Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT)

The level of EMS practitioner who performs the responsibilities of an EMT with the addition of the use of advanced airway devices, monitoring of blood glucose levels, initiation of intravenous and IO infusions, and admin of a number of medications

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

A federal law passed in 1990 that protects individuals with a documented disability from being denied initial or continued employment based on their disability

Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)

The level of EMS practitioner who is likely to be the first person on the scene with emergency care training

Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)

The level of EMS practitioner who provides basic emergency medical care and transportation to patients who access the EMS system including oxygen, vitals signs monitoring, etc.

Emergency Medical Services system

Evidence-based medicine

Medical practice based on scientific evidence that certain procedures, medications, and equipment improve patient outcome.

Medical policies, procedures, and practices that are available to EMS providers either off-line or on-line.

Physician who is legally responsible for the clinical and patient care aspects of an EMS system.

The medical director’s broad responsibilities, including all clinical and administrative functions and activities necessary to exercise ultimate responsibility for the emergency care provided by individual personnel and the entire EMS system.

Off-line medical direction

Medical policies, procedures, and practices that medical direction has established in written guidelines

On-line medical direction

Direct orders from a physician to a prehospital care provider given by radio or telephone

The level of EMS practitioner who provides the highest level of prehospital care, including advanced assessments and care, formation of a field impression, and invasive and drug interventions

Emergency medical treatment given to patients before they are transported to a hospital or other facility. Also called out-of-hospital care

The policies and procedures for all components of an EMS system. Also called standing orders

Quality improvement (QI)

A system of internal and external reviews and audits of an EMS system to ensure a high quality of care. Also known as continuous quality improvement (CQI)

Preauthorized treatment procedures

A condition resulting from chronic job stress, characterized by a state of irritability and fatigue that can markedly decrease effectiveness

Any situation that causes unusually strong emotions that interfere with the ability to function

Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD)

A session usually held within 24 to 72 hours of a critical incident, where a team of peer counselors and mental health professionals help emergency service personnel work through emotions that normally follow a critical incident

A session held prior to a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) for emergency service personnel most directly involved to provide an opportunity to vent emotions and get information before the CISD

In addition to cleaning, this process involves using a disinfectant such as alcohol or bleach to kill many of the microorganisms that may be present on the surface of an object

Microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses that cause disease

Personal protective equipment (PPE)

Equipment worn to protect against injury and disease

Purified protein derivative (PPD) tuberculin test (Also known as the Mantoux test)

A test to determine the presence of a tuberculosis infection based on a person’s positive reaction to tuberculin, a substance prepared from the tubercle bacillus

A method of preventing infection by disease organisms based on the premise that all blood and body fluids are infectious. Formerly called body substance isolation

The process by which an object is subject to certain chemical or physical substances (typically, superheated steam in an autoclave) that kill all microorganisms on the surface of an object

The act of discontinuing emergency care without ensuring that another health care professional with equivalent or better training will take over. You must transfer care to a health care professional upon arrival at the ER

Instructions, written in advance, such as a do not resuscitate (DNR) order, a living will, or a durable power of attorney.

A willful threat to inflict harm on a person

The act of touching a person unlawfully without his/her consent

Permission that must be obtained before care is rendered

An intentional false communication that injures another person’s reputation or good name

Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order

A legal document, usually signed by the patient and his physician, that indicates to medical personnel which, if any, life-sustaining measures should be taken when the patient’s heart and respiratory functions have ceased

Durable power of attorney

A legal document that designates a person who is legally empowered to make health care decisions for the signer of the document if he is unable to do it himself. Also called a health care proxy

The obligation to care for a patient who requires it

Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)

A federal regulation that ensures the public’s access to emergency health care regardless of ability to pay, forbidding turning a patient away at the door or sending him to a public hospital because of inability to pay

Permission that must be obtained from every conscious, mentally competent adult before emergency treatment may be provided

The intentional and unjustifiable detention of a person without his/her consent or other legal authority

A law that provides immunity from liability for acts performed in good faith to assist at the scene of a medical emergency unless those acts constitute gross negligence

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

A federal law enacted in 1996 that protects the privacy of patient health care information and gives the patient control over how the information is distributed and used

The assumption that, in a true emergency where a patient who is unresponsive or unable to make a rational decision is at significant risk of death, disability, or deterioration of condition, that patient would agree to emergency treatment

Consent for treatment that is given by a competent patient based on full disclosure of possible risks and consequences

Consent that is assumed when the patient is either mentally incompetent or legally not permitted to make his own medical decisions

The act of injuring a person’s reputation or good name in writing or through the mass media with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements

A legal document that delineates the signer’s wishes about general health care issues such as the use of long-term life support measures

Permission obtained from a parent or legal guardian for emergency treatment of a minor or a mentally incompetent adult

The act of deviating from an accepted standard of care through carelessness, inattention, disregard, inadvertence, or oversight, which results in further injury to the patient

Physician orders for life-sustaining treatment (POLST)

Orders that identify the desired level of life-sustaining treatment in patients with a terminal or life-threatening illness who are not likely to survive

The act of deviating from an accepted standard of care through carelessness, inattention, disregard, inadvertence, or oversight, which results in further injury to the patient

The actions and care that an EMT is legally allowed to perform, as typically defined by state laws

The act of injuring a person’s reputation or good name through spoken statements with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements

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EMT StudyStack

Question	Answer
Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT)	The level of EMS practitioner who performs the responsibilities of an EMT with the addition of the use of advanced airway devices, monitoring of blood glucose levels, initiation of intravenous and IO infusions, and admin of a number of medications
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)	A federal law passed in 1990 that protects individuals with a documented disability from being denied initial or continued employment based on their disability
Emergency Medical Responder (EMR)	The level of EMS practitioner who is likely to be the first person on the scene with emergency care training
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT)	The level of EMS practitioner who provides basic emergency medical care and transportation to patients who access the EMS system including oxygen, vitals signs monitoring, etc.
EMS system	Emergency Medical Services system
Evidence-based medicine	Medical practice based on scientific evidence that certain procedures, medications, and equipment improve patient outcome.
Medical direction	Medical policies, procedures, and practices that are available to EMS providers either off-line or on-line.
Medical director	Physician who is legally responsible for the clinical and patient care aspects of an EMS system.
Medical oversight	The medical director’s broad responsibilities, including all clinical and administrative functions and activities necessary to exercise ultimate responsibility for the emergency care provided by individual personnel and the entire EMS system.
Off-line medical direction	Medical policies, procedures, and practices that medical direction has established in written guidelines
On-line medical direction	Direct orders from a physician to a prehospital care provider given by radio or telephone
Paramedic	The level of EMS practitioner who provides the highest level of prehospital care, including advanced assessments and care, formation of a field impression, and invasive and drug interventions
Prehospital care	Emergency medical treatment given to patients before they are transported to a hospital or other facility. Also called out-of-hospital care
Protocols	The policies and procedures for all components of an EMS system. Also called standing orders
Quality improvement (QI)	A system of internal and external reviews and audits of an EMS system to ensure a high quality of care. Also known as continuous quality improvement (CQI)
Standing orders	Preauthorized treatment procedures
Burnout	A condition resulting from chronic job stress, characterized by a state of irritability and fatigue that can markedly decrease effectiveness
Critical incident	Any situation that causes unusually strong emotions that interfere with the ability to function
Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD)	A session usually held within 24 to 72 hours of a critical incident, where a team of peer counselors and mental health professionals help emergency service personnel work through emotions that normally follow a critical incident
Defusing	A session held prior to a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) for emergency service personnel most directly involved to provide an opportunity to vent emotions and get information before the CISD
Disinfecting	In addition to cleaning, this process involves using a disinfectant such as alcohol or bleach to kill many of the microorganisms that may be present on the surface of an object
Pathogens	Microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses that cause disease
Personal protective equipment (PPE)	Equipment worn to protect against injury and disease
Purified protein derivative (PPD) tuberculin test (Also known as the Mantoux test)	A test to determine the presence of a tuberculosis infection based on a person’s positive reaction to tuberculin, a substance prepared from the tubercle bacillus
Standard Precautions	A method of preventing infection by disease organisms based on the premise that all blood and body fluids are infectious. Formerly called body substance isolation
Sterilization	The process by which an object is subject to certain chemical or physical substances (typically, superheated steam in an autoclave) that kill all microorganisms on the surface of an object
Abandonment	The act of discontinuing emergency care without ensuring that another health care professional with equivalent or better training will take over. You must transfer care to a health care professional upon arrival at the ER
Advance directive	Instructions, written in advance, such as a do not resuscitate (DNR) order, a living will, or a durable power of attorney.
Assault	A willful threat to inflict harm on a person
Battery	The act of touching a person unlawfully without his/her consent
Consent	Permission that must be obtained before care is rendered
Defamation	An intentional false communication that injures another person’s reputation or good name
Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order	A legal document, usually signed by the patient and his physician, that indicates to medical personnel which, if any, life-sustaining measures should be taken when the patient’s heart and respiratory functions have ceased
Durable power of attorney	A legal document that designates a person who is legally empowered to make health care decisions for the signer of the document if he is unable to do it himself. Also called a health care proxy
Duty to act	The obligation to care for a patient who requires it
Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)	A federal regulation that ensures the public’s access to emergency health care regardless of ability to pay, forbidding turning a patient away at the door or sending him to a public hospital because of inability to pay
Expressed consent	Permission that must be obtained from every conscious, mentally competent adult before emergency treatment may be provided
False imprisonment	The intentional and unjustifiable detention of a person without his/her consent or other legal authority
Good Samaritan law	A law that provides immunity from liability for acts performed in good faith to assist at the scene of a medical emergency unless those acts constitute gross negligence
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)	A federal law enacted in 1996 that protects the privacy of patient health care information and gives the patient control over how the information is distributed and used
Implied consent	The assumption that, in a true emergency where a patient who is unresponsive or unable to make a rational decision is at significant risk of death, disability, or deterioration of condition, that patient would agree to emergency treatment
Informed consent	Consent for treatment that is given by a competent patient based on full disclosure of possible risks and consequences
Involuntary consent	Consent that is assumed when the patient is either mentally incompetent or legally not permitted to make his own medical decisions
Libel	The act of injuring a person’s reputation or good name in writing or through the mass media with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements
Living will	A legal document that delineates the signer’s wishes about general health care issues such as the use of long-term life support measures
Minor consent	Permission obtained from a parent or legal guardian for emergency treatment of a minor or a mentally incompetent adult
Negligence	The act of deviating from an accepted standard of care through carelessness, inattention, disregard, inadvertence, or oversight, which results in further injury to the patient
Physician orders for life-sustaining treatment (POLST)	Orders that identify the desired level of life-sustaining treatment in patients with a terminal or life-threatening illness who are not likely to survive
Proximate cause	The act of deviating from an accepted standard of care through carelessness, inattention, disregard, inadvertence, or oversight, which results in further injury to the patient
Scope of practice	The actions and care that an EMT is legally allowed to perform, as typically defined by state laws
Slander	The act of injuring a person’s reputation or good name through spoken statements with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements
Standard of care	Emergency care that would be expected to be given to a patient by any trained EMT under similar circumstances
Tort	A wrongful act, injury, or damage. See also intentional tort
Anatomy	The study of the structure of the body and the relationship of its parts to each other
Circulatory system	System composed of the heart and blood vessels that brings oxygen and nutrients to and takes wastes away from body cells. Also called the cardiovascular system
Digestive system	The structures and organs that ingest and carry food so that absorption and waste elimination can occur
Endocrine system	A system of ductless glands that produce hormones that regulate body functions
Integumentary system	The skin - The largest organ in the body
Musculoskeletal system	The system of bones and muscle plus connective tissue that provides support and protection to the body and permits motion
Nervous system	The body system including the brain, spinal cord, and nerves that controls the voluntary and involuntary activity of the human body
Physiology	The study of the function of the living body and its parts
Reproductive system	The male or female organs that function to accomplish human reproduction, the creation of offspring.
Respiratory system	The organs involved in the exchange of gases between an organism and the atmosphere
Urinary system	The organs and structures responsible for filtering and excreting wastes from the blood. Also called the renal system
Ventral	Belly side of the body
Proximal	Closer to the point of attachment
Deep	Farther from the skin surface
Distal	Further from the point of attachment
Anterior	Front of the human body
Dorsal	Spinal side of the human body (think Dorsal Fin)
Posterior	Back of the human body
Palmar	Front surface of the hand
Superficial	Closer to/on the skin
Plantar	Bottom surface of the foot
Inferior	Closer to the feet
Apex (apical)	Tip of a structure
Lateral	Further from the body's midline
Medial	Closer to the body's midline
What are the four levels of EMS certification available from NREMT?	Emergency Medical Responder (EMR), Emergency Medical Technician (EMT), Advanced EMT (AEMT), and Paramedic
What are the three EMS Delivery Models?	Fire Based, Third-Service (Private), and Hospital Based
When someone calls 911, their call is transferred to a dispatch center, also known as a:	Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP)
What are the two different types of Medical Direction?	On-Line and Off-Line
What is an example of On-Line Medical Direction?	Directly talking to an Emergency Physician via a phone or a radio
What is an example of Off-Line Medical Direction?	Standing orders or medical protocols that have already been approved by the medical director
What is always your primary concern on any EMS or Fire call?	Your personal safety
What is Rule 1?	DO NO HARM!
What are Ethics?	Ethics refers to rules provided by an external source (codes of conduct, religion, etc..)
What are Morals?	Morals refers to an individual's own principles regarding right and wrong
What organization defines the EMS Scope of Practice?	National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
What are the different types of consent?	Expressed, Informed, Implied, Involuntary, and Emancipated Minor
Does a patient have the right to refuse care even if it will result in death?	Yes, as long as the patient is mentally competent
What is negligence?	It is an act or omission (failure to act) by a medical professional that deviates from the accepted medical standard of care
What are the four elements to determine negligence?	Duty to Act, Breach of Duty, Damages and Causation
Define the Anatomical Position:	The patient is standing upright, directly facing you, with their feet flat on the ground and directed forward. The upper limbs are at the sides of the body with the palms facing forward.
What is the Frontal (Coronal) Plane?	It is an anatomical plane that divides the human body in a front and back portions.
What is the Transverse Plane?	It is an anatomical plane that divides the human body in a top and bottom portions.
What is the Sagittal Plane?	It is an anatomical plane that divides the human body in left and right portions.
What does "Anterior" mean?	It is a directional term that means the front of the body - it is also known as Ventral
What does "Posterior" mean?	It is a directional term that means the back of the body - it is also known as Dorsal
What does "Superior" mean?	It is a directional term that means towards the patient's head
What does "Inferior" mean?	It is a directional term that means toward the patient's feet
What does "Abduction" mean?	It refers to motion away from the midline of the body
What does "Adduction" mean?	It refers to motion towards the midline of the body
What does "Extension" mean?	It refers to the straightening of a joint
What does "Flexion" mean?	It refers to the bending of a joint
The abdomen is broken down into how many quadrants?	Four, Left Upper, Left Lower, Right Upper and Right Lower
A patient lying face down is said to be in the:	Prone Position
A patient lying face up is said to be in the:	Supine Position
A patient sitting in a 45-60 degree with their knees bent is said to be in the:	Fowler's Position
A patient lying on their left side is said to be in the:	Recovery Position (Also known as the left lateral recumbent position)
What does the root word "Cardi" mean?	Heart
What does the root word "Hepat" mean?	Liver
What does the root word "Nephr" mean?	Kidney
What does the root word "Neur" mean?	Nerve
What does the root word "Psych" mean?	Mental status/behavior
What does the root word "Thorac" mean?	Chest
What does the root word "Pulmon" mean?	Lungs
What does the root word "Cerebr" mean?	Brain
What does the root word "Cephal" mean?	Head
What does the prefix "a" mean?	Without
What does the prefix "ab" mean?	Away from
What does the prefix "ad" mean?	To, toward
What does the prefix "Brady" mean?	Slow
What does the prefix "Dys" mean?	Difficult, painful, abnormal
What does the prefix "Hyper" mean?	Over, excessive, high
What does the prefix "Hypo" mean?	Under, below normal
What does the prefix "Para" mean?	Near, beside, beyond, apart from
What does the prefix "Tachy" mean?	Fast
What does the suffix "Al" mean?	Pertaining to
What does the suffix "Algia" mean?	Pertaining to pain
What does the suffix "Ectomy" mean?	Surgical removal
What does the suffix "Itis" mean?	Inflammation
What does the suffix "Logy" mean?	Study of
What does the suffix "Logist" mean?	Specialist
What does the suffix "Megaly" mean?	Enlargement
What does the suffix "Oma" mean?	Tumor (usually referring to cancer)
What does the suffix "Pathy" mean?	Disease
What is associated with the axial skeletal system?	The skull/facial bones, the vertebral column (spine), and the thoracic cage (rib cage)
What is associated with the appendicular skeletal system?	The arms (and hands), legs (and feet), connection points for the arms and legs, and the pelvis
The skull is made up of what four bones?	The Occiput, Temple, Parietal and Frontal bones
What is the name of the hole at the base of the skull in which the spinal cord emerges from?	The foramen magnum
What is the name of the bone found in the upper jaw?	Maxilla
What is the name of the bone found in the lower jaw?	Mandible
How many bones (vertebrae) make up the spinal column?	33
How many vertebrae are in the cervical spine?	7
How many vertebrae are in the thoracic spine?	12
How many vertebrae are in the lumbar spine?	5
How many vertebrae are in the sacral spine?	5
How many vertebrae are in the coccygeal spine?	4
The bone found in the midline anterior chest to which the ribs attach to is called the?	Sternum
What are the three parts of the sternum?	The manubrium (superior part), body (middle & biggest part), and the xiphoid process (most inferior part of the sternum)
What are the two types of basic joints in the body?	Hinge and Ball & Socket
What three bones make up the shoulder girdle?	The clavicle, scapula, and the humerus
What is another common name for the clavicle?	Collarbone
The bone found in each upper arm is the?	Humerus
The two bones found in each lower arm are the?	Radius and Ulna
The medical term for your fingers is?	Phalanges
The long bone found in each upper leg is called the?	Femur
The knee cap is also known as the?	Patella
The two bones found in each lower leg are the?	Tibia and Fibula
What are the three types of muscle found in our body?	Skeletal, Smooth and Cardiac
Ligaments attach?	Bone to Bone
Tendons attach?	Muscle to Bone
The respiratory system is divided into two systems, the _________________ and __________________ airway.	Upper, Lower
The upper airway starts at the _______________________ and _______________________ and ends at the _________________________.	Mouth and nose, Larynx (includes the larynx)
The lower airway starts at the _______________________ and ends at the ___________________.	Larynx, Alveoli
The trachea splits into the left and right main bronchi at the ___________________.	Carina
The left lung has _________ lobes and the right light has _________ lobes.	2, 3 (but they are the same size)
Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs?	In the alveoli
What is the primary muscle of breathing?	The diaphragm
When you inhale, your diaphragm _____________________ downward.	Contracts
When you exhale, your diaphragm _____________________ and decreases the size of the chest cavity.	Relaxes
The mechanical process of moving gas in and out of your body is termed?	Ventilation
The exchange of gasses inside of your body is termed?	Respiration
What are the two circuits of the cardiovascular system?	The systemic and the pulmonary circuits
Arteries always move blood ___________ from the heart.	Away
Veins always move blood ___________ the heart.	Toward
Most of the time, arteries carry blood that is oxygen ___________________.	Enriched
Most of the time, veins carry blood that is oxygen _____________________.	Deficient
What is the only artery that carries oxygen deficient blood?	The pulmonary artery
What is the only vein that carries oxygen enriched blood?	The pulmonary veins
The heart is made up of how many chambers?	4
The two top chambers of the heart are known as the?	Atriums
The two lower chambers of the heart are known as the?	Ventricles
The hearts ability to initiate an electrical impulse on its own is known as?	Automaticity
What is considered the normal pacemaker of the heart?	The Sinoatrial (SA) node
What is the normal firing rate of the SA node?	60-100 beats per minute
What is the normal firing rate of the AV node?	40-60 beats per minute
What is the normal firing rate of the Purkinje System?	20-40 beats per minute
The amount of blood the ventricles pump out with each contraction is known as the?	Stroke Volume
What is the equation for Cardiac Output?	Stroke Volume X Heart Rate
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is known as the?	Pulse pressure
The pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction is known as the _____________________ pressure.	Systolic
The pressure within the arteries during ventricular relaxation is known as the _____________________ pressure.	Diastolic
The diaphragm of the stethoscope is used to auscultate ____________ frequency sounds.	High
The bell of the stethoscope is used to auscultate ______________ frequency sounds.	Low
The eartips on a stethoscope should always be pointed?	Forward
The five distinct sounds that you listen for while obtaining a patient's blood pressure are called the ____________________ sounds.	Korotkoff
What are the five Korotkoff sounds?	1st: Snapping, 2nd: Swooshing, 3rd: Tapping, 4th: Thumping (muting), 5th: Silence
A heart rate about 100 beats per minute in an adult is termed?	Tachycardia
A heart rate less than 60 beats per minutes in an adult is termed?	Bradycardia
Norman capillary refill time is less than __________ seconds.	2
The medical term for "open" or "to make larger" is:	Dilated
The medical term for "smaller" is:	Constricted
Normal pupil size in bright light is:	2-4 mm
Normal pupil size in low light is:	4-8 mm
The acronym that we is to assess a patient's level of consciousness is?	AVPU (A=Alert, V=Verbal, P=Painful, U=Unresponsive)
High blood pressure is also known as?	Hypertension
Low blood pressure is also known as?	Hypotension
At what systolic pressure is the patient considered to have hypertension?	Above 160 mmHg
At what diastolic pressure is the patient considered to have hypertension?	Above 94 mmHg
At what systolic pressure is an adult patient considered to be hypotensive?	Less than 90 mmHg
What are the normal heart sounds?	S1 and S2
What produces the S1 heart sound?	The closing of the tricuspid and mitral heart valves
What produces the S2 heart sound?	The closing of the aortic and pulmonic heart valves
What heart sounds are considered abnormal?	S3 and S4
What part of the blood carries oxygen?	The Red Blood Cell (RBC) - also known as an erythrocyte - In a RBC, the hemoglobin is the actual molecule that carries oxygen
How many molecules of oxygen can one molecule of hemoglobin carry?	Four
What part of the blood fights infection?	White Blood Cells (WBC's) - also known as leukocytes
What part of the blood forms blood clots?	The Platelets - also known as thrombocytes
What are the two major divisions of the nervous system?	The Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems
What makes up the central nervous system (CNS)?	The brain and the spinal cord
What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?	The Somatic and Autonomic branches
The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the?	Fight of flight (things speed up)
The parasympathetic nervous system is also known as the?	Feed or breed (things slow down)
What are the three layers of the skin?	Epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous
The abdomen is divided into how many quadrants?	Four
The space behind the abdomen is called the?	Retroperitoneal cavity (this is where the kidneys are)
Endocrine glands control much of what happens in the body via what substance?	Hormones
Body mechanics	Application of the study of muscles and body movement (kinesiology) to the use of the body and to the prevention and correction of problems related to posture and lifting.
Emergency move	A patient move that should be performed when there is immediate danger to the patient or to the rescuer.
Kyphosis	Abnormal curvature of the spine with convexity backward. Also called slouch.
Lordosis	Abnormal anterior convexity of the spine. Also called swayback.
Nonurgent move	A patient move made when no immediate threat to life exists.
Power grip	Recommended gripping technique. The palm and fingers come in complete contact with the object and all fingers are bent at the same angle.
Power lift	Recommended technique for lifting. Feet are apart, knees bent, back and abdominal muscles tightened, back as straight as possible, lifting force driven through heels and arches, upper body rising before hips.
Urgent move	A patient move made because there is an immediate threat to life because of the patient’s condition and the patient must be moved quickly for transport.
What governing body usually issues a license to practice?	The state in which you function in. For example, NREMT will issue you a "certification" but the State of Texas will issue you a license.
In order to receive renewal of your EMS certification or license, what must you complete?	Most governing bodies require you to have so many hours of continuing education and you have demonstrated proficiency on your psychomotor skill set
Base station	The central dispatch and coordination area of an EMS communications system that ideally is in contact with all other elements of the system
Closed-ended question	A question that requires only a “yes” or “no” answer
Communication	A dynamic process that incorporates verbal and nonverbal expressions into meaningful messages that are received and interpreted by others
Decoder	Device that recognizes and responds to only certain codes imposed on radio broadcasts
Decoding	Process by which a received message is translated and interpreted
Defense mechanisms	Psychological coping strategies individuals use to protect themselves from unwanted feelings or thoughts
Encoder	Device that breaks down sound waves into unique digital codes for radio transmission
Encoding	Process of converting information into a message
Feedback	Any information that an individual receives about his behavior
Gestures	Nonverbal body movements that convey meaning to others
Intimate zone	An American culture, the space within less than 1 1/2 feet of an individual
Leading questions	Questions that suggest an answer guided by the individual who is asking the question
Mobile data terminal	Device that is mounted in the cab of an ambulance, receives a signal from a digital radio, and displays the information on the terminal screen. Some mobile data terminals will also print a hard copy of the information
Open-ended questions	Questions that allow the patient to give a detailed response in his own words
Repeaters	Devices that receive transmissions from a relatively low- powered source such as a mobile or portable radio and rebroadcast them at another frequency and a higher power
What is a simplex radio system?	A radio system where only one person can talk at a time and you have to push a button to talk
What is a duplex radio system?	A radio system where two people can talk simultaneously (like your home phone)
What is a multiplex radio system?	A radio system that allows two people to talk and you can send data at the same time
If you receive a medical order during a radio consult with a hospital and you cannot hear or didn't understand the order, what do you do?	Have the physician repeat the radio order and then repeat it back to them for clarification
All radio operations in the US are regulated by the:	FCC (Federal Communication Commission)
What radio frequency is better for long distance transmission over land?	VHF (Very High Frequency)
What radio frequency is better for use in the city where there is a lot of concrete and tall buildings?	UHF (Ultra High Frequency)
According to HIPPA, what parts of your medical documentation should only be shared with those in direct care/patient transfer?	Any and all of the information - it is a violation to disclose any patient information to someone not involved in the care of the patient
The trachea divides into the right and left mainstem bronchi at the ___________.	Carina
Normal tidal volume for an adult is?	500mL (5-7mL/kg)
Approximately how much air is filtered, warmed and humidified by the adult respiratory system each day?	10,000 liters
Where in your nose is the most common spot for an epistaxis?	The Kiesselbach's plexus (a.k.a. The Little's Area)
What are Cilia?	Cilia are fine, fingerlike projections that have the ability to contract in a single direction.
The trachea is approximately ____ cm in length and is composed of a series of C-shaped cartilaginous rings.	11
Approximately how many alveoli are contained in the adult lungs?	300 million
The alveoli are moistened and kept open because of the presence of an important chemical called __________.	Surfactant
The right lung contains ___ major divisions or lobes and the left lung has ___.	The right lung has 3 and the left has 2
What are the three important processes that allow gas exchange to occur?	Ventilation, Diffusion and Perfusion
What is Ventilation?	Ventilation is the mechanical process of moving air in and out of the lungs.
What is the Diaphragm?	The Diaphragm is a big dome-shaped muscle that separates the thorax and the abdomen. Nerve impulses from the phrenic nerve stimulates the diaphragm to contract.
How do we breathe?	During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts & flattens, the intercostal muscles contract producing an expansion in the chest cavity. These 2 actions cause an expansion in the chest volume, which produces a decrease of 1-2 mmHg below atmospheric pressure
What is the Total Lung Capacity of the adult?	Approx. 6,000 mL. (6 liters)
The respiratory membrane, which normally measures ___ to ___ in thickness, must remain intact for gas exchange to occur.	0.5 - 1.0 micrometer
What is the most important determinant of the ventilatory rate?	Arterial PCO2
What are Kussmaul's Respirations?	Kussmaul's Respirations are deep, rapid breaths that result as a corrective measure against conditions such as diabetic ketoacidosis that produce metabolic acidosis
What are Cheyne-Stokes Respirations?	These respirations have a pattern with progressively increasing tidal volume, followed by a declining volume, separated by periods of apnea at the end of expiration. This pattern is typically seen in older patients with terminal illness or brain injury
What is Central Neurogenic Hyperventilation?	Central neurogenic hyperventilation also produces deep, rapid respirations that are caused by strokes or injury to the brainstem. In this case, there is loss of normal regulation of ventilatory controls and respiratory alkalosis is often seen
What are Ataxic (Biot's) Respirations?	Ataxic (Biot's) Respirations are characterized by repeated episodes of gasping ventilations separated by periods of apnea. This pattern is seen in patients with an increase in ICP
What are Apneustic Respiration?	Apneustic Respirations are characterized by long, deep breaths that are stopped during the inspiratory phase and separated by periods of apnea. This pattern is usually a result of a stroke or severe CNS disease
What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)?	It is a sudden episode of difficult breathing that occurs after lying down; most commonly caused by left-heart failure
What is orthopnea?	Difficulty breathing while lying supine
What is hemoptysis?	Coughing up of blood
What is tachypnea?	Tachypnea describes a respiratory pattern with a rate that exceeds 20 breaths per minute
What is bradypnea?	Bradypnea describes a respiratory pattern with a rate slower than 12 breaths per minute
Excess oxygen can result in the formation of toxic chemicals called ___________.	Free radicals
What does PEEP stand for?	Positive End-Expiratory Pressure
____________ risk factors are those that are influenced by or are from within the patient.	Intrinsic
The ____________ airway extends from below the larynx to the alveoli.	Lower
The ____________ airway extends from the mouth and nose to the larynx.	Upper
_______________ is the exchange of gases between the alveoli and the red blood cells.	Pulmonary or external respiration
_______________ is the exchange of gases between the red blood cells and the various body tissues.	Cellular or internal respiration
Normal inspired air contains what percentage of oxygen?	21%
What is the normal dead space volume for an average adult?	150 mL
How can you calculate how long your oxygen will last using a "D" cylinder?	D Cylinder = psi x 0.16 / lpm
How can you calculate how long your oxygen will last using a "E" cylinder?	E Cylinder = psi x 0.28 / lpm
How can you calculate how long your oxygen will last using a "M" cylinder?	M Cylinder = psi x 1.56 / lpm
The average volume of gas inhaled or exhaled in one respiratory cycle is the:	Tidal volume
The ______________ is the most superior part of the airway.	Nasal cavity
The ______________ is the only bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone.	Hyoid
The _______________ is the amount of gas in the tidal volume that remains in the air passageways unavailable for gas exchange.	Dead-space volume
The _______________ comprise(s) the key functional unit of the respiratory system.	Alveoli
What drug is an antagonist for an opiate overdose?	Narcan
You arrive on scene with a patient in moderate to severe respiratory distress and you notice the patient is breathing with pursed lips. What does this finding tell you?	Pursed lip breathing is the patients attempt to auto PEEP.
What abnormal sound can usually be heard without a stethoscope and is found on the inhalation phase of the respiratory drive – it is also classified as an “extra-thoracic sound.”	Stridor
What accessory muscles can be utilized by the body in an effort to compensate for a severe respiratory problem?	Scalene and Sternocleidomastoid muscles (SCM’s)
Where on a hemoglobin molecule does oxygen bind to?	On one of the four heme sites.
_____________ is the mechanical process of moving air in and out of the lungs.	Ventilation
What are the three important processes that allow gas exchange to occur?	Ventilation, Diffusion and Perfusion
What structures make up the upper airway?	Nasal cavity, pharynx and the larynx
What causes a patient to exhibit a pink like skin characteristic with emphysema?	Polycythemia (an excess of red blood cells resulting in an abnormally high hematocrit).
What is the maximum pressure setting that you would use with your CPAP device?	No more than 10 cm H20 pressure
What is phonation?	Phonation is speech – or sounds made by air passing through the vocal cords
On average, how long is the trachea in an adult patient?	11 cm
How many main divisions or lobes are found in the left and right lungs?	Left 2, Right 3
The most important determinant of the ventilation rate of a patient is the _________.	Arterial PCO2
What is the “Hypoxic Drive?”	Hypoxic drive happens in patients with COPD – they will breathe off of the level of O2 detected in the arterial blood by receptors in the aortic arch. – Measured PO2 levels between 50 and 60 mmHg are not uncommon in these patients.
How many molecules of oxygen can a single hemoglobin carry?	4
What is the dividing point between the upper and lower airway of an adult?	The larynx
What type of cell in the alveoli is responsible for the production of surfactant?	Type II cells
What is considered to be the "SA Node" of the respiratory drive?	The Pre-Botzinger Complex
Which process of ventilation is always an active process?	Inhalation (inspiration)
If a patient is said to be breathing from a hypoxic drive, what triggers them to breathe?	Low levels of O2
What are the three important processes that allow gas exchange to occur in the human body?	Ventilation, Diffusion, and Cardiac Perfusion
What color of skin might you see with a patient suffering from a severe carbon monoxide poisoning?	Cherry Red
A PE that blocks both the left and right main pulmonary artery is called a:	Saddle Clot
What is the goal in the management of a patient that is severely hyperventilating?	The goal is to increase the PCO2 in the body - The best way to accomplish this is to "coach" the patient to slow down their respiratory drive
What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)?	It is a sudden episode of difficult breathing that occurs after lying down; most commonly caused by left-heart failure.
What is tachypnea?	Tachypnea describes a respiratory pattern with a rate that exceeds 20 breaths per minute.
What is bradypnea?	Bradypnea describes a respiratory pattern with a rate slower than 12 breaths per minute.
_________________ risk factors are those that are influenced by or are from within the patient.	Intrinsic
Adam’s apple	Thyroid cartilage
Agonal respirations	Gasping-type respirations that have no pattern and occur very infrequently
Alveolar ventilation	The amount of inspired air that reaches the alveoli of the lungs
Alveoli	The air sacs of the lungs
Automatic Transport Ventilator (ATV)	A positive pressure ventilation device that delivers ventilations automatically
Bag-Valve-Mask (BVM) device	A positive pressure ventilation device that consists of a bag with a nonrebreather valve and a mask. The bag-valve device is connected to the mask or other airway. The bag is squeezed to deliver a ventilation to the patient
Bilaterally	On both sides
Bradypnea	A breathing rate that is slower than the normal rate
Bronchi	The two main branches leading from the trachea to the lungs
Bronchioles	Small branches of the bronchi
Carina	The point at which the trachea splits into the right and left mainstem bronchi
Chemoreceptors	Receptors that constantly monitor the arterial content of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and the blood pH and stimulate a change in respiratory rate and depth. See also central chemoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP)	A form of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation. The CPAP device delivers a continuous flow of air under pressure
Cricoid cartilage	The most inferior portion of the larynx and only full cartilaginous ring of the upper airway. It is felt immediately below the thyroid cartilage
Crossed-fingers technique	A technique in which the thumb and index finger are crossed with the thumb on the lower incisors and the index finger on the upper incisors. The fingers are moved in a snapping or scissor motion to open the mouth
Crowing	A sound similar to that of a cawing crow that indicates that the muscles around the larynx are in spasm and beginning to narrow the opening into the trachea
Cyanosis	A blue-gray color of the mucous membranes and/or skin, which indicates inadequate oxygenation or poor perfusion
Dead air space (VD)	Anatomical areas in the respiratory tract (outside the alveoli) where air collects during inhalation but no gas exchange occurs
Deoxygenated	Containing low amounts of oxygen, as with venous blood
Diaphragm	The major muscle of respiration that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity
Epiglottis	A small, leaf-shaped flap of cartilaginous tissue, located immediately posterior to the root of the tongue, that covers the opening of the larynx to keep food and liquid from entering the trachea and lungs
Esophagus	Passageway at the lower end of the pharynx that leads to the stomach
Exhalation	The passive process of breathing air out of the lungs (aka expiration)
External respiration (pulmonary respiration)	The gas exchange process that occurs between the alveoli and the pulmonary capillaries
Flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device (FROPVD)	A device that consists of a ventilation valve and trigger or button and is driven directly by oxygen. It is used to provide positive pressure ventilation
French catheter	Flexible tubing that is part of a suctioning system
Gastric distention	Inflation of the stomach
Gurgling	A gargling sound that indicates a fluid is in the mouth or pharynx
Hard catheter	A rigid plastic tube that is part of a suctioning system, commonly referred to as a tonsil tip or tonsil sucker (yankauer)
Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver	A manual technique used to open the airway. The head is tilted back by one hand. The tips of the fingers of the other hand are placed under the chin and used to lift the mandible up and forward
Hemoglobin	A protein molecule found on the surface of the red blood cell that is responsible for carrying a majority of oxygen in the blood
High-pressure regulator	A one-gauge regulator that is used to power the flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device. The flow rate cannot be adjusted
Hypoperfusion	The insufficient delivery of oxygen and other nutrients to some of the body’s cells and inadequate elimination of carbon dioxide and other wastes that results from inadequate circulation of blood
Hypoxemia	A low oxygen content in arterial blood
Hypoxia	A reduced oxygen delivery to the tissues
Inhalation	The active process of breathing air into the lungs
Intercostal muscles	The muscles between the ribs
Internal respiration (cellular respiration)	The gas exchange process that occurs between the cells and the capillaries
Jaw-thrust maneuver	A manual technique used to open the airway in the patient with a suspected spinal injury. The fingers are placed at the angles of the jaw and used to lift the mandible up and forward
Laryngectomy	A surgical procedure in which a patient’s larynx is partially or completely removed. A stoma is created for the patient to breathe through
Larynx	Structure that houses the vocal cords and is located inferior to the pharynx and superior to the trachea
Lower airway	The portion of the respiratory system that extends from the trachea to the alveoli of the lungs
Minute volume or minute ventilation	The amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in one minute
Mucous membrane	A thin layer of tissue that lines various structures within the body
Nasal cannula	An oxygen delivery device that consists of two prongs that are inserted into the nose of the patient. The oxygen concentration delivered is from 24–44%
Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)	A curved, hollow rubber tube with a flange or flare at the top end and a bevel at the distal end that is inserted into the nose. It fits in the nasopharynx and extends into the pharynx providing a passage for air
Nasopharynx	The portion of the pharynx that extends from the nostrils to the soft palate
Nonrebreather mask	An oxygen delivery device that consists of a reservoir and one-way valve. It can deliver up to 95% to 98% oxygen to the patient
Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)	A semicircular hard plastic device that is inserted in the mouth and holds the tongue away from the back of the pharynx
Oropharynx	The central portion of the pharynx lying between the soft palate and the epiglottis with the mouth as the opening
Oxygen humidifier	A container that is filled with sterile water and connected to the oxygen regulator to add moisture to the dry oxygen prior to being delivered to the patient
Oxygenated	Containing high amounts of oxygen, as with arterial blood
Oxygenation	The form of respiration in which oxygen molecules move across a membrane from an area of high oxygen concentration to an area of low oxygen concentration, as when oxygen moves out of a blood vessel into a cell
Parietal pleura	The outermost pleural layer that adheres to the chest wall
Patent airway	An airway that is open and clear of any obstructions
Pharynx	The throat, or passageway for air from the nasal cavity to the larynx and passageway for food from the mouth to the esophagus
Pleura	Two layers of connective tissue that surround the lungs
Pleural space	A small space between the visceral and parietal pleura that is at negative pressure and filled with serous fluid
Positive pressure ventilation (PPV)	Method of aiding a patient whose breathing is inadequate by forcing air into his lungs
Pressure regulator	A device that reduces the high pressure in an oxygen cylinder to a safe range, from 30 to 70 psi, and controls the flow of oxygen from 1 to 15 lpm
Residual volume	The air remaining in the lungs after a maximal exhalation
Respiration	The exchange of gases between an organism and its environment
Respiratory arrest	Complete stoppage of breathing (apnea)
Respiratory distress	Increased respiratory effort resulting from impaired respiratory function, while tidal volume and respiratory rate are still adequate
Respiratory failure	Insufficient respiratory rate and/or tidal volume
Respiratory (ventilation) rate	The number of breaths taken in one minute
Retractions	Depressions seen in the neck, above the clavicles, between the ribs, or below the rib cage from excessive muscle use during breathing. It is an indication of respiratory distress
Serous fluid	Fluid that acts as a lubricant to reduce the friction between the parietal and visceral pleura
Snoring	A sound that is heard when the base of the tongue or relaxed tissues in the pharynx partially block the upper airway
Stoma	A permanent surgical opening into the neck and trachea
Stridor	A harsh, high-pitched sound heard on inspiration that indicates swelling of the larynx or obstruction of the upper airway
Tachypnea	A breathing rate that is faster than the normal rate
Therapy regulator	A device that controls the flow and pressure of oxygen from the tank to allow for a consistent delivery of oxygen by liters per minute
Thyroid cartilage	The bulky cartilage that forms the anterior portion of the larynx
Tidal volume	The amount of air breathed in and out in one normal ventilation
Trachea	The tubelike structure that leads from the larynx to the lungs
Tracheostomy	A surgical opening in the trachea
Tracheostomy tube	A hollow tube that is inserted into a tracheostomy to allow the patient to breathe
Upper airway	The portion of the respiratory system that extends from the nose and mouth to the larynx
Ventilation	The mechanical process by which air is moved in and out of the lungs, primarily caused by changes in pressure inside the chest
Visceral pleura	Innermost layer of the pleura that covers the lung
Auscultation	Listening for sounds within the body with a stethoscope
Baseline vital signs	The first set of vital sign measurements to which subsequent measurements can be compared
blood pressure	The force exerted by the blood on the interior walls of the blood vessels
Bradycardia	A heart rate less than 60 beats per minute
Capillary refill	The amount of time it takes for capillaries that have been compressed to refill with blood (normal is within 2 seconds) This test should be an "Up-Hill" test!
Clammy	A moist, or a cool and moist, condition
Closed-ended question	A question that requires the patient to answer with a “yes” or “no” answer
Conjunctiva	The thin covering of the inner eyelids and exposed portion of the sclera of the eye
Constricted	Narrowed, made small
Cyanosis	A blue-gray color of the mucous membranes and/or skin, which indicates inadequate oxygenation or poor perfusion
Diastolic blood pressure	The pressure exerted against the walls of the arteries when the left ventricle is at rest. See also systolic blood pressure
Dilated	Expanded, made large
Flushing	Abnormally red skin color due to vasodilation
Jaundice	A condition characterized by yellowness of the skin, sclera of the eyes, mucous membranes, and body fluids. It typically indicates liver failure or disease
Mottling	A skin discoloration similar to cyanosis but occurring in a blotchy pattern
Open-ended questions	Questions that allow the patient to give a detailed response in his own words
OPQRST0-ASPN	An acronym for remembering the questions to ask when assessing the patient’s chief complaint or major symptoms, such as pain onset, provocation/palliation, quality, radiation, severity, time of the complaint, associated symptoms and pertinent negatives
Orthostatic vital signs	An increase in heart rate of 10–20 bpm and a decrease in systolic blood pressure of 10–20 mmHg when a patient moves from a supine to an upright or standing position
Pallor	Pale or abnormally white skin color
Palpation	Feeling, as for a pulse
Pulse oximetry	Measurement of blood oxygen saturation
Pulse oximeter	Electronic device used to determine the oxygen concentration in arterial blood
Pulse pressure	The difference between the systolic blood pressure and the diastolic blood pressure
Pulsus paradoxus	A decrease in pulse strength during inhalation
SAMPLE history	A format for taking a patient history. Acronym used to remember categories of information necessary to the patient history: signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness
Signs	Any objective evidence of medical or trauma conditions that can be seen, heard, felt, or smelled in a patient
Sphygmomanometer	Instrument used to measure blood pressure (also called a blood pressure cuff)
Stridor	A harsh, high-pitched sound heard on inspiration that indicates swelling of the larynx or obstruction of the upper airway
Symptoms	Conditions that must be described by the patient because they cannot be observed by another person
Systolic blood pressure	The pressure exerted against the walls of the arteries when the left ventricle contracts. See also diastolic blood pressure
Tachycardia	A heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute
Vital signs	The traditional signs of life
Index of suspicion	An anticipation that certain types of accidents and mechanisms will produce specific types of injuries
Mechanism Of Injury (MOI)	The factors and forces that cause traumatic injury
Nature of illness (NOI)	The type of medical condition or complaint a patient is suffering from
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)	Equipment worn to protect against injury and disease
Scene safety	Steps taken to ensure the safety and well-being of the EMT, his partners, patients, and bystanders
Scene size-up	An assessment of the scene for safety hazards and to determine the nature of the patient’s problem and the number of patients
Trauma	concerning injury
Apnea	Absence of breathing
Aspiration	Breathing a foreign substance into the lungs
AVPU	A mnemonic for alert, responds to verbal stimulus, responds to painful stimulus, unresponsive, to characterize levels of responsiveness
Blunt trauma	A force that impacts or is applied to the body but is not sharp enough to penetrate it, such as a blow or a crushing injury
Brain herniation	Compression and pushing of the brain through the foramen magnum
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)	A clear fluid that surrounds and cushions the brain and the spinal cord
Chief complaint	The patient complaint that is the primary reason why the EMS crew was called to the scene
Dyspnea	Shortness of breath or perceived difficulty in breathing
Extension posturing	A posture in which the patient arches the back and extends the arms straight out parallel to the body. A sign of serious head injury. Also called decerebrate posturing
Flexion posturing	A posture in which the patient arches the back and flexes the arms inward toward the chest. A sign of serious head injury. Also called decorticate posturing
In-line stabilization	Bringing the patient’s head into a neutral position in which the nose is in line with the navel and the neck is not flexed or extended and holding it there manually
Modified secondary assessment	A physical exam that is focused on a specific injury site, performed on a responsive patient with no significant mechanism of injury or critical injuries
Occluded	Closed or blocked
Orthopnea	Shortness of breath while lying flat
Paradoxical movement	A section of the chest that moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during the phases of respiration. Typically seen with a flail segment
Patent	Open
Penetrating trauma	A force that pierces the skin and body tissues, for example, a knife or gunshot wound
Primary assessment	Patient assessment conducted immediately after scene size-up to discover and treat immediately life-threatening conditions, determine whether the patient is injured or ill, and establish priorities for further assessment, care, and transport
Rapid secondary assessment	A head-to-toe physical exam that is swiftly conducted on a trauma patient who is unresponsive or who has a significant mechanism of injury, has altered mental status, responds to verbal or painful stimuli, or is unresponsive
Reassessment	The continuous assessment that is conducted following the secondary assessment to detect any changes in the patient’s condition, to identify any missed injuries or conditions, and to adjust emergency care as needed
Secondary assessment	The portion of patient assessment conducted after the primary assessment, for the purpose of identifying additional serious or potentially life-threatening injuries or conditions and as a basis for further emergency care
What patient position is best for evaluating the presence of JVD?	Fowlers (45-60 degrees)
How often should you obtain V/S on a critically injured patient?	Every 5 minutes (every 15 for a stable patient)
What are the four ways in which you can ventilate a patient (from best to worst)?	Pocket mask, 2-person BVM, FROPVD, 1-person BVM
Anaphylactic shock	A shock (hypoperfusion) state that results from dilated and leaking blood vessels related to severe allergic reaction
Cardiogenic shock	Poor perfusion resulting from an ineffective pump function of the heart, typically the left ventricle
Compensatory shock	The stage of shock in which a cascade of organ and gland stimulation and hormones occurs to increase the blood pressure, restore arterial wall tension, and maintain a near normal blood pressure and perfusion of the vital organs
Decompensatory shock	An advanced stage of shock in which the body’s compensatory mechanisms are no longer able to maintain a blood pressure and perfusion of the vital organs
Distributive shock	Shock associated with a decrease in intravascular volume caused by massive systemic vasodilation and an increase in the capillary permeability
Hemorrhagic hypovolemic shock	Shock from the loss of blood from the intravascular space
Hypovolemic shock	Shock caused by the loss of blood or fluid from the intravascular space resulting in a low blood volume
Irreversible shock	The stage of shock in which interventions are unable to prevent the advance of shock to death
Neurogenic shock	A type of distributive shock that results from massive vasodilation. Also called vasogenic shock
Nonhemorrhagic hypovolemic shock	Shock caused by loss of fluid from the intravascular space with red blood cells and hemoglobin remaining within the vessels
Obstructive shock	A poor perfusion state resulting from a condition that obstructs forward blood flow (eg, tension pneumothorax, massive PE, cardiac tamponade)
Septic shock	A type of distributive shock caused by an infection that releases bacteria or toxins into the blood
Shock/hypoperfusion	The insufficient delivery of oxygen and other nutrients to some of the body’s cells and inadequate elimination of carbon dioxide and other wastes that results from inadequate circulation of blood
What is the first phase of the cardiac cycle?	Diastole
What is the 2nd phase of the cardiac cycle?	Systole
During what time of the cardiac cycle does the heart fill with blood?	During diastole
The amount of blood that is ejected out of the ventricles during one cardiac cycle is known as the:	Stroke volume
What is the average stroke volume?	70 mL
What is the equation for cardiac output?	Stroke Volume X Heart Rate
What branch of the nervous system is known as the "Flight or Fight?"	Sympathetic
What branch of the nervous system is known as the "Feed and Breed"	Parasympathetic
What is the definition of perfusion?	Adequate supply of well-oxygenated blood and nutrients to all vital organs
What is the definition of shock?	Inadequate tissue perfusion - failure of the body's circulatory system to provide enough oxygenated blood & nutrients to all vital organs
What is considered to be the most common type of shock?	Hypovolemia
A type of shock that occurs when the heart is not pumping effectively is known as:	Cardiogenic Shock
A type of shock that occurs when the cardiovascular container gets too large is known as:	Distributive Shock
A shock that occurs due to a major widespread infection in the body is known as:	Septic Shock (this is a form of Distributive Shock)
A shock that occurs due to an allergic reaction is known as:	Anaphylactic Shock (this is a form of Distributive Shock)
A type of shock that occurs when there is an obstruction of a major blood vessel in the body is known as:	Obstructive Shock
A stage of shock in which the patient's body is using specific mechanisms to compensate for the lack of adequate perfusion (patient has a good blood pressure still) is known as:	Compensated Shock
A stage of shock in which the body is no longer able to compensate for the lack of tissue perfusion (hypotension is present) is known as:	Decompensated Shock
What type of changes would you expect to see with compensated shock?	An increase in the patient's heart rate and ventilation rate. Blood pressure should remain within normal limits
What V/S changes would you expect to see in a patient that is in decompensated shock?	Their B/P will now be below normal limits (hypotensive)
During compensated shock, what type of metabolism is the patient most likely using?	During compensated shock, the body is "compensating" for a loss of blood volume, so their cells are staring to make energy without oxygen. This is known as anaerobic metabolism.
One of the most important treatments for shock that an EMT can provide is:	Cover the patient with a blanket to keep them warm. If the patient is allowed to become even a little hypothermic, they will be unable to form an internal blood clot.
Signs and symptoms of an increase in ICP are:	An increase in the patient's blood pressure, a decrease in their pulse rate, and an irregular breathing pattern
When treating a patient that has lost a considerable amount of blood and is in decompensated shock, what would you expect to see with their blood pressure?	In decompensated shock, the patient's blood pressure should be hypotensive
When treating a patient that has loss a little bit of blood and is in compensated shock, what would you expect to see with their blood pressure?	In compensated shock, the patient's blood pressure should be normotensive
When treating a patient in shock, what would you expect to see with the patient's skin?	In most shocks, the patient's skin will be pale in color and diaphoretic. The one shock that is an exception to this rule is neurogenic shock where the skin is warm and dry
In a patient with neurogenic shock, what signs & symptoms would you expect to see?	In neurogenic shock (also known as warm shock), the patient is flushed, warm and dry. Their blood pressure should be hypotensive and their pulse rate should be bradycardic
What is considered a blood blood pressure for an infant?	A blood pressure above 70 systolic
What is considered a good blood pressure for a child?	A blood pressure that is above the following equation: 70 + (2 times the patients age in years). For example, a 4 year old should have a blood pressure above 78. If this 4 year old had a BP lower than 78, they would be considered hypotensive
What type of shock is seen in pregnant females if they are placed in the supine position?	Supine Hypotensive Syndrome - the unborn fetus is putting direct posterior pressure on Moms inferior vena cava, thus reducing the return of blood to the heart from the lower half of her body.
How would you treat a pregnant female that become hypotensive after placing her in the supine position?	You would either turn her on her left lateral side (at least 30 degrees) or have someone manually displace the patient's uterus to the left
When a patient goes into shock, what organ will the body attempt to send blood to the most?	The heart. Without the heart beating, nothing else will get perfused!
What is the first phase of the cardiac cycle?	Diastole
What is Kinetics?	Brand of physics dealing with objects in motion and the exchange of energy that occurs as objects collide
What is Newtons’s First Law?	A body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force. Also, a body at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by an outside force.
What is energy?	The ability to do work
What is Newton’s 2nd Law?	Newton’s 2nd law quantifies the forces at work during a collision. It states the force strength is related to an objects mass and the rate of its change in velocity
What is the equation for Kinetic Energy?	Kinetic Energy = Mass X Velocity (squared) all divided by 2. Or ½ Mass X Velocity (squared)
What is “index of suspicion”?	It is your estimation of possible injuries of a patient based on the mechanism of injury
What is the 1st phase of a vehicle collision?	It is the collision of the vehicle itself. The sudden deceleration of the vehicle
What is the 2nd phase of a vehicle collision?	It is the collision of the body inside of the vehicle
What is the 3rd phase of a vehicle collision?	It is the collision of the organs inside of the body
What is the 4th phase of a vehicle collision?	It is when there is a collision with other objects inside of the car with the patient (any loose objects)
What is the 5th phase of a vehicle collision?	It is the additional impacts received by the vehicle (like other cars hitting the vehicle after the initial crash)
What is the most common type of vehicle collision?	Frontal
What are the three predominant MOIs associated with a car versus pedestrian accident?	First impact = Auto strikes the body with its bumpers, 2nd impact = body strikes the hood or grill, 3rd = Body strikes ground or other object
What items make up Waddell’s Triad?	Fractured femur, intra-thoracic or intra-abdominal injuries, and a head injury
A patient is thrown from a motorcycle and slides on the pavement. What type of soft tissue injuries would you expect more?	Abrasions (also known as road rash)
What are primary blast injuries?	Injuries to the body from the pressure wave of the explosion. This damages hollow organs with your lungs taking most of the damage
What are secondary blast injuries?	Damage to the body from being struck by flying debris
What are tertiary blast injuries?	Injuries sustained when the patient his hurled in the air by the force of the explosion and receives injuries when they strike the ground or other objects
What are quaternary blast injuries?	Injuries from the hot gases (burns) from the blast, or inhalation of toxic fumes, or injuries from a building collapse from the blast
What is the “platinum ten”?	It is the amount of time we should spend on scene with a patient that has suffered a significant traumatic injury
What does the "S" in SAMPLE represent?	Signs & Symptoms
What does the "A" in SAMPLE represent?	Allergies
What does the "M" in SAMPLE represent?	Medications
What does the "P" in SAMPLE represent?	Past Medical History
What does the "L" in SAMPLE represent?	Last Oral Intake (what did they eat or drink last)
What does the "E" in SAMPLE represent?	Events Prior to Event
What does the "O" in OPQRST-ASPN represent?	Onset of Event- What was the patient doing when it started?
What does the "P" in OPQRST-ASPN represent?	Provocation & Palliation - Does anything make the symptoms worse and does anything make it better?
What does the "Q" in OPQRST-ASPN represent?	Quality - How would you describe your pain?
What does the "R" in OPQRST-ASPN represent?	Region & Radiation - Where is the pain and does the pain radiate anywhere?
What does the "S" in OPQRST-ASPN represent?	Severity - On a scale of 0-10, what would you rate your pain?
What does the "T" in OPQRST-ASPN represent?	Time (history) - how long has this being going on and how has it changed since the onset?
What does the "AS" in OPQRST-ASPN represent?	Associated Symptoms - What other symptoms commonly associated with the chief complaint can help you make a diagnosis
What does the "PN" in OPQRST-ASPN represent?	Pertinent Negatives - Are any likely associated symptoms absent?
What does the "D" in DCAP-BTLS represent?	Deformities
What does the "C" in DCAP-BTLS represent?	Contusions (bruise)
What does the "A" in DCAP-BTLS represent?	Abrasions
What does the "P" in DCAP-BTLS represent?	Punctures/Penetrations
What does the "B" in DCAP-BTLS represent?	Burns
What does the "T" in DCAP-BTLS represent?	Tenderness
What does the "L" in DCAP-BTLS represent?	Lacerations
What does the "S" in DCAP-BTLS represent?	Swelling
What is the primary assessment designed for?	To find and treat immediate life threatening conditions
What does the "A" in AVPU represent?	Alert
What does the "V" in AVPU represent?	Verbal - the patient responds to verbal stimulus
What does the "P" in AVPU represent?	Pain - the patient responds to painful stimulus
What does the "U" in AVPU represent?	Unresponsive - the patient wasn't alert, didn't respond to either verbal or painful stimulus
What is the AVPU scale designed for?	To gauge the patient's level of consciousness
What is SAMPLE used for?	To obtain a pertinent past medical history
What is OPQRST-ASPN used for?	It is used to question a patient about their pain
What is Cullen's Sign?	It is bruising over the umbilical region
What is Grey Turner's Sign?	It is bruising over either the left or right flank
What are considered normal heart sounds?	S1/S2
What is subcutaneous emphysema?	It is the presence of air trapped in the layers of the skin
How much time should the primary assessment take?	No more than 60 seconds
What should you do if you find something wrong during the primary assessment?	You find it and fix it!
What are the two different general types of hemorrhage?	External and Internal
Slow oozing of bright red blood from tissue represents what type of external hemorrhage?	Capillary
A steady flow of dark red blood represents what type of external hemorrhage?	Venous
Bright red blood that is spurting with each heart beat represents what type of external hemorrhage?	Arterial
Why is an arterial hemorrhage more life threatening than a venous hemorrhage?	Because an artery has much more pressure and the patient will lose more blood volume quickly
What type of shock will a massive loss of blood cause?	Hypovolemic
What are the two different general types of soft-tissue injuries?	Closed and Open
A minor open soft-tissue injury that is affects only the epidermis and is considered superficial is known as an?	Abrasion
A jagged cut in the skin caused by a sharp object or a blunt force that tears the tissue is known as a:	Laceration
An open soft-tissue injury that separates various layers of soft tissue so they become either completely detached or hang as a flap is known as an:	Avulsion
An open soft-tissue injury that results from a piercing object is known as a:	Puncture
An open soft-tissue injury in which part of the body is completely severed is known as an:	Amputation
A protrusion of organs from a wound is known as a(n):	Evisceration
What is the medical term for a nosebleed?	Epistaxis
A dressing that forms an airtight seal over a wound is known as a(n):	Occlusive dressing
A closed injury to the soft tissues that is characterized by swelling and discoloration caused by a mass of blood beneath the dermis is known as a:	Hematoma
An air bubble that enters the bloodstream and obstructs a blood vessel is known as an:	Air embolism
A ________________ burn involves only the top layer of the skin (epidermis).	Superficial (also known as a 1st degree burn)
A ________________ burn involves the epidermis and dermis and has blisters present.	Partial-thickness (also known as a 2nd degree burn)
A ________________ burn extends through the epidermis, dermis, and into the subcutaneous layers.	Full-thickness (also known as a 3rd degree burn)
Which burn is considered "painless?"	A full-thickness burn is painless, but it usually has a 2nd or 1st degree burn around the area also that will be painful
In regards to the Rule of Nines, how much is the head worth for an adult?	9%
In regards to the Rule of Nines, how much is each arm worth for an adult?	Each arm is 9 % (front and back total)
In regards to the Rule of Nines, how much is chest and back worth for an adult?	The entire chest and back are both worth 18% each
In regards to the Rule of Nines, how much is each leg worth for an adult?	Each leg is 18% (front and back total)
What are the two major components of the cardiovascular system?	The heart and the peripheral blood vessels
What are the three layers of the heart?	The Endocardium, Myocardium and the Pericardium
How much pericardial fluid does the heart contain in the pericardial sac on a normal healthy individual?	25-50 mL
_______________ is the volume of blood that the heart pumps in one minute.	Cardiac Output
What is the first phase of the cardiac cycle?	Diastole - this is when the heart is at rest
What is the second phase of the cardiac cycle?	Systole - this is when the heart is pumping
What is afterload?	Afterload is the resistance which the ventricle must contract against
What is Starling's Law of the Heart?	Starling's Law states the more the myocardial muscle is stretched, the greater its force of contraction will be - up till a certain point. In other words, the more blood that fills the ventricle, the more forceful the next cardiac contraction will be.
The sympathetic nervous system has two principal types of receptors, they are _____ and _____.	Alpha and Beta
________ receptors are located in the peripheral blood vessels and are responsible for vasoconstriction.	Alpha
________ receptors, primarily located in the heart, increase the heart rate and contractility.	Beta 1
________ receptors, principally located in the lungs and peripheral blood vessels, cause bronchodilation and peripheral vasodilation.	Beta 2
Parasympathetic control of the heart occurs through the ________ nerve.	Vagus nerve (Cranial Nerve 10)
The term __________ refers to heart rate. Something that has a positive affect to this term will increase the patient's heart rate.	Chronotropy
_____________refers to the strength of a cardiac muscular contraction. Something that has a positive affect to this term will strengthen the cardiac contraction.	Inotropy
What is the inherit rate of the SA Node?	60-100 beats per minute.
What is the inherit rate of the AV Node?	40-60 beats per minute.
What is the inherit rate of the Purkinje System?	15-40 beats per minute.
The right atrium and right ventricle is separated by what valve?	Tricuspid
The right ventricle and the pulmonary artery are separated by what valve?	Pulmonic
The left atrium and left ventricle are separated by what valve?	Mitral - other wise known as the bicuspid valve
The left ventricle and the aorta are separated by what valve?	Aortic
The coronary vessels receive their blood supply during what part of the cardiac cycle?	Diastole
What are anastomoses?	Communications between two or more vessels
The inner layer of a blood vessel is termed the __________.	Tunica intima
The middle layer of a blood vessel is termed the __________.	Tunica media
The outer layer of a blood vessel is termed the ___________.	Tunica adventitia
What are the three primary factors that affect the stroke volume?	Preload, Cardiac Contractility & Afterload
What are the three primary factors that affect the blood pressure?	Stroke Volume, Heart Rate & Systemic Vascular Resistance (SVR)
The ___________ is the ratio of blood pumped from the ventricle to the amount remaining at the end of diastole.	Ejection Fraction
The amount of blood ejected by the heart in one cardiac contraction is known as the __________.	Stroke Volume
____________ is the pressure within the ventricles at the end of diastole; it is commonly called the end-diastolic volume.	Preload
Snuggly enclosed within the mediastinum, the heart extends obliquely from the ____ rib to the _____ intercostal space.	2nd, 5th
The ability for pacemaker cells in the heart to self-depolarize is called __________.	Automaticity
A group of cardiac cells that physiologically function as a unit is called __________.	Syncytium
How many pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins are located in the human body?	2 Pulmonary Arteries, 4 Pulmonary Veins
When during the cardiac cycle is the heart fed blood through the coronary vessels?	During diastole
What heart valves are opened during diastole?	Tricuspid and mitral valves
What coronary vessel feeds blood to the anterior portion of the left ventricle?	Left Anterior Descending (LAD)
What coronary vessel feeds blood to the majority of the right ventricle?	Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
What heart valves are open during systole?	Aortic & Pulmonary
____________ control of the heart occurs through the vagus nerve.	Parasympathetic
The resistance against which the heart must pump against is known as _________.	Afterload
During the systolic phase, what valves inside of the heart are open?	Pulmonic & Aortic
What is the function of the Chordae Tendineae?	The chordae tendineae are cord-like tendons that connect the papillary muscles to the tricuspid and mitral valve in the heart – they prevent the valves from prolapsing back into the atriums.
Which of the heart valves are called the “semi-lunar” valves?	Pulmonic and Aortic
Blood entering the left atrium arrives via the _________.	Pulmonary Veins (There are 4 of them)
The coronary vessels are not fed blood during what part of the cardiac cycle?	Systole
What are the contraindications for the administration of Nitroglycerin?	Hypotension below 90mmHg, Bradycardia below 50 beats per minute, Drop in systolic pressure greater than 30 mmHg, Use of ED medications within the last 48hours.
What coronary vessel feeds the majority of the left ventricle muscle?	LAD
What are the 5 Korotkoff Sounds when auscultating a blood pressure?	Snapping, Swooshing, Tapping, Thumping or Muting, & Silence
What is the correct dose of nitroglycerin?	0.4 mg
How do you administer nitroglycerin?	Sublingually
What is considered the hallmark of an acute abdominal emergency?	Pain
What are the three main classifications of abdominal pain?	Visceral, Somatic & Referred
Type of abdominal pain that is dull and poorly localized?	Visceral
Type of abdominal pain that is usually sharp and the patient can pinpoint exactly where it is?	Somatic Pain
What type of abdominal pain originates in a region other than it is felt?	Referred Pain
Upper GI bleeding is defined at bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract proximal to what structure?	Ligament of Treitz
What type of hemorrhage is usually associated with someone who induces vomiting?	Mallory-Weiss Syndrome
Vomiting up blood is known as:	Hematemesis
Dark, tarry, foul-smelling stool indicating the presence of partially digested blood is called?	Melena
For Melena to be present, how much blood must drain into the GI tract and remain there for 5-8 hours?	150 mL
How much of a drop in B/P must you see to say someone is positive for orthostatic hypotension?	10 mmHg
How much of an increase in a patient's heart rate must you see to say someone is positive for orthostatic hypotension?	20 beats per minute
An _________________________ is a swollen vein of the esophagus.	Esophageal Varix
What is the most common cause of esophageal varices?	Alcoholic liver cirrhosis
Dehydration secondary to _____________________ is a common cause of death in developing nations but is seen far less frequently in the United States.	Diarrhea
Inflammation of the stomach and the intestines with associated sudden onset of vomiting and/or diarrhea is known as:	Acute Gastroenteritis
Bright red blood in the stool is known as:	Hematochezia
Inflammation of the GI mucosa marked by long-term mucosal changes or permanent mucosal damage is known as:	Chronic Gastroenteritis
An erosion that is caused by gastric acid is known as:	A peptic ulcer
Lower GI bleeding occurs in the GI tract distal to what ligament?	Ligament of Treitz
Small masses of swollen veins that occur in the anus (external) or rectum (internal) are known as:	Hemorrhoids
Inflammation of the gallbladder is known as:	Cholecystitis
What is the most common cause of Cholecystitis?	Gall stones
Inflammation of the pancreas is known as:	Pancreatitis
Small outpouchings in the mucosal lining of the intestinal tract is known as:	Diverticula
The presence of diverticula, with or without bleeding is known as:	Diverticulosis
Inflammation of intestinal diverticula is known as:	Diverticulitis
The common site of pain from an appendicitis, which is 1 to 2 inches above the anterior iliac crest in a direct line with the umbilicus is known as:	McBurney's Point
Pain caused when an inflamed gall-bladder is palpated by pressing under the right costal margin is known as:	Murphy's Sign
Inflammation and damage to the liver hepatocytes is known as:	Hepatitis
Coughing up blood from the respiratory tree is known as:	Hemoptysis
Where in your GI tract is the most common place for a bowel obstruction to occur?	In the small intestine
The small intestine is broken down into three sections - what are they?	The Duodenum, Jejunum and the Ileum
Where does 90% of the nutrient absorption occur in the GI tract?	In the small intestine
What is the main job of the large intestine?	Water reabsorption
Superficial edema and bruising around the umbilicus is known as:	Cullen's Sign
Superficial edema and bruising that occurs to either the patients left or right lateral side is known as:	Grey Turner's Sign
Pain that originates in the abdomen but is felt in the shoulder is known as:	Kehr's Sign
The nervous system is anatomically and functionally split into two divisions - What are they called?	The Central and Peripheral nervous systems
What two things make up the Central Nervous System (CNS)?	The Brain and Spinal Cord
What makes up the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?	A complex network of nerves
Based on the direction in which a nerve cell conducts action potential, neurons split the PNS into two different divisions - what are they?	Sensory (afferent) & Motor (efferent)
Which way does sensory (afferent) send impulses?	They conduct action potential toward the CNS
Which way does Motor (efferent) send impulses?	They conduct action potential away from the CNS
What is the fundamental unit of the nervous system?	The neuron
What are the two major divisions of the Efferent PNS?	Autonomic and Somatic
What are the two major divisions of the Autonomic Nervous System?	Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
Neurons never come in direct contact with one another, instead they communicate via what?	Neurotransmitters
How many bones make up the spinal column?	33
What are the protective membranes that cover the entire CNS?	The meninges
What is the outermost layer of the meninges?	The Dura Mater
What is the middle weblike layer of the meninges?	The Arachnoid Membrane
What is the innermost layer of the meninges?	The Pia Mater
The space between the Pia Mater and the Arachnoid Membrane is known as the:	Subarachnoid Space
The space between the Dura Mater and the Arachnoid Membrane is known as the:	Subdural Space
The space outside of the Dura Mater is known as the:	Epidural Space
Where is the area of speech located at in the cerebrum?	Frontal lobe (Broca's Area)
Where is the area of vision located at in the cerebrum?	Occipital
Where is the personality of speech located at in the cerebrum?	Frontal lobes
Where is the area of balance and coordination located at in the brain?	Cerebellum
Where is the area of sensory located at in the cerebrum?	Parietal lobes
Where is the area of motor located at in the cerebrum?	Frontal lobes
The brain receives about _____ % of the body's total blood flow per minute.	20
The brain consumes approximately _____% of the body's available glucose.	25
What two vascular supply systems provide blood flow to the Circle of Willis?	The carotid and vertebrobasilar systems
What part of the brain coordinates fine motor movement, posture, equilibrium and muscle tone?	The cerebellum
The spinal cord leaves the brain at the medulla and proceeds through an opening called the __________________.	Foramen Magnum
How many pairs of nerve fibers exit the spinal cord as it descends and enters the peripheral nervous system?	31
How man cranial nerves are there?	12
What is a "Structural Lesion" in the CNS?	It is a tumor
What is the maximum number of points that can be awarded using the Glasgow Coma Scale?	15
What is the minimum number of points that can be awarded using the Glasgow Coma Scale?	3
The Glasgow Coma Scale is broken down into what different parts?	Eye Opening, Best Verbal Response, and Best Motor Response
What is the maximum amount of points that can be awarded to the "Eye Opening" category of the Glasgow Coma Scale?	4
What is the maximum amount of points that can be awarded to the "Best Verbal Response" category of the Glasgow Coma Scale?	5
What is the maximum amount of points that can be awarded to the "Best Motor Response" category of the Glasgow Coma Scale?	6
What are the two types of strokes?	Ischemic (infarction) and Hemorrhage
Of the two types of strokes, which one is more common?	Ischemic (About 85% of all strokes)
What are the two types of Ischemic strokes?	Embolic and Thrombotic
What does the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen include that the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale doesn't?	Glucose monitoring
Symptoms of a TIA usually last how long?	Usually a few minutes or for several hours, but usually resolve completely within 24 hours.
A __________________ is a temporary alteration in behavior due to a massive electrical discharge of one or more groups of neurons in the brain.	Seizure
A Tonic-Clonic seizure is also known as a:	Grand mal seizure
An absence seizure is also known as a:	Petit mal seizure
What type of seizure occurs very briefly (10-30 seconds) and results in loss of awareness, eye or muscle fluttering, and occasionally loss of muscle tone?	Absence
The period after a seizure where the patient my be awake but is very confused is known as:	Postictal
The phase of a Grand Mal seizure characterized by the tensing of the muscles is known as?	Tonic phase
The phase of a Grand Mal seizure characterized by the rhythmic muscle spasms/movement is known as?	Clonic phase
The phase of a Grand Mal seizure characterized by extreme muscular rigidity, including the hyperextension of the patients back is known as?	Hypertonic phase
A seizure characterized by chaotic movement of dysfunction to one are of the body is known as a _________________ seizure.	Simple partial seizure (also known as a focal motor seizure or a Jacksonian seizure)
An ________________ is a subjective sensation that might precede a seizure.	Aura
A series of two or more generalized motor seizures without an intervening return of consciousness is known as?	Status Epilepticus
A vascular headache that can last from several minutes to several days and presents with intense, throbbing pain, photosensitivity, nausea, vomiting and sweats is known as a:	Migraine
A headache that patients often awake with and gets worse throughout the day is termed a:	Tension headache
A headache that is brought on by a tumor, an infection, or a disease of the brain is known as a:	Organic headache
Trigeminal neuralgia is also known as:	Tic doloureux
Neoplasm is a term used to describe what?	The growth of a tumor
The trachea divides into the right and left mainstem bronchi at the ___________.	Carina
Normal tidal volume for an adult is?	500mL (5-7mL/kg)
Approximately how many alveoli are contained in the adult lungs?	300 million
The right lung contains ___ major divisions or lobes and the left lung has ___.	The right lung has 3 and the left has 2
What is Ventilation?	Ventilation is the mechanical process of moving air in and out of the lungs.
What is the Diaphragm?	The Diaphragm is a big dome-shaped muscle that separates the thorax and the abdomen. Nerve impulses from the phrenic nerve stimulates the diaphragm to contract.
What is tachypnea?	Tachypnea describes a respiratory pattern with a rate that exceeds 20 breaths per minute.
What is bradypnea?	Bradypnea describes a respiratory pattern with a rate slower than 12 breaths per minute.
What is Emphysema?	Emphysema results from the destruction of the alveolar walls distal to the terminal bronchioles.
What is the major contributing factor for the development of Emphysema?	Cigarette smoking
What is Chronic Bronchitis?	Chronic Bronchitis results from an increase in the number of the goblet (mucus-secreting) cells in the respiratory tree. It is characterized by the production of a large quantity of sputum.
The ____________ airway extends from below the larynx to the alveoli.	Lower
The ____________ airway extends from the mouth and nose to the larynx.	Upper
Normal inspired air contains what percentage of oxygen?	21%
What is the normal dead space volume for an average adult?	150 mL
The _______________ comprise(s) the key functional unit of the respiratory system.	Alveoli
What respiratory disease process can make a patient be referred to as a “Pink Puffer?”	Emphysema
You arrive on scene with a patient in moderate to severe respiratory distress and you notice the patient is breathing with pursed lips. What does this finding tell you?	Pursed lip breathing is the patients attempt to auto PEEP.
What accessory muscles can be utilized by the body in an effort to compensate for a severe respiratory problem?	Scalene and Sternocleidomastoid muscles (SCM’s)
Where on a hemoglobin molecule does oxygen bind to?	On one of the four heme sites.
Which process of ventilation is always an active process?	Inhalation (inspiration)
What is the average amount of stroke volume for an adult patient?	70 mL
What is correct dose of Aspirin for a patient complaining of substernal chest pain?	324 mg (or 4 - 81mg tablets for a total of 324mg)
What is the correct dose of Nitroglycerin for a patient having chest pain?	0.4 mg
What is the maximum total dose of Nitroglycerin that a patient should take?	1.2 mg (3 doses of 0.4 mg 5 minutes apart)
What should be taken a couple of minutes following the administration of Nitroglycerin?	The patient's blood pressure - Nitroglycerin is a very powerful vasodilator which can crush a patient's blood pressure
What is the formula to calculate a patient's cardiac output?	Cardiac Output = Stroke Volume X Heart Rate
What is the blood pressure parameter for the administration of Nitroglycerin?	The patient's blood pressure has to be at least 100 systolic
What are the pulse parameters for the administration of Nitroglycerin?	The pulse cannot be below 50 beats per minute or faster than 100 beats per minute
If the patient you are treating has taken a medication for sexual enhancement, how many hours must go by before they can safely take Nitroglycerin?	48 hours
A patient presents with shortness of breath and rales in their lungs, what type of heart failure would you suspect?	Left sided
A patient presents with chest pain and states his ankles have swollen up drastically over the last couple of days - what type of heart failure would you suspect?	Right sided
What is diabetes?	It is a disease in which the body's ability to produce or respond to insulin is impaired
What organ is the key player involved with diabetes?	The pancreas
The Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete what hormone?	Glucagon
The Beta cells of the pancreas secrete what hormone?	Insulin
How does insulin assist glucose with getting into a cell?	Insulin acts like a key to a door. Insulin will bind with an insulin receptor on the surface of the cell, which will open a door that will allow glucose to enter.
A release of Insulin by the Beta cells of the pancreas will cause what to happen?	It will cause a decrease in the blood sugar
A release of glucagon by the Alpha cells of the pancreas will cause what to happen?	It will cause an increase in the blood sugar
What is a negative feed-back loop?	It is a function of the body to tightly control a process
Can type 1 diabetic not take insulin?	No, all type 1 diabetic will have to take insulin to stay alive
What occurs in the body with type 1 diabetes?	Type 1 diabetes occurs when the pancreas doesn't produce enough insulin for the body. This is frequently caused by an autoimmune disease of the body that attacks the beta cells of the pancreas
What occurs in the body with type 2 diabetes?	Type 2 diabetes is caused by a resistance of the body to insulin at at the cellular level. This is high associated with obesity
Frequent urination and passing a large amount of urine when you go is termed:	Polyuria
A increase in fluid consumption is termed:	Polydipsia
Severe hunger and increased food intake is termed:	Polyphagia
What is Gynecology?	Gynecology – is the branch of medicine that deals with health maintenance and diseases of women, primarily reproductive organs
What is Obstetrics?	Obstetrics – Branch of medicine that deals with care of women throughout pregnancy
Name the female internal reproductive organs:	Ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus & vagina
Why makes a female so susceptible of an UTI?	Because their urethra is so small (2-3cm) it allows easy access for bacteria to invade the bladder
The period of time from ovulation to menstruation is always ___________.	14 days
The first two week of the menstrual cycle is known as the __________ and is dominated by estrogen, which causes the uterine lining (endometrium) to thicken and become engorged with blood.	Proliferative phase
In response to luteinizing hormone (LH) at day 14 of the menstrual cycle, the ovary will release an egg out into the abdominal cavity – this is known as _________.	Ovulation
The site on the ovary where the primary follicle ruptured develops into the ___________ (small yellowish body of cells), which produces ___________ during second half of menstrual cycle.	Corpus luteum, Progesterone
What are the three functions of the vagina?	Female organ of copulation, the birth canal and the outlet for menstrual blood and tissue to leave body.
How do you measure the fundal height of a pregnant patient?	Measure from the pubic symphysis to the fundus
When measuring the fundal height of a pregnant patient, each cm equals what?	How many weeks along she is in her pregnancy
What are the three layers that make up the wall of the uterus?	Endometrium, myometrium and the perimetrium (epimetrium)
What is Amenorrhea?	Stopping of the menstrual cycle
What are the two most common gynecologic emergencies that you will be called upon in the EMS world?	Abdominal pain and vaginal hemorrhage
You are treating a pregnant female patient that is G4, P3 – what does this mean?	That she has been pregnant 4 times and has delivered 3 children
What is mittelschmerz?	Mittelschmerz is often one-sided, lower abdominal pain that is associated with ovulation
Where do most eggs get fertilized in the female reproductive system?	In the distal third of the fallopian tube
Your patient complains of dyspareunia – what is this?	Pain during sexual intercourse
What is the average blood loss during the menstrual phase?	50 mL's
What is Gravidity?	Gravidity is the number of times that a woman has been pregnant
Where in the female reproduction system do most ectopic pregnancies occur?	In the fallopian tubes
What is Supine Hypotensive Syndrome?	This is hypotension that results from the compression of the inferior vena cava by the uterus. To treat this you rotate the patient on their left later side.
Where do most eggs get fertilized in the female reproductive system?	Usually in the distal third of the fallopian tube.
When a female gets pregnant, what is the job of the cervix?	To develop a thick mucus plug that prevents contaminants (bacteria, viruses, etc..) from getting from the vaginal canal and into the uterus. This protects the fetus as it grows!
What is the first phase of the Ovarian Cycle?	The first phase is the Follicular Phase. This is when the ovaries start to mature an egg for ovulation.
What is the second phase of the Ovarian Cycle?	The second phase is the Luteal Phase. This is when ovulation occurs and until menstruation if the egg does not get fertilized.
What is the first phase of the Uterine Cycle?	The first phase of the Uterine Cycle is the Menstrual Phase
What is the second phase of the Uterine Cycle?	The second phase of the Uterine Cycle is the Proliferative Phase. This is when the uterus starts to thicken and becomes more vascular.
What is the third phase of the Uterine Cycle?	The third phase is the Secretory Phase
What is considered the most common cause of abdominal pain in women of childbearing years?	Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
How does a women with PID usually walk?	They walk with a suffling gait - sometimes known as the PID shuffle
What is a common cause for a women to have an ectopic pregnancy?	Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
What is cystitus?	It is a bladder infection
What is the most common cause of cystitis?	A urinary tract infection (UTI)
Excessive abdominal pain during ovulation is known as:	Mittelschmerz
What is Endometritis?	It is an infection of the inner most lining of the uterus (endometrium)
What is Endometriosis?	It is a condition where endometrial tissue is found outside of the uterus. Most common sites are inside the abdominal and pelvis cavities.
Abruptio placentae	The premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Patient usually complains of a tearing or ripping pain in her abdominal cavity.
Afterbirth	The placenta and other tissues that are expelled after the delivery of the fetus
Amniotic sac	A thin, transparent membrane that forms the sac that holds the fetus suspended in amniotic fluid
Antepartum	A the period of pregnancy prior to the onset of labor
Bloody show	The mucus and blood that are expelled from the vagina as labor begins
Breech birth	A common abnormality of delivery in which the fetal buttocks or both lower extremities are low in the uterus and are the first to be delivered.
Brow presentation	The eyebrows or an eyebrow as the first presenting part at the vaginal opening during birth
Cephalic delivery	Normal delivery position in which the head of fetus is the presenting part
Cervix	The neck of the uterus. This is the connecting point between the vagina and the uterus.
Chin presentation	The chin as the first presenting body part in the vaginal canal during birth
Compound presentation	An arm or leg in the birth canal that present along with the head or buttocks at the vaginal opening during birth
Corpus	Middle portion of the uterus
Crowning	The stage in delivery when the fetal head presents at the vagina
Dilation	Opening or widening of the cervix. Full dilation is 10 cm.
Eclampsia	The onset of seizures in a woman with pre-eclampsia
Ectopic pregnancy	Pregnancy in which the ovum is implanted outside the uterus in a fallopian tube, on the abdominal peritoneal covering, on the outside wall of uterus, on an ovary, or on the cervix
Effacement	Shortening, softening, and thinning of the cervix during labor
Expulsion	Delivery of a baby
Face presentation	The face as the first presenting part at the vaginal canal during birth
Fallopian tubes	Thin, flexible structures that extend from the uterus to the ovaries
Fetus	The child in the uterus from the third month of pregnancy to birth
Fundus	Top portion of the uterus
Gestation	Pregnancy
Gravida	Indicates how many times a female patient has been pregnant
Intrapartum	The period of time from onset of labor to the delivery of the infant
Labor	The physiologic process by which the fetus is expelled from the uterus into the vagina and then to the outside of the body
Limb presentation	An arm or leg as the first presenting part at the vaginal canal during birth
Meconium staining	A greenish or brownish yellow staining of the amniotic fluid, caused by a fetal bowel movement resulting from distress
Multiple birth	The delivery of more than one baby during a single birth
Newborn	A pediatric patient from birth to the first couple hours of life
Nuchal cord	An umbilical cord that is wrapped around the infant’s neck during the delivery
Obstetric	Having to do with pregnancy or childbirth
Ovaries	The female gonads or sex glands
Para	Indicates how many times a female has given birth to a fetus of 20 weeks gestation or greater, whether a stillbirth, live birth, or twins or multiple birth.
Perineum	The area of skin between a female’s vagina and anus
Placenta	The fetal organ through which the fetus exchanges nourishment and waste products during pregnancy
Placenta previa	Abnormal implantation of the placenta over or near the opening of the cervix. This can cause a severe hemorrhage if the cervix dilates and exposes the back of the placenta.
Placental delivery	Expulsion of the placenta, the third and final stage of labor
Postmaturity syndrome	Condition that occurs during pregnancy when gestation of the fetus extends beyond 42 weeks, leading to reduced oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus.
Postpartum	The period following delivery of the infant
Postpartum hemorrhage	The loss of greater than 500 mL of blood following delivery of the infant
Postterm pregnancy	Gestation of the fetus that extends beyond 42 weeks. See also postmaturity syndrome.
Precipitous delivery	Birth of the fetus after less than 3 hours of labor
Preeclampsia	A form of hypertension in pregnancy
Pregnancy Induced Hypertension (PIH)	In a pregnant woman, a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mmHg on two or more occasions at least 6 hours apart, or an increase from pregnancy of greater than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic.
Premature infant	An infant weighing less than 5 pounds, or an infant born during or before its 36th week of gestation
Preterm labor	Labor that occurs after the 20th but prior to the 37th week of gestation
Primigravida	A female patient who is pregnant for the first time
Prolapsed cord	A condition where the umbilical cord, rather than the head of the fetus, is the first part to protrude from the vagina.
Shoulder dystocia	Abnormal delivery when the fetal shoulders are larger than the fetal head and the head delivers but the shoulders are caught between the symphysis pubis and the sacrum
Spontaneous abortion	Without apparent cause, the termination of a pregnancy before the fetus reaches the stage of viability, generally before the 20th week of pregnancy. Also known as a miscarriage.
Supine hypotensive syndrome	Inadequate return of venous blood to the heart, reduced cardiac output, and lowered blood pressure resulting from pressure on the inferior vena cava, caused by the weight of the uterus and fetus when the patient in late pregnancy is in a supine position.
Trimester	One 3-month period of the approximately 9 month pregnancy
Umbilical cord	An extension of the placenta through which the fetus receives nourishment while in the uterus
Uterus	An organ of the female reproductive system for containing and nourishing the embryo and fetus from the time the fertilized egg is implanted to the time of birth
Vagina	The passageway through which the fetus is delivered. The lower part of the birth canal
Abuse	Causing deliberate harm to another person
Adolescent	A child 12 to 18 years of age
Decompensated respiratory failure	When the respiratory compensatory mechanisms have begun to fail and respiration becomes inadequate
Early respiratory distress	Increased respiratory effort caused by impaired respiratory function.
Emotional abuse	When one person shames, ridicules, embarrasses, or insults another so as to damage the victim’s self-esteem
Fontanelle	The “soft spot” on an infant’s head where the bony plates of the skull have not yet fused together. The fontanelle allows the head to pass through the birth canal during delivery and to expand during development.
Infant	A pediatric patient from 1 month to 1 year of age
Neglect	The provision of insufficient attention or respect to someone who has a claim to that attention
Neonate	A pediatric patient from birth to 1 month of age
Physical abuse	Improper or excessive action taken so as to injure or cause bodily harm
Preschooler	A child 3 to 6 years of age
Respiratory arrest	No breathing is present
School-age child	A child 6 to 12 years of age
Sexual abuse	The involvement of a child in sexual activities for the gratification of an older or more powerful person
Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)	The sudden and unexpected death of an infant or young child in which an autopsy fails to identify the cause of death. SIDS typically occurs while the infant is asleep.
Toddler	A child 1 to 3 years of age
What is the correct compression/ventilation ratio for newborn CPR?	3:1 (3 compressions to 1 ventilation)
Acute	With rapid onset
Ageism	Stereotyping or discrimination against old people
Alzheimer’s disease	A disease characterized by cerebral function loss as seen with diseases that affect the brain
Arteriosclerosis	A disease process that causes the loss of elasticity in the vascular walls from thickening and hardening of the vessels
Aspiration pneumonia	The inflammation of the lungs caused by the aspiration of vomitus or other foreign matter
Cardiac hypertrophy	An increase in the size of the heart from a thickening of the heart wall, without a parallel increase in the size of the cavity
Cataract	Clouding of the lens of the eye from pathologic changes within the lens
Chronic	Long term, progressing gradually.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)	An umbrella term that describes pulmonary diseases such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis
Cognitive impairment	Deterioration of a person’s thinking, memory, language, and judgment skills.
Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)	A cardiac disease in which the heart cannot pump blood sufficiently to meet the needs of the body
Delirium	Sudden-onset altered mental status that can involve illusions, disjointed thought processes, incoherent speech, and increased or decreased psychomotor activity
Dementia	Chronic condition resulting in the malfunctioning of normal cerebral processes
Drug toxicity	An adverse or toxic reaction to a drug or drugs
Dysrhythmias	Irregular contractions of the myocardium secondary to electrical disturbances in the heart
Glaucoma	An abnormal increase in intraocular pressure that damages the optic nerve, resulting in loss of peripheral vision and eventual blindness.
Hyperthermia	An abnormally high core body temperature
Hypothermia	An abnormally low core body temperature
Intracranial Pressure (ICP)	The amount of pressure within the skull
Kyphosis	An abnormal curvature of the spine with convexity backward
Macular degeneration	Deterioration of the central area of the retina, causing loss of vision in the central visual field.
Neuropathy	Any disease of the nerves
Osteoporosis	A degenerative bone disorder associated with an accelerated loss of minerals, primarily calcium, from the bone.
Pneumonia	An infection of the lungs, usually from a bacterium or virus
Pulmonary edema	An accumulation of fluid in and around the alveoli in the lungs
Pulmonary Embolism (PE)	A blockage of the pulmonary arteries of the lungs
Retinal detachment	The separation of the retina from supportive tissues beneath it, causing visual disturbances and loss of vision in the outer visual field
Seizure	A sudden and temporary alteration in the mental status caused by a massive electrical discharge in a group of nerve cells in the brain
Silent heart attack	A myocardial infarction (heart attack) that does not cause chest pain or discomfort
Stenosis	Constriction or narrowing of a passage or opening, for example, of the valves of the heart
Stroke	A sudden disruption in blood flow to the brain that results in brain cell damage. Blood flow might be interrupted by a ruptured artery or blocked by a clot or other foreign matter in an artery that supplies the brain
Syncope	A brief period of unresponsiveness caused by a lack of blood flow to the brain
Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)	A brief, intermittent episode with stroke-like symptoms that typically disappear within minutes, but usually last no longer than 1 hour.
Acute Renal Failure (ARF)	A rapid loss of renal function that results in poor urine production, electrolyte disturbance, and fluid balance disturbance
Apnea monitor	A device that monitors breathing and emits a warning signal if breathing stops. Commonly used on newborns and infants.
Autism	A range of neurodevelopmental conditions characterized by impaired social interaction and verbal and nonverbal communication and restricted, repetitive behavior.
AV fistula	A permanent joining of an artery and a vein to facilitate removal and return of blood for dialysis. It is intended to be used on a long-term basis.
AV graft	A tube inserted to permanently join an artery and a vein to facilitate removal and return of blood for dialysis. It is intended to be used on a long-term basis.
AV shunt	A U-shaped tube inserted to join an artery and a vein to remove and return blood to the body for dialysis, It is used on a short-term basis and can later be removed.
Bariatrics	Medical management of obese patients
Birth defect	A variation from normal structure or function that is present at birth
Central intravenous catheter	A central IV catheter that is designed to deliver medication into the central circulation of the body
Cerebral Palsy (CP)	An umbrella term for motor impairments resulting from brain abnormalities or injuries that occur early in development. Mental impairment can also occur in those with cerebral palsy
Chronic Renal Failure (CRF)	A progressive loss of kidney function over a period of months to years
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP)	A form of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation. This device delivers a continuous flow of air under pressure.
Diabetic retinopathy	The damage to the small blood vessels of the eye from the long-term effects of diabetes mellitus
Dialysis	An artificial process used to remove water and waste substances from the blood when the kidneys fail to function properly
Dialysis shunt	A joining of arterial and venous systems in such a way that the repeated needle sticks required for dialysis cause a minimal amount of damage to the patient’s body
Domestic violence	The violence between two people in an intimate relationship
Dysarthria	Defective speech caused by impairment of the tongue or other muscles necessary for speech
Enteral feeding	The provision of nutrition through a tube inserted through the nose, the mouth, or a surgical opening in the abdomen into the gastrointestinal system
Gastrostomy	A surgical opening through the abdominal wall into the stomach for placement of a feeding tube
Hemodialysis	The removal of blood from the body for filtering through a dialyzing machine to remove impurities, and then returned to the body, when the kidneys cannot perform this function adequately.
Hospice	A philosophy of care that is aimed at providing relief of symptoms for the patients and support for their families during the late stages of a terminal condition
Human trafficking	The use of force, fraud, or coercion to control victims for the purposes of engaging in commercial sex acts or labor services against that person’s will. A form of slavery.
Hydrocephalus	The accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain when the normal mechanisms of drainage or reabsorption are absent or impaired
Intraventricular shunt	A tube surgically placed in a ventricle of the brain that extends to a blood vessel in the neck, the heart, or the abdomen, or to an external collector to drain excess cerebrospinal fluid from the brain and keep ICP at an acceptable level.
Ostomy bag	A pouch or bag that is attached outside the body to collect feces that are removed from the body through an opening in the abdominal wall.
Palliative care	Medical interventions intended to reduce the severity of symptoms and provide comfort to a patient but not intended to cure or reverse the progression of the disease.
Paraplegic	Paralyzed from the waist down
Peritoneal dialysis	The introduction of a cleansing fluid through the abdominal wall into the peritoneal cavity to remove waste products from the body
Pulse oximeter	An electronic device used to determine the oxygen concentration in arterial blood
Quadriplegic	Paralyzed from the neck down
Stoma	A permanent surgical opening into the neck and trachea
Terminally ill	The condition of an individual who has a disease process that is realistically expected to result in the death of the patient, despite medical treatment.
Urinary catheter	A device that is used to divert urine out of the bladder
Vascular access device	A medical device that is used when a patient is in need of ongoing intravenous medications.
Vagus Nerve Stimulator (VNS)	A device that is implanted under the skin in the chest wall to deliver weak pulses of electrical current that travel along the vagus nerve to the brain for the purpose of preventing seizure activity.
Ventricular Assist Device (VAD)	A medical device that assists the pump function of one or both ventricles, most commonly the left ventricle
What is Gynecology?	Gynecology – is the branch of medicine that deals with health maintenance and diseases of women, primarily reproductive organs
What is Obstetrics?	Obstetrics – Branch of medicine that deals with care of women throughout pregnancy
Name the female internal reproductive organs:	Ovaries, fallopian tubes, uteru & vagina
What makes a female so susceptible to having an UTI?	Because their urethra is so small (2-3cm) it allows easy access for bacteria to invade the bladder
The period of time from ovulation to menstruation is always ___________.	14 days
What are the three functions of the vagina?	Female organ of copulation, the birth canal and the outlet for menstrual blood and tissue to leave body
How do you measure the fundal height of a pregnant patient?	Measure from the pubic symphysis to the fundus
What are the three layers that make up the wall of the uterus?	Endometrium, myometrium and the perimetrium
What is Amenorrhea?	Stopping of the menstrual cycle
What are the two most common gynecologic emergencies that you will be called upon in the EMS world?	Abdominal pain and vaginal hemorrhage
You are treating a pregnant female patient that is G4, P3 – what does this mean?	That she has been pregnant 4 times and has delivered 3 children
Where do most eggs get fertilized in the female reproductive system?	In the distal third of the fallopian tube
Your patient complains of dyspareunia – what is this?	Pain during sexual intercourse
What is the average blood loss during the menstrual phase?	50 mL's
What functions does the placenta provide for the developing fetus?	It transfers heat while exchanging O2 and CO2, delivers nutrients such as glucose, potassium, sodium and chloride, and carries away waste byproducts such as urea and uric acid. It also serves as an endocrine gland throughout the pregnancy.
When does the umbilical cord for the fetus usually develop during pregnancy?	Usually between the 5th and 6th week of gestation
Normally, the umbilical cord has ____ arteries and ____ vein that are embedded in a substance called ____________.	2 arteries and 1 vein. Wharton’s Jelly
What are the three shunts that are utilized for fetal blood circulation?	Ductus venosus, Foramen ovale (Septum Primum) and Ductus arteriosus
The placenta is usually expelled from the uterus within _________ minutes after giving birth to the fetus.	20-30 minutes
Pregnancy is divided into trimesters each lasting approximately ____ weeks long.	13
The umbilical vein transports __________ blood to the fetus.	Oxygenated
What is Gravidity?	Gravidity is the number of times that a woman has been pregnant
The umbilical arteries transport _________ blood from the fetus back to the placenta. These arteries originate from the ____________.	Deoxygenated, Internal Illiac arteries
You are taking care of a young female that is in her third trimester and presents with a massive vaginal hemorrhage. The patient denies any pain and states “she feels like she is going to die.” What is this patient probably suffering from?	Placenta previa
What is the most common cause of vaginal hemorrhage for a pregnant female during the first and second trimester?	Abortion (miscarriage)
Abnormal implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus is called an ______________ - ___% of these happen in the fallopian tubes.	Ectopic pregnancy, 95%
You are called to the scene for a pregnant female that presents with severe “tearing” abdominal pain with a massive vaginal hemorrhage – what should you suspect?	Placentae abruptio
What sign(s)/symptom(s) would delineate Preeclampsia vs. Eclampsia?	Seizure or coma
What is Supine Hypotensive Syndrome?	This is hypotension that results from the compression of the inferior vena cava by the uterus
What happens during “Stage One” of labor?	Stage one is also known as the dilation stage – this begins with the onset of true labor and ends with complete dilation and effacement of the cervix.
What happens during “Stage Two” of labor?	Stage two (also known as the expulsion stage) begins with the complete dilation and the cervix and ends with the delivery of the fetus.
What happens during “Stage Three” of labor?	Stage three (also known as the placental stage) begins after the birth of the fetus and ends with the birth of the placenta.
What categories are evaluated with the APGAR scoring system?	Appearance, Pulse rate, Grimace (irritability), Activity(muscle tone) and Respiratory effort.
Infants that score between 4 and 6 of the APGAR scale are considered ___________ depressed and require oxygen and stimulation to breathe.	Moderately
You are taking care of a newborn that is bradycardic that doesn’t respond to oxygen and ventilations – what is your next super important step?	Begin chest compressions
When newborns get hypoxic, their heart rate will ______ and their ventilation rate will _______.	Decrease & decrease
What is the most common congenital defect?	Heart defects
Most fetal development occurs during the ______________ of pregnancy. It is during this time that the developing fetus is most sensitive to environmental factors and substances that can affect normal development.	First Trimester
At what measurements do we clamp and then cut the umbilical cord at?	First clamp should be placed approximately 6-9 inches from the infant's abdomen, 2nd clamp 2-3 inches beyond the first clamp and then cut in the middle
An neonate with an APGAR score less than 4 is considered to be __________ distressed.	Severely
How soon after the birth of the fetus should we apply clamps to the umbilical cord?	Approximately 30-45 seconds
If a neonate has a heart rate less than 60 beats a minute – what action do we provide them?	High quality CPR
What is the number one reason that an infant/child will go into cardiac arrest?	From a respiratory problem
You are taking care of a pediatric patient that requires suctioning – what pressure would you want your suction unit set to?	No more than 100 mmHg
What is the most important link in the pediatric chain or survival?	It is the first link – prevention
True or False: Most children that are treated by EMS require Advanced Life Support (ALS).	False – 85% of all pediatric patients only require BLS intervention
The posterior fontanelle usually closes by ____ months of age whereas the anterior fontanelle usually closes between ___ and ____ months of age.	Posterior usually closes by 4 months of age, Anterior closes between 9 and 18 months
What three things make up the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT)?	Appearance, Work of breathing & Circulation
Suctioning should be limited to no more than _____ seconds in a pediatric patient.	10 seconds
What is the one vital sign that clearly delineates between compensated and decompensated shock in kids?	Blood pressure – once the child is found to be hypotensive that is considered to be decompensated shock
Give me an example of obstructive shock?	Tension pneumothorax, Cardiac tamponade, Massive PE
What is the number one reason for a pediatric patient to suffer a pneumothorax during EMS care/intervention?	Providers not using the BVM correctly – provide too much pressure and cause a pneumothorax
Give me some examples of distributive shock in the pediatric patient:	Septic shock, Anaphylactic shock, Neurogenic shock
What is the first stage of labor?	The first stage of labor begins with the onset of true labor and ends with the complete dilation of the cervix
Where do most eggs get fertilized in the female reproductive system?	Usually in the distal third of the fallopian tube
You are treating a female that complains of moderate to severe pain with ovulation – this patient is said to be suffering from ___________.	Mittelschmerz
What type of ambulance has a truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body?	Type I
What type of ambulance resembles a standard van type body?	Type II
What type of ambulance has a van cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body?	Type III
When should the equipment on your ambulance be checked?	At the beginning of every shift and restocked after every call
A medical kit that contains everything you might need in the first five minutes with the patient (except for the AED, O2 and a suctioning unit) is known as a:	Jump Kit
When arriving at the scene of an accident and there is no other emergency responders there, where should you park the ambulance?	The first emergency vehicle to arrive on scene should park approximately 100 feet before the scene and position the vehicle to create a barrier between the scene and oncoming traffic
When arriving at the scene of an accident and there is already first responders there, where should you park the ambulance?	If other vehicles such as fire or law enforcement are already on scene, the ambulance should be parked 100 feet beyond the scene
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is known as:	Cleaning
The killing of pathogenic agents by directly applying a chemical made for that purpose to a surface or equipment is known as:	Disinfection
A process that uses high heat to remove all microbial contamination is known as:	Sterilization
True or False: Driving an ambulance automatically gives you the authority to ignore basic traffic laws or operate the vehicle without due regard for the safety of others.	FALSE!
The first rule of safe driving of an emergency vehicles is:	Speed does not save live, good care does.
When driving an ambulance emergency on a multilane highway, what lane should you utilize?	You should usually stay in the extreme left-handed (fast) lane
The force that has a tendency for objects to be pulled outward when rotating around a center is known as:	Centrifugal force
When driving an ambulance, what is the "4-second rule?"	It is a rule for safe following distance behind another vehicle in the same lane of travel as you are. You should stay at least 4 seconds behind the vehicle in front of you.
When backing up an ambulance, you should always us a:	Spotter
When water piles up underneath your tires and lifts them off the road, this is known as:	Hydroplaning
True or False: Using a police escort is a very safe practice	False. Using a police escort is an extremely dangerous practice
Where do most ambulance crashes occur?	At an intersection
Fixed-wing aircraft are usually used for interhospital transfers over distances greater then:	100 to 150 miles
The use of a helicopter for the transportation of a patient is also known as a:	Medivac
The most dangerous phases of air medical transport occurs:	During takeoff and landing
The recommended size of a landing zone is:	100 feet X 100 feet. The site should be hard or a grassy level surface.
The minimum size of a landing zone is:	60 feet X 60 feet
True or False: It is good practice to use caution tape to secure the site of a landing zone.	False!
The main rotor blades on a helicopter can dip as low as:	4 feet off the ground
True or False: You should always approach a helicopter from the tail end.	False. You always approach a helicopter from the front
If a helicopter has to land on uneven ground, which side should you approach from?	From the downhill side
Gaining entry to an enclosed area and reaching the patient is known as:	Access
The incident commander at the scene of an emergency can usually be found at the:	Command post
Gaining entry to an area that requires special tools and training and includes the use of force is known as:	Complex access
An area where people can be exposed to hazards such as electric wires, sharp metal edges, broken glass, toxic substances, radiation or fire is known as the:	Danger Zone (Hot Zone)
To be caught (trapped) within a vehicle, room, or container with no way out is known as:	Entrapment
The removal or a patient from entrapment (such as a crushed vehicle) is known as:	Extrication
A substance that is toxic, poisonous, radioactive, flammable, or explosive is known as a:	Hazardous material
Who has the overall command of an incident in the field?	The Incident Commander
Any substance that is toxic, poisonous, radioactive, flammable, or explosive and can cause injury or death with exposure is termed a:	Hazardous Material
The individual who has overall command of the incident in the field is known as the:	Incident Commander
A safe area at a hazardous materials incident for the agencies involved in the operations is known as the:	Cold Zone
A guide for first responders operating at a hazardous materials incident that can help identify hazardous chemicals by their placards is known as the:	Emergency Response Guide (ERG)
The area immediately surrounding a hazardous materials spill or incident site that endangers life and health is known as the:	Hot Zone
An emergency situation involving three or more patients or one that places great demand on the equipment or personnel of the EMS system is known as a:	Mass-Casualty Incident (MCI)
An incident that is not yet contained or controlled is known as an:	Open Incident
These are found on all four sides of highway transport vehicles, railroad tank cars, and other forms of hazardous materials transportation:	Placards
The process of sorting patients based on the severity of injury and medical needs is known as:	Triage
The area located between the hot and cold zone at a hazardous materials incident is known as the:	Warm Zone
What zone is the decontamination corridor located in?	The Warm Zone
What is a Multiple-casualty incident (MCI)?	An event that places excessive demands on EMS personnel and equipment
A catastrophic event that overwhelms natural order and causes a great loss of property and/or life is known as a:	Disaster
The person who is responsible for coordinating all aspects of a disaster or multiple-casualty incident is known as the:	Incident Commander
The standardized incident management concept that has become the standard for on-scene management of disasters and multiple-casualty incidents is known as the:	Incident Command System (ICS)
Evaluation of patients that occurs immediately upon arrival of the first EMS crew at the actual site of the incident to quickly categorize the severity of a patient’s condition and priority for treatment and transport is known as:	Primary Triage
Reevaluation that takes place in the triage unit of the severity of a patient’s condition and priority for treatment and transport is known as:	Secondary Triage
During a MCI, the unit that monitors, inventories, and directs available ambulances to the treatment unit at the request of the transport officer is known as the:	Staging Unit
A tag containing key information that is attached to a patient during a multiple-casualty incident is known as a:	Triage Tag
During a MCI, the unit that is responsible for prioritizing patients for emergency medical care and transport is known as the:	Triage Unit
During a MCI, the unit that is responsible for collecting and treating patients in a centralized treatment area is known as the:	Treatment Unit
Acetylcholine (ACh)	A neurotransmitter that is distributed throughout the body and is necessary for normal function of the parasympathetic nervous system
Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)	An enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Nerve agents inhibit the action of this enzyme, allowing acetylcholine to accumulate
Biological agents	Agents that are made up of living organisms or the toxins produced by the living organisms that are used as weapons of mass destruction to cause disease in a target population
Cyanide	A rapid-acting agent that disrupts the capability of the cell to use oxygen, leading to severe cellular hypoxia and eventual death.
Cyberterrorism	The use of computer network tools to shut down critical national infrastructure (e.g., energy, medical transportation, government operations) or to coerce or intimidate a government or civilian population
Fallout	Radioactive dust and particles that can be life-threatening to people far from the epicenter of a radioactive detonation
Incendiary devices	Devices using agents such as napalm, thermite, magnesium, and white phosphorus to cause injury by burning at high temperatures
Nerve agents	Agents that block the action of acetylcholinesterase (AChE) in the plasma of the blood, red blood cells, and nervous tissue. The most severe effects are those to the nervous tissue
Nuclear radiation	Energy released when an unstable atom breaks apart
Persistence	A characteristic of agents that do not evaporate quickly and tend to remain as a puddle for long periods of time
Primary effect	The blast of an explosion
Primary exposure	Primary radiation injury that occurs during or shortly after a radioactive detonation
Pulmonary agents	Agents that act primarily to cause lung injury and are commonly referred to as choking agents, including phosgene (CG), other halogen compounds, and nitrogen-oxygen compounds
Quaternary effects	In an explosion, injuries produced by exposure to chemicals or toxins or by structural collapse
Secondary effects	Effects from flying debris, shrapnel, and other projectiles. In an explosion, the flying debris can cause significant penetrating injury or blunt trauma. Flames and hot gases present in explosions also result in secondary effect injuries.
Tertiary effects	In an explosion, injuries produced by propulsion
Vesicants	Chemical agents that cause blistering, burning, and tissue damage on contact as well as causing generalized illness if a significant amount is absorbed. Vesicants include sulfur and nitrogen mustards, lewisite, and phosgene oxime
Volatility	The tendency of a chemical agent to evaporate. A volatile liquid evaporates easily and creates a dangerous, breathable vapor
Weapons of Mass Destruction	Weapons intended to cause widespread and indiscriminate death and destruction
What is the "Action" of a medication?	It is the effect a drug has on the body
What is the "Route of Administration" of a medication?	It is the route and form by which a drug is given to a patient
What are "Contraindications" for medication administration?	They are situations in which a medication should not be administered to a patient
What is the "Dose" of a medication?	It is the amount of a medication that is given to a patient at one time
What is a Drug?	It is a chemical substance that is used to treat or prevent a disease or condition
What are "Indications" of a medication?	They are the common reasons for using a medication to treat a specific condition
What is considered a Medication?	It is a drug or other substance that is used as a remedy for illness
What is a metered-dose inhaler (MDI)?	It is a device consisting of a plastic container and a canister of medication that is used to form an aerosolized medication that a patient can inhale
What is Pharmacology?	It is the study of drugs
What are "side effects" of a medication?	They are undesired effects of a medication
What is a small-volume nebulizer (SVN)?	It is a device that uses compressed air or oxygen to nebulize a liquid medication into a mist that a patient can inhale
What are the Pharmacodynamics of Activated Charcoal?	It binds and adsorbs toxic substances in the GI tract
What are the indications for the administration of Activated Charcoal?	Most oral poisonings/overdoses
What are the contraindications for the administration of Activated Charcoal?	A patient with a decreased level of consciousness, overdoses of corrosives, caustics, or petroleum substances
What are the side effects of Activated Charcoal?	Nausea, vomiting, constipation, & black stools
What is the dose of Activated Charcoal?	1 to 2 grams/kilogram
What are the Pharmacodynamics of Albuterol?	Binds with B2 receptors in the lungs, causing bronchodilation
What are the indications for the administration of Albuterol?	Asthma/dyspnea with wheezing
What are the contraindications for the administration of Albuterol?	Known allergy to Albuterol and chest pain of cardiac origin
What are the side effects of Albuterol?	Tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, and restlessness
What is the dose of Albuterol?	1 to 2 puff of a Meter Dose Inhaler (MDI)
2.5 mg via a Small Volume Nebulizer (SVN)
What are the Pharmacodynamics of Aspirin?	It prevents platelets from joining together to form a clot.
It is also an anti-inflammatory medication.
What are the indications for the administration of Aspirin?	Chest pain suspected of cardiac origin
Relief of mild pain (headache, muscle aches)
What are the contraindications for the administration of Aspirin?	Known allergy to Aspirin
What are the side effects of Aspirin?	Nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, bleeding, and possible allergic reactions.
What is the dose of Aspirin?	160 to 325 mg
How do you administer Aspirin to a patient?	You have them chew it and then swallow it
How do you administer Albuterol to a patient?	Via inhalation (MDI or SVN)
What are the Pharmacodynamics of Epinephrine?	It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system which causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.
What are the indications for the administration of Epinephrine?	A patient with an anaphylactic reaction
What are the contraindications for the administration of Epinephrine?	A patient with chest pains of cardiac origin, hypothermia and hypertension.
What are the side effects of Epinephrine?	Tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety and restlessness.
What is the dose of Epinephrine for an adult patient?	0.3 mg IM
What is the dose of Epinephrine for a pediatric patient less than 30 kilograms?	0.15 mg IM
What are the Pharmacodynamics of Naloxone (Narcan)?	It binds to opiate receptors and reverses respiratory depression from an opiate overdose.
What are the indications for the administration of Naloxone (Narcan)?	A patient that has respiratory depression for a suspected opiate overdose.
What are the contraindications for the administration of Naloxone (Narcan)?	Known allergy to Narcan
What are the side effects of Naloxone (Narcan)?	Nausea & vomiting
How do you administer Naloxone (Narcan) to a patient?	You can deliver it via 2 ways. Either IM (Intramuscular) or IN (Internasal)
What is the dose of Naloxone (Narcan)?	0,4 mg if giving it IM via an auto-injector
2 mg IN (if giving it through the patient's nose)
What are the Pharmacodynamics of Nitroglycerin?	It dilates the blood vessels. Make it less pressure that the heart has to pump against.
What are the indications for the administration of Nitroglyecerin?	A patient with chest pain that you suspect is of cardiac origin (heart attack)
What systolic blood pressure must the patient have in order for you to administer Nitroglycerin to them?	At least a systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg
What are the heart rate parameters for the administer Nitroglycerin?	The patient must have a heart rate between 50 and 100 beats per minute.
What medication must you ask the patient if they have taken within the last 48hours before the administration of Nitroglyercin?	Any use of Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors (erectile dysfunction medications like Viagra, Cialis, etc...)
What are the side effects of Nitroglycerin?	Headaches, dizziness, weakness, tachycardia and hypotension.
How do you administer Nitroglycerin to a patient?	Underneath their tongue (sublingual)
What is the dose of Nitroglycerin?	0.4 mg
How many times can you administer Nitroglycerin to a patient?	3 times (1.2 mg total)
What must you check after the administration of Nitroglyecerin?	The patient's blood pressure. The biggest side effect of nitroglycerin is hypotension!!!
What are the Pharmacodynamics of Oral Glucose?	Provides glucose for the cells to use and make energy (ATP)
What are the indications for the administration of Oral Glucose?	Low blood sugar (hypoglycemia)
What are the contraindications for the administration of Oral Glucose?	Do not give to a patient who is unconscious and to a patient that cannot control their own airway
What are the side effects of Oral Glucose?	Nausea & Vomiting
How do you administer Oral Glucose to a patient?	Place it between their cheek and gum (buccal route)
What is the dose of Oral Glucose?	7.5 to 15 grams of sugar (1/2 to 2 full tube)
What is a suspension?	Preparations in which the solid does not dissolve in the solvent; if left alone, the solid portion will precipitate out.
What is an emulsion?	Suspensions with an oily substance in the solvent; even when mixed, globules of oil separate out of the solution.
What is a spirit?	Solution of a volatile drug in alcohol.
What is an elixir?	Alcohol and water solvent, often with flavorings added to improve the taste.
What is a syrup?	Sugar, water, and a drug solution.
What is an agonist?	An agonist binds to a receptor and causes it to initiate the expected response.
What is an antagonist?	An antagonist binds to a site but block agonists and prevent the receptor from initiating the expected response.
What drug is an antagonist for an opiate overdose?	Narcan
The "Flight-or-flight" is known as what branch of the Autonomic Nervous System?	Sympathetic
The "Feed-or-breed" is know as what branch of the Autonomic Nervous System?	Parasympathetic
What is Pharmacodynamics?	It is how a medication interacts with the body to cause its effects
What is Pharmacokinetics?	Pharmacokinetics is how a medication is absorbed, distributed, metabolized (biotransformed), and excreted
What is an Agonist?	An agonist is a chemical that binds to a receptor of a cell and triggers a response by that cell
What is an Antagonist?	An antagonist is a substance that interferes with or inhibits the physiological action of another
What is a Bolus?	A bolus is a single, oftentimes large dose of medication
What is the definition of a drug?	Drugs are foreign substances placed into the body
The most detailed name given to a drug is called it’s ____________ name.	Chemical name
The ___________ name of a drug is usually suggested by the manufacturer and is confirmed by the United States Name Council – this is the name we should use to prevent confusion.	Generic name
A drugs ____________________ name is the name that is listed in the United States Pharmacopeia (USP).	Official name
What are the four main sources of drugs?	Plants, animals, minerals, laboratory (synthetic).
What are the Six Rights of Medication Administration?	Right medication, Right dose, Right time, Right route, Right patient, Right documentation
A ______________ is a medical or a physiological condition that is present that would make it harmful for you to administer a medication to a patient.	Contraindication
What does PR mean?	It means Per Rectum - medication given into the rectum
What does PO mean?	PO means taken by mouth
Enteral medications enter the body through the _______________ system.	Digestive
Parenteral medications enter the body how?	Through a route other than the digestive tract, the skin, or the mucous membranes. Parenteral medications are usually liquid that is administered into the body using a syringe and needle.
What is a Intraosseous Injection (IO)?	Intraosseous means into the bone.
What is a Subcutaneous Injection?	It is an injection under the skin (usually into fatty tissue above the muscle)
What is an Intramuscular Injection?	It is an injection into the muscle.
What does Transdermal mean?	It means absorption through the skin. Medicine patches that a patient wears on their skin are administering medication via the transdermal route.
What is Intranasal (IN)?	It is the delivery of medication into the nose.
What is a Metered-Dose Inhaler?	It is a miniature spray canister used to direct medication through the mouth and into the lungs. This is used by many patients that have respiratory diseases such as asthma or COPD.
A medication that is administered to a conscious patient that is suspected of ingesting an overdose of medications by mouth is?	Activated Charcoal
What medication is administered to diabetics with a low blood sugar (hypoglycemia)?	Oral Glucose
What medication is the best medication to give to someone suspected of having an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack)?	Aspirin
What medication can be administered to someone in an effort to relieve their chest pain?	Nitroglycerin
What is the patient's systolic blood pressure have to be for you to administer Nitroglycerine to them?	100 mmHg
If a patient took a medication for erectile disfunction (like Viagra), how many hours must have gone by before you can administer Nitroglycerine to them?	24-48 hours
What medication can you administer to a patient that is experiencing a severe allergic reaction?	Epinephrine
Where in the body is an Epi-Pen used?	It is injected into the outer portion of the patient's thigh (intramuscular)
What medication can you administer to a patient that is suspected of having a narcotic overdose?	Narcan

Created by: kevinakers

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