecystectomy after anesthesia induction and prior to intubation? 1. Hypnotics 2. Opioid analgesics 3. Skeletal muscle relaxants 4. Neuromuscular blocking agent | Correct4 Neuromuscular blocking agents The neuromuscular agents are used to relax the jaw and vocal cords immediately after induction of anesthesia to facilitate easy intubation. |
| Which type of anesthesia is associated with complications related to drug-drug interactions? 1. Regional 2. Balanced 3. Inhalation 4. Intravenous | 2. Balanced |
| What is a postoperative complication associated with minimal invasive surgery (MIS)? 1. Evisceration 2. Dehiscence 3. Wound infection 4. Mechanical trauma | 4. Mechanical trauma The complications associated with this type of surgery are mechanical trauma and thermal injury. |
| A _______ type of anesthesia is used in older and high-risk patients as it causes minimal disturbance to the physiologic function. | Balanced |
| ______ anesthesia is not used for extensive procedures. | Regional |
| _____anesthesia is contraindicated in high-risk groups. | Intravenous |
| Malignant hyperthermia is a complication which can occur after general anesthesia. The drug of choice for treating this condition is____________, which is a skeletal muscle relaxant. | dantrolene sodium |
| Both the _______ nurse and anesthesia provider can note the time the patient arrives in the post anesthetic care unit (PACU) | circulating |
| Maintaining the accurate count of sponges, sharps, instruments, and amounts of irrigation fluid and drugs used can be performed by both the circulating nurse and the ______ nurse. | Scrub |
| Reviewing the patient’s preoperative checklist is performed by both the ______ nurse and the holding area nurse. | circulating |
| _____ nurses are registered nurses who coordinate, oversee, and are involved in the patient's nursing care in the operating room. | Circulating nurses or "circulators" |
| _______ nurses manage the patient's care before surgery; blood would not yet be needed at this point. | Holding Area |
| ______ nurses set up the sterile field, drape the patient, and hand sterile supplies, sterile equipment, and instruments to the surgeon and the assistant. | Scrub |
| ________ nurses may be in charge of a particular type of surgical specialty; they are responsible for nursing care specific to patients who need that type of surgery, such as assessing, maintaining, and recommending equipment, instruments, and supplies. | Specialty |
| ______ anesthesia is a combination of both inhalation and intravenous types of anesthesia. | Balanced |
| What is the range of desired humidity in the operating room (OR)? 1. 10-30% 2. 30-40% 3. 30-60% 4. 30-80% | 3. 30-60% |
| In this type of anesthesia, a series of injections are given around the operative field. | Field Block |
| Induction and reversal with this type of anesthesia are accomplished with pulmonary ventilation | Inhalation, most controllable method |
| When dehiscence occurs, the wound has opened. When this happens, a sterile nonadherent dressing such as ______ or a saline dressing may be applied to the woun | Telfa |
| The health care provider typically removes the dressing on the first or second day after surgery. Assessment of the incision is performed at least every _____ hours. | 8 |
| Assessment of an _______ wound includes checking it for redness, increased warmth, swelling, tenderness or pain, and the type and amount of drainage. | Undressed |
| What condition is indicated by the presence of a pulse deficit when assessing the vital signs of a postoperative patient? 1. Dyspnea 2. Dysrhythmia 3. Hypothermia 4. Deep vein thrombosis | 2 -Dysrhythmia |
| The nurse should encourage the patient to _____ as early as possible after surgery to promote peristalsis | walk |
| A patient who works in a warehouse has successfully undergone abdominal surgery. After how many weeks can this patient return to work?Answer: ___ weeks | A patient whose work involves a moderate amount of physical labor may return to work about 6 weeks after abdominal surgery. Stress due to physical labor may lead to complications or disability if the patient resumes work before 6 weeks. |
| _____ drains are used for the dressing of wounds. | Penrose |
| Which type of tube is commonly used in the surgical process to promote GI rest? 1. T- tube 2. Levin tube 3. Nasogastric (NG) tube 4. Penrose drain | Nasogastric (NG) tube |
| Fat embolism is more likely to occur with fractures of the _____ bones. Blood clot embolism can occur anytime, but fat embolism usually occurs within ____ hours of injury. | Long bones 48 hours |
| Fat embolism and blood clot embolism have many identical assessment findings, except fat embolism results in ______ and blood clot embolism does not. | petechiae |
| In which stage of bone healing is callus formed? A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4 | Stage three of bone healing occurs as a result of vascular and cellular proliferation. The fracture site is surrounded by new vascular tissue known as a callus |
| n stage _____, a hematoma forms at the site of the fracture because the bone is extremely vascular. | One |
| Which group of patients is most likely to experience carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)? 1. Men over 50 2. Men under 50 3. Women over 50 4. Women under 50 | Women over 50 are much more likely than men to experience CTS. This may be due to the higher prevalence of rheumatoid arthritis in women. |
| Major concerns related to _____ injury include venous oozing and arterial bleeding. Loss of blood volume might also lead to hypovolemic shock. | Pelvic The pelvis is exceptionally vascular and close to major organs and blood vessels. |
| Which clinical sign of CRPS (complex regional pain syndrome) is a manifestation of autonomic nervous system dysfunction seen in this complication? 1 Edema 2 Paresis 3 Muscle spasm 4 Loss of function | 1 Edema |
| Athletes are likely to experience which type of fracture? 1. Fatigue 2 Fragility 3 Pathologic 4 Compression | 1. Fatigue Fatigue fractures, which are also called stress fractures, result from excessive strain and stress on a bone. |
| Fragility fractures, or ______ fractures, occur after minimal trauma to a disease-weakened bone. These are more likely seen in patients with bone cancer or osteoporosis. | pathologic |
| A ______ fracture happens when a loading force is applied to the long axis of cancellous bone. This type of fracture commonly occurs in older patients with osteoporosis. | Compression |
| Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) occurs when which nerve in the wrist is compressed? 1 Ulnar 2 Radial 3 Median 4 Anterior interosseous | 3 Median |
| What is an early manifestation of fat embolism syndrome? 1 Lethargy 2 Petechiae 3 Headache 4 Low arterial oxygen | 4 Low arterial oxygen The earliest manifestations of FES are a low arterial oxygen level (hypoxemia), dyspnea, and tachypnea (increased respirations) |
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