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*Pearson exam review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The part of a word that comes after the root word and changes it’s meaning is the: A. Prefix B. Root C. Suffix D. Combining form | Suffix |
| An agent used against fever is: A. Antiemetic B. Analgesic C. Antipyretic D. Anticholinergic | Antipyretic |
| A slow pulse rate is: A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia C. Myocardium D. Eucardia | Bradycardia |
| An incision made below the breast is: A. Hypodermic B. Suprapubic C. Inframammary D. Subcutaneous | Inframammary |
| A congenital anomaly is a: A. Normal condition that one has at birth B. Abnormal condition existing at birth C. Birthmark D. Condition acquired after birth | Abnormal condition existing at birth |
| An instrument used to view the large intestine is a: A. Gastroscope B. Endoscopy C. Colonoscope D. Bronchoschope | Colonoscope |
| Surgical removal of half the stomach is: A. Hemigastrectomy B. Hemiglossectomy C. Gastroscopy D. Gastropathy | Hemigastrectomy |
| You are scheduled to scrub on a cheilopasty. The anatomical part to be revised is the: | Lip |
| A record made of a joint is: A. Arthrodesis B. Arthrogram C. Osteopathy D. Angiography | Arthrogram |
| A preoperative diagnosis of Cholelithiasis indicates a: | Condition of gallstones |
| Hepatomegaly is: | An enlarged liver |
| Inflammation of the brain is: | Encephalitis |
| A laparoscope would be used to visualize the: A. Cranial cavity B. Abdominal cavity C. Spinal cavity D. Joint | Abdominal cavity |
| A patient with chondromalacia would have an abnormal softening of the: | Cartilage |
| The suffix that means suture is: | Rrhaphy |
| Intracellular fluid would be found: | Within the cell |
| A bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is a surgical procedure to: | Remove both Fallopian tubes and ovaries |
| An athrocentesis is a procedure to: - Fuse a joint - Remove plaque from an artery - Puncture and aspirate fluid from a joint - Make a recording of an artery | Puncture and aspirate fluid from a joint |
| A myelogram is: - A recording of a muscle - An X-ray of the brain - An X-ray of the spinal cord - A unit of weight in the metric system | An X-ray of the spinal cord |
| A cholecystectomy is a procedure to: | Remove the gallbladder |
| A red blood cell is also known as a: | Erythrocyte |
| The term pertaining to a hidden testicle is: - Omphalocele - Cryptorchidism - Orchiopexy - Onychocryptosis | Cryptorchidism |
| The surgical producer to crush a stone is a: | Lithotripsy |
| A blepharoplasty is a procedure to: | Repair of the eyelids |
| Hydronephrosis is: - A condition of water in the brain - A procedure to suture the kidney in place - A condition of water in the kidney - Voiding at night | A condition of water in the kidney |
| There is a Lumbar Laminectomy scheduled in room 6. What will the surgery entail? - Removal of a lobe of the lung - Removal of a tumor on the lower back - Excision of part of the vertebral arch - Creation of a surgical incision for a lumbar puncture | Excision of part of the vertebral arch |
| What is involved in the surgery Cystoscopy? | Visualization of the bladder |
| A Gastrectomy follows a Hemicolectomy in room 2. What does Gastrectomy mean? | Surgical Removal of the stomach |
| A Fasciotomy is scheduled in rm 4. What is Fasciotomy? - Creation of an opening in the abdominal wall - Excision of the fascia -Creation of an opening in the spinal cord - Creation of an opening in the fascia | Creation of an opening in the fascia |
| What is an Osteotomy? - Puncture of a joint to remove fluid - A cut into the bone - A cut made in the cartilage - Plating a bone of the leg | A cut into the bone |
| The Colposcopy scheduled for room 11 will involve: - Reshaping the lips - Visualization of the colon - Visualization of the vaginal wall - Visualization of the middle ear | Visualization of the vaginal wall |
| A Hysterectomy, which is scheduled in room 13, involves: | Surgical removal of the uterus |
| There is a Craniotomy ok call for Dr. C. What is a craniotomy? - An incision into the skull - An incision into the ribs - Clipping an aneurysm - Removal of a cranial rumor | An incision into the skull |
| A palatoplasty in room 9 is a procedure for: | Repair of a cleft palate |
| The part or organelle of the cell considered to be the powerhouse is the: | Mitochondria |
| The building blocks of all living matter are called: | Cells |
| The thymus gland is located in the ______ cavity. - Cranial - Dorsal - Abdominal - Thoracic | Thoracic |
| The umbilicus is located on the _____ surface of the body. | Ventral (anterior) |
| The hormones produced by the adrenal cortex to protect one during a stressful situation are: | Corticoids |
| The medial malleoulus is a projection at the ankle of the: - Radius - Fibula - Femur - Tibia | Tibia |
| The outer most layer of the eye that is commonly called the white of the eye is the: | Sclera |
| A parotid gland secrets: | Saliva |
| Muscles are attached to bones by: | Tendons |
| The large opening located in the occipital bone is called: | Foramen magnum |
| The liquid part of the blood is: | Plasma |
| The mineral essential for the formation of RBCs is: | Iron |
| The myocardium is the: | Thick muscular wall of the heart |
| The name of the artery that arises from the ascending aorta and carries blood to the heart muscle is the: - Jugular - Carotid - Cardiac - Coronary | Coronary artery |
| The largest artery in the body is the: | Aorta |
| The membrane that lines the chest cavity and reflects back to cover the lungs is the: | Pleura |
| The amount of air taken in with a normal breath is about 500cc and is referred to as: | Tidal volume |
| The auditory nerve receives sound waves from a shell-like structure called: | Cochlea |
| An inflammation of the conjunctiva involves the: - Glands that produce tears - Delicate membrane lining the eyelids and covering the front of the eyeball - Portion of the eye that contains the optic nerve - Opaque lens | Delicate membrane lining the eyelids and covering the front of the eyeball |
| One of the most important glands in the body, often referred to as the “master gland” is the: | Pituitary gland |
| Within the kidney, there are millions of microscopic units that carry out the functions of producing urine. These functional units are called: | Nephrons |
| The long narrow tubes that drain urine from the kidney to the bladder are called: | Ureters |
| Water is absorbed mostly in the: | Colon (large intestine) (Absorbs water and electrolytes) |
| The pancreas is both an endocrine and exocrine gland. The hormones secreted by the pancreas directly into the blood is: | Insulin |
| The male reproductive organ that manufacturers the male sex cells is called the: | Testes |
| The nerve that controls the release of epinephrine during “fight or flight” are the: | Sympathetic nerve |
| An example of reticular tissue is: | Blood and lymph |
| The muscle that flexes the head is the: - Masseter - Temporalis - Trapezius - Sternocleidomastoid | Sternocleidomastoid |
| The middle layer of the meninges is the: | Arachnoid |
| The section of the brain that controls temperature and thirst is the: | Hypothalamus |
| The section of the brain that controls the basic functions such as heartbeat and respiration is: - Hypothalamus - Thalamus - Pons - Medulla oblongata | Medulla oblongata |
| How many pairs of extrinsic eye muscles are there? | 6 |
| The jelly like substance that maintains te shape of the globe is: | Vitreous humor |
| The descending colon is attached at this anatomical feature: - Hepatic flexure - anterior diaphragm - Splenic flexure - Cecum | Splenic flexure |
| The function of the liver include all of the following except: - Storage of glucose - Storage of bile - Destruction of RBCs - Production of urea | Storage of bile |
| The normal range for lymphocytes is between: | 5,000-10,000 |
| The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is: | Tricuspid |
| A superficial vein of the leg is the: - Femoral artery - Posterior tibial - Saphenous - Popliteal | Saphenous |
| The first ring in the tracheal cartilage, utilized during Sellicks maneuver is the: | Cricoid cartilage |
| What cartilage is often referred to as the Adam’s apple: - Cricoid cartilage - Thyroid cartilage - Hyoid cartilage - Laryngeal cartilage | Thyroid cartilage |
| The most likely tough capsule that protects the kidney is: | Gerota’s Fascia |
| Fertilization occurs in the: | Fallopian tubes or oviduct |
| The right knee arthroscopy that is on call will involve which anatomical structures? - The femur and the tibia - The tibia and the fibula - The femur and the fibula - The femur and the acetabulum | The femur and tibia |
| Which procedure is done on the foot? - Lumbar Laminectomy - Palatoplasty - Trans metatarsal amputation - Carpal Tunnel | Trans metatarsal amputation |
| Which procedure will involve entering a cavity? - Osteotomy - Nephrectomy - Tracheostomy - Lobectomy | Lobectomy |
| Which procedure will involve the right upper quadrant? - Hepatic resection - Nephrectomy - Hysterectomy - Mastectomy | Hepatic resection |
| Which procedure is likely to be done by a vascular surgeon? - Cystoscopy - Cholecystectomy - Hysterectomy - Bovine Thrombectomy - Fasciotomy | Bovine Thrombectomy |
| Which procedure will NOT involve entering a cavity? - Hemicolectomy - Mastectomy - Cholecystectomy - Lobectomy | Mastectomy |
| Which surgery involves repair of facial bone deformities - Fasciotomy - Palatoplasty - Angioplasty - Craniotomy | Palatoplasty |
| When performing a splenectomy in room 2, which quadrant with be entered? - Right lower - Right upper - Left lower - Left upper | Left upper |
| A person without a _____ may be more susceptible to infection. - Liver - Kidney - Spleen - Gallbladder | Spleen |
| Room 5 has a transuretheral resection of the prostate (TURP) scheduled. Which two body systems are involved? - Urinary and digestive - Digestive and male reproductive - Urinary and male reproductive - Only the reproductive system is involved | Urinary and male reproductive |
| The Trans-Sphenoidal Adenectomy involves which system? - Skeletal, nervous and endocrine - Skeletal, urinary and endocrine - Endocrine and urinary - Skeletal and endocrine | Skeletal, nervous and endocrine (Trans-Sphenoidal Adenectomy is time to remove a diseased portion of the pituitary gland, which will be reached by going through the sphenoid sinus. ) |
| Microorganisms that cause disease are known as: | Pathogens |
| Microorganisms that can be microscopic and treated with antihelmintic drugs are: | Parasitic worms |
| Mycotic infections such as tinea pedis (athletes foot) and ringworm are caused by: | Fungi |
| Organisms that cause hepatitis are: | Viruses |
| The bacteria that appear in clusters are: | Staph |
| The bacteria that appears in chains: | Strept |
| Bacteria that live only In the presence of oxygen are called: | Aerobes |
| What is a spore-forming anaerobes, found in soul and is capable of causing gas gangrene? | Clostridium perfringens (anaerobes) |
| Which of the following infectious organisms is most likely to be transmitted through a contaminated needle stick? - Clostridium perfringens - Hepatitis B (HBV) - Myobacterium tuberculosis - Streptococcus pneumoniae | Hepatitis B |
| A tough, resistant “shell form” of some gram positive bacilli which is extremely resistant to destruction and toward which all sterilization methods are aimed is a: | Endospore (spore) |
| An enzyme produced by some virulent microorganisms, such as the hemolytic streptococcus that breaks down fibrin and leads to wound infection is: | Fibrinolysin |
| A microbial relationship in which one organism lives completely at the expense of the host is: | Parasitism |
| The most widely used method for identifying bacteria by dividing them into two groups is: | Gram stain |
| What test is used to identify the microorganisms Mycobacterium tuberculosis? | Acid-fast stain |
| Normal flora of the intestinal tract includes: | Escherichia coli (Gram negative facultative anareobic, rod-shaped) |
| The most likely portal of entry for the Treponema pallidum (syphilis) organism is: | Genitourinary tract |
| Which of the following factors would have the least effect in determining whether or not one exposed to a disease would contract it? - Weight of host - Resistance of the host - Dose of virulence of the organism - Duration of exposure | Weight of host |
| Host resistance to infection may be lowered by all of the following except: - Poor circulation - Presence of another disease process - Emotional depression - Proper nutritional state | Proper nutritional state |
| When a patient had a generalized (systemic) infection, the WBCs count would: | Increase |
| The type of isolation recommended for the immunocompromised, burn, or organ transplant patient is: | Protective |
| Pathogens that get past the first line of defense are engulfed by white blood cells, a process known as: | Phagocytosis |
| The immunity received by having had a disease (i.e., measles) is known as: | Naturally acquired active immunity |
| What kind of immunity is received by a vaccine: | Artificially acquired active immunity |
| When a person forms antibodies against his or her own tissues, it is known as: | Autoimmunity |
| An infection acquired while one is being treated in a health care facility is known as: | Nosocomial infection |
| When an infection is caused by a patients own normal flora, the source would be referred to as: | Endogenous |
| Airborne contamination in the operating room can be reduced by: - Negative air pressure - Filtering out particle with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters - Increasing traffic in and out of rooms - Sterilization | Filtering out particles with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters. |
| Standard precautions are to be implanted: - When the patient is immunocompromised - For patients with HBV - When the health care provider has open lesions on the hands - When blood or body fluids may be encountered | When blood and body fluids may be encountered |
| Room 9 has a debridement scheduled to follow an I&D. Why is this procedure being performed? - To remove necrotic or infected tissue - To remove scarred tissue - To culture the wound - To prevent infection | To remove necrotic or infected tissue |
| The patient undergoing the Colectomy in rm 10 will be at an increased risk of infection from what? - Endogenous bacteria - Nosocomial infection - Viral infection - Exogenous bacteria | Endogenous |
| The patient in rm 5 was given penicillin and suffered anaphylactic shock.What is the treatment that needs to be followed? - Levophed should be administered - Dantrolene should be given - Epinephrine should be given - Protamine sulfate should be given | Epinephrine should be given |
| The patient in rm 12 is having a trans-metatarsal amputation due to clostridium perfringens. What does the patient have? | Gas gangrene |
| Dr. X in rm 1 wants to know if there is an infection process going on with his patient. What lab test will he want? - C&S (culture & sensitivity) - I&D (incise&drain) - Frozen section - CBC | C&S (culture and sensitivity) |
| Sharon, the ST assigned to rm 3 has learned that the patient is HIV positive. What precautions should she take? - Isolation - Standard - Universal - She should refuse to scrub the case | Standard |
| The patient undergoing the lumbar laminectomy has severe rheumatoid arthritis. This is an example of what disease process? | Autoimmune |
| Microorganisms that cause disease are known as: | Pathogens |
| Microorganisms that can be microscopic and treated with antihelmintic drugs are: | Parasitic worms |
| Mycotic infections such as tinea pedis (athletes foot) and ringworm are caused by: | Fungi |
| Organisms that cause hepatitis are: | Viruses |
| The bacteria that appear in clusters are: | Staph |
| The bacteria that appears in chains: | Strept |
| Bacteria that live only In the presence of oxygen are called: | Aerobes |
| What is a spore-forming anaerobes, found in soul and is capable of causing gas gangrene? | Clostridium perfringens (anaerobes) |
| Which of the following infectious organisms is most likely to be transmitted through a contaminated needle stick? - Clostridium perfringens - Hepatitis B (HBV) - Myobacterium tuberculosis - Streptococcus pneumoniae | Hepatitis B |
| A tough, resistant “shell form” of some gram positive bacilli which is extremely resistant to destruction and toward which all sterilization methods are aimed is a: | Endospore (spore) |
| An enzyme produced by some virulent microorganisms, such as the hemolytic streptococcus that breaks down fibrin and leads to wound infection is: | Fibrinolysin |
| A microbial relationship in which one organism lives completely at the expense of the host is: | Parasitism |
| The most widely used method for identifying bacteria by dividing them into two groups is: | Gram stain |
| What test is used to identify the microorganisms Mycobacterium tuberculosis? | Acid-fast stain |
| Normal flora of the intestinal tract includes: | Escherichia coli (Gram negative facultative anareobic, rod-shaped) |
| The most likely portal of entry for the Treponema pallidum (syphilis) organism is: | Genitourinary tract |
| Which of the following factors would have the least effect in determining whether or not one exposed to a disease would contract it? - Weight of host - Resistance of the host - Dose of virulence of the organism - Duration of exposure | Weight of host |
| Host resistance to infection may be lowered by all of the following except: - Poor circulation - Presence of another disease process - Emotional depression - Proper nutritional state | Proper nutritional state |
| When a patient had a generalized (systemic) infection, the WBCs count would: | Increase |
| The type of isolation recommended for the immunocompromised, burn, or organ transplant patient is: | Protective |
| Pathogens that get past the first line of defense are engulfed by white blood cells, a process known as: | Phagocytosis |
| The immunity received by having had a disease (i.e., measles) is known as: | Naturally acquired active immunity |
| What kind of immunity is received by a vaccine: | Artificially acquired active immunity |
| When a person forms antibodies against his or her own tissues, it is known as: | Autoimmunity |
| An infection acquired while one is being treated in a health care facility is known as: | Nosocomial infection |
| When an infection is caused by a patients own normal flora, the source would be referred to as: | Endogenous |
| Airborne contamination in the operating room can be reduced by: - Negative air pressure - Filtering out particle with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters - Increasing traffic in and out of rooms - Sterilization | Filtering out particles with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters. |
| Standard precautions are to be implanted: - When the patient is immunocompromised - For patients with HBV - When the health care provider has open lesions on the hands - When blood or body fluids may be encountered | When blood and body fluids may be encountered |
| Room 9 has a debridement scheduled to follow an I&D. Why is this procedure being performed? - To remove necrotic or infected tissue - To remove scarred tissue - To culture the wound - To prevent infection | To remove necrotic or infected tissue |
| The patient undergoing the Colectomy in rm 10 will be at an increased risk of infection from what? - Endogenous bacteria - Nosocomial infection - Viral infection - Exogenous bacteria | Endogenous |
| The patient in rm 5 was given penicillin and suffered anaphylactic shock.What is the treatment that needs to be followed? - Levophed should be administered - Dantrolene should be given - Epinephrine should be given - Protamine sulfate should be given | Epinephrine should be given |
| The patient in rm 12 is having a trans-metatarsal amputation due to clostridium perfringens. What does the patient have? | Gas gangrene |
| Dr. X in rm 1 wants to know if there is an infection process going on with his patient. What lab test will he want? - C&S (culture & sensitivity) - I&D (incise&drain) - Frozen section - CBC | C&S (culture and sensitivity) |
| Sharon, the ST assigned to rm 3 has learned that the patient is HIV positive. What precautions should she take? - Isolation - Standard - Universal - She should refuse to scrub the case | Standard |
| The patient undergoing the lumbar laminectomy has severe rheumatoid arthritis. This is an example of what disease process? | Autoimmune |
| The prefix that designates 1000 times the basic unit in the metric system is: - Milli - Centi - Kilo - Micro | Kilo |
| The basic unit of measurement for weight in the metric system is the: - Gram - Liter - Grain - ounce | Gram |
| The number of milliliters in an ounce is: - 100 - 30 - 240 - 16 | 30 |
| The number of a milliliters in a cup is: - 500 -30 -1000 -240 | 240 (Average cup is 8 ounces; 8ounces x 30ml/ounce= 240ml) |
| Medication used to relive pain is a: | Analgesic |
| A drug with a high potential for addiction and abuse is a: | Controlled substance |
| Anesthesia produced by marked cooling is: - Cryoanesthesia - Hypnoanesthesia - Acupunture - Balanced anesthesia | Cryoanesthesia |
| An example of a type of drug used to prevent disease is a: - sedative - vaccine - anesthetic - contrast medium | Vaccine |
| The route of administration which produces the most immediate action is: - PO - IV - IM - Sublingual | IV |
| Saying that a drug is to be given “hs” means that: - It can be taken as the patient desires - It should be taken at bedtime - It should be placed in both ears - It is to be taken before meals | It should be taken at bedtime |
| The needle gauge most appropriate for local infiltration is: -16g -18g -20g -25g | 25g |
| The surgeons preference card calls for 250mg of Ancef. The vial you have us labeled “1g/2cc” you would draw up? -0.5 cc -1 cc -1.5 cc -2 cc | 0.5 cc |
| For a vein graft procedure, you are instructed to draw up 0.3ml of a drug. The syringe you will use is: - standard - local - 5 cc - tuberculin | Tuberculin |
| The physician asks for 30mg of Papaverine and the label on the bottle reads “60mg/2ml”. How much would you draw up? - 1.5ml - 1 ml - 0.5ml - 2 ml | 1 ml |
| A 50% solution of dextrose in water means that: - the solution is one-half dextrose - there are 50g of dextrose in 100ml of water - there are 50g of dextrose in 1000ml of water - there are 50g of dextrose in 50ml of water | There are 50g of dextrose in 100ml of water |
| When passing a prepared drug to the surgeon the ST should: | Recite the name, amount and strength of the drug |
| When receiving drugs from a circulator the ST should: | Read aloud the name of drug, strength or amount of drug and expiration date |
| Anticholinergic medication such as atropine or glycopyrrolate(Robinul) are given preoperativly to: -reduce anxiety and stress - Reduce pain and nausea - Reduce the output of the bile - Block secretions and prevent reflex bradycardia | Block secretions and prevents reflex bradycardia |
| Which of the following is a narcotic analgesic? - Nitroprusside sodium(Nipride) - Meperdine hydrochloride (Demerol) - Cimetidine (Tagamet) - Propofol (Diprivan) | Meperdine hydrochloride (Demerol) |
| A drug commonly used to reduce vascular spasms during vascular surgery is: | Papaverine |
| A local anesthetic that is only used topically is: | Cocaine hydrochloride |
| A local anesthetic drug that may also be used to treat ventricular arrhythmias is: | Lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine) |
| An adrenergic drug that increases blood pressure, dilated bronchioles, constricts blood vessels and may be added to local anesthetic is: | Epinephrine (adrenaline) a vasoconstrictor medication |
| An absorbable hemostatic agent that must be handled dry is: - microfibrillar collagen (Avitene) - absorbable gelatin sponge (Gelfoam) - thrombin - protamine sulfate | Microfibrillar collagen (Avitene) |
| An anticoagulant used during vascular surgery that can be reversed with protamine sulfate is: | Heparin sodium |
| An enzyme sometimes added to a local anesthetic to enhance infiltration is: - acetylcholine chloride (Miochol) - alpha-chymotripsin (Zolase) - Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) - Hyaluronidase (Wydase) | Hyaluronidase (Wydase) |
| A contrast medium used when performing a cholangiogram is: - methylene blue - schillers solution - diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque) - gentian violet | Diatrizoate sodium (Hypaque) |
| Dr. R, is performing a lumbar laminectomy in rm 6, has asked for an absorbable gelatin sponge hemostatic for this procedure. What should the ST expect on the backs table? - Monsels solution - Surgicel - Gelfoam - Avitene | Gelfoam |
| Which medication will likely be found on the back table during a Bovine Thrombectomy? | Heparin |
| Which surgery would most likely utilize radiopaque dye? - Lumbar laminectomy - Hysterectomy - Cystoscopy - Tracheostomy | Cystoscopy |
| Dr. M, is performing a rhinoplasty and has requested a topical anesthetic to shrink the mucous membrane. What is the most likely medication going to be given? | Cocaine |
| The patient is rm 5 is experiencing Malignant hyperthermia. What drug will be used to control this anesthetic emergency? | Dantrolene |
| Dr. K in rm 10 will require antibiotics irrigation for the colectomy he will be performing. What type of antibiotic should the ST expect? - penicillin - aminoglycoside - cephalosporin - tetracycline | Aminoglycoside (Used often for abdominal procedures) |
| Dr. W is doing a knee replacement in rm 12 and is using PMMA. Which hemostatic agent should NOT be used in this surgery? - absorbable collagen sponge (Avitene) - oxidized cellulose - bone wax - absorbable gelatin sponge (Gelfoam) | Absorbable collagen sponge (Avitene) |
| Which diagnostic agent will likely be used in rm 11 during the sentinel node biopsy? - Methylene blue - Gentian violet - Isosulfan blue - Isovue | Isosulfan blue |
| What dye is commonly used to view the patency or anatomical structures such as Fallopian tubes or ureters. - Methylene blue - Gentian violet - Isosulfan blue - Lugols solution | Methylene blue |
| The surgeon in rm 5 needs solution for the TURP. What type of solution should the ST retrieve? - NaCl - Glycine - Sorbitol - Sterile water | Sorbitol |
| Dr. E in rm 8 is concerned that the patient may have been given too much heparin, what medication will he use to reverse the effects? | Protamine sulfate |
| In an atom, the negatively charged particles are called: -Electrons -Neutrons -Photons -Protons | Electrons |
| Which particles are found in the nucleus of an atom? | Protons and neutrons |
| Which particles are found in the valence shell of an atom. | Electrons |
| Which of the following material is NOT a conductor of electrical energy? - Carbon - Rubber - Copper - Water | Rubber |
| The force or push that moves free electrons from one atom to another is referred to as: - amperes - frequency - power - voltage | Voltage |
| Which of the following electrical energy concepts is measure in Hertz? - amperes - frequency - power - voltage | Frequency |
| Which of the following electrical energy concepts is measured in Watts? - amperes - frequency - power - voltage | Power |
| The measurement of the amount of current flowing past a given point in a circuit in one second is? - amperes - frequency - power - voltage | Amperes |
| Which of the following electrical energy concept is measured in Ohms? - frequency - impedance - power - resistance | Resistance |
| A material that either facilitates or obstructs the flow of electricity is: - frequency - impedance - power - resistance | Impedance |
| Which of the following concepts is true? -radiofreqiency cycles at approx 60cycles per sec -radiofrequency cycles at approx 100,000cycles per sec -household current cycles approx100,000cycle per min -household current cycles approx 60cycles per min | Radiofrequency cycles at approximately 100,000 cycles per second |
| Which of the following statements is true -direct current flows in 1 direction&gains voltage when it travels through conductors over long distances -AC current is used in batteries -AC flows back&forth along a single pathway due to changes in polarity | Alternating current flows back and forth along a single pathway due to changes in polarity |
| Which of the concepts of ESU electrical energy flow is correct? -use of Monopolar, flow may result in alternate site burns -during the use of Monopolar, the energy passes through the tissue & returns through the same instrument used to deliver energy | Use of Monopolar energy flow may result in alternate site burns |
| The electrical energy device that causes the collagen matrix in vessel walls & connective tissue to reform permanently fused tissue matrix is the: - argon-enhanced coagulator - ESU - harmonic scalpel - LigaSure | LigaSure |
| The mechanical energy device that uses a piezoelectric transducer to create mechanical friction energy is called: - argon-enhanced coagulator - harmonic scalpel - LigaSure - Morcellator | Harmonic scalpel |
| Which of the following fragments tissue into long strips that can be extracted through the barrel of the instrument? - argon-enhanced coagulator - harmonic scalpel - LigaSure - morcellator | Morcellator |
| The characteristics of light energy include all of the following except: - Color - Radiation - Reflection - Refraction | Radiation |
| The characteristics of LASER light include all of the following except: - coherence - collimation - divergence - monochromatic | Divergence |
| Solid medium LASERs include which of the following: - argon & Carbon dioxide - Carbon dioxide & KTP - KTP & Nd:YAG - tunable dye & Nd:YAG | KTP and Nd:YAG |
| Which of the following is not a property of solids? - have a fixed volume - take a shape of the container - are found in crystal arrangements - are found in amorphous arrangements | Take a shape of the container |
| The state of matter that has no fixed volume or shape and is affected by magnetic and electrical fields is: - gas - liquid - plasma - solid | Plasma |
| The method of the heat transfer used in a neonatal warmer is: | Radiation |
| The heat transference that results from contact of internal organs with a cool irrigation solution is: - conduction - collimation - radiation - reflection | Conduction |
| Computer input devices include a: - modem - monitor - printer - scanner | Scanner |
| What are computer outputs: | Modem, monitor, and printer |
| The single robotic arm: - attaches to the bed rail of the OR table - is guided by the surgeon seated at a remote console - controls the room functions in an intergrated suite - translates actions of the surgeons hand movements | Attached to the bed rail of the OR table |
| The mechanical energy device that used an ultrasonic vibrating tip to “break up” and vacuum away tissue is: - Cavitational Ultrasonic Suction Aspirator (CUSA) - Harmonic scalpel - LigaSure - Morcellator | Cavitational Ultrasonic Suction Aspirator (CUSA) |
| A particle of LASER light energy is called a: - Electron - Neutron - Photon - Proton | Photon |
| The surgeon in rm 1 has requested a LASER for the cervical ablation. What type of LASER is the most likely one to be used? - Nd:YAG - Carbon dioxide - Holmium:YAG - Krypton | Carbon dioxide |
| The surgeon that has an arthroscopy on call will also need to use a LASER. Which one will they most likely use? - Nd:YAG - Holmium: YAG - Krypton - Carbon dioxide | Holmium: YAG |
| Which of the following LASER is most likely used for a cystocopy? - Nd:YAG - Holmium: YAG - Carbon dioxide - Krypton | Nd:YAG |
| Dr. R is performing a lumbar laminectomy and will need an electrosurgical device that allows him to focus current in a small area between the tips. What type of electrocautery will he need? - Monopolar - Footswitch - Bipolar - Morcellator | Bipolar |
| Dr. X wants an instrument that will use ultrasonic sound waves to cut and cauterize tissue. What should the ST request? | Harmonic scalpel |
| The surgeon in rm 2 is using a robotic device for his surgery. Unfortunately, he is encountering some difficulty. The right and left movement of the arm is off. What does the ST need to check - Yaw - Roll - Telechir - Articulation point | Yaw |
| The surgeon is encountering difficulties with the rotation on the robotic device. What should the ST check? - Yaw - Roll - Telechir - Articulation point | Roll |
| Dr. B has an ophthalmic case that will be on the schedule tomorrow. Which LASER will he need? - Krypton - Nd:YAG - Holmium - Carbon dioxide | Krypton |
| Dr. P has a great opportunity to perform surgery via remote control. What type of robot will he be using to do this? - Binaural hearing - Robotic articulator - Telechir - Yaw and Roll | Telechir |
| Dr. T needs a robotic device that will attach to the table rail to hold an endoscope. What would he require? - Single Robotic Arm - CUSA - FRED - Remote surgical manipulator | Single Robotic Arm |
| The proper attire for the semi-restricted area in the operating room suite, such as a conference room is: | Hair cap, scrub suit, shoe covers |
| The decrease airborne contamination and static electricity, the relative humidity of the operating room is maintained at: - 30-35% - 40-45% - 50-55% - 70-75% | 50-55% |
| The operating room temperature should be raised from the normal 68•F to 73•F for which of the following patient population: | Pediatrics (infant), geriatric, and burn patients |
| Patient safety in the OR is the responsibility of the: - surgeon - anesthesiologists - nurse - entire surgical team | Entire surgical team |
| When lifting heavy objects, you should: - Lift with a slow, even motion - Keep knees straight - Stand as far from the object being moved as possible - Keep feet close | Lift with a slow, even motion |
| Which of the following is not a source of ionizing radiation? - radioactive elements - xrays - fluoroscopy - LASERs | LASERs |
| All the following actions will decrease exposure to ionizing radiation except: -Decrease time in the beam -Keep distance between you & source of radiation -using a smoke evacuator & high filtration mask -wear a lead apron, collar or gonadal shield | Using a smoke evacuator & high filtration mask |
| A moist sponge is placed in the rectum during LASER procedure of the perineum or anus to: -prevent seepage of fecal material -prevent the escape of methane gas -Keep bacteria out of the field -decreas bad odors | Prevent the escape of methane gas |
| If the red light comes on or the alarm from the line isolation monitor sounds, you would first: -Pull the fire alarms -Notify the supervisor -Ignore it -Unplug the last piece of equipment plugged into the power system | Unplug the last piece of equipment plugged into the power system |
| The following are safeguards to be followed when using electronic devices except: -Avoid excess pull on cords - Disconnect equipment to turn it off - Do not place electrosurgical units next to patient monitors - Keep liquids off electrical equipment | Disconnect equipment to turn off |
| Which of the following is not part of the fire triangle? - Fuel - Carbon dioxide - Ignition source - Oxygen | Carbon dioxide |
| Which of the following antiseptics is not used as a skin prep when using electrosurgery or LASER? - Povidone iodine - Hexachlorophene - Chlorhexidine gluconate - Isopropyl alcohol | Isopropyl alcohol |
| Pressurized water is most effective in containing: - Class A fires - Class B fires - Class C fires - All of the above | Class A |
| Which of the following agents gives off toxic vapors when being mixed? - alcohol - Chlorhexidine gluconate - Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) - nitrous oxide | Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) |
| The legal doctrine which holds the institution liable for failure to ensure an acceptable level of is: - Respondant superior - Doctrine of reasonable man - Borrowed servant rule - Corporate negligence | Corporate negligence |
| The legal term that means “first, do no harm” is: | Primum non nocere |
| The legal rule broken when a surgical team member discloses information about a patient which he/she learned in the OR is: -invasion of privacy -doctrine of reasonable man -iatrogenic injury -primum non nocere | Invasion of privacy |
| Defamation or injury to an individual’s character carries out in writing is called: | Libel |
| Defamation or injury to an individual’s character carries out orally is called: | Slander |
| The motto of the Association of Surgical Technologist (AST) is Aeger Primo, which means: | The patient first |
| If a surgical sponge was left in a patient, this would be an example of which legal doctrine? | Res ispa loquitor |
| If a premedicated patient were left unattended and fell from the stretcher and received an injury, this would be a direct example of: -Abandonment - Corporate negligence - Accountability - Doctrine of the reasonable man | Abandonment |
| Which of the following is a recommended ventilation practice in an individual OR? - At least 20 air exchange per minute - Laminar air flow at a rate of 25 air exchanges per hour - Negative air pressure - use of in-line HEPA filters | Use of in-line HEPA filters |
| The following are safety precautions when using a LASER except: -Use of special endotracheal tubes when performing oral LASER procedures -Use of moistened drapes around target tissue -Use of reflective metal instruments -Wearing special LASER eyewear | Use of reflective metal instruments |
| Which of the following is not a requirement for an individual OR? - grounded wall outlets 2 ft above the floor - X-ray view boxes - Nonporous floors, walls and ceilings - Outlets for vacuum, oxygen and nitrous oxide | Grounded wall outlets 2ft above the floor (They should be located above the 5ft level or should be explosion proof to avoid explosions) |
| Which of the following is not recommended furniture or equipment in an individual OR? -Standing & sitting stools -Computer terminals -Waste & linen hampers -Fax machine | Fax machine |
| The ST in rm 10 received an emergency phone call from home. If this ST leaves the rm before a replacement is found, what could this action be considered? -Breach of trust -Abandonment -Res ipsa loquitor -Malpractice | Abandonment |
| Dr. X will need a specialty instrument for his second case. Where will the ST go to fine this item? - Materials management - Sub sterile room - Instrument room - Decontamination | Instrument room |
| A small LASER fire has ignited in rm 3. What class of extinguisher will be used to douse the fire? - Class A - Class B - Class C - Water | Class C |
| The ST in rm 13 knows the patient. She decides to send flowers to the women at her office. What tort would this be a breach of? - Privacy - Defamation - Professionalism - Breach of trust | Privacy |
| The ESU cord in rm 4 is frayed. What should the ST do? - Use the machine until a replacement has been brought in - Cancel the surgery - Wrap the cord securely with electrical tape - Do not use the ESU | Do not use the ESU |
| The specimen in Dr. Ks Nephrectomy was accidentally discarded. This would be considered a: - Sentinel event - Misconduct - Patient safety issue - Ethical breach | Sentinel event |
| The last three patients in rm 5 have suffered complications due to SSIs. Which department will investigate the reasons? - Pathology - Risk management - OR supervisor - Hospital board | Risk management |
| Halfway through the mastectomy in rm 11, the circulating nurse realizes that a wrapper that contained an instrument set has a small tear in it. What protocol should be followed? | All members of the team should immediately be informed and proper precautions should be implemented |
| The patient scheduled for the Arthrocentisis in rm 12 is latex allergic. What should be done? -Surgery is canceled -The surgery should be rescheduled to be the first case of the day -The surgery should be moved to rm 8 following a bovine Thrombectomy | The surgery should be rescheduled to be the first case of the day. |
| The ST in rm 3 accidently spilled peracetic acid. What does the ST need to make sure that this spill is handled correctly? -MSDS sheet -Copious amounts of water -The OR manager -The housekeeping department as it is their job to clean areas | MSDS sheet |
| A chemical agent used to inhibit the growth of microorganisms on skin and mucous membranes is a: - Sporicide - Disinfectant - Antihistamine - Antiseptic | Antiseptic |
| The process of destroying microorganisms on inanimate (nonliving) objects is: - Sanitation - Sterilization - Disinfection - Decontamination | Disinfection |
| The procedure for destroying pathogens at the end of the procedure is: - Surgical asepsis - Surgical conscience - Terminal sterilization - Sterilization | Terminal sterilization |
| The safest, most practical means for sterilizing heat- and moisture-stable items is: - Saturated steam under pressure - Ethylene oxide gas - Activated glutaraldehyde - Boiling water | Saturated steam under pressure |
| The minimal temperature required to kill bacteria spores is: - 212•F (100•C) - 250•F (121•C) - 270•F (132•C) - 32•F (0•C) | 250•F. (121•C) |
| The Bowie-dick test must be run daily in which of the following types of sterilizer? - Ethylene oxide gas - Hydrogen peroxide plasma - Peracetic acid - Prevacuum | Prevacuum |
| Which of the following types of sterilizer would require a drying cycle? - Peracetic acid (STERIS) - Gravity displacement - Ethylene oxide gas - Ionizing radiation | Gravity displacement |
| Aeration is essential following sterilization by: - Ionizing radiation - Hydrogen peroxide plasma (Sterrad) - Activated glutaraldehyde - Ethylene oxide gas | Ethylene oxide gas |
| In the middle of the surgical procedure, a critical stainless steel instrument is contaminated & there is no sterile replacement. Which time setting would be selected for the flash autoclave? - 3 min - 10 min - 15 min - 30 min | 3 min |
| The most reliable means of monitoring the effectiveness of the sterilizer that ensures sterilization parameters have been met is: - Biological - Mechanical - Chemical - None, monitoring is not required | Biological |
| When packing instruments for sterilization, instruments should be: - fully assembled - Lubricated - Placed in closely nested section - Left open and placed on a rack | Left open and placed on a rack |
| When storing sterile packs, you should place them: - In open cabinets near a vent - Behind packs with older dates - On their sides - In areas of high humidity | Behind packs with older dates |
| Items that contact sterile tissue and must be sterilized are considered: - Critical - Semicritical - Noncritical - Restricted | Critical |
| When disinfecting instruments for use, you would do all of the following except: -Rinse immediately before putting in the germicide -Clean to reduce the bioburden -Ensure that all surfaces are exposed to the germicidal agent -Rinse w/ distilled water | Rinse immediately before putting in the germicide |
| The disinfectant that should not be used on lenses instruments due to the potential for loosening the “cement” around the lens is: - Glutaraldehyde - Isopropyl alcohol - Chlorine compounds - Phenolic compounds | Isopropyl alcohol |
| Spillage of blood that occurs during surgery should be: - covered with an impervious drape - Sectioned off from traffic - Cleaned up at the end of the procedure - Cleaned up immediately | Cleaned up immediately |
| The purpose of keeping doors to the operating room closed to: - Decrease noise level - Maintain negative pressure - Maintain positive pressure - Maintain proper temperature | Maintain positive pressure |
| The purpose of washing the hands prior to the surgical scrub is to: - Render then sterile - Remove gross soil and transient microorganisms - Protect personnel from contracting disease - Remove resident microorganisms | Remove gross soil and transient microorganisms |
| When draping a sterile field, the scrubbed person would do all of the following except: -Drape from the periphery to operative site -Protect the gloves hand with a cuff -Drape the patient & all furniture & equipment to be included in the sterile field | Drape from the periphery to the operative site |
| When dispensing sterile items to a sterile field the circulator would: -Open the far side of the package last -Stand as close to the sterile field as possible -Ensure that wrapper tails are properly secured -Recap the remaining portion of saline | Ensure that wrapper tails are properly secured |
| The scrub has completed the sterile setup when notified that surgery will be 30 min late. He would: -Remain w/ sterile field until further notice -Cover sterile items&take a break -Break scrub&get direction from supervisor -Find comfortable stool&wait | Remain with the sterile field until further notice |
| Bioburden refers to: - An agent that kills microorganisms on inanimate objects - The process of destroying all microorganisms, including spores - Inhibition of baterías growth - The degree of microbial contamination | The degree of microbial contamination |
| Procedures performed at the end of a surgical case to protect the healthcare worker who will be handling the surgical instruments in the sterile processing department is know: -Terminal disinfection&Sterilization -Surgical conscience -Strike-through | Terminal disinfection and sterilization |
| Which of the following is not an acceptable method of transporting contaminated instruments down the hall following a surgical procedure: -In a closed case cart -Covered in a plastic bag -In an open-mwah bottom tray -Any of the above are acceptable | In an open-mesh tray |
| If the temperature on the steam sterilization sterilizer reads 270•F, what should the pressure reading be? - 15 to 17 psi - 20 to 25 psi - 27 psi - 30 to 35 psi | 27 psi |
| An implant for use in the knee arthroscopy needed to be processed. What indicator should be used to ensure that there are no living microbes or spores? - Chemical indicator - Bowie dick - Biological indicator - Julian date | Biological indicator |
| The ST is in a hurry & needs an instrument that is peel packed & stored in the instrument rm. When she obtains the instrument, the expiration date shows that the package needs to be reprocessed.What should she do? | Unpackage the instrument and use the flash sterilizer |
| A splenectomy experienced complications, there was blood spilled on the OR floor. The circulator needs to decontaminate the area. What type of agent would most likely be used? -Bleach -Glutaraldehyde (Cidex) -Hospital grade disinfectant -Sterile water | Hospital grade disinfectant |
| The ST in the cystoscopies rm has retrieved an item from Cidex solution. This item has a lumen. What precautions does the ST need to take? -Item is flushed&rinsed will w/ sterile 0.5% alcohol solution -Item is rinsed&lumen flushed w/ sterile water | Item need to be rinsed and lumen flushes with sterile water |
| The same item must be reprocessed after use. What does the ST need to remember? -Item should be damped, w/ water in lumen before being processed -Item is cleaned & dried before placing in solution -Items must be processed in a closed unventilated rm | Item should be cleaned and dried before placing in solution |
| The ST in rm 11 will need to process an item using Sterrad. How long will this process take? - 1 hour - 20-30 min - 10 hours - 16 hours | 1 hour (The actual processing time for Sterrad is 1 hour and no aeration time is required ) |
| The ST setup a scope, when surgery is postponed. The scope has been processed w/ STERIS. What is important to remember? -Item processed w/ STERIS can’t be stored -Item processed w/ STERIS must be placed in a rigid container until surgery is rescheduled | Item processed with STERIS can not be stored |
| The ST is in a arthroscopy that needs to process the instrument after the surgery. There are several instruments that have multiple parts. How’s this handled? -Parts should be separated into multiple trays -Parts should be disassembled & processed | Parts should be disassembled and processed |
| The ST in rm 4 is finished w/ cases & is helping turn over.What must he remember when helping this team? -ORs are terminally cleaned every other day -OR tables shouldn’t be moved during cleaning process -You must use a clean mop-head for each room | You must use a clean mop head for each room |
| An expressed concern of the patient that he will be paralyzed following spinal anesthesia should be reported to the: -Surgeon -Anesthesia provider -Circulator -OR supervisor | Anesthesia provider |
| One way the ST could help meet the psychosocial need of the surgical patient is to: -Tell the patient that everything will be ok -Observe patients behavior & listen carefully to what they say -embrace patient & term then you know how they feel | Observe the patients behaviors and listen carefully to what the patient has to say |
| Obtaining the informed consent for surgery is the ultimate responsibility of the: | Surgeon |
| Person witnessing the signing of the consent for surgery attest to the following except: -Person signing the form is the person -Surgeon fully explained surgery to patient&family &understand -signature is given voluntary -patient is mental competent | The surgeon fully explained the surgery to the patient and family and they understand it |
| The operative permit must be signed: -Before the patient enters the hospital -Before the preoperative sedative medication is given -After the patient arrives in the holding area -Just before surgery begins | Before the preoperative sedative medication is given |
| In life-threatening circumstances consent for surgery may be granted by the following methods except: -Telephone conversation w/ nearest relative -2 consulting physicians -Signature of the assistant surgeon -Telegram/Fax consent from nearest relative | Signature of the assistant surgeon |
| During a preoperative visit, the anesthesia provider assigned an ASA classification of class V to a patient. This means: -Patient is very poor risk for surgery -Patient is in the best of health -Patient will be unable to pay -Patient is a minor | Patient is a very poor risk for surgery |
| Patient identification can best be made by: -Comparing the name on the bed w/ name on OR schedule -Asking the nurse to identify the patient -Comparing the name on patients ID band w/ the name on OR schedule -Asking the patient if he is Mr. Jones | Comparing the name on the patients identification band with the name on the OR schedule |
| When transporting a patient to surgery, you would: -Pull the stretcher from the foot when entering an elevator -Push the stretcher from the head when traveling through a corridor -Have patient hold onto the side rails -Place IV fluids beside patient | Push the stretcher from the head when traveling through a corridor |
| The reason for the 90• limit for extension of a patients arms on a padded armboard is: -Avoid injury to the brachial plexus -Avoid injury to the lunar nerve -Avoid injury to the perineal nerve -Avoid injury to the sciatic nerve | Avoid injury to the brachial plexus |
| Which of the following positions for surgery might require the use of shoulder braces? -Lateral -Dorsal recumbent -Kraske (jackknife) -Trendelenburg | Trendelenburg |
| Permission for turning the anesthetized patient from a dorsal recumbent to a prone position must be obtained from the: -Surgeon -Anesthesia provider -OR supervisor -Circulator | Anesthesia provider |
| The position that permits enhanced visualization during pelvic surgery is: -Reverse trendelenburg -Trendelenburg -Lithotomy -Sims | Trendelenburg |
| Postural hypotension is a threat when the patient is placed in which of the following positions? -Fowler -Trendelenburg -Lateral kidney -Prone | Fowler |
| The number of persons required to position a patient in stirrups is: | 2 |
| For the patient in the prone position, the weight of the body should be borne by the: -Iliac crest and acromion processes -Ischial spines and coccyx -Sternum and pubis -Abdomen and chest | Iliac crest and acromion processes |
| For a Right Nephrectomy the patient would be placed in the______position. -Right lateral kidney -Left lateral kidney -Sims -Kraske | Left lateral kidney |
| Which of the following antiseptics could stain the skin: -Isopropyl alcohol -Chlorhexidine gluconate -Hexachlorophene -Iodine | Iodine |
| The skin preparation area for a Carpal Tunnel Release would include: -The foot to 3 inches above the knee -The hand and arm to 3 inches above the elbow -The abdomen from nipple line to pubis -Chest from sternum to bedline & form clavicle to umbilicus | The hand and arm to 3 inches above the elbow |
| The surgical specimen which is examined immediately by the pathologist is a: -Amputated limb -Culture -Foreign body -Frozen section | Frozen section |
| Which of the following lab values falls within the normal range? -Hemoglobin of 6-8 grams -WBC count of 15,000 -Specific gravity of urine 1.055 -Hematocrit of 45% | Hematocrit of 45% |
| A normal hemoglobin value is: - 6 to 8 grams - 10 to 12 grams - 12 to 14 grams - 14 to 16 grams | 12 to 14 grams (A hemoglobin less than 10 indicates anemia |
| The normal specific gravity of urine is: - 1.055 - 1.005 to 1.025 - 1.025 to 1.050 - .950 to 1.005 | 1.005 to 1.025 (A high specific gravity indicates Dehydration) |
| Induced hypothermia may be accomplished by all of the following except: -Drugs -Packing the body in ice -Irrigating with cold fluids -Use of cooking blanket | Drugs |
| Correct hand placement for cardiac compressions during CPR is: - Lower third of the sternum - Epigastrium - Between the scapulae - On the left side of the chest above the heart | Lower third of the sternum |
| The symptoms of traumatic shock are: -Cool, clammy skin, weak, rapid pulse, dilated pupils -Hot, dry skin, fast pulse, constructed pupil - Redness, rash, swollen eyes, dyspnea - Cool, clammy skin, slow pulse, Kussmaul breathing | Cool, clammy skin, weak, rapid pulse and dilated pupils |
| Should cardiac arrest occur in the OR, the role of the scrub would be: - Perform mouth to mouth resuscitation - Perform cardiac compression - Obtain crash cart - Maintain the sterile field and keep track of counts | Maintain the sterile field and keep track of counts |
| How will the patient be positioned during a lumbar laminectomy: | Prone |
| A patient in rm 5 is morbidly obese.What special precaution that should be taken? -Morbidly obese patients are prone to infections, so prophylactic antibiotics should be given -Have extra personnel on hand for transporting&positioning patient | There should be extra personnel on hand for transporting and positioning |
| The patient in rm 13 is suffering from díabetes. What precautions should be taken? -Room should be heated to prevent hypothermia -Nutritional supplements should be given preoperatively -Antiembolic stockings may be used postoperatively | Antiembolic stockings may be used postoperatively to aid in circulation |
| How will the patient scheduled for a LAVH (Laparoscopically assisted vaginal hysterectomy)in rm 7 be positioned? | Lithotomy |
| Where will the safety strap be located on the patient for a Lobectomy, Thoracotomy, Tracheostomy? -Across the lower legs -2 inches above the knee -At the waist -There will not be safety straps on these surgical procedures | 2 inches above the knee |
| How will the cystoscopy patient be positioned? | Lithotomy |
| A Wilson frame will be used in one of the surgeries listed. Which one is the most likely to use this device? -Hepatic resection -LAVH(Laparoscopically assisted vaginal hysterectomy) -Craniotomy -Lumbar laminectomy | Lumbar laminectomy |
| The patient who will undergo the Nephrectomy in rm 10 will be placed in a lateral position. How many people are required to position the patient? -2 -3 -4 -5 | 4 |
| Surgeon requires the patient in rm 2 to have an indwelling catheter.Why would this be ordered? -For patient comfort postoperatively -For sterile specimen collection -For convenience during rehabilitation -Keep the bladder inflated during the procedure | For sterile specimen collection |
| The patient is scheduled for a skin graft needs to be prepped.What does the ST need to do? -Use 1 kit of providing iodine for the recipient site & leave donor site clear -Use separate setup for each site & prep donor site first -Don’t prep either site | Use separate setup for each site and prep donor site first |
| A large bruise on the thigh, irregular cut on forehead, & skin scraped off the arm. Describes: -incise wound of thigh, -avulsion of thigh, contused forehead, abrasion of arm -Contused of thigh, laceration of forehead, abrasion of arm | Contused wound of thigh, laceration of forehead and abrasion of arm |
| A gun wound of the abdomen w/ perforated bowel, expect the surgeon to: -cleanup wound & approximate edges for primary intention healing -cleanup wound, pack wound to keep edges apart & bring patient at a later date for delayed closure | Clean up the wound, pack the wound to keep wound edges apart, and bring the patient back at a later date for delayed closure |
| Controlled of bleeding is called: | Hemostasis (Heno: blood. Stasis: control) |
| During which phase of wound healing will a the strength of the wound limited to the suture holding it together? -granulation -Lag phase (inflammatory) -Epithelization (proliferation) -Remolding (maturation) | Lag Phase inflammatory (Epithelization (proliferation) is the phase when collagen is being formed usually by 2 weeks) (Remolding is when wound strength returns) |
| All of the following factors delay wound healing except: -smoking -steroid or cancer drugs -emotional stress -good circulation | Good circulation |
| Which of the following intraoperative techniques would not promote wound healing? -inoculum of bacteria into the wound -preservation of blood supply -elimination of dead space -irrigation to debride the wound | Inoculum of bacteria into the wound |
| Which of the following wounds would be a class I? -Removal of appendix with no major spill -inguinal hernia repair without break in technique -compound fracture -gunshot wound of the abdomen | Inguinal hernia repair without break in technique (Compound fracture would be a class III) (Gun shot wound and appendix with major spillage would be a class IV) |
| A collection of fluids in tissue would result in all of following except: -Hemostasis -a culture medium for bacteria -Pressure on adjacent organs -Elevation of skin flag with the loss of vascularity & predisposition ti wound disruption | Hemostasis |
| For which of the following wound drains would a sterile safety pin be needed? -Sump drain -Closed would suction drain -Penrose drain -Gravity drain | Penrose drain |
| Inadvertent removal of which one of the following drains during the first 48hrs after placement would cause the least concern? -T-tube(gravity drain) -Wound stump drain -Closed would suction drain -Nasogastric tube | Nasogastric tube (Drains pleases in natural orfices will not granulate causing no further damage then one granulated to skin) |
| Which of the following signs would you expect if the patient is hemorrhaging? -Slow pulse -Hypertension -Cool, moist skin -Flushed face | Cool, moist skin |
| Which of the following methods of Hemostasis is thermal? -Absorbable gelatin (Gelfoam) -Thrombin -Esmarch bandage -Electrocautery | Electrocautery |
| When fibrous bands of scar tissue binds organs together the condition is: -Adhesions -Cicatrix -Evisceration -Sinus tract | Adhesions |
| A suture at the secondary suture line is a: -Stick tie -Ligature -Traction suture -Retention suture | Retention suture (A retention/tension/through and through suture creates the secondary suture line) |
| Of the following sutures, which will be absorbed quickest? -surgical gut -polyglycolic acid (Dexon) -polypropylene (Prolene) -polydioxanone (PDS) | Surgical gut |
| Which suture is contraindicated both in the presence of infection and the urinary or biliary tract? -Chromic gut -Polypropylene (Prolene) -polydioxanone (PDS) -Silk | Silk (Braided non absorbable not to be used in presence of infection and not to be used in urinary and biliary tract because it serves as a nucleus for stone formation) |
| Which suture gauge would be more appropriate for ophthalmic surgery? A. 7 B. 0 C. 4-0 D. 8-0 | 8-0 Ophthalmic surgery requires a very fine suture from 5-0 to 11-0 |
| The needle point most appropriate for suturing liver, pancreas, or spleen is: -taper -blunt -cutting -trocars | Blunt |
| Which of the following statements best describes the placement of the needle holder on the needle? -1/4 of the distance from the point -on swaged section -in the center of the needle -1/3 the distance from the eye or swaged | 1/3 the distance from the eye or swaged |
| The stitch which provides the most rapid closure, even distribution of tension, and a leakproof suture line -interrupted -continuous -purse string -buried | Continuous Also known as a running stitch |
| The purpose of a secondary suture line is to: -reinforce the primary suture line -provide traction to immobilize tissue -secure the wound drain -suture around lumen to occult a vessel | Reinforce the primary suture line |
| With which of the following staplers would the surgeon need assistance in application -ligation clip -linear stapler -intraluminal stapler -skin staple | Skin staple |
| The dressing that should be placed nearest the wound is: -Primary -Secondary -pressure -Rigid | Primary |
| Dressing sponges are opened by the circulator: -before the surgical procedure begins -before the counts are taken -after the final count is taken -anytime the scrub calls for them | After the final count is taken |
| After the blood around the wound is wiped away with a damp sponge, the dressings are applied by the: -circulator as soon as drapes are removed -circulator before drapes are removed -ST before drapes are removed -physician after the drapes are removed | The scrub before the drapes are removed |
| What type of suture line will be used to close the appendix stump during a open appendectomy? | Purse string |
| What size suture will be most appropriate for the Bovine Thrombectomy? A. 5-0 B. 2 C. 1-0 D. 11-0 | 5-0 |
| The ST in room 5 has a packet of suture that is yellow. What type of suture is in this packet? -Nylon -Silk -Gut -Polyglactin 910 | |
| Gut | |
| The ST in room 9 needs Vicryl suture. What color packet will he get? -Yellow -Green -Peach -Violet | Violet |
| The surgeon in room 2 needs a stapler that can cut and staple a straight line simultaneously. Which stapling device should the ST get? -EEA -TA -LDS -Wound zipper | LDS (Lighting and dividing stapler) |
| The surgeon in room 5 will be placing interrupted stitches rapidly. What type of needle attachment will he most likely request? -Pop-offs -Swaged -French eye -Double arm | Pop-offs |
| The surgery in room 1 will require closure of the sternum. What type of suture material will be most likely used? -Surgical cotton -Stainless steel -Surgical gut -Polyglecaprone (Monocryl) | Stainless steel |
| The surgeon in room 7 has asked the ST for a stick tie. What is he requesting? - A tie on an instrument - A non cutting needle with attached suture - A mayo needle - A ligature reel | Non-cutting needle with attached suture |
| The patient having his appendix removed has been in intense pain. Once the surgeon gets the cecum, she discovers that the appendix has burst. What classification would this wound be? | Class III |
| Dr. T in room 9 has asked for Xeroform dressing for the STSG. What type of dressing is this? -Non occlusive -Semi occlusive -Occlusive -Non adhering | Occlusive |
| Which one of the following scalpel handles would be needed for a #20 blade? | #4 |
| Which of the following instruments would be used to cut bone? -Rongeurs -Allis forceps -#4 scalpel hand with #10 blade -Tenaculum | Rongeurs |
| Any of the following instruments could be used for Hemostasis except: -Babcock -Crile -Kelly -Schnidt | Babcock |
| Which one of the following is a manual retractor? -Gelpi -Harrington -Finochetti -Weitlaner | Harrington |
| Which one of the following instruments would not be used for suction? -Ferguson Frazier -Yankauer -Poole -Richardson | Richardson |
| Instrument should be closed: -when placed on the instrument table (back table) -When placed in the autoclave -When passed to the surgeon -When washes in the ultrasonic cleaner | When passes to the surgeon |
| When the box locks on instruments are stiff and difficult to open, they are placed in: -Sterile saline -Mineral oil -A water soluble lubricant bath -The was her sterilizer | A water soluble lubricant bath |
| When assembling instruments sets, you will need the: -surgeons preference card -surgical schedule -patients charts -instrument checklist | Instrument checklist |
| The most effective and efficient method for sterilizing wrapped instruments sets is a: -Prevacuum sterilizer -Flash autoclave -Ultrasonic cleaner -Peracetic acid sterilizer | Prevacuum sterilizer (Peracetic acid can’t be used on wrap instruments, ultrasonic cleaner isn’t a sterilizer and Flash autoclave is used sparingly for unwrapped instruments) |
| To counteract the heat produced by an electricpowered instrument, the scrub will: -Disconnect instrument when not in use -Drip sterile saline from a bulb syringe onto the blade while it is in action -place instrument in ice water when not in use | Drip sterile saline from a bulb syringe onto the blade of the instrument while it is in action |
| The most commonly used electrical instrument in surgery is a: -Drill -Microscope -Pneumatic tourniquet -Electrosurgical unit | Electrosurgical unit (ESU) |
| The grounding pad which connects the patient to the Electrosurgical generator is called a: -Active electrode -Inactive dispersive electrode -Bipolar electrode -Monitor | Inactive dispersive electrode |
| The power source for fiber optics should: -Be turned on at the time the cake is connected -Always be at the highest setting -Be rapidly increased in intensity -Be turned off before the power cord is disconnected from the wall outlet | Be turned off before the power cord is disconnected from the wall outlet |
| Which of the following endoscopic procedures would be a sterile procedure? -Laparoscopy -Gastroscopy -Laryngoscopy -Colonoscopy | Laparoscopy |
| Which of the following instruments is a stone forcep? -Adson brown -Lahey, Jacobs -Randall -Potts | Randall |
| Which of the following types of equipment would require sterile draping by the scrub? -ESU -Bronchoscope -Video tower -Microscope | Microscope |
| A device applied while an extremity is elevated for the purpose of exsanguinating blood prior to inflation of a pneumatic tourniquet is a | Esmarch bandage |
| Scalpel blades are applied with: | Needle holders |
| Following anesthesia induction, permission for changing the patients position must be obtained from the : | Anesthesia provider |
| Subsequent counts are taken for all of the following except: -Before the closure of a body cavity -After the closure of any body cavity -At the time of permanent relief of scrub or circulator -After the dressing spongers are opened | After dressing sponges are opened |
| What sponge is used for Blunt dissection of tissue | Peanuts sponges |
| What sponges are used swabbing delicate (brain) structures? | Cottonoid patties |
| What sponges are used for walling off viscera? | Lap pads |
| What sponges are used for swabbing superficial tissue? | 4x4 sponges (Raytecs) |
| The ST is scheduled for a bovine Thrombectomy. When he pulls his instruments set, what is one of the instruments he is likely to see in it? -Potts scissors -Lane bone holding clamp -Harrington retractor -Lambotte Osteotomes | Potts scissors |
| Which of the following instruments may be found for a Hysterectomy? -Pratt dilators -Heaney needle drivers -Castroviejo needle driver -Rongeur | Heaney needle drivers |
| Which surgery on the schedule may require the use of a CUSA? -The on call craniotomy to remove brain tumor -The lumbar laminectomy to free compressed spinal nerve -The transmetatarsal amputation from infection -The bovine Thrombectomy to remove a clot | The on call craniotomy to remove a brain tumor (The CUSA is used to break up abnormal tissue and aspirate it along with irrigation, away from the site) |
| Missing raytec, room has been searched, but not found. What should happen at this point? -Notify person in charge, have xrays taken, & document incident -Patient is given prophylactic antibiotics, & incident is reported to next of kin -No action needed | Notify the person in charge, have xrays taken, and document the incident |
| Which instrument is likely to be found during a Lobectomy, Thoracotomy, and tracheostomy? -Duval -O’Sullivan O’Connor -Tenaculum -Veress needle | Duval |
| The ST in room 13 will need a large self-retaining retractor. What should she look for? -Richardson -O’Sullivan O’Connor -Harrington -Davidson | O’Sullivan O’Connor |
| Which surgical procedure will most likely use cottonoids? -Hysterectomy -Osteotomy -Lobectomy -Craniotomy | Craniotomy |
| Wendy is a ST working in a circulating role in room 3. What is the duty she will be expected to perform? -Surgical scrub -Assist with dressing -Retract tissue does visualization -Run anesthesia machine | Assist with dressing |
| Which of the following instrument might be found during a transmetatarsal amputation, Osteotomy, & Arthroplasty right knee? -Lane -Haney clamp -Maryland dissector -Finochetto | Lane bone holding forcep |
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