Question 1

The most common sign of significant abdominal injury is:

A. pain
B. tachycardia
C. rigidity
D. distention

Accepted Answer

B. tachycardia

Question 2

_____ takes place in the solid organs.

A. digestion
B. Excretion
C. Energy production
D. Absorption

Accepted Answer

C. Energy production

Question 3

The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury:

A. indicates a state of decompensated shock
B. should be assumed to be a sign of shock
C. is most commonly caused by severe pain
D. is always accompanied by hypo tension

Accepted Answer

C. is most commonly caused by severe pain

Question 4

In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______.
Select one:
A. more protected by the thorax compared to adults
B. smaller in proportion to the abdomen
C. less likely to bleed when injured
D. larger in proportion to the abdomen

Accepted Answer

D. larger in proportion to the abdomen

Question 5

The first signs of peritonitis include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. severe abdominal pain
B. tenderness
C. muscular spasm
D. nausea

Accepted Answer

D. nausea

Question 6

Following blunt abdominal trauma, a 30 year old male complains of referred pain to the left shoulder. This finding is called the:

A. Grey Turner sign
B. Kehr sign
C. Brudzinski sign
D. Cullen sign

Accepted Answer

B. Kehr sign

Question 7

Open abdominal injuries are also known as:

A. blunt injuries
B. eviscerations
C. penetrating injuries
D. peritoneal injuries

Accepted Answer

C. penetrating injuries

Question 8

While assessing a 21 year old female who struck a tree head-on with her small passenger car, you not that her air bag deployed. You should:

A. life the air bag and look for deformity to the steering wheel.
B. carefully assess her upper chest for seat belt-related injuries
C. perform a head-to-toe assessment while she is in the car
D. extricate her immediately and transport to a trauma center

Accepted Answer

A. lift the air bag and look for deformity to the steering wheel.

Question 9

The first signs of peritonitis include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. severe abdominal pain
B. tenderness
C. muscular spasm
D. nausea

Accepted Answer

D. nausea

Question 10

In cases of sexual assault, which of the following is true?

A. You should always examine the genitalia for any sign of injury
B. Advise the patient not to wash, urinate or defecate
C. In addition to recording the facts, it is important to include your personal thoughts
D. You should use plastic bags when collecting items such as clothes

Accepted Answer

B. Advise the patient not to wash, urinate or defecate

Question 11

Signs of injury to the kidney may include any of the following EXCEPT:

A. bruises or lacerations on the overlying skin
B. shock
C. increased urgency of urination
D. hematuria

Accepted Answer

C. increased urgency of urination

Question 12

You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a:
Select one:

Accepted Answer

A. laceration of the aorta.

Question 13

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in:
Select one:

A. paralysis of the diaphragm.
B. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.
C. immediate cardiac arrest.
D. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.

Accepted Answer

D. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.

Question 14

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that:
Select one:

A. facilitates shedding of the epidermis.
B. pulls the hair erect when you are cold.
C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface.
D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.

Accepted Answer

C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface.

Question 15

The skin regulates temperature in a cold environment by:
Select one:
A. secreting sweat through sweat glands.
B. constricting the blood vessels.
C. dilating the blood vessels.
D. increasing the amount of heat that is radiated from the body's surface.

Accepted Answer

B. constricting the blood vessels.

Question 16

The skin covering the _____ is quite thick.
Select one:
A. lips
B. scalp
C. ears
D. eyelids

Accepted Answer

B. scalp

Question 17

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object?
Select one:

A. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest
B. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen
C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back
D. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye

Accepted Answer

C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back

Question 18

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the:
Select one:
A. radial head.
B. distal humerus.
C. proximal radius.
D. olecranon process.

Accepted Answer

B. distal humerus.

Question 19

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should:
Select one:

Accepted Answer

B. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.

Question 20

During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred:

A.
during the tertiary phase.
B.
during the secondary phase.
C.
during the primary phase.
D.
as a direct result of the pressure wave.

Accepted Answer

A.
during the tertiary phase.

Question 21

According to the American College of Surgeons, an adult trauma patient meets Level I criteria if he or she:
A.
was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed.
B.
has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min.
C.
has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury.
D.
has a GCS score of less than or equal to 8 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.

Accepted Answer

D.
has a GCS score of less than or equal to 8 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.

Question 22

While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for:

A.
underlying cardiac disease.
B.
a lacerated coronary artery.
C.
bruising of the heart muscle.
D.
traumatic rupture of the aorta.

Accepted Answer

C.
bruising of the heart muscle.

Question 23

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:

A.
doubles.
B.
triples.
C.
quadruples.
D.
is not affected

Accepted Answer

C.
quadruples.

Question 24

When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the __________ when the air bag deploys upon impact.
A.
door
B.
dashboard
C.
windshield
D.
steering wheel

Accepted Answer

A.
door

Question 25

The eardrum; a thin, semi-transparent membrane in the middle ear that transmits sound vibrations to the internal ear by means of auditory ossicles.

penetrating trauma

potential engergy

tympanic membrane

medical emergencies

Accepted Answer

tympanic membrane

Question 26

Significant blood loss demands your immediate attention as soon as the _______ has been managed
A. Fracture
B. Extraction
C. Airway
D. None of the above

Accepted Answer

C. Airway

Question 27

An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______ of blood is lost.

A. 50 mL
B. 100 mL
C. 150 mL
D. 200 mL

Accepted Answer

B. 100 mL

Question 28

During transport of a 40-year-old female with acute abdominal pain, you note that she has stopped talking to you and has become extremely diaphoretic. You should:

A. assess the quality of her pulse.
B. repeat the primary assessment.
C. perform a secondary assessment.
D. begin assisting her ventilations.

Accepted Answer

B. repeat the primary assessment.

Question 29

Signs and symptoms of internal bleeding in both trauma and medical patients include

A. hematemesis
B. melena
C. hemoptysis
D. all of the above

Accepted Answer

D. all of the above

Question 30

What is the approximate blood volume of a 75-kg adult?

A. 5.25 L
B. 5.50 L
C. 6.25 L
D. 6.50 L

Accepted Answer

A. 5.25 L

Question 31

In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is:

A. dizziness upon standing.
B. a rapid, thready pulse.
C. a decreasing blood pressure.
D. rapid, shallow breathing.

Accepted Answer

A. dizziness upon standing.

Question 32

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT:

A. systolic blood pressure.
B. poor general appearance.
C. the mechanism of injury.
D. clinical signs and symptoms.

Accepted Answer

A. systolic blood pressure.

Question 33

Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding?

A. air splint
B. vacuum splint
C. sling and swathe
D. cardboard splint

Accepted Answer

A. air splint

Question 34

If the typical adult loses more than 1L of blood, significant changes in vital signs, such as _____ will occur

A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased respiratory rate
C. Increased blood pressure
D. All of the above

Accepted Answer

B. Increased respiratory rate

Question 35

Which of the following is NOT a component
of the cardiovascular system?

A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Venules
D. Plasma

Accepted Answer

B. Lungs

Question 36

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n):

Select one:
A. abrasion.
B. contusion.
C. hematoma.
D. crush injury.

Accepted Answer

B. contusion.

Question 37

You respond to a house fire with the local fire department. They bring a 48-year-old woman out of the house. She is unconscious but her airway is open. Her breathing is shallow at 30 breaths/min. Her pulse is 110 beats/min, strong and regular. Her blood pressure is 108/72 mm Hg. She has been burned over 40% of her body. The burned area appears to be dry and leathery. It looks charred and has pieces of fabric embedded in the flesh. You know that this type of burn is considered a:
Select one:

Accepted Answer

D. third-degree burn.

Question 38

Neck rigidity, bloody cerebrospinal fluid, and headache are associated with what kind of bleeding in the brain?
Select one:

A. Epidural hematoma
B. Subdural hematoma
C. Intracerebral hematoma
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Accepted Answer

D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Question 39

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in:
Select one:

A. paralysis of the diaphragm.
B. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.
C. immediate cardiac arrest.
D. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.

Accepted Answer

D. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.

Question 40

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot.
Select one:

A. 50 lb
B. 100 lb
C. 150 lb
D. 200 lb

Accepted Answer

B. 100 lb

Question 41

Lighting at a scene, establishing a tool and equipment area, and marking for a helicopter landing all fall under:
Select one:

A. logistics operations.
B. EMS operations.
C. support operations.
D. law enforcement.

Accepted Answer

C. support operations.

Question 42

The primary duty of the triage division is to:
Select one:

A. begin basic treatment.
B. establish zones for categorized patients.
C. communicate with the treatment division.
D. ensure that every patient receives a primary assessment.

Accepted Answer

D. ensure that every patient receives a primary assessment.

Question 43

According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min?
Select one:

A. Administer high-flow oxygen.
B. Triage the patient as delayed.
C. Assess for bilateral radial pulses.
D. Assess his or her neurologic status.

Accepted Answer

C. Assess for bilateral radial pulses.

Question 44

The first signs of peritonitis include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. severe abdominal pain
B. tenderness
C. muscular spasm
D. nausea

Accepted Answer

D. nausea

Question 45

Your primary concern when dealing with an unresponsive patient with an open abdominal injury is:

A. covering the wound with a moist dressing
B. maintaining the airway
C. controlling the bleeding
D. monitoring vital signs

Accepted Answer

B. maintaining the airway

Question 46

Signs of injury to the kidney may include any of the following EXCEPT:

A. bruises or lacerations on the overlying skin
B. shock
C. increased urgency of urination
D. hematuria

Accepted Answer

C. increased urgency of urination

Question 47

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where:
Select one:

A. weapons of mass destruction are distributed.
B. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled.
C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.
D. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed.

Accepted Answer

C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.

Question 48

In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT:
Select one:

A. the type of call.
B. the location type.
C. weather conditions.

Accepted Answer

C. weather conditions.

Question 49

The incubation period for Ebola can be up to:
Select one:

A. 72 hours.
B. 1 week.
C. 6 months.
D. 21 days.

Accepted Answer

D. 21 days.

Question 50

What two medications do DuoDote Auto-Injectors contain?
Select one:

A. Atropine and 2-PAM chloride
B. Atropine and epinephrine
C. Epinephrine and 2-PAM chloride
D. Lidocaine and atropine

Accepted Answer

A. Atropine and 2-PAM chloride

Question 51

attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n):
Select one:

A. doomsday cult.
B. single-issue group.
C. violent religious group.
D. extremist political group.

Accepted Answer

B. single-issue group.

Question 52

Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is NOT true?
Select one:

A. It enters the body through inhalation, cutaneous, and gastrointestinal routes.
B. It is caused by a deadly bacterium that lies dormant in a spore.
C. A vaccine is available to prevent anthrax infections.
D. Pulmonary anthrax is associated with the lowest risk of death if left untreated.

Accepted Answer

D. Pulmonary anthrax is associated with the lowest risk of death if left untreated.

Question	Answer
The most common sign of significant abdominal injury is: A. pain B. tachycardia C. rigidity D. distention	B. tachycardia
_____ takes place in the solid organs. A. digestion B. Excretion C. Energy production D. Absorption	C. Energy production
The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: A. indicates a state of decompensated shock B. should be assumed to be a sign of shock C. is most commonly caused by severe pain D. is always accompanied by hypo tension	C. is most commonly caused by severe pain
In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______. Select one: A. more protected by the thorax compared to adults B. smaller in proportion to the abdomen C. less likely to bleed when injured D. larger in proportion to the abdomen	D. larger in proportion to the abdomen
The first signs of peritonitis include all of the following EXCEPT: A. severe abdominal pain B. tenderness C. muscular spasm D. nausea	D. nausea
Following blunt abdominal trauma, a 30 year old male complains of referred pain to the left shoulder. This finding is called the: A. Grey Turner sign B. Kehr sign C. Brudzinski sign D. Cullen sign	B. Kehr sign
Open abdominal injuries are also known as: A. blunt injuries B. eviscerations C. penetrating injuries D. peritoneal injuries	C. penetrating injuries
While assessing a 21 year old female who struck a tree head-on with her small passenger car, you not that her air bag deployed. You should: A. life the air bag and look for deformity to the steering wheel. B. carefully assess her upper chest for seat belt-related injuries C. perform a head-to-toe assessment while she is in the car D. extricate her immediately and transport to a trauma center	A. lift the air bag and look for deformity to the steering wheel.
The first signs of peritonitis include all of the following EXCEPT: A. severe abdominal pain B. tenderness C. muscular spasm D. nausea	D. nausea
In cases of sexual assault, which of the following is true? A. You should always examine the genitalia for any sign of injury B. Advise the patient not to wash, urinate or defecate C. In addition to recording the facts, it is important to include your personal thoughts D. You should use plastic bags when collecting items such as clothes	B. Advise the patient not to wash, urinate or defecate
Signs of injury to the kidney may include any of the following EXCEPT: A. bruises or lacerations on the overlying skin B. shock C. increased urgency of urination D. hematuria	C. increased urgency of urination
You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: Select one:	A. laceration of the aorta.
A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. paralysis of the diaphragm. B. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles. C. immediate cardiac arrest. D. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.	D. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.
The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: Select one: A. facilitates shedding of the epidermis. B. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.	C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface.
The skin regulates temperature in a cold environment by: Select one: A. secreting sweat through sweat glands. B. constricting the blood vessels. C. dilating the blood vessels. D. increasing the amount of heat that is radiated from the body's surface.	B. constricting the blood vessels.
The skin covering the _____ is quite thick. Select one: A. lips B. scalp C. ears D. eyelids	B. scalp
In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? Select one: A. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest B. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back D. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye	C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back
A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: Select one: A. radial head. B. distal humerus. C. proximal radius. D. olecranon process.	B. distal humerus.
During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: Select one:	B. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.
During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred: A. during the tertiary phase. B. during the secondary phase. C. during the primary phase. D. as a direct result of the pressure wave.	A. during the tertiary phase.
According to the American College of Surgeons, an adult trauma patient meets Level I criteria if he or she: A. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed. B. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. C. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 8 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.	D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 8 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.
While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. underlying cardiac disease. B. a lacerated coronary artery. C. bruising of the heart muscle. D. traumatic rupture of the aorta.	C. bruising of the heart muscle.
When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. doubles. B. triples. C. quadruples. D. is not affected	C. quadruples.
When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the __________ when the air bag deploys upon impact. A. door B. dashboard C. windshield D. steering wheel	A. door
The eardrum; a thin, semi-transparent membrane in the middle ear that transmits sound vibrations to the internal ear by means of auditory ossicles. penetrating trauma potential engergy tympanic membrane medical emergencies	tympanic membrane
Significant blood loss demands your immediate attention as soon as the _______ has been managed A. Fracture B. Extraction C. Airway D. None of the above	C. Airway
An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______ of blood is lost. A. 50 mL B. 100 mL C. 150 mL D. 200 mL	B. 100 mL
During transport of a 40-year-old female with acute abdominal pain, you note that she has stopped talking to you and has become extremely diaphoretic. You should: A. assess the quality of her pulse. B. repeat the primary assessment. C. perform a secondary assessment. D. begin assisting her ventilations.	B. repeat the primary assessment.
Signs and symptoms of internal bleeding in both trauma and medical patients include A. hematemesis B. melena C. hemoptysis D. all of the above	D. all of the above
What is the approximate blood volume of a 75-kg adult? A. 5.25 L B. 5.50 L C. 6.25 L D. 6.50 L	A. 5.25 L
In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is: A. dizziness upon standing. B. a rapid, thready pulse. C. a decreasing blood pressure. D. rapid, shallow breathing.	A. dizziness upon standing.
The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: A. systolic blood pressure. B. poor general appearance. C. the mechanism of injury. D. clinical signs and symptoms.	A. systolic blood pressure.
Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? A. air splint B. vacuum splint C. sling and swathe D. cardboard splint	A. air splint
If the typical adult loses more than 1L of blood, significant changes in vital signs, such as _____ will occur A. Decreased heart rate B. Increased respiratory rate C. Increased blood pressure D. All of the above	B. Increased respiratory rate
Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiovascular system? A. Heart B. Lungs C. Venules D. Plasma	B. Lungs
A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): Select one: A. abrasion. B. contusion. C. hematoma. D. crush injury.	B. contusion.
You respond to a house fire with the local fire department. They bring a 48-year-old woman out of the house. She is unconscious but her airway is open. Her breathing is shallow at 30 breaths/min. Her pulse is 110 beats/min, strong and regular. Her blood pressure is 108/72 mm Hg. She has been burned over 40% of her body. The burned area appears to be dry and leathery. It looks charred and has pieces of fabric embedded in the flesh. You know that this type of burn is considered a: Select one:	D. third-degree burn.
Neck rigidity, bloody cerebrospinal fluid, and headache are associated with what kind of bleeding in the brain? Select one: A. Epidural hematoma B. Subdural hematoma C. Intracerebral hematoma D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage	D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: Select one: A. paralysis of the diaphragm. B. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles. C. immediate cardiac arrest. D. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.	D. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.
Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. Select one: A. 50 lb B. 100 lb C. 150 lb D. 200 lb	B. 100 lb
Lighting at a scene, establishing a tool and equipment area, and marking for a helicopter landing all fall under: Select one: A. logistics operations. B. EMS operations. C. support operations. D. law enforcement.	C. support operations.
The primary duty of the triage division is to: Select one: A. begin basic treatment. B. establish zones for categorized patients. C. communicate with the treatment division. D. ensure that every patient receives a primary assessment.	D. ensure that every patient receives a primary assessment.
According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min? Select one: A. Administer high-flow oxygen. B. Triage the patient as delayed. C. Assess for bilateral radial pulses. D. Assess his or her neurologic status.	C. Assess for bilateral radial pulses.
The first signs of peritonitis include all of the following EXCEPT: A. severe abdominal pain B. tenderness C. muscular spasm D. nausea	D. nausea
Your primary concern when dealing with an unresponsive patient with an open abdominal injury is: A. covering the wound with a moist dressing B. maintaining the airway C. controlling the bleeding D. monitoring vital signs	B. maintaining the airway
Signs of injury to the kidney may include any of the following EXCEPT: A. bruises or lacerations on the overlying skin B. shock C. increased urgency of urination D. hematuria	C. increased urgency of urination
Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: Select one: A. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. B. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. D. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed.	C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.
In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the type of call. B. the location type. C. weather conditions.	C. weather conditions.
The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: Select one: A. 72 hours. B. 1 week. C. 6 months. D. 21 days.	D. 21 days.
What two medications do DuoDote Auto-Injectors contain? Select one: A. Atropine and 2-PAM chloride B. Atropine and epinephrine C. Epinephrine and 2-PAM chloride D. Lidocaine and atropine	A. Atropine and 2-PAM chloride
attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): Select one: A. doomsday cult. B. single-issue group. C. violent religious group. D. extremist political group.	B. single-issue group.
Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is NOT true? Select one: A. It enters the body through inhalation, cutaneous, and gastrointestinal routes. B. It is caused by a deadly bacterium that lies dormant in a spore. C. A vaccine is available to prevent anthrax infections. D. Pulmonary anthrax is associated with the lowest risk of death if left untreated.	D. Pulmonary anthrax is associated with the lowest risk of death if left untreated.

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