A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be:

enhancement of labor contractions by oxytocin.

A parasagittal plane is:

any sagittal plane except the median.

Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains:

a relatively stable internal environment, within limits.

Subdivisions of anatomy include:

gross, regional, systemic, and surface.

Which of these is not a function of the plasma membrane?

It prevents potassium ions from leaking out of the cell.

transporting an endosome from one side of a cell to the other and releasing the contents by exocytosis.

Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?

A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.

Cholesterol is used in the cell membrane to:

help make the membrane more rigid.

are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic in nature.

Select the most correct statement regarding the glycocalyx.

It involves highly specific biological markers on the surface of the cell.

Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to synthesize and modify proteins for secretory use (export) only, never for use by the cell. This statement is:

false; integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this was.

Crenation is an example of:

blood cells in a hypertonic solution.

Hyaline cartilage is different from elastic or fibrocartilage because:

fibers are not visible with normal stains.

Select the correct statement regarding multicellular exocrine glands.

The secretory cells of holocrine glands release their product by rupturing.

The three main components of connective tissue are:

ground substance, fibers, and cells.

Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.

Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.

46. Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.

Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?

Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.

Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of:

diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis.

The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that:

the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber.

Keratinocytes are the most important of the epidermal cells because:

they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin its protective properties.

Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?

Lamellated granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces.

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A&P FINAL exam UNCP

Question	Answer
An increased rate of breathing as a result of an increased buildup of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream would be an example of:	responsiveness.
Normal body temperature is ________ degrees centigrade.	37
________ is a term that describes the heel region.	calcaneal
________ cavities are spaces between bones.	Synovial
A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be:	an organ
Your gall bladder would lie in which quadrant?	RUQ
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except:	palms turned posteriorly.
A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be:	enhancement of labor contractions by oxytocin.
A parasagittal plane is:	any sagittal plane except the median.
Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the right iliac region?	appendix
The visceral pleura would represent a serous membrane:	covering individual lungs.
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains:	a relatively stable internal environment, within limits.
Subdivisions of anatomy include:	gross, regional, systemic, and surface.
Calcium ions are stored (in the cell):	in the smooth ER.
Which of these is not a function of the plasma membrane?	It prevents potassium ions from leaking out of the cell.
Transcytosis is:	transporting an endosome from one side of a cell to the other and releasing the contents by exocytosis.
Which structures are fingerlike projections that greatly increase the absorbing surface of cells?	microvilli
Once solid material is phagocytized and taken into a vacuole, which of the following statements best describes what happens?	A lysosome combines with the vacuole and digests the enclosed solid material.
The electron microscope has revealed that one of the components within the cell consists of microtubules arranged to form a hollow tube. This structure is a:	centriole.
Cholesterol is used in the cell membrane to:	help make the membrane more rigid.
Phospholipids:	are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic in nature.
Select the most correct statement regarding the glycocalyx.	It involves highly specific biological markers on the surface of the cell.
Ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and the Golgi apparatus functionally act in sequence to synthesize and modify proteins for secretory use (export) only, never for use by the cell. This statement is:	false; integral cell membrane proteins are also synthesized this was.
Crenation is an example of:	blood cells in a hypertonic solution.
Some hormones enter cells via:	receptor-mediated endocytosis.
If a tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could attach to a(n) ________ mRNA codon.	UCG
________ are hollow tubes made of spherical protein subunits called tubulins.	Microtubules
Hyaline cartilage is different from elastic or fibrocartilage because:	fibers are not visible with normal stains.
Which of the following would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelium?	Golgi bodies
A single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes is:	simple squamous.
Matrix is:	fibers and ground substance.
The tissue type that arises from all three embryonic germ layers is:	epithelial tissue.
The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is:	collagen fiber.
Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue?	simple columnar
________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.	Pseudostratified columnar
A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as:	stratified squamous.
Select the correct statement regarding multicellular exocrine glands.	The secretory cells of holocrine glands release their product by rupturing.
The three main components of connective tissue are:	ground substance, fibers, and cells.
Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.	Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.
________ are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells.	Goblet cells
A large round cell with a peripheral nucleus describes a(n):	adipocyte.
All of the following statements refer to events of tissue repair. Put the events in proper numbered order according to the sequence of occurrence.	1,4,6,3,7,5,2
46. Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.	Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?	corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale
The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except:	external root sheath.
Which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goose bumps?	arrector pili
Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?	Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.
Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of:	diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis.
The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that:	the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber.
Keratinocytes are the most important of the epidermal cells because:	they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin its protective properties.
Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?	Lamellated granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces.
The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?	the reticular layer
Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?	eccrine and apocrine
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem not to be useful in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?	in the axillary and anogenital area
The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated:	by hormones, especially androgens.
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?	dehydration
Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because:	eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months of the year.
In the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is the Thoracic cavity.	c
In the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is the Right hypochondriac.	B
In the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is Cyclic AMP.	E
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo?	fibrocartilage
In bone formation, a deficiency of growth hormone will cause:	decreased proliferation of the epiphyseal plate cartilage.
In the diagram at left the bone labeled 1 is a:	Flat
A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the:	diaphysis.
The term diploe refers to:	the internal layer of spongy bone in flat bones.
The structural unit of compact bone is:	the osteon.
Bones are covered and lined by a protective tissue called periosteum. The inner (osteogenic) layer consists primarily of:	osteoblasts and osteoclasts. The small spaces in bone tissue that are holes in which osteocytes live are called:
For intramembranous ossification to take place, which of the following is necessary?	An ossification center forms in the fibrous connective tissue.
________ growth is growth in the diameter of long bones.	appositional
In the diagram at left the area labeled ________ is the area where yellow marrow is found.	D
Bones are constantly undergoing resorption for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process?	osteoclast
Vertebrae are considered ________ bones.	irregular
Wolff's law is concerned with:	the thickness and shape of a bone being dependent on stresses placed upon it.
Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth?	Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.
In some cases the epiphyseal plate of the long bones of children closes too early. What might be the cause?	elevated levels of sex hormones
It is thought that remodeling or bone growth is in response to the forces placed on it. Which of the following hypotheses may explain how mechanical forces communicate with cells responsible for bone remodeling?	Electrical signals direct the remodeling process.
A fracture in which a bone is broken into many pieces would be classified as a ________ fracture.	comminuted
A Haversian canal may contain arteries, veins, capillaries, lymph vessels, and ________ fibers.	nerve
________ is a disease of the bone in which bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit, leaving the person with thin and often very fragile bones.	osteoporosis
Several hormones control the remodeling of bones. Which two respond to changing blood calcium levels?	Calcitonin and PTH
Which forms the major portion of the coxal bone?	ilium
In the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is the orbital area.	E
The ethmoid bone is composed of all of the following except the:	inferior nasal concha.
The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the:	sagittal.
The pituitary gland is housed in the:	sella turcica of the sphenoid.
Along with support, the broad anterior ligament of the vertebral column also acts to:	prevent hyperextension of the spine.
The major function of the intervertebral discs is to:	absorb shock.
All of the following facial bones are paired except one. Which of the following is the unpaired facial bone?	vomer
Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body?	the lumbar region
Thoracic vertebrae T2 through T8 differ from the others in that:	they have superior and inferior demifacets.
The major function of the axial skeleton is to:	provide central support for the body and protect internal organs.
The short bone that attaches to the third metacarpal is the:	capitate.
The bone in direct contact with the first metatarsal (big toe) is the:	medial cuneiform.
Choose the statement that is most correct about orbits.	The orbits are formed of both facial and cranial bones.
Which of the following is the abnormal curve often seen in pregnant women as they attempt to preserve their center of gravity toward the end of the pregnancy?	lordosis
The articulation that most closely resembles a hinge in the body involves which bones?	humerus-ulna
Which of the following bones is not weight bearing?	fibula
The heel bone is called the ________.	calcaneus
The styloid process of the ________ points to the thumb.	radius
The large fossa on the anterior aspect of the scapula is the ________.	subscapular
Your cheek is composed of the ________ bone.	zygomatic
Which canal and three foramen are found going through the sphenoid bone?	optic canal, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum, foramen spinosum
In the diagram at left the joint labeled 7 is:	Biaxial
Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to:	provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints.
The joint between the frontal and parietal bones is called a ________ joint.	fibrous
A synchondrosis joint is a ________ structural class of joint.	cartilaginous
Partial dislocation of a joint is called a ________.	subluxation
Which of the following is not a major feature of a synovial joint?	fibrocartilage meniscus
Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called:	bursae.
Which of these joint types affords multiaxial movement?	ball and socket
The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called:	cruciate ligaments.
Fibrous joints are classified as:	sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses.
In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with:	hyaline cartilage.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements?	Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints
Gouty arthritis is a painful condition caused by:	excessive blood levels of uric acid deposited as crystals in the soft tissue joints.
Which of the following is a true statement?	The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.
Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include:	the patellar ligament extending from the inferior border of the patella to the tibial tuberosity
An example of an interosseus fibrous joint is:	the radius and ulna along its length.
Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Name the bones of the hand that articulate to form a saddle joint.	The trapezium of the carpal bones and the thumb's metacarpal.
In the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is the I band.	C
Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of:	intense exercise of short duration.
Which of the following is not a usual result of exercise?	increase in the number of muscle cells
In muscle contraction, calcium apparently acts to:	remove the blocking action of tropomyosin.
Calcium ions bind to the ________ molecule in skeletal muscle cells.	troponin
Myoglobin:	holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells.
After nervous stimulation of the muscle cell has ceased, the calcium:	level in the cytoplasm drops
the cytoplasm drops. Smooth muscles that act like skeletal muscles but are controlled by autonomic nerves and hormones are:	multiunit muscles.
Which of the following do not act as a stimulus to initiate a muscle contraction?	a change of temperature
The term aponeurosis refers to:	an indirect attachment to a skeletal element.
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are:	myofibrils.
One functional unit of a skeletal muscle is:	a sarcomere.
The functional role of the T tubules is to:	enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction.
The role of calcium ions in muscle contraction is to:	bind to regulatory sites on troponin, changing the configuration.
The warm-up period required of athletes in order to bring their muscles to peak performance is called:	treppe.
In an isotonic contraction, the muscle:	changes in length and moves the "load."
The muscle cell membrane is called a(n):	sarcolemma.
Smooth muscle is significantly different from striated muscle in several ways. Which of the following is true?	Smooth muscle shortens and stretches to a greater extent than does striated muscle.
The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle parallels that of skeletal muscle in the following ways except:	The site of calcium regulation differs.
Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except:	there are more thick filaments than thin filaments.
Which of the following statements is true?	Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is:	glycolysis.
An individual has just ingested a chemical that binds irreversibly to the ACh receptors in the sarcolemma. By itself it does not alter membrane potential, yet prevents normal neurotransmitter binding.the consequence to skeletal muscle would be:	no contraction at all by nervous mechanisms, but contraction if stimulated by an external electrode.
In the diagram at left which of the labeled muscles is the latissimus dorsi.	E
What primarily determines the power of a muscle?	the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
A muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement is called:	an agonist.
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, you can assume that:	the muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
The suprahyoid muscles:	are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity.
To produce horizontal wrinkles in the forehead, which of the following muscles is involved?	the frontalis
Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon?	the gastrocnemius
Which of the following does not compress the abdomen?	coccygeus
A muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime mover is a(n):	synergist.
A muscle located on the dorsal side of the body is the:	infraspinatus.
Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings?	gracilis
Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true?	During contraction the two articulating bones move equally.
The extensor digitorum longus has which type of fascicle arrangement?	unipennate
Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions?	the brachioradialis
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?	iliopsoas and rectus femoris
What do geniohyoid, hyoglossus, and stylohyoid have in common?	All act on the tongue.
Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?	tibialis anterior
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the knee?	hamstring muscles
Which of the following muscles does not act in plantar flexion?	popliteus
________ is a powerful forearm extensor.	Triceps brachii
The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing.	Buccinator
________ draws the corners of the mouth downward as in expressing horror.	platysma
________ is a synergist of the latissimus dorsi; it extends, medially rotates, and adducts the humerus.	teres major
In the diagram at left which of the labeled structures are synaptic vesicles.	C
Direct-acting neurotransmitters:	open ion channels to provoke rapid responses.
The point at which an impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell is the:	synapse.
The role of acetylcholinesterase is to:	destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axonal endings.
Choose the statement that is most correct about membrane potential.	Voltage is measured by placing one electrode inside the membrane and another outside the membrane.
Select the correct statement about synapses.	The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.
When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n):	generator potential.
Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes?	Some ions are prevented from moving down their concentration gradients by ATP-driven pumps.
In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is:	negatively charged and contains less sodium.
The gap between Schwann cells in the peripheral system is called a(n) ________.	Nodes of Ranvier
________ law is the relationship between voltage, current, and resistance.	Ohm’s Law
________ is a disease that gradually destroys the myelin sheaths of neurons in the CNS, particularly in young adults.	Multiple sclerosis
A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until:	all sodium gates are closed.
If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon:	the impulse would spread bidirectionally.
Which of the following is not a structural feature of a neuron?	synaptic cleft
If one incoming impulse causes several outgoing nerve impulses, we know that there is a:	diverging circuit.
Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?	innervation of skeletal muscle
The term central nervous system refers to the:	brain and spinal cord.
A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n):	association neuron.
Which of the following is a good example of a neuromodulator?	a hormone
Ependymal cells:	help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid.
Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters are:	astrocytes.
Neurons may be classified according to several characteristics. Which of the following is correct?	Group C fibers are not capable of saltatory conduction.
Select the correct statement about serial processing.	Spinal reflexes are an example of serial processing.
That part of the nervous system that is voluntary and conducts impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscles is the ________ nervous system.	Somatic
________ is a neurotransmitter of the CNS that is used by Purkinje cells of the CNS.	GABA
The nonspecific ascending pathways:	are involved in the emotional aspects of perception.
Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the:	pons.
In the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is the site containing the central canal.	A
Spinocerebellar tracts:	carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum.
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?	arachnoid and pia
Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in:	the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord.
The cerebrospinal fluid:	is formed mostly by the choroid plexuses.
If the posterior portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly:	the spinal cord may be affected.
The central sulcus separates which lobes?	frontal from parietal
An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in:	paraplegia.
Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the:	upper motor neurons.
Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are:	pyramidal and corticospinal.
An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the:	visual association area.
The function of commissures is to connect:	corresponding areas of the two hemispheres.
Which of the following is not part of the basal nuclei?	substantia nigra
The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called:	consolidation.
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following except:	loss of proprioception.
White matter of the spinal cord:	contains the anterior and posterior spinocerebral tracts.
Fact memory is not stored in the:	mammillary body.
Which of the following is/are involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)?	red nuclei
Second-order neurons of both the specific and nonspecific ascending pathways terminate in the:	thalamus.
Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the:	premotor cortex.
________ waves are not normal for adults but are common for children.	Theta
The ________ is a conduction pathway between higher and lower brain centers and houses nuclei for cranial nerves V-VII.	pons
Receptors for hearing are located in the:	cochlea.
Farsightedness is more properly called:	hyperopia.
Inhibitory cells in the olfactory bulbs are called:	granule cells.
Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear?	auditory tube
In the diagram at left which of the labeled structures is an amacrine cell.	D
There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves?	ganglion cells
The first "way station" in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial crossover of the fibers in the optic chiasma, is the:	lateral geniculate body of the thalamus.
Which statement about night blindness is most accurate?	Visual pigment content is reduced in both rods and cones.
Dark adaptation:	involves accumulation of rhodopsin.
The optic radiations project to the:	primary visual cortex.
Motion sickness seems to:	result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs.
Tinnitis, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called:	Me’niere's syndrome.
Which of the following is true about photoreceptors?	Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.
Select the correct statement about equilibrium.	Cristae respond to angular acceleration.
The receptor membranes of gustatory cells are:	gustatory hairs.
Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect:	convergence.
Which statement about sound localization is not true?	It requires processing at the cortical level.
Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness?	cochlear nerve degeneration
Visual processing in the thalamus does not contribute significantly to:	night vision.
Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by:	nociceptors.
Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?	vestibulocochlear
The oval window touches the stapes and the ________.	scala vestibule
Which of the following does the ciliary body NOT do?	constrict the pupil
________ are modified free-dendritic endings found in the stratum germinativum.	Merkel’s discs
The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ___________	sympathetic stimulation
Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the __________	sympathetic nervous system
The parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by peripheral ganglia near the ________	organs and by short postganglionic fibers
A drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in cardiac patients could be ________	a beta-blocker
Describe the cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division.	1. constriction of most blood vessels 2. dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles 3. increase of heart rate and force
The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the __________	parasympathetic division
Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ___________	hypothalamus
Compare and contrast the results of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation?	dilation of the pupils (not a result of parasympathetic stimulation)
The site of origin of the preganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system is the ______	brain stem and the sacral region of the cord
Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebrae?	first thoracic
Autonomic ganglia contain ____________________	the cell bodies of motor neurons
Describe the effects of Beta-blockers:	attach mainly to the β1 receptors of cardiac muscle
Describe autonomic control of erection of the penis or clitoris:	is primarily under parasympathetic control
Describe the uniquely sympathetic functions.	regulation of body temperature
What is Raynaud's disease:	is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
Sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the ________	thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
Where would you find an autonomic ganglion?	in the armpit
Sympathetic division stimulation causes _________	increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the_________	tenth cranial nerve
The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is the_________________	vagus nerve
Describe parasympathetic functions.	constriction of bronchioles
All preganglionic axons of the autonomic nervous system release_________	the same transmitter as the one released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons
The possibility of control over autonomic responses is demonstrated by__________________	biofeedback
The vagus nerve does not innervate the ________.	parotid gland
The ________ division causes erection of the penis and clitoris.	parasympathetic
The ________ division alone stimulates the lens of the eye.	parasympathetic
The two cholinergic receptor types are ________ and ________.	nicotinic; muscarinic
The ________ receptor type is used by the heart, and when activated increases heart rate.	β1
The parasympathetic division uses only ________ as a neurotransmitter in the ganglionic neurons.	acetylcholine
How is hypertension (high blood pressure) related to the ANS?	it controls smooth muscle activity, the heart, and blood vessel constriction
Discuss a way in which the opposing ANS systems cooperate with each other.	Prior to and during intercourse the parasympathetic system causes erection. During the climax the sympathetic system causes ejaculation of semen and reflex peristalsis of the vagina.
Endocrine glands secrete:	hormones
The type of glands that secrete products directly into the bloodstream without ducts are called:	endocrine glands
Which hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary?	FSH, LH, TSH, ACTH, MSH, prolactin
Which hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary?	ADH, oxytocin
The parathyroid glands secrete:	PTH
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are produced by the:	adrenal medulla
Glucocorticoids such as cortisol and mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone are produced by the:	adrenal cortex
The pancreas secretes:	glucagon, insulin
The thymus produces:	thymopoietins, thymic factor, thymosins
The pineal gland produces:	melatonin
Which hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex?	Pituitary hormone
Sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the:	thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine.
All preganglionic axons of the autonomic nervous system release:	the same transmitter as the one released by parasympathetic postganglionic axons.
The two cholinergic receptor types are ________ and ________.	muscarinic and nicotinic
Which of the following is a way in which the opposing ANS systems cooperate with each other.	Parasympathetic causes erection; sympathetic causes ejaculation
Which of the following does not act as a second messenger in second-messenger systems of hormone action?	calmodulin
Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells	a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA
Cells that respond to peptide hormones do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because:	G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers.
Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to:	steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells.
A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.	FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.

Created by: Brison

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