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paramedic class 2020
drugs salient features levels of organizations mnemonics respiratory rate burns
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| sodium bicarbonate contraindications? | metabolic alkalosis, hypocalcemia |
| Naloxone (Narcan) contraindications? | known sensitivity to naloxone. use in caution with svt, head trauma or brain tumor |
| Beta blocker | Metoprolol ( Lopressor) |
| metoprolol (lopressor) contraindications? | cardiogenic shock, av block bradycardia, known sensitivity: use caution with chronic lung disease(asthma and copd) hypotension |
| Opiate antagonist | Naloxone |
| Alkalinizing agent | Sodium bicarbonate |
| Naloxone dosage | 0.4 mg - 2mg ivp io im in q 5 min max 10 mg |
| Metoprolol Dosage | 5 mg slow ivp/io over 2-3 min q 5 min as needed to max dose of 15 |
| Sodium bi carbonate dosage | 1 mEq/kg iv/io followed by 0.5 mEq/kg q 10 min |
| adenosine contraindications? | sick sinus syndrome, second or third degree block, poison/drug induced tachycardia, asthma or bronchospasm |
| Neucleoside | Adenosine |
| Adenosine (adenocard) dosage | 6mg over 1-3 sec, flush with 20 ml ns; if no response, administer 12 mg over 1-3 sec; if no response, may repeat; max dose 30mg |
| Adenosine PEDS dosage | 0.1-0.2mg/kg rapid iv. MAX single dose 12mg |
| diltiazem (cardizem) contraindications? | hypotension, heart block, heart failure |
| antiarrhythmic calcium channel blocker | Diltiazem (cardizem) |
| Diltiazem (cardizem) dosage | initial bolus 0.25mg/kg iv over 2 min; if no response, may re-bolus in 15 minutes 0.35 mg/kg iv over 2 min. Maintenance infusion 5-15mg/hr |
| epi 1:1000 contraindications ? | cardiovascular disease, other than anaphylactic shock, pregnant women in labor, glaucoma, known sensitivity |
| Adrenalin; sympathomimetic | Epi (1:1000) |
| Epi (1:1000) allergy asthma dosage ADULT | 0.3 TO 0.5 mg q 5-10 min prn max dose 1mg |
| (RATE ; 60-100) PWAVE: USUALLY POSITIVE (PR INTERVAL: 0.12-0.20) QRS- <0.12 | SINUS RHYTHM |
| L.E.A.N | LIDOCAINE, EPI, ATROPINE, NALOXONE |
| (RATE: LESS THAN 40) PWAVE: NO PWAVE (PR INTERVAL: NO IDENTIFIABLE) QRS: > 0.12 | VENTRICULAR |
| (RATE: VARIES) PWAVE: PRESENT, NORMAL (PR INTERVAL: 0.12-0.20) QRS: <0.12 COMPLETE ABSENCE OF PQRST, PWAVES DO NOT RETURN ON TIME | SINUS ARREST |
| (RATE:VARIES) PWAVE: PRESENT NORMAL (PR INVERVAL: 0.12-0.20) QRS: < 0.12 (COMPLETE ABSENCE OF PQRST (DROPPED BEAT) P WAVE RETURN ON TIME) | SINUS BLOCK |
| (RATE: < 40) PWAVE: ABSENT INVERTED (PR INTERVAL: < 0.12) QRS: < <0.12 | JUNCTIONAL BRADY |
| (RATE: 100-150) PWAVE: (PR INTERVAL: 0.12 - 0.20) QRS: < 0.12 | SINUS TACHY |
| (RATE: > 400) PWAVE: NOT IDENTIFIABLE (PR INTERVAL: IRREGULAR) QRS: < 0.12 | A FIB |
| (RATE: VARIES) PWAVE: PRSENT NORMAL (PR INTERVAL: VARY) QRS: NORMAL <0.12 OR WIDE >0.12 (DROPPED BEATS: NONE ) P'S AND Q'S DONT AGREE | THIRD DEGREE |
| (RATE: 251-400) PWAVE: (PR INTERVAL: 0.12-0.20) QRS: < 0.12 | ATRIAL FLUTTER |
| (RATE: >100) PWAVE: ABSENT INVERTED (PR INTERVAL: < 0.12) QRS: < 0.12 | JUNCTIONAL TACHY |
| (RATE: 60-100) PWAVE: ABSENT INVERTED (PR INTERVAL: < 0.12) QRS: <0.12 | ACCELERATEDJUNCTIONAL |
| (RATE: DETERMINED BY UNDERLYING RHYTHM) PWAVE: PRESENT NORMAL (PR INTERVAL: GETS LONGER UNTIL A PWAVE APPEARS W/O A QRS) QRS; <0.12 (DROPPED BEATS: YES) LONGER LONGER LONGER DROP (WENKEBACH) | SECOND DEGREE AV BLOCK TYPE 1 |
| (RATE: DETERMINED BY UNDERLYING RHYTHM) PWAVE: PRESENT, NORMAL (PR INTERVAL: ELONGATED > 0.20) QRS: < 0.12 (DROPPED BEATS: NO) IF R IS FAR FROM P | FIRST DEGREE |
| DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE LONGEST P-P AND THE SHORTEST P-P INTERVAL IS 0.12 SEC OR GREATER | SINUS ARRHYTHMIA |
| (RATE: 40-60) PWAVE: ABSENT INVERTED (PR INTERVAL: < 0.12) QRS: < 0.12 | JUNCTIONAL RHYTHM |
| (RATE: 40-100) PWAVE: NONE (PR INTERVAL: 0.12-0.20) QRS: > 0.12 | ACCELARATED VENTRICULAR |
| CHAOTIC WAVY BASELINE | VFIB |
| (RATE: < 40) PWAVE: NONE (PR INTERVAL: 0.12-0.20) QRS: > 0.12 | IDIOVENTRICULAR |
| (RATE: 151-250) PWAVE: (PR INTERVAL: 0.12-0.20) QRS: < 0.12 | ATRIAL TACHYCARDIA |
| (RATE: 60-100) PWAVE: NORMAL (PR INTERVAL: 0.12-0.20) QRS: < 0.12 | NORMAL SINUS RHYTHM |
| (RATE: > 100) PWAVE: NONE (PR INTERVAL: ) QRS: > 0.12 (ALTERNATING PERIODS OR VFIB AND VTACH) | TORSADES DE POINTES |
| (RATE: > 100) PWAVE: NONE (PR INTERVAL: 0.12-0.20) QRS: > 0.12 | VENTRICULAR TACHY |
| (RATE: VARY DEPENDING ON UNDERLYING RHYTHM) PWAVE: PRESENT NORAML (PR INTERVAL: ELONGATED (2:1, 3:1, 4:1)) QRS: < 0.12 (DROPPED BEATS: YES) IF SOME P'S DONT GO THROUGH | SECOND DEGREE AV BLOCK TYPE 2 |
| STROKE VOLUME X HEART RATE = | CARDIAC OUTPUT |
| S.A.M.P.L.E | SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS, ALLERGIES, MEDS, PAST HISTORY, LAST ORAL INTAKE, EVENTS LEADING TOO |
| (RATE: < 60) PWAVE: NORMAL (PR INTERVAL: 0.12-0.20) QRS: < 0.12 | SINUS BRADY |
| LINCS 2 MURDER S | SKELETAL |
| LINCS 2 MURDER M | MUSCLAR (HEAT PRODUCTION OVER 600) |
| LINCS 2 MURDER E | ENDOCRINE ( REGULAR ADJUSTMENTS TO MAINTAIN HOMEOSTASIS THROUGH HORMONES) |
| 6 LEVELS OR ORGANIZATION | CHEMICAL, CELLULAR, TISSUE, ORGAN, ORGAN SYSTEM, ORGANISM |
| LINCS 2 MURDER D | DIGESTIVE (26ft tub processes food and absorbs nutrients) |
| LINCS 2 MURDER R ( BIRDS AND BEES) | REPRODUCTIVE ( PRODUCTION OF SEX CELLS AND IT ASSOCIATED HORMONE ) |
| D.C.A.P.B.T.L.S | DEFORMITIES CONTUSIONS ABRASIONS PUNCTURES BURNS TENDERNESS LACERATIONS SWELLING |
| LINCS TO MURDER I | INTEGUMENTARY ( SKIN) |
| LINCS 2 MURDER N | NERVOUS ( CONTROL CENTER AND RELAY STATION FOR ALL INFORMATION) |
| O.P.Q.R.S.T | ONSET , PROVACTION, QUALITY, RADIATION, SEVERITY, TIME |
| NORMAL RESPIRATORY RATE INFANT? (LESS THAN ONE YEAR OLD) | 30-60 |
| APPEARANCE WORK OF BREATHING CIRCULATION | PEDIATRIC ASSESSMENT TRIANGLE |
| LINCS 2 MURDER L | LYMPHATIC ( CLEANS UP LOST FLUIDS LIKE CONTUSIONS HEMATOMAS EDEMA SHOTS AND MOSQUITO BITES |
| NORMAL RESPIRATORY RATE TODDLER? (1-3 YEARS OLD) | 24-40 |
| 5 RIGHTS | PATIENT, ROUTE, DOSE, TIME, DRUG |
| LINCS 2 MURDER U | URINARY ( ELIMINATES EXCESS WATER, BASES/ALKALI AND WASTES |
| LINCS 2 MURDER R | RESPIRATIORY ( VENTILATION = AIR MOVEMENT) |
| LINCS 2 MURDER C | CARDIOVASCULAR ( SIMPLE PUMP) |
| IV DRIP RATE | DOSE X TUBING SIZE /BY TIME IN MINUTES |
| NORMAL RESPIRATORY RATE SCHOOL AGE? (6-12) | 18-30 |
| distal inferior right side of stomach | right iliac region |
| distal medial left side of stomach | left lumber region |
| inferior medial of stomach | hypo gastric region |
| inferior left side of stomach | left iliac region |
| distal medial right side of stomach | right lumbar region |
| superior medial of stomach | epigastric region |
| superior distal right side of stomach | right hypochondriac region |
| superior distal left side of stomach | left hypochondriac region |
| center of stomach | umbilical region |
| L.I.S.A L | LATERAL |
| LEADS: LIMB 1 ,AVL ,V5 ,V6 | LATERAL |
| L.I.S.A I | INFERIOR |
| LEADS: LIMB LEADS 2 3 AND AVF | INFERIOR |
| L.I.S.A S | SEPTUM |
| LEADS: V1 V2 | SEPTUM |
| L.I.S.A A | ANTERIOR |
| LEAD: V3 V4 | ANTERIOR |
| diphenhydramine (Benadryl) contraindications? | acute asthma, which thickens secretions; cardiac history, known sensitivity |
| ANTIHISTAMINE | DIPHENHYDRAMINE (BENADRYL) |
| DOSAGE- 25-50 MG IM IO IV PO ALLERGIC REACTION ADULT | DIPHENHYDRAMINE (BENADRYL) |
| DOSAGE: 1-2 MG/KG IV, IM, IO. PO: 5MG/KG IN 24 HRS (PEDS) ALLERGIC REACTION | DIPHENHYDRAMINE ( BENADRYL) |
| BURNS anterior chest adult | 9% |
| BURNS anterior face/scalp adult | 4.5% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR ABDOMEN ADULT | 9% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR RIGHT ARM ADULT | 4.5% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR LEFT ARM ADULT | 4.5% |
| BURNS GROIN ADULT | 1% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR RIGHT LEG ADULT | 9% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR LEFT LEG ADULT | 9% |
| BURNS BACK OF HEAD ADULT | 4.5% |
| BURNS POSTERIOR LEFT ARM ADULT | 4.5% |
| BURNS POSTERIOR RIGHT ARM ADULT | 4.5% |
| BURNS POSTERIOR THORAX ADULT | 9% |
| BURNS BUTTOCKS ADULT | 9% |
| BURNS POSTERIOR LEFT LEG ADULT | 9% |
| BURNS POSTERIOR RIGHT LEG ADULT | 9% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR HEAD CHILD | 9% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR RIGHT ARM CHILD | 4.5% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR LEFT ARM CHILD | 4.5% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR TORSO CHILD | 18% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR RIGHT LEG CHILD | 6.5% |
| BURNS ANTERIOR LEFT LEG CHILD | 6.5% |
| BURNS GROIN CHILD | 1% |
| BURNS BACK OF HEAD CHILD | 9% |
| BURNS POSTERIOR TORSO CHILD | 18% |
| BURNS POSTERIOR RIGHT ARM CHILD | 4.5% |
| BURNS POSTERIOR LEFT ARM CHILD | 4.5% |
| BURNS POSTERIOR RIGHT LEG CHILD | 6.5% |
| BURNS POSTERIOR LEFT LEG CHILD | 6.5% |
| BURNS BUTTOCKS CHILD (perineum) | 1% |
| morphine contraindications? | respiratory depression, shock, known sensitivity: use in caution in hypotension, acute bronchial asthma, respiratory insufficiency and head trauma. |
| opioid analgesic | morphine |
| Morphine dose | dosage: 2-4 mg ivp 1-5min; repeat dose 2-8mg q 5-15min |
| nitroglycerin contraindications? | hypotension, severe bradycardia or tachycardia, right sided mi, increased icp, intracranial bleeding, erectile dysfunction meds(viagra, Cialis, levitra), known sensitivity |
| VASODILATOR (CHEST PAIN) | NITROGLYCERIN (NITROSTAT) |
| Nitroglycerin dose | DOSE: 0.4 MG SL, MAY REPEAT EVERY 3-5 MIN, MAX 3 DOES |
| glucagon contraindications? | pheochromocytoma, insulinoma, known sensitivity |
| INSULIN ANTAGONIST | GLUCAGON |
| Glucagon dose | DOSE: HYPOGLYCEMIA 0.5-1MG IM, MAY REPEAT EVERY 7-10 MIN |
| sacrum ? | s1-s5 |
| ADRENALIN; sympathomimetic | EPI 1:10000 |
| Epi 1:10000 dose | DOSE: 1MG IV/IO EVERY 3-5 MIN CARDIAC ARREST |
| atropine sulfate contraindications? | acute mi; myasthenia gravis, gi obstruction, closed angle glaucoma, known sensitivity to atropine, belladonna alkaloids, or sulfites. |
| ANTICHOLINERGIC AGENT PARASYMPATHOLYTIC | ATR0PINE SULFATE |
| atropine sulfate dose | DOSE: 0.5 MG IVP MAY REPEAT EVERY 3-5 MIN, MAX DOSE 3 MG |
| ET TUBE DOSE | DOUBLE IT |
| lidocaine (xylocaine) contraindications? | av block, bleeding thrombocytopenia, known sensitivity to lidocaine, sulfite or paraben |
| ANTIARRHYTHMIC (SODIUM CHANNEL BLOCKER) | LIDOCAINE (XYLOCAINE) |
| lidocaine sodium channel blocker dose | DOSE: VFIB/VTACH 1-1.5MG/KG IV/IO, REPEAT DOSE 5-10 MIN 0.50-0.75MG/KG, MAX DOSE 3MG/KG |
| DOSE: (SODIUM CHANNEL BLOCKER) PEDS : 1MG/KG RAPID IV/IO PUSH, MAX DOSE 100 MG: CONTINUOUS IV/IO INFUSION: 20-50MCG/KG/MIN | LIDOCAINE (XYLOCAINE) SODIUM CHANNEL BLOCKER |
| OPIATE antagonist PEDS: 0.1MG/KG IVP | NALOXONE (NARCANE) |
| zofran (ondansetron) contraindications? | known sensitivity |
| ANtiemetic | Ondansetron (zofran) |
| Zofran dose | 2-4 mg slow ivp |
| fentanyl contraindications? | known sensitivity: use with caution with traumatic brain injury, and respiratory depression |
| Fentanyl dose | 25-100 mcg iv io im in |
| Narcotic analgesic | Fentanyl |
| fentanyl ped dose and route iv io? | 1mcg/kg |
| M.o.n.a | Morphine oxygen nitro aspirin |
| Leads 1 and avf 👍 👍 | Normal |
| Leads 1 and avf 👍👎 | Left deviation |
| Leads 1 and avf 👎👍 | Right deviation |
| Leads 1 and avf 👎👎 | EXtreme right extremely bad |
| rescue breathing | 10-12 breaths per min. |
| synchronized cardiovert (narrow regular) Joules? | 50-100j |
| synchronized cardiovert (narrow irregular) Joules? | 120-200j |
| synchronized cardiovert (wide regular) Joules? | 100j |
| synchronized cardiovert (wide irregular) | Defibrillation Dose 200j |
| methylprednisolone (solu-medrol) contraindications? | Cushing syndrome, fungal infection, measles, varicella and known sensitivity. |
| corticosteroid | Methylprednisolone (solu-medrol) |
| Methylprednisolone (solu-medrol) dosage | 125mg iv half dose if small in stature |
| amiodarone contraindications? | sick sinus syndrome, second and third degree block cardiogenic shock, when episode of Bradycarida have caused syncope, sensitivity to benzyl alcohol and iodine. |
| amiodarone dose potassium channel blocker | dose: 300 mg iv/io push, can be followed 1 time 3-5 @ 150 mg iv/io push: Max 2.2g/24hrs |
| potassium channel blocker | amiodarone |
| activated charcoal contraindications? | ingestion of acids, alkalis, ethanol, methanol, cyanide, ferrous sulfate or other iron salts, lithium; coma; gi obstruction, known minimally toxic ingestion. |
| activated charcoal (antidote) dose | antidote/adsorbent dose: 1g/kg po,ng,og |
| antidote/adsorbent | activated charcoal (antidote) |
| aspirin contraindications? | gi bleeding, active ulcer disease, hemorrhagic stroke, bleeding disorders, children with chickenpox or flulike symptoms, known sensitivity. |
| aspirin dose | dose 162-324mg po |
| Thromboxane a2 inhibitor | aspirin |
| dextrose 10/25/50 contraindications? | intracranial and intraspinal hemorrhage, delirium tremens, solution is not clear, seals are not intact. |
| dextrose 10/25/50 dose | 25g slow ivp/io push q15 min prn |
| carbohydrate | dextrose 10/25/50 |
| albuterol (Ventolin) (provintil) contraindications? | angioedema, sensitivity to albuterol or levalbuterol |
| Albuterol (Ventolin) (provintil) dose | 2.5 mg in 3cc normal saline q 5 min nebulized if heart rate <150 |
| beta agonist | Albuterol (Ventolin) (provintil) |
| ipratropium (atrovent) contraindications? | closed-angle glaucoma, bladder neck obstruction, prostatic hypertrophy, known sensitivity including peanuts or soybeans. |
| ipratropium (atrovent) dose | 0.5 mg nebulizer over 5-10 min q prn |
| anticholinergic/bronchodilator | ipratropium (atrovent) |
| carbohydrate dose: 15-45g po ind: hypoglycemia cont: hyperglycemia, unconscious moa: raises blood glucose level | oral glucose (pronstyl) |
| oral glucose (pronstyl) dose | 15-45g po |
| Carbohydrate | oral glucose (pronstyl) |
| dopamine (intrepid) contraindications? | pheochromocytoma, vf, vt, or other ventricular arrhythmias, known sensitivity |
| dopamine (intrepid) dose | 2-20mcg/kg/min titrated to effect |
| sympathomimetic inotropic agent, vasopressor | dopamine (intrepid) |
| succinylcholine (scoline) (anectine) contraindications? | malignant hyperthermia, burns, trauma |
| succinylcholine (scoline) (anectine) dose | 0.6-1.5 mg/kg ivp/io |
| neuromuscular blocker, paralytic, depolarizing | succinylcholine (scoline) (anectine) |
| flumazenil (romazicon) contraindications? | cyclic antidepressant overdose; life threatening conditions that require treatment with benzodiazepine, such as status epilepticus and intracranial hypertension, known sensitivity to flumazenil or benzodiazepine |
| flumazenil (romazicon) dose | 0.2 mg iv/io over 15 sec; q 45 sec to max dose of 1 mg |
| benzodiazepine antagonist (romazicon) | flumazenil (romazicon) |
| isotonic fluid dose: 200-500ml iv bolus or tko ind: iv maint. fluid bolus, dehydration, hypotension cont: pulmonary edema | normal saline |
| hypotonic solution dose: medication dependent ind: diluting medications (lidocaine, dopamine) for infusion moa: kvo and supply calories for cellular metabolism ] | dextrose 5 % |
| thiamine (neurovit) contraindications ? | known sensitivity |
| thiamine (neurovit) dose | 100mg slow ivp/im |
| vitamin b1 | thiamine (neurovit) |
| nitrous oxide contraindications? | use with caution in head trauma, increased icp, pheumotroax, bowel obstruction, patients with copd who require a hypoxic respiratory drive. |
| nitrous oxide dose | 20-50% concentration with 02, inhaled, self administered until mask drop or pain relieved |
| sedative/anesthetic agent | nitrous oxide |
| opioid analgesic dose: 2-8mg iv/im q 3-4 hrs ind: moderate to sever pain cont: hypersensitivity, pregnant or breastfeeding MOA: binds to opioid receptores in the brain in the cns, alters preception of pain | Hydromorphone (dilaudid) |
| Hydromorphone (dilaudid) dose | 2-8 mg iv/im q 3-4 hrs |
| opioid analgesic (hydromorphone) | dilaudid |
| FUROSEMIDE (LASIX) contraindications? | known sensitivity to sulfonamides or furosemide |
| FUROSEMIDE (LASIX) DOSE | 0.5-1.0 MG/KG INJECTED IV OVER 1-2 MIN; NO RESPONSE, ADMIN 2 MG/KG OVER 1-2 MIN |
| LOOP DIURETIC | FUROSEMIDE (LASIX) |
| HERMONE DOSE: 10-20 UNITS IN 50O ML IV, OR , 3-10 UNITS IM IND: POSTPARTUM VAGINAL BLEEDING, INDUCTION/AUGMENTATION OF LABOR CONT: ANYTHING OTHER THAN POSTPARTUM BLEEDING MOA: OXYTOCIC, CAUSES UTERINE CONTRACTIONS AND LACTATIONS S/E: ANAPHYLAXIS | OXYTOCIN (PITOCIN) |
| OXYTOCIN (PITOCIN) DOSE | 10-20 UNITS IN 500ML IV, OR, 3-10 UNITS IM |
| HORMONE | OXYTOCIN (PITOCIN) |
| ISOTONIC FLUID DOSE: TITRATE TO PTS PHYSIOLOGIC RESPONSE IND: IV FLUID FOR IV MAINTENANCE OR ELECTROLYTE REPLACEMENT CONT: CVA, DIABETICS, MIXING WITH BLOOD SETS MOA: ASSIST IN FLUID REPLACEMENT FOR DEHYDRATION OR BLOOD LOSE | LACTATED RINGERS (LR) |
| ISOTONIC FLUID | LACTATED RINGERS (LR) |
| PROMETHAZINE (PHENERGAN) CONTRAINDICATIONS? | ALTERED LEVEL OF CONSCIOUSNESS, JAUNDICE, BONE MARROW SUPPRESSION, KNOWN SENSITIVITY |
| PROMETHAZINE (PHENERGAN) dose? | 6.25-25.0 MG IV/IM/PO/PR |
| PHENOTHIAZINE ANTIEMETIC | PROMETHAZINE (PHENERGAN) |
| DIAZEPAM (VALIUM) CONTRAINDICATIONS? | CHILDREN YOUNGER THAN 6 MONTHS, ACUTE-ANGLE GLAUCOMA, CNS DEPRESSION, ALCOHOL INTOXICATION, KNOWN SENSITIVITY |
| DIAZEPAM (VALIUM) DOSE | 2-10 MG SLOW IVP: TTP |
| DIAZEPAM (VALIUM) SEIZURE DOSE | 5-10 MG SLOW IVP/IO Q 5-10 MIN MAX 30MG |
| DIAZEPAM (VALIUM) ANXIETY DOSE | 2-5 MG SLOW IVP/IM |
| DIAZEPAM (VALIUM) SEVER ANXIETY DOSE | 5-10 MG SLOW IVP/IM |
| DIAZEPAM (VALIUM) ETOH WITHDRAWAL DOSE | 10 MG IVP |
| BENZODIAZEPINE (diazepam) | DIAZEPAM (VALIUM) |
| ELECTROLYTE DOSE: 500MG IVP/IO IND: HYPOCALCEMIA, HYPERKALEMIA, MAG SULFATE OD, CALCAIUM CHANNEL BLOCKER OD CONT: HYPERCALCEMIA, VFIB, DIGITALIS TOXICITY MOA; MAY ENHANCE VENTRICULAR AUTOMATICITY, INCREASES CARDIAC CONTRACTILE STATE | CALCIUM CHLORIDE |
| CALCIUM CHLORIDE DOSE | 500 MG IVP/IO |
| ELECTROLYTE | CALCIUM CHLORIDE |
| LORAZEPAM (ATIVAN) CONTRAINDICATIONS? | KNOWN SENSITIVITY TO LORAZEPAM, BENZODIAZEPINES, POLYETHYLENE GLYCOL, PROPYLEN GLYCOL OR BENZYL ALCOHOL |
| LORAZPAM (ATIVAN) DOSE | 2-4 MG SLOW IVP @ 2MG/MIN OR IM; MAY REPEAT EVERY 15-20 MIN MAX 8 MG |
| BENZODIAZEPINE, ANTICONVULSANT, SEDATIVE loraepam | LORAZPAM (ATIVAN) |
| MIDAZOLAM (VERSED) CONTRINDICATIONS? | ACUTE-ANGLE GLAUCOMA, PREGNANT WOMEN, KNOWN SENSITIVITY |
| Midazolam (Versed) DOSE | Adult: Sedation and/or seizures 2-4 mg IV, slowly. Max dose of 8 mg. |
| General anesthetic | Midazolam (Versed) |
| MAF SULFATE CONTRAINDICATIONS? | AV BLOCK, GI OBSTRUCTION, USE CAUTION WITH RENAL IMPAIRMENT |
| MAG SULFATE DOSE (ECCLAMPSIA) (htn) | 1-4G IV/IO OVER 3 MIN MAX DOSE 30/40G A DA |
| MAG SULFATE DOSE (TORSADES) | 1-2G DILUTED IN 100ML OF D5W IV/IO OVER 5-20 MIN |
| ELECTROLYTE/MINERAL | MAG SULFATE |
| sodium level great or equal to 143mEq/L? | HYPERNATREMIA |
| sodium level less or equal to 135 mEq/L? | HYPONATREMIA |
| decreased serum potassium level? | HYPOKALEMIA |
| ELEVATED SERUM POTASSIUM LEVEL? | HYPERKALEMIA |
| SWELLING CAUSED BY EXCESSIVE FLUID TRAPPED IN THE BODY TISSUE? | EDEMA |
| DECREASED IN CELL SIZE DUE TO A LOSS OF SUB-CELLULAR COMPONENTS? | ATROPHY |
| INCREASED IN THE SIZE OF THE CELL DUE TO SYNTHESIS OR MORE SUB-CELLULAR COMPONENTS? | hypertrophy |
| INCREASE IN THE ACTUAL NUMBER OF CELLS IN AN ORGAN OR TISSUE, RESULTING IN AN INCREASE IN THE SIZE OF ORGAN OR TISSUE? | HYPERPLASIA |
| AN ALTERATION OF THE SIZE, SHAPE, AND ORGANIAZATION? | DYSPLASIA |
| normal sodium range? | 136-142 mEq/l |
| normal potassium range? | 3.5-5.0 mEq/l |
| normal calcium range? | 8.2-10.2 mg/dl |
| 1 nerve, smell | ol factory nerve |
| 2 nerve, sight | optic nerve |
| 3 nerve, pupil + 4 equal eye movement, pupil size | oculomotor nerve |
| 4 nerve, medial eye movement, crossed eyed | trochlear nerve |
| 5 nerve, face sensory, chew | trigeminal nerve |
| 6 nerve, lateral eye movement | abducens nerve |
| 7 nerve, face motor + taste | facial nerve |
| 8 nerve, hearing, equilibrium | vestibulocochlear nerve |
| 9 nerve, gag reflex 1/3 tongue | glossopharyngeal nerve |
| 10 nerve, control of visceral nerve | vagus nerve |
| 11 nerve, neck shoulder shrug | accessory nerve |
| 12 nerve, tongue | hypoglossal nerve |
| carries messages to and from the the brain and the body | spinal cord |
| brain stem consist of ? | mid brain, pons, medulla oblongata |
| fight or flight ? | sympathetic |
| rest and digest ? | parasympathetic |
| monitor pain? sensory function | nociceptors |
| respond to heat? sensory function | Thermoreceptors |
| monitor physical properties? sensory function | Mechanoreceptors |
| track position in space? sensory function | Proprioceptors |
| measure changes in pressure? sensory function | Baroreceptors |
| measure chemicals in the body? sensory function | chemoreceptors |
| beta 1 | heart, kidneys |
| beta 2 | arterioles of heart lungs skeletal muscle, bronchi, liver, pancreas, uterus |
| alpha 2 | pancreatic enzymes and insulin, presynaptic nerve terminals in pns, smooth muscle of gi system |
| front of brain ? | frontal lobe |
| back side of brain? | occipital lobe |
| top, between front and back of brain? | parietal lobe |
| bottom of brain? | temporal lobe |
| frontal lobe contains the ? | cerebrum |
| occipital lobe contains the? | cerebellum |
| cervical spine | c1-c7 |
| thoracic spine | t1-t12 |
| lumbar spine | L1-L5 |
| below the lumbar spine | sacrum |
| below the sacrum spine | coccyx |
| contains the thalamus and the hypothalamus | The diencephalon |
| is an important site for both incoming and outgoing processing of sensory information? (the brain) | thalamus |
| is rooted in hormone production, emotion and automatic functions? (the brain) | Hypothalamus |
| the hypothalamus connects the? (the brain) aka master gland | pituitary gland |
| in front of the frontal cortex? (the brain) | pre frontal cortex |
| oxycotin brand name? | pitocin |
| lorazepam brand name? | ativan |
| Midazolam trade name? | versed |
| diazepam brand name? | valium |
| FUROSEMIDE brand name? | lasix |
| PROMETHAZINE brand name? | phenergan |
| Hydromorphone brand name? | dilaudid |
| neurovit brand name? | thiamine |
| romazicon brand name? | flumazenil |
| intrepid brand name? | dopamine |
| atrovent brand name? | ipratropium |
| (Ventolin) (provintil) brand name? | Albuterol |
| Methylprednisolone brand name? | soul-medrol |
| Ondansetron brand name? | zofran |
| XYLOCAINE brand name? | Lidocaine |
| DIPHENHYDRAMINE brand name? | benadryl |
| Diltiazem brand name? | cardizem |
| Lopressor brand name? | Metoprolol |
| NALOXONE brand name? | narcane |
| normal entitle co2 range? | 35-45 |
| sagging of the ST segment, depression of the T wave, and elevation of the U wave. | hypokalemia |
| pointed peaked narrow t waves | hyperkalemia |
| Due to heart problems? (shock) | cardiogenic shock |
| To little blood volume? (shock) | hypovelmic shock |
| allergic reaction? (shock) | anaphylactic shock |
| due to infections? (Shock) | septic shock |
| damage to the nervous system? (shock) | neurogenic shock |
| stage one (shock) ? | compensated or non-progressive |
| stage two (shock)? | decompensated or progressive |
| stage three (shock)? | irreversible |
| Most endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones; this type of stimulus is_____. | hormonal stimulus |
| Which one of the following is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary? | luteinizing hormone (LH) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) |
| The hormone that stimulates development of follicles in female ovaries and sperm in male testes? | follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) |
| Hyposecretion of growth hormone during childhood leads to ________. | pituitary dwarfism |
| The pineal gland produces ________. | melatonin |
| Releasing and inhibiting hormones produced by the hypothalamus influence the activities of the? | anterior pituitary gland |
| Which hormone is alternately known as vasopressin due to its effect on blood vessel diameter? | antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
| _____ is produced by the placenta and stimulates the ovaries to produce progesterone? | human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) |
| Which two hormones promote the milk reflex and in maintaining breast milk production? | prolactin (PRL) and oxytocin |
| The element necessary in the diet for proper thyroid function is ________? | iodine |
| The hypothalamus makes two hormones, _____ and _____, and are stored in the posterior pituitary? | oxytocin; antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
| Which of these hormones regulate calcium levels in the body? | calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
| In the pancreas Beta cells make _______, while Alpha cells make ________? | insulin; glucAgon |
| Which hormones regulate the female's menstrual cycle? | estrogens and progesterone |
| The "fight-or-flight" response triggers the release of ________? | epinephrine |
| Negative feedback will ________ the original stimulus, shutting down end product production? | decrease |
| Exponential increased release of the hormone ________, is the classic positive feedback example? | oxytocin |
| What endocrine gland decreases and shrivels with age and isn't very active after puberty? | Thymus |
| The adrenal glands response to _______, in order to stimulate adrenal cortex hormone production? | adrenocorticotropic hormone (ATCH) |
| Endocrine verses exocrine glands are __________ and use the blood for transport? | ductless |
| regulates storage of sugar (glucose) in the body? | pancreas |
| responds to stress "flight or fight" response? | adrenal gland |
| produce sperm cells and testosterone? | testes |
| Regulates calcium and phosphorus in the body? | parathyroid gland |
| How do hormones travel in your system? | blood stream |
| gland located on top of the kidneys? | adrenal glands |
| four small glands located on back of the thyroid ? | parathyroid |
| The Endocrine System uses chemical messengers called? | hormones |
| no or poor insulin control (diabetes) | diabetes melitus |
| lack of adh (diabetes) (anti diuretic hormone) | diabetes insipidus |
| autoimmune disease in childhood (diabetes) | type 1 |
| 90% of diabetics, diet/exercise (diabetes) | type 2 |
| eating for 2 (increase in birth size) (diabetes) | gestational |
| bgl level less than 60 NREMT | hypoglycemia |
| it tracks the amount of sugar that binds to the red blood cells? | glycated hemoglobin |
| red blood cells live for how many days? | 120 |
| Sodium Bicarbonate (indication)? | Metabolic acidosis, tricyclic OD, Hyperkelmina |
| Naloxone (Narcan) (indication)? | Narcotic overdoses |
| Metoprolol ( Lopressor) (indication)? | ACS, hypertension, svt, atrial flutter, af, thyrotoxicosis |
| Adenosine (indication)? | stable reentry svt. Does not convert af, atrial flutter, or vt. |
| Diltiazem (cardizem) (Indication)? | ventricular rate controle in rapid atrial fib. av node. |
| Epi (1:1000) (Indication)? | anaphylactic shock, certain allergic reactions, asthma attacks |
| DIPHENHYDRAMINE (BENADRYL) (Indication)? | Anaphylactic reactions |
| Morphine (indication)? | moderate to sever pain, including chest pain associated with ACS, CHF, pulmonary edema |
| NITROGLYCERIN (NITROSTAT) (indication)? | angina, ongoing ischemic chest discomfort, hypertension, myocardial ischemia associated with cocaine intoxication |
| GLUCAGON (indication)? | hypoglycemia, beta blocker overdose |
| ATROPINE SULFATE (indication)? | symptomatic bradycardia, asystole or pulseless electrical activity, nerve agent exposure, organophosphate poisoning |
| EPI 1:10000 (indication)? | restoration of cardiac activity in cardiac arrest |
| LIDOCAINE (XYLOCAINE (indication)? | ventricular arrhythmias, cardiac arrest vf or vt, stable monomorphic vt, stable polymorphic vt with normal baseline qt interval |
| Ondansetron (zofran) (indication)? | prevent and treat nausea/vomiting |
| fentanyl (indication)? | pain |
| Methylprednisolone (solu-medrol) (indication)? | anaphylaxis, asthma, copd |
| Amiodarone (indication)? | ventricular arrhythmias |
| activated charcoal (antidote) (indication)? | toxic ingestion |
| aspirin (Indication)? | fever, inflammation, angina, acute myocardial infarction, pain, chest pain |
| dextrose 10/25/50 (indication)? | hypoglycemia |
| Albuterol (Ventolin) (provintil) (indication)? | asthma, bronchitis with bronchospasm, and copd |
| ipratropium (atrovent) (indication)? | asthma, bronchospasm associated with copd |
| oral glucose (pronstyl) (indication)? | hypoglycemia |
| dopamine (intrepid) (Indication)? | cardiogenic and septic shock, hypotension, bradycardia |
| succinylcholine (scoline) (anectine) (indication)? | to induce neuromuscular blockade for the facilitation of ET intubation |
| flumazenil (romazicon) (indication)? | benzodiazepine oversedation |
| thiamine (neurovit) (indication)? | wernicke-korsakoff syndrome, beriberi, nutritional supplementation |
| nitrous oxide (indication)? | mild to sever pain |
| Hydromorphone (dilaudid) (indication)? | pain |
| FUROSEMIDE (LASIX) (indication)? | pulmonary edema, chf, hypertensive emergency |
| OXYTOCIN (PITOCIN) (indication)? | pain, sever bleeding from pregnancy |
| PROMETHAZINE (PHENERGAN) (indication)? | nausea/vomiting |
| DIAZEPAM (VALIUM) (indication)? | anxiety, skeletal muscle relaxation, alcohol withdrawal, seizures |
| CALCIUM CHLORIDE (indication)? | hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hypermagnesemia |
| LORAEPAM (ATIVAN) (indication)? | preprocedure sedation induction, anxiety, status epilepticus |
| Midazolam (Versed®) (indication)? | sedation, anxiety, skeletal muscle relaxation |
| MAG SULFATE (indication)? | torsades de pointes , cardiac arrhythmias associated with hypomagnesemia, eclampsia and seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia, status asthmaticus |
| dopamine drip calculation | mcg/kg/min x tubing size divided by concentration |
| etco2 >45mmhg ?? | hypoventilation |
| etco2 <35mmhg ?? | hyperventilation |
| normal phosphate level | 2.3 to 4.7 mg/dL |
| normal magnesium level | 1.3 to 2.1 mEq/L |
| superior (top of the body) and inferior (bottom of the body) vena cava go to the? (heart) | right atrium |
| superior and inferior vena cave carry what blood? | deoxygenated blood |
| the right atrium flows blood thru the? (heart) | tricuspaid valve |
| the tricuspaid valve flows blood thru the? (heart) | right ventricle |
| the right ventricle flows blood thru the? (heart) | pulmonary valve |
| the right atrium contains the? (heart) | sa node (top) ; av node (bottom) |
| the pulmonary valve flows blood thru the? (heart) | right and left pulmonary arteries |
| the right and left pulmonary arteries return deoxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart via? (heart) | right and left pulmonary veins |
| the right and left pulmonary veins flow oxygenated blood thru the? (heart) | left atrium |
| the left atrium flows blood thru the? (heart) | mitral or bicuspid valve |
| the mitral or bicuspid valve flows blood thru the? (heart) | left ventricle |
| the left ventricle flows blood thru the? (heart) | aortic valve |
| the aortic valve flows blood thru the _________ throughout the body? (heart) | aorta |
| is the simple squamous endothelium layer that lines the inside of the heart? Very smooth and is responsible for keeping blood from sticking to the inside of the heart and forming potentially deadly blood clots. | Endocardium |
| is a thin layer of serous membrane that helps to lubricate and protect the outside (outermost layer) of the heart | epicardium |
| is the muscular middle layer of the heart wall that contains the cardiac muscle tissue? Makes up the majority of the thickness and mass of the heart wall and is the part of the heart responsible for pumping blood | myocardium |
| The heart sits within a fluid-filled cavity called the? | pericardial cavity |
| _______ is a type of serous membrane that produces serous fluid to lubricate the heart and prevent friction between the ever beating heart and its surrounding organs? | Pericardium (pericardial cavity) |
| The inferior tip of the heart? | apex |
| The apex rests just superior to the? (heart) | Diaphragm |
| During __________ , cardiac muscle tissue is contracting to push blood out of the chamber? | systole |
| During _____________ , the cardiac muscle cells relax to allow the chamber to fill with blood? | diastole |
| The sounds of a normal heartbeat are known as “_____” and “_____” and are caused by blood pushing on the valves of the heart. | "lubb" : "dupp" |
| ___________ demonstrate block above the bundle of His? (heart block) | Wenckebach (Mobitz type I) |
| the AV node tampers down in the the _______? Which seperates the right and left side of the heart | The bundle of his |
| the bundle of his contains _______ ________ nodes | pace maker |
| The bundle of His, which passes into the ventricular septum and divides into two bundle branches? (bottom of the heart) | left and right bundle |
| The left and right bundle branches are also known as? | fascicular branch's |
| The AV valves are attached on the ventricular side to tough strings called? | chordae tendineae |
| __________ _________ carry the signal to the walls of the ventricles, stimulating the cardiac muscle cells to contract in a coordinated manner to efficiently pump blood out of the heart? | Purkinje fibers |
| The _______ ________ is the portion of the main artery that bends between the ascending and descending aorta? | aortic arch |
| The _______ ________ is the part of the aorta, the largest artery in the body, that runs down through the chest and the abdomen? | descending aorta |
| The ________ _________ is an artery of the mediastinum that supplies blood to the right arm and the head and neck? (heart) | brachiocephalic artery |
| the brachiocephalic artery supplies blood to the? (top of the arotic arch right side) | right subclavian artery and right common cartoid artery |
| top of the arotic arch, middle artery? | left common cartoid artery |
| top of the arotic arch, left side artery? | left subclavian artery |
| The _____ ______ is the heart's natural pacemaker. The electrical impulses are generated there. | SA node |
| ______ _______ is a part of the electrical conduction system of the heart that coordinates the top of the heart. It electrically connects the atria and ventricles. | AV node |
| __________is an abnormal, high-pitched, musical breathing sound. It is caused by a blockage or narrowing in the upper airways. It is more often heard during inspiration, frequently without the aid of a stethoscope. (lung sounds) | stridor |
| __________ are continuous low pitched, rattling lung sounds that often resemble snoring. They can be heard in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), bronchitis, pneumonia, chronic bronchitis, or cystic fibrosis. (lung sounds) | Rhonchi |
| _________ are abnormal lung sounds characterized by discontinuous clicking or rattling sounds. can sound like salt dropped onto a hot pan or like cellophane being crumpled or like Velcro being torn open. (lung sounds) | Crackles |
| _________sounds are most often apparent during exhaling a breath. They may also be sometimes heard when the patient inhales. (lung sounds) | Wheezing |
| ________ are abnormal lung sounds characterized by discontinuous clicking or rattling sounds. They can sound like salt dropped onto a hot pan or like cellophane being crumpled. (lung sounds) | Rales |
| ____ heard across the lung surface. They are lower-pitched, rustling sounds with higher intensity during inspiration. During expiration, sound intensity can quickly fade. Inspiration is normally 2-3 times the length of expiration. (lung sounds) | vesicular breath sounds |
| The ______ conducts inhaled air into the lungs through its tubular branches. (lungs) | trachea (windpipe) |
| the trachea's tubular branches called? (lungs) | bronchi |
| The bronchi then divide into smaller and smaller branches called? (lungs) | bronchioles |
| The bronchioles eventually end in clusters of microscopic air sacs called? (lungs) | alveoli |
| ______ a waste product of metabolism, travels from the blood to the alveoli, where it can be exhaled? (lungs) | carbon dioxide |
| In the alveoli, oxygen from the air is absorbed into the _____? (lungs) | blood |
| The lungs are covered by a thin tissue layer called the _____? (lungs) | pleura |
| Between the alveoli is a thin layer of cells called the _______ , which contains blood vessels and cells that help support the alveoli? (lungs) | interstitium |
| how many bones are in the human body? | 206 |
| how many muscles are in the human body? | over 600 |
| a flap of cartilage at the root of the tongue, which is depressed during swallowing to cover the opening of the windpipe. | epligotis |
| How many lobes does the right lung have? Because the right lung is larger. | 3 |
| how many lobes does the left lung have? | 2 |
| the right lung has 3 lobes,, what are they? | superior, middle and inferior |
| needle decompression site? | midclavicular line in the second intercostal space |
| hemodynamically unstable bradycardias that are unresponsive to atropine: bradycardia with symptomatic escape rhythms that don't respond to medication: cardiac arrest with profound bradycardia (if used early): sec. degree type 2, 3rd degree block require? | transcutaneous pacing |
| when the body is no longer able to maintain a high enough blood pressure for the body to function correctly? (shock) | decompensated shock |
| occurs early while the body is still able to compensate for a shortfall in one or more of the three areas of perfusion (HR, SV, and/or PVR)? (shock) | compensated shock |
| V1- p wave in front of wide qrs (uppidy or bunny ears) | right bundle branch block |
| V1 -p wave in front of wide qrs (downidy) | left bundle branch block |
| ________ represents the depolarization of the left and right atrium and also corresponds to atrial contraction? | p wave |
| ________ are extra heartbeats that begin in one of your heart's two lower pumping chambers (ventricles). These extra beats disrupt your regular heart rhythm, sometimes causing you to feel a fluttering or a skipped beat in your chest? | pvc |
| is an abnormality seen in the presence of an underlying sinus rhythm. It is an aberrant impulse that originates in the atrioventricular junction (junctional tissue) occurs early or prematurely before the next expected Pwave. can make the rhythm irregular. | pjc |
| early pwave may or may-not have a qrs complex if qrs is present the pri is normal resets the rhythm | pac |
| inferior mi affects what part of heart? | right coronary artery |
| septum mi affects what part of the heart? | proximal left anterior descending coronary artery |
| anterior mi affects what part of the heart? | left anterior descending coronary artery |
| lateral mi affects what part of the heart? | left circumflex artery |
| The period of time from the onset of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex which normally ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration. This interval represents the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization? | pr interval |
| prolonged q------t wave | hypocalcemia |
| ______ complex represents the electrical impulse as it spreads through the ventricles and indicates ventricular depolarization? | qrs complex |
| high pointed qrs complex; abnormal thickening of the left ventricular | left ventricular hypertrophy |
| It starts at the J point (junction between the QRS complex) and ends at the beginning of the T wave? | st segment |
| in electrocardiography, the _____ represents the repolarization of the ventricles? | t wave |
| ear hole to a hole = what? | 12 lead |
| what is the largest lymphatic organ? | spleen |
| what portion of the spleen acts as a filter to debris, and worn out blood cells? | white pulp |
| what cell produces antibodies? | plasma cells |
| toxin = ? (what is a toxin) | poison |
| Antigen = ? (what is an antigen) | protein that sparks a reaction |
| Pathogen = ? (what is a pathogen) | causes a disease ( with or without a reaction) |
| Maintains the boundaries and has immediate, but nonspecific responses to damage or injury Three-tiered system: prepare, create, send | Innate Immunity |
| + Kernig, + Brudzinski, and/or nuchal rigidity with + glass test over rash? | meningitis |
| Mosquito-vector; flu-like symptoms, but 70-80% asymptomatic - ID when donating blood? | westnile virus |
| This is linked with qSOFA? quick sequential organ failure assessment | sepsis |
| 'Cottage-cheese' phlegmy cough with night sweats. Overcrowding? | tb/tuberculosis |
| Most common vector illness in US; big bull's eye blotches with a tick bite at center; 3 stages? | Lyme disease |
| STI (STD) that goes through 3 different phases; stage 1 = chancres, 2 = rash, 3 organ damage? | syphills |
| Remains in air for 2 hrs. Hairline to Koplik Spots, then spreads; high fever. 6-foot Rule? | Measles (Rubeola) |
| Tick-borne virus, rash starts at wrist and ankles then spreads; high incidence rate in TN | Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever |
| Exposure greater than 5 minutes. Rash on abdomen => spreads; "itchy" blisters all over body | chicken pox |
| Contagious for up to 1 week before fine-mist/pinpoint rash, swollen lymph nodes, but no fever. | rubella |
| Killed 1/3 of the planet's population; Hemagglutnin and Neuraminidase | influenza/flu |
| 20-40% without s/s of disease; causes deafness and/or encephalitis; requires 2 vaccinations | mumps |
| Vector is any animal that is foaming at the mouth; flu-like symptoms to neurological effects | rabies |
| Swollen lymph nodes, fever, malaise, and Kaposi's sarcoma | hiv |
| Parasites that burrow under your skin causing raised red bumps = intense itching | scabies |
| Viral STD with elusive blister-like sores. Recurrent outbreaks; 2 different types | herpes |
| Insects that live in hairy areas and lay eggs | lice |
| Swollen lymph glands and sore throat. Flu-like symptoms to Chronic Fatigue Syndrome. | monocleosis |
| Most common STD and a causative agent in reproductive cancers. Asymptomatic to growths. | HPV/Genital warts |
| Worms in your GI Tract | helminths |
| Pus discharge. In males = burning dysuria; females = possibly unnoticed. | Gonorrhea |
| Requires both contact and droplet precautions; African fruit bat. Bleach = disinfectant | ebola/EBV |
| Fungal infection on the superficial skin = scaly rash and itchy | Dermatophyte/tinea |
| Cellular Immunity fights viruses/cancers aTTack sick cells = ? | T cells |
| Humoral (the waters) Immunity fights Bacteria produce antiBodies = ? (made in Bone) | B cells |
| ___________ is key to differentiating anaphylaxis from allergic reaction | hypotension |
| Too much thyroid = ? | high metabolism |
| mechanically breaks down food: begins chemical breakdown of food with saliva? | mouth |
| moves food from the mouth to the stomach; provides muscular and vascular structure? | esophagus |
| performs mechanical and chemical breakdown of food (food in, chyme out)? | stomach |
| absorption of water; formation of feces, bacterial digestion of food? (gi) | large intestine |
| Major site for chemical breakdown of food; major site of absorption of water, fat, proteins, carbohydrates, and vitamins? (gi) | small intestine |
| controls release of feces? | rectum/anus |
| ______ has stretch receptors that give the sensation of the need to defecate? | internal anal sphincter (under autonomic control) |
| _________ allows a controlled bowel movement? | external anal sphincter (under voluntary control) |
| Produces bile; assists with metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats; stores and manufactures vitamins; responsible for detoxification of blood and elimination of waste? (organ) | liver |
| stores bile? (organ) | gallbladder |
| _____________ produces enzymes for protein, carbohydrate, and fat breakdown within the duodenum? | exocrine |
| _____________ produces insuline, glucagon, and somatostatin? | endocrine |
| exocrine; endocrine ???? (organ) | pancreas |
| _______ the last section of what is called the upper gi system? | duodenum |
| __________ the first part of the lower gi system? | jejunum |
| 3 layers of the skin? | epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue |
| what are the solid organs of the abdomen? | liver, spleen, pancreas and kidneys |
| what are the hollow organs of the abdomen? | stomach, gallbladder, urinary bladder, and the small and large intestines |
| ________ is where things are ?(blooms taxonomy 1-2) | Anatomy |
| ________ is how things work? (blooms taxonomy 3-4) | physiology |
| upper right abdominal, beneath the diaphragm and above your stomach? (gi organs) anatomical position | liver |
| inferior surface of the liver? (gi organ) anatomical position | gall bladder |
| left upper abdomen? (gi organ) anatomical position | spleen |
| left upper quadrant, epigastric? (gi organ) anatomical position | stomach |
| posterior to the stomach? (gi organ) anatomical position | pancreas |
| storage of urine? (organ) | bladder |
| filtering of blood; recycling of dead red blood cells? (organ) | spleen |
| starts at the right iliac region(cecum)->ascending colon->R. colic flexure-> transverse colon-> L. colic flexure-> left descending colon->sigmoid colon-> rectum->ending at the anus? (organ) anatomical position | large intestine |
| It's a narrow, tube-shaped pouch protruding from your large intestine (posterior your large intestine) in the right iliac region? (organ) anatomical position | appendicitis |
| The _________ is a sphincter muscle valve that separates the small intestine and the large intestine. | ileocecal valve |
| 3 sections of the small intestine ? upper, middle, lower | duodenum, jejunum, ileum |
| umbilical and hypo gastric region? (organ) anatomical position | small intestine |
| PSVT = (name)? | Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia |
| wet lung? (name) | pleural edema |
| is the build-up of excess fluid between the layers of the pleura outside the lungs? | pleural effusion |
| discontinuous, popping lung sounds that are high-pitched. Similar to the sound of wood burning in a fireplace, or hook and loop fasteners being pulled apart or cellophane being crumpled? (lung sounds) | fine crackles |
| This condition occurs when air leaks into the space between the lungs and chest wall. A blunt or penetrating chest injury, certain medical procedures, or lung disease can cause a? (lung condition) | pneumothorax |
| afib rvr = (what you need to count) | 1 min strip |
| the bundle of His that then splits into three bundle branches? (Name the branches) | the right fascicular branch, left anterior fascicular branch, and left posterior fascicular branch. |
| Causes: Large doses of aspirin Poor perfusion Dka Renal failure Toxic metabolites= waste product of metabolism (Ph scale) ? | Metabolic acidosis |
| Causes: Large amounts of antacids (tums) Vomiting (gastric acids) and diarrhea | Metabolic alkalosis |
| less then 3 missed qrs waves but in cadence? | sinus pause |
| more then 3 missed qrs waves but in cadence? | sinus arrest |
| electrical impulse above the ventricles? (less than 3 small squares) | narrow qrs |
| purkinje fibers are stimulating the electrical impulse? (more than 3 small squares) | wide qrs |
| 5 clues to interpret 3 lead? | 1) regular or irregular 2)QRS complex (wide or narrow) 3) is there a p wave 4) PR Interval (p wave where it should be) 5) rate |
| hypoventilation; opiate overdose (Ph scale)? | Respiratory acidosis |
| hyperventilation; anxiety attack (Ph scale) ? | Respiratory alkylosis |
| stretches from 10ml to 5-L (womb) ? | uterus |
| organ of pregnancy? | placenta |
| connecting structure in the womb? | ublilical cord |
| 3 sections of the uterus? top middle bottom | fundus, body, cervix |
| less than 20 weeks? pregnancy | abortion |
| 28 weeks to 40 weeks? pregnancy | viable |
| Assume any female of childbearing age with lower abdominal pain is experiencing an ______ pregnancy (spotting 6-8 weeks after last normal menstrual period) Impregnation in place other than uterus? | ectopic pregnancy |
| ____________ (partially to complete) covers cervix and usually presents with painless bleeding (PP – Pain)? | placenta previa |
| S/s: abd. pain + (based on classification) Partial – no blood, but ‘sharp’ pain + stiff abdomen Severe – ‘tearing’ avulsion of the placenta Complete – massive hemorrhage (pregnancy) | Abruptio Placentae |
| ‘False Labor’ that increases in intensity and frequency but does not cause cervical changes? | Braxton-Hicks Contractions |
| Clamp cord at about _____inches from baby, clamp at _____inches, cut at _____inches? | 6 and 8 inches cut at 7 |
| APGAR meaning? | appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, Respiratory effort |
| APGAR SCORE? | Under 3 = severe; 4-6 = moderate; 7-10 = good |
| heart rate below 60? (new born pregnancy) = | chest compressions |
| Umbilical cord emerges before presenting part of fetus Prevent cord from being compressed? | prolapsed cord |
| Infant’s shoulders are larger than its head => head is delivered then retracts Do not pull on the infant’s head? (turtle) (during pregnancy) | shoulder dystocia |
| More than 500-mL of blood following delivery; caused by uterine atony? (after delivery of baby) | Postpartum Hemorrhage |
| ways to slow down postpartum hemorrhage? | fundal massage, breast feeding ,medication- Pitocin (oxytocin) establish 2 large bore iv's |
| Patient complains of severe ‘tearing’ abdominal pain ? (during pregnancy) fetus spills into the abdominal cavity | Uterine Rupture |
| Uterus turns inside out after delivery and extends through the cervix Blood loss = 800 to 1,800-mL Make one attempt to replace the uterus ???? | Uterine Inversion |
| holds (confines) fetus? (ob) | uterus |
| cilia that sweep to …? (ob) | Fallopian Tubes |
| egg production? (ob) | OVARIES |
| milk production? (OB) | MAMMARY GLANDS |
| Usually caused by STD Bacterial infection of reproductive system Could easily lead to sepsis? | (PID) PELVIC INFLAMMATORY DISEASE |
| Inflammation of the uterine lining? | Endometritis |
| Endometrial tissue growing anywhere other than the uterus? | Endometriosis |
| v1 lead placement (location)? | 4th Intercostal space to the right of the sternum |
| v2 lead placement (location)? | 4th Intercostal space to the left of the sternum |
| v3 lead placement (location)? | Midway between V2 and V4 |
| v4 lead placement (location)? | 5th Intercostal space at the midclavicular line |
| v5 lead placement (location)? | Anterior axillary line at the same level as V4 |
| v6 lead placement (location)? | Midaxillary line at the same level as V4 and V5 |
| are a group of medicines that contract (tighten) blood vessels and raise the blood pressure? | Vasopressors |
| Anterior region of the neck? (Anatomy) | carotid arteries, thyroid cartilage, cricothyroid membrane, cricoid cartilage and trachea |
| how many teeth are in the adult body? | 32 |
| ______is the term used by medical professionals when your baby has their umbilical cord wrapped around their neck. This can occur during pregnancy, labor, or birth. | nuchel cord |
| ______ is composed of materials ingested during the time the infant spends in the uterus: intestinal epithelial cells, lanugo, mucus, amniotic fluid, bile and water. | meconium |
| D.O.P.E mnemonic meaning? CPAP | Dislodged (displacement), obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure |
| what type of breathing is indicative of a 'marked elevation' in the inter-cranial pressure? | biot (ataxic) |
| in a patient older than 2 years of age the _______ _______ is positive when the toes move upwards in response to stimulation. | babinski reflex |
| What is the ideal method and parameters for determinint the appropriate ventilatory rate when hyper-ventilating a patient with signs of cerebral herniation? | ETCO2 at 30-35mmhg |
| Which of the following signs would indicate a spinal cord injury? | the presence of diaphragmatic breathing |
| Bleeding between the periosteum and galea aponeurosis ? | Subgaleal hemorrhage |
| Goose egg? (Brain bleed) | Subgaleal hemorrhage |
| bleeding into the subarachnoid space? | Subarachnoid hemorrhage |
| Sudden severe headache? (brain bleed) | Subarachnoid hemorrhage |
| Accumulation of blood beneath the dura mater outside the brain? | Subdural hematoma |
| bleeding in the brain tissue? The patients condition deteriorates quickly | intracerebral hematoma |
| Brain tissue is bruised and damaged in a local area? | Cerebral contusion |
| Swelling of the brain leads to what? | increased intracranial pressure (ICP) |
| Accumulation of blood between the skull and the dura mater? | Epidural hematoma |
| A portion of the temporal lobe (the uncus)is displaced laterally? | Uncal herniation syndrome |
| _________ is recommended only if signs of cerebral herniation are present? | hyperventilation |
| MOA Alpha and beta agonist Alpha-vasoconstriction Beta-1- cardiac effects Beta-2-bronchial smooth muscle relaxation Blocks histamine receptors pregnancy class - c | epinephrine |
| the heart rate ? EFFECT | chronotropic |
| (force)The strength of contraction, the ability to squeeze? EFFECT (blood pressure) | inotropic |
| the speed of electrical impulses? EFFECT (the speed from sa node to purkinge fibers | dromotropic effect |
| MOA Block h1 histamine receptors in respiratory tract vasculature and gi smooth muscle Decreasing motion sickness Decreases extrapyramidal reactions (muscle tremors, paranoia, slurred speech Pregnancy class- B | Diphenhydramine |
| onset of Methylprednisolone? | 1-2 hrs |
| which anitbody is primarily responsible for allergic reactions? | IgE |
| MOA Smooth muscle relaxation causing vasodilation Vasodilation effects cause a decreased preload and after load reducing myocardial 02 demand Pregnancy class - C | Nitroglycerin |
| MOA Beta 2 agonist, Bronchodilation due to smooth muscle relaxation Pregnancy class- C | Albuterol |
| Hypotension secondary to histamine release is due to? | Vasodilation and decreased cardiac contractility |
| MOA Blocks acetylcholine receptors in bronchi resulting in nronchodilation, reduced bronchospasm, and reduced secretions Pregnancy class - B | Ipratropium Bromide |
| MOA INTERACTS WITH HYDROGEN IONCS AND CONVERTS TO WATER AND CARBON DIOXIDE PREGNANCY CLASS - C | SODIUM BICARBONATE |
| MOA OPIOID RECEPTOR AGONIST WITH BLOCKS PAIN STIMULATIONS SUPPRESSES FEAR, ANXIETY, AND RESPIRATORY CENTERS IN BRAIN CAUSES SLIGHT VASODILATION PREGANCY CLASS- C, CROSSES BLOOD-PLACENTAL BARRIER | MORPHINE |
| MOA BINDS TO OPIATE PAIN RECEPTORS PRODUCING ANALGESIA AND EUPHORIA PREGNANCY CLASS- C | FENTANYLE |
| damage to the pericardial sac causing blood or air accumulation around the heart? | cardiac or pericardial sac |
| becks triad = ? pericardial tampande | JVD muffled heart sounds hypotension or narrowing pulse pressure |
| most common vertical burst fracture? | T-12 thur L 1-L 2 |
| The trauma lethal triad = ? | Acidosis Coagulopathy Hypothermia |
| Mean artiole pressure (numbers) M.A.P | 60-65 |
| 95 degrees or less decreases what? (body temp) | clotting factor |
| hyporesonance = ? (lungs) | blood |
| hyper-resonance = ? (lungs) | air |
| _____is defined as alternating QRS amplitude that is seen in any or all leads on an electrocardiogram (ECG) with no additional changes to the conduction pathways of the heart. | electrical alternans |
| can mask the signs of tachycardia and diaphoretic skin seen in shock? (meds) | beta blocker |
| _______is a pattern of injury seen in pedestrian children who are struck by motor vehicles? | Waddell triad |
| ____are sensory receptors that detect signals from damaged tissue or the threat of damage and indirectly also respond to chemicals released from the damaged tissue. | nociceptors |
| B.U.R.P nemonic meaning | Backwards Upwards Rightwards Pressure |
| how many bones are in the skull? | 28 |
| There is a large opening, called the ______ ________, located in the back of the occipital bone. (skull) | foramen magnum |
| frontal lobe ? (does what) | logic and reason, emotion |
| parietal lobe? (does what) | sensory and movement |
| occipital lobe? (does what) | vision |
| temporal lobe? (does what) | sound speech memory |
| plays important roles in the consolidation of information from short-term memory to long-term memory? | hippocampus |
| cerebellum ? (does what) | fine motor movement |
| RAS ? (does what) reticular activating system | on and off switch Awake or asleep |
| midbrain (what cranial nerves) ? | 1-4 |
| pons (what cranial nerves) ? | 5-8 |
| medulla (what cranial nerves) ? | 9-12 |
| _________is a deep and labored breathing pattern often associated with severe metabolic acidosis, particularly diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) but also kidney failure? (deep fast and regular) | kussmaul respirations |
| Shallow deep shallow pause respirations ? | Cheyne–Stokes respirations |
| irregular pauses and increasing periods of apnea. As the breathing pattern deteriorates, it merges with agonal respirations? | ataxic respirations |
| how many vertebrae in the spine? | 33 |
| coccyx? (number) fussed make up the tail bone | C1-C4 |
| C3 C4 C5 keep what? (spine) | diaphragm alive |
| blood–brain barrier. ... They regulate the transmission of electrical impulses within the brain.? | astrocytes |
| s produced by specialised ependymal cells in the choroid plexuses of the ventricles of the brain, and absorbed in the arachnoid granulations? | Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) |
| criteria for needle decompression? | hypotension, Jvd, unequal chest rise and fall |
| biggest vitals signs for peds? | heart rate |
| Succinylcholine is a ? (agent) | depolarizing agent |
| 4 stages of rsi? | pre medicate, icp peds, induction (fentanyl), short term (sucx) long term (rock) |
| Rocuronium is a ? (agent) long term | polarizing agent |
| bi lateral periorbital ecchymosis ? (meaning) | raccoon eyes |
| retro auricular ecchymosis ? (meaning) | battle signs behind ears |
| myotomes ? (meaning) | motor |
| dermatomes ? (meaning) | sensory |
| step off? ( meaning) | the bones are not lined up properly which can be seen and felt by the examiner when palpating in trauma: fracture/dislocation is severe |
| crepitus? (head fracture) | depressed |
| CSF ? (head fracture) | basilar skull fracture |
| nothing to pain upon palpation? (head fracture) | linear |
| brain smashes forward? (meaning) | coup |
| brain smashes backwards? (meaning) | contrecoup |
| risk of secondary impact within 7-10 days? (brain) | post-concussion |
| diffuse axonal injury? (meaning) | Shaken baby syndrome |
| most common complication of a blood transfusion is ? | febrile reaction |
| ________ is responsible for carrying oxygen to the tissues? | hemoglobin |
| A good way to explain what sickle-cell anemia is? | hemoglobin in red blood cells |
| anemia is deficiency of? | red blood cells |
| anemia pt who bruises easily weak and febrile has ? | leukemia |
| hemophilia A has what clotting factor? | VIII |
| clotting factor in blood is produced in the ? | liver |
| partial dislocation of a joint? (medical term) | subluxation |
| inflammation of the small synovial sac? (medical term) | bursitis |
| anatomical structures damaged in a sprain? | ligaments |
| MOA dopamine | low dose <5 mcg/kg/min increases intestinal and renal blood flow med dose 5-10 mcg/kg/min beta receptor stimulation high dose 10-20mcg/kg/min alpha receptor stimulation |
| A complete left bundle branch block would indicate what? | hemiblock |
| the left bundle branch contains how many fascicles? | 2 |
| lead 1 views the ______ wall of the heart, while lead avf views the _______ wall of the heart? | lateral, inferior |
| if st elevation is detected in leads II, III, avf, reciprocal depression is found in? | I and avl |
| how many chest compression per min? | 100-120 |
| depth of chest compressions in cpr? | 2-2.4 inches |
| minimize interruptions (less than _______ secs) in compressions? | 10 sec |
| chest should ______ ________ in chest compressions? | complete recoil |
| CCF (Chest compression fraction) ? (achieve or more) | 60% to 80% |
| hight quality ______ is most affective in cardiac arrest and resuscitation? | CPR |
| breathing every ___ to ____ secs if patient has pulse but not breathing? | 5 to 6 secs |
| ABCDE (meaning)? | airway breathing circulation disability exposure |
| H's? (cardiac arrest) | hypovolemia, hypoxia, hydrogen ion (acidosis), hyperkelmia, hypokalemia, hypothermia |
| T's? cardiac arrest) | toxins, Tamponade(cardiac), Tension pneumothorax, Thrombosis (coronary and pulmonary), and Trauma. |
| _____- _____ % of all strokes are ischemic ? | 85-87% |
| 8 D's stroke scale ? | detection, dispatch, delivery, door, data, decision, drug device, disposition |
| _______ mins within arrival to ed for a ct scane? (stroke) and read within _____ mins? | 25 min ; 45 mins |
| any systolic over _____ and any disystolic over _____ give a beta blocker, plus heart. rate over _____ ; not a candidate for tpa (stroke) | 180; 100: 60 |
| acls is _____ % 02 saturation, provide oxygen? | 94% |
| Epidermis burn (Moist appearance) first degree? (burn) | superficial burn |
| Damage to epidermis and dermis (painful, can cause blisters) 2nd degree burn? (burn) | partial thickness burn |
| Waxy white, leatherly gray or charged black (may not feel pain) 3rd degree? (burn) | Full thickness burn |
| Remember to remove what in a burn? ______ , _______ (if not adhering to the patient) | Jewelry and clothing |
| ________ _________ are the more frequent types of burn ems respond to, wet the area? | thermal burns |
| If chemical burn is a dry powder do what? | Dust off |
| How do you wrap a burn? | Dry sterile dressing |
| If chemical burn (liquid) do what? | FLUSH BURN FOR ALEAST 20 MIN |
| ELECTRICAL BURNS CHECK FOR WHAT? | ENTRY AND EXIT WOUND |
| The progression of a chemical burn is MOSTLY dependent on? | The length of time the corrosive chemical stayed on the skin |
| Nasotracheal intubation of a patient with upper airway burns? | Should be avoided |
| Fluid loss across damaged skin and volume sifts within the rest of the body? (Burn) | Burn shock |
| If an acutely burned patient is in shock in the prehospital setting: Look for ______ ______ as the source of shock | another injury |
| Procainamide (pronestyl) (indication)? | VF VT Atrial fib, PSVT with WPW |
| Pronestyl (generic name)? | Procainamide |
| Procainamide (pronestyl) Dosage? | 20mg/min until dysrhythmia is converted (17mg/kg) max |
| Procainamide (pronestyl) contraindications | 2nd and 3rd degrees av block, torsades de pointes, lupus, digitalls toxicity, myasthenia graves |
| antiarrhythmic; sodium channel blocker | Procainamide (pronestyl) |
| Cordarone (generic name) (med)? | Amiodarone |
| When assessing the head and face during the full-body exam, you should? | avoid palpating any cranial depressions |
| Lower extremity shortening and/or internal or external rotation are findings often associated with? | proximal lower extremity injury |
| A conscious patient's respiratory rate should be measured? | for a minimum of 30 seconds |
| Objective patient information? | is based on fact or observation. |
| Bruising in the periumbilical area is indicative of? | intraperitoneal hemorrhage |
| To obtain a heart rate in infants younger than 1 year of age, you should? | palpate the brachial artery |
| When dealing with a patient who has multiple symptoms, the MOST effective way to develop an appropriate care plan is to? | prioritize the patient's complaints |
| __________ entails gently striking the surface of the body, typically where it overlies various body cavities? | Percussion |
| When caring for an unresponsive trauma patient, a complete secondary assessment? | will probably not be performed in its entirety |
| Frank blood or clear, watery fluid draining from the ear canal following head trauma is MOST suggestive of a(n)? | basilar skull fracture |
| When using a tympanic device to obtain a patient's body temperature, you should? | be aware of extrinsic factors that can skew the reading |
| Making your patient aware that you perceive something inconsistent with his or her behavior is called? | confrontation |
| The diameter of a patient's pupils and their reactivity to light provide information about the? | status of cerebral perfusion |
| A working hypothesis of the nature of a patient's problem is called the? | differential diagnosis |
| When assessing a patient who is under the influence of alcohol, it is MOST important to remember that? | alcohol can mask any number of signs and symptoms. |
| Upon completing your rapid full-body exam of an unresponsive trauma patient's head and neck, you should next? | apply a properly sized rigid cervical collar |
| a terminal illness is most accurately defined as an? | disease process to cause death in 6 months, verified by a physician |
| down syndrome is a condition in which? | a triplication of chromosome 21 occurs |
| removal of an ostomy device and cleansing the stoma, you should? | place a clean gauze pad over the stoma |
| Morbid obesity is defined as a body mass index that is? | between 40 and 49.9 kg/m |
| The inner cannula of a tracheostomy tube? | has a 15 mm port that can attach to a vent circuit |
| the majority of current hemodynamic monitoring involves placement of different types of catheters into areas within the? | cardiovascular system |
| the signs, symptoms, clinical presentation, and treatment for cancer largely depends on? | the present location of the cancer |
| Fontanels close up _____ ________ in kids? | 18 months |
| sunken fontanels means what in peds? | dehydration |
| bulging fontanels means what in peds? | intracranial pressure (icp) |
| The compression depth for infants? | 1/3 the depth of the chest |
| he compression depth for children? | 2 in the depth of the chest |
| Compression rate for children and infants? | 100-120 |
| Number one kill in kids? (weakest part of the cardio vascular system) | Respiratory |
| Kids are born with strong? | Hearts |
| How long do you shake and inhaler? | 30 seconds |
| Normal cap refill is ____ secs of less? | 2 seconds |
| How to measure blood pressure in peds ages 1-10 years old ? | 90 systolic + (2x age in years) |
| look for ________ in the neck of peds for breathing problems (sick) | tugging |
| look for _____ _______ in the face of peds for breathing problems (sick) | nasal flaring |
| check pulse in _______ ______ for kids 1 year or less? | brachial artery |
| numbers in etc02? (name) | Capnometry |
| pilaf wave in etc02? (name) | Capnography |
| 1st degree and 2nd degree type 1 are what blocks? | AV blocks |
| Narrowest part in a peds airway? | Cricoid Cartilage |
| When the other eye constricts when a light is shinned in one eye, what? | consensual constriction |
| Soma is greek word meaning what? | Body |
| Abuse is what? | active |
| Neglect is what? | passive |
| hepatomegaly is what? | enlarged liver |
| tickle mnemonic (peds) ? | tone (strong or weak), irritability, consolability, kry (loud and vigorous or wimpy), labor (breathing), environment (appropriate) |
| _________ are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin as a result of bleeding. The bleeding causes the _____________ to appear red, brown or purple. commonly appear in clusters and may look like a rash., don't lose color when you press on them. | petechiae |
| occurs when small blood vessels burst, causing blood to pool under the skin. This can create purple spots on the skin that range in size from small dots to large patches. indicates blood clotting disorder? | purpura |
| heart rate over ______ is atrial in kids? | 220 |
| 3 forms of distributive shock? | Neuro, anaphylactic, and septic |
| skin tug for dehydration? | turgor |
| places to check pulse in peds? | dorsalis pedis, brachial artery, radial, femoral, pedal |
| qrs less than _____ is narrow and wider than ________ is wide ? (peds) | 0.09 |
| ________ is a condition in which excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) builds up within the ventricles (fluid-containing cavities) of the brain and may increase pressure within the head? | Hydrocephalus |
| Untreated depression in people over 65 years of age has what? (geriatric chpt 44) | higher suicide rate than any other age group when untreated |
| Most common respiratory infection that causes death in the elderly population? (geriatric chpt 44) | pneumococcus bacteria |
| hypertensive emergencies in geriatric population require what? (geriatric chpt 44) | controlled decline that cannot be achieved in prehosptial |
| kyphosis is characterized by? (geriatric chpt 44) | a hunchback appearance |
| adverse drug reactions in elderly people are a result of? (geriatric chpt 44) | Changes in drug metabolism due to diminished hepatic function |
| Aging is a linear process which means that? (geriatric chpt 44) | the older we get, the faster our bodies decline in function |
| The most common risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes in people over 65 years of age is ? (geriatric chpt 44) | the presence of more than one chronic disease |
| the relatively high use of non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs by older patients predisposes them too what? (geriatric chpt 44) | peptic ulcer disease |
| At the present time, the ratio of caregivers to older people is? (geriatric chpt 44) | low |
| Delirium is most accurately defined as what? (geriatric chpt 44) | an acute alteration in mentation that indicates an underlying condition. |
| If you cannot palpate the femoral pulse in an unresponsive infant, you should: (peds pals) | start cpr immediately |
| A child's vocal cords can be difficult to visualize during intubation because? (peds pals) | the epiglottis is floppy and U-shaped. |
| A sick or injured child's general appearance is MOST reflective of? (peds pals) | his or her central nervous system function |
| With respect to CPR and foreign body airway obstruction procedures, the child should be treated as an adult once? (peds pals) | secondary sexual characteristics have developed |
| It is important to remember that blood pressure is only one component in the overall assessment of a child because? (peds pals) | it is an unreliable measurement of perfusion in all children. |
| Which of the following statements regarding croup is correct? (peds pals) | Croup is a viral upper airway infection that may cause stridor. |
| The length-based resuscitation tape? (peds pals) | child's weight based on there height |
| When assessing a child's circulation by looking at his or her skin, pallor is MOST indicative of? (peds pals) | Peripheral vasoconstriction and compensated shock. |
| _________ is a very late sign of respiratory failure? (peds pals) | cyanosis |
| Which of the following statements regarding a child's chest wall is correct? (peds pals) | Children are belly breathers because they rely heavily on their diaphragms. |
| Counting an infant's respiratory rate for 15 seconds and then quadrupling that number? (peds pals) | May yield a falsely low respiratory rate because infants may have periodic breathing or variable respiratory rates with short periods of apnea. |
| When a child experiences a low cardiac output state, he or she relies MOST on? (peds pals) | increased in heart rate |
| The Pediatric Assessment Triangle was designed to? (peds pals) | Help EMS providers form a hands-off general impression of an ill child. |
| If a 2-year-old child with a foreign body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive, you should position him or her supine and then? (peds pals) | visualize the upper airway |
| Common signs of impending respiratory failure in infants and children include? (peds pals) | a falling oxygen saturation despite high-flow oxygen administration |
| Which of the following is often not acquired during the SAMPLE history of an adult, but should be routinely acquired in an infant or child? (peds pals) | Immunizations. |
| temporarily stops bleeding via vaso constriction and platelet aggregation? (chpt 31) | hemostasis |
| primary treatment in the prehosptial setting for an abrasion involves? (chpt 31) | covering it lightly with a sterile dressing |
| the most significant immediate threat ate a patient with a soft tissue injury is? (chpt 31) | hemorrhage |
| The skin is also referred to as the? (chpt 31) | integument |
| the swelling that occurs in conjunction with a contusion is caused by? (chpt 31) | LEAKAGE OF FLUID INTO SPACES BETWEEN THE DAMAGED CELLS |
| Which of the following interventions encourages drainage from the site of a closed wound and reduces swelling? (CHPT 31) | ELEVATION |
| THE USE OF WET DRESSINGS IN THE FIELD IS USUALLY LIMITED TO? (CHPT 31) | SUPERFICIAL BURN |
| most common cause of necrotizing fasciitis is? (chapter 31) | hemolytic streptococci |
| soft tissue injuries are what? (chapter 31) | most obvious, seldom the most lift threatening |
| cardiac arrest torsades without a pulse medication and route? | 1-2g ivp (5-10g may be required) |
| epi infusion dose? ( bradycardia, hypotension) | 2-10 mcg/min iv |
| how to mix epi infusion dose? | mix 1mg epi in 250 ml of d5w |
| lidocaine pvc dose? (drip also) | 0.5-1.5 mg/kg iv , then 0.5-1.5 mg/kg every 5-10 min up to 3 mg/kg start drip asap |
| lidocaine infusion drip dose? | 1-4 mg/min |
| how to mix lidocaine infusion drip dose? | mix 1g in 250ml d5w |
| occurrence of acute pain in the tip of the shoulder due to the presence of blood or other irritants in the peritoneal cavity when a person is lying down and the legs are elevated. _____ classic symptom of a ruptured spleen. | kehr sign |
| Hypotension in pregnancy place the patient in what position? (supine hypotension syndrome) | left lateral recumbent |
| in a uterine prolapse place in patient in what position and apply what? | flat position with a moist sterile dressing |
| _____ is a symptom of pain, discomfort, or burning when urinating. It is more common in women than in men. | dysuria |
| Kidney infection (______) is a type of urinary tract infection (UTI) that generally begins in your urethra or bladder and travels to one or both of your kidneys. A kidney infection requires prompt medical attention (medical name) | pyelonephritis |
| _____is a condition that occurs when an ovary twists around the ligaments that hold it in place. This twisting can cut off blood flow to the ovary and fallopian tube? | ovarian torsion |
| ______is a condition in which your blood pressure falls significantly when you stand up quickly. (Hypotension is low blood pressure.) (medical term) | orthostatic hypotension |
| a newborn with a heart rate 60-less than a 100 requires what ? | positive pressure ventilations |
| A shift of heart tones and severe respiratory distress despite positive pressure ventilations is indicative of a? | pneumothorax |
| A newborn hypoglycemia is defined as a blood glucose of ___ mg/dl or lower ? | 45 |
| When suctioning the newborns oropharynx to clear secretions prior to intubations, it is most important to ? | monitor newborns heart rate |
| Which of the following congenital defects results in an undersized or absent right ventricle? (newborn) | Tricuspid atresia |
| fluid bolus of a newborn consists of? | 10ml/kg |
| an infant size bvm is ________ ( tidal volume of ____ - ______ ml/kg) in a newborn ? | 240 ml, 3-6 |
| Newborn that is centrally pink but have blue hands and feet? | acrocyanosis |
| 37 weeks or less is? (newborn) | preterm |
| 38-42 weeks is ? (newborn) | term |
| 42 weeks or longer is? ( newborn) | postterm |
| An abnormal opening (hole or defect) exists in the wall (septum) separating the atrial chambers of the heart? (newborns) | atrial septal defect |
| a general feeling of discomfort, illness, or uneasiness whose exact cause is difficult to identify? (medical term) | malaise |
| A patient who ingested a significant quantity of acetaminophen less than 24 hours ago would MOST likely present with? | malaise, nausea, and a loss of appetite. |
| Common signs and symptoms of a tricyclic antidepressant overdose include? | altered mental status and tachycardia. |
| Death from acetaminophen overdose is MOST often caused by? | progressive liver failure |
| In addition to IV fluids, treatment for a patient in neurogenic shock may include? | Amiodarone |
| Which of the following will be of MOST help to the paramedic when formulating a field diagnosis? | Considering or ruling out various conditions |
| Which of the following would MOST likely allow you to reach the status of entry-level competence? | Interning with an experienced preceptor |
| Which of the following occurs during compensated shock? | Increased rate of breathing causes respiratory alkalosis. |
| Tissue perfusion is primarily a function of the? | Cardiovascular system |
| When attempting to resuscitate a patient in cardiac arrest, which of the following questions would you pose if you suspect that the patient is hyperkalemic? | Does the pt goes to dialysis |
| A tendency to gather and rely on information that confirms your existing views and avoids or downplays information that does not confirm your preexisting hypothesis or field differential is called a(n) ___________ bias? | Confirmation |
| excessive constriction of the pupil of the eye? medical term | mitosis |
| dilation of the pupil of the eye? medical term | Mydriasis |
| is a large order of insects, comprising the sawflies, wasps, bees, and ants.? medical term | Hymenoptera |
| S.L.U.D.G.E (mnemonic) | salivation, lacrimation, urination, diarrhea, GI upset, emesis |
| Premorbid conditions are those that? | precede the onset of a disease. |
| A patient with quiet tachypnea suggests? | shock |
| A patient who is coughing up purulent sputum is MOST likely experiencing? | infection |
| _____ are the most commonly most heard breathsounds and have much more obvious inspiratory component? | vesicular |
| Cardiac-related chest pain may be palliated by? | nitro |
| Unstable angina often does what? | awakens patients from his or her sleep |
| Cardiac tamponade can be differentiated from a tension pneumothorax by the presence of what? | equal breath sounds |
| A pulse that alternates in strength from one beat to the next beat is called? | pluses alternans |
| Which of the following electrolytes maintains the depolarization phase? | calcium |
| Which of the following occurs at the AV node during a third-degree heart block? | All impulses are blocked from entering the ventricles |
| The point of maximal impulse usually can be felt on the? | left anterior chest, in the midclavicular line, at the fifth intercostal space |
| A concordant precordial pattern exists when all QRS complexes are what? | are upright in leads V1 through V6 |
| In order to ensure proper electrolyte distribution and maintain the polarity of the cell membrane, the sodium-potassium pump? | moves two potassium ions into the cell for every three sodium ions it moves out of the cell |
| Depolarization, the process by which muscle fibers are stimulated to contract, occurs when? | cell wall permeability changes and sodium rushes into the cell |
| Atrial kick is defined as? | the volume of blood that the atria contract to the ventricles. |
| A delta wave is identified on a cardiac rhythm strip as a(n)? | slurring of the upstroke of the first part of the QRS complex |
| Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is defined as? | acute shortness of breath that suddenly awakens a person from sleep |
| Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause the blood pressure to vary between the left arm and right arm? | Aortic aneurysm |
| By definition, a massive hemothorax is characterized by? | more than 1,500 mL of blood within the pleural space |
| Which of the following clinical findings is MOST suggestive of inadequate oxygenation? | altered mental status |
| Which of the following statements regarding a pericardial tamponade is correct? | blood collects between the visceral and parietal pericardium |
| Pneumothorax is MOST accurately defined as? | Pneumothorax is MOST accurately defined as: air or gas within the pleural cavity. |
| blood in the urine? (medical term) | hematuria |
| Intraabdominal bleeding may produce few signs and symptoms of trauma because? | the intraabdominal cavity can accommodate large amounts of blood |
| The major complication associated with hollow organ injury is? | massive internal hemorrhage and profound shock |
| You should suspect a ruptured kidney if a patient presents with flank pain, gross hematuria, and? | pain with inhalation |
| The upper peritoneal cavity includes all of the following organs, EXCEPT the? | pancreas |
| Periumbilical ecchymosis is? | Cullen sign and may take several hours to develop following abdominal trauma |
| ______ is the coughing up of blood or blood-stained mucus from the bronchi, larynx, trachea, or lungs? (medical term) | hemoptysis |
| _____is a complete or partial collapse of the entire lung or area (lobe) of the lung. It occurs when the tiny air sacs (alveoli) within the lung become deflated or possibly filled with alveolar fluid? (medical term) | atelectasis |
| _______ contains pus, composed of white blood cells, cellular debris, dead tissue, serous fluid, and viscous liquid (mucus). (medical term) | purulent sputum |
| is the organic chemical compound with the formula COCl2. It is a colorless gas; in low concentrations, its odor resembles smells like freshly cut grass or hay? (medical term) | phosgene |
| _____ is a reflex triggered to prevent the over-inflation of the lung. ( medical term) | hering Breuer reflex |
| is cyanosis nipple line up usually indicative of a pulmonary embolism? | cape cyanosis |
| beta blocker is what class of drug? | class 2 |
| selective or non selective drug? | beta blocker |
| sodium channel blocker is what class drug? | class 1 |
| potassium channel blocker what class? | class 3 |
| Antidysrhythmic and calcium channel blocker medications is what class drug? | class 4 |
| four major sites for lung sounds? | trachea bronchiol |
| how to measure peds et tube size? | age divided by 4 plus 4 |
| hypothermia in ekg ? | Osborn wave |
| what reverses heparin? | vitamine K |
| a red protein containing heme, which carries and stores oxygen in muscle cells? (medical term) | myoglobin |
| _____ an excess of thyroid hormone in the body. Having this condition also means that you have a low level of thyroid stimulating hormone, TSH, in your bloodstream, because the pituitary gland senses that you have “enough” thyroid hormone. (medical term) | thyrotoxicosis |
| antidepressant overdose is called? (medical term) | tricyclic overdose |
| Salicylate poisoning is called? | aspirin overdose |
| What are glial cells and what are their functions? | to surround neurons and hold them in place; (2) to supply nutrients and oxygen to neurons; (3) to insulate one neuron from another; (4) to destroy pathogens and remove dead neurons. |
| What are the 4 glial cells? | 1) microglia, (2) astrocytes, (3) oligodendrocytes, and (4) their progenitors NG2-glia |
| what is Cushing syndrome? and signs? | overproduction of cortisol by the adrenal glands. moon face, hump between shoulders, Stratton stretch marks in the stomach, tiny arms and legs |
| what its graves disease? and signs? | over production of the thyroid. weight loss, puffy eyes, enlarged thyroid |
| the fetal hips are flexed and the legs extend in front of the fetus. The buttocks are the presenting part; this is the most common type breech. (ob breech) | frank breech |
| The fetus has both the knees and hips flexed. The buttocks present first; this type of breech delivery is rare. (ob breech) | complete breech |
| The fetus has one or both hips incompletely flexed resulting in presentation of one or both lower extremities (usually a foot). (ob breech) | incomplete breech |
| hypertension during pregnancy (medical term) | pre eclampsia |
| hypertension and seizures during pregnancy (medical term) | eclampsia |
| stillborn or fetal demise is called? (medical term) | intrauterine fetal death |
| first menstrual cycle is called what? (medical term) | menarche |
| Blue hazard placard means? | Health |
| Red hazard placard means? | Fire |
| Yellow hazard placard means? | Instability hazard |
| White hazard placard means? | Specific hazard |
| Orange hazard placard #1? (Hazmat) | Explosive |
| Red hazard placard #2? (Hazmat) | Fire |
| White hazard placard #3? (Hazmat) | Flammable and Combustible Liquids, fuel and oil |
| Blue hazard placard #4 (hazmat) | Flammable when wet |
| what is tachypnea? | abnormal rapid breathing |
| yellow hazard placard #5 (hazmat) | oxidizer |
| white hazard placard #6 (hazmat) | poison toxic inhalation hazard infectious |
| white yellow hazard placard #7 (hazmat) | radio active |
| white black hazard placard #8 (hazmat) | corrosive |
| white black hazard placard #9 (hazmat) | other |
| cranial nerve ol factory does what? (1) | smell : sensory |
| cranial nerve optic does what? (2) | vision: sensory |
| cranial nerve oculomotor does what? (3) | pupil constriction eye lid eye ball movement: primary motor |
| cranial nerve trochlear does what? (4) | turns eyes downward and lateral: primary motor (crossed eyed) |
| cranial nerve trigeminal does what? (5) | chewing face mouth touch and pain: sensory and motor |
| cranial nerve abducens does what? (6) | turns eyes laterally properoception (outward) : primary motor |
| cranial nerve facial does what? (7) | controls most facial expressions secretions of ears and saliva 2/3 of the tongue : sensory and motor |
| cranial nerve vestibulocochlear does what? (8) | hearing equilibrium sensation: sensory |
| cranial nerve glossopharyngeal does what? (9) | taste senses carotid blood pressure 1/3 of the tongue: sensory and motor |
| cranial nerve vagus does what? (10) | senses arotic blood pressure, slows heart rate, stimulates digestive organs, taste: sensory and motor |
| cranial nerve accessory does what? (11) | controls trapezius and stemocleidomastoid: shoulder shrug, shoulder movement: primary motor |
| cranial nerve hypoglossal does what? (12) | controls tongue movement: primary motor |
| lung anatomy? | larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli |
| eye ball anatomy? | cornea, lens, retina, macula |
| gland above the eyeball? (eyebrow region? | lacrimal gland |
| whites of the eye? (medical term) | sclera |
| yellow eyes? (medical term) | jaundice |
| ________ is a tissue that lines the inside of the eyelids and covers the sclera? (medical term) | conjunctiva |
| anatomy of the nose and throat? | top of nose: frontal sinus, nostril, nasal cavity (ol factory bulb sits above), hard plate (front), soft plate (back) tongue, throat: pharynx, voice box (larynx) vocal cords |
| The upper respiratory system, or upper respiratory tract, consists of the _____ and nasal cavity, the _________, and the __________. These structures allow us to breathe and speak? | nasalpharynx, oropharynx or pharynx, larynogopharynx |
| The nose detects ______ molecules and helps ______ and _______ the air we inhale? | odor: filters and warms |
| Glasgow coma scale eye opening response? (name and number) | spontaneously (4), to speech (3), to pain (2), no response (1) |
| glasgow coma scale first section is? | eye opening response |
| Glasgow coma scale verbal response? (name and number) | oriented to time person and place (5), confused or disoriented (4), inappropriate words (3), Incomprehensible words or sound (2), no response (1) |
| glasgow coma scale second section is? | verbal response |
| glasgow coma scale motor response? (name and number) | obeys commands (6), moves and localizes pain (5), withdrawal to pain (4), decoricate abnormal flexion (3), decerebrate abnormal flexion (2), no response (1) |
| glasgow coma scale third section? | motor response |
| decorticate posturing is what sign and area affected? | inward arm flexion above brain stem |
| decerebrate posturing is what sign and area affected? | outward arm flexion brain stem |
| cause rapid blinking or a few seconds of staring into space? (seizure name) | Absence seizures, sometimes called petit mal seizures |
| Absence seizures, sometimes called petit mal seizures? (signs) | rapid blinking and few seconds staring into space |
| Cry out, Lose consciousness, Fall to the ground, Have muscle jerks or spasms? (seizure name) | Tonic-clonic seizures, also called grand mal seizures |
| Tonic-clonic seizures, also called grand mal seizures? (signs) | Cry out, Lose consciousness, Fall to the ground, Have muscle jerks or spasms |
| are located in just one area of the brain? (seizure name) | focal seizure |
| three types of focal seizures? | simple, complex, secondary |
| affect a small part of the brain. These seizures can cause twitching or a change in sensation, such as a strange taste or smell? (seizure name) | simple focal seizure |
| can make a person with epilepsy confused or dazed. The person will be unable to respond to questions or direction for up to a few minutes? (seizure name) | complex focal seizure |
| begin in one part of the brain, but then spread to both sides of the brain. In other words, the person first has a focal seizure, followed by a generalized seizure? (seizure name? | secondary generalized focal seizure |
| s3 heart sound my indicate? | heart failure |
| s1 is what stage on the heart sounds? | first |
| When the two ventricles contract and pump out blood into the aorta and pulmonary artery the mitral and tricuspid valves close to prevent the blood flowing back into the atria? (what heart sound) | s1 lubb |
| The first sound S1 is generated by vibrations created by the closing of these two valves? (heart sounds) | mitral and tricuspid valves |
| After pumping the blood, the ventricles relax to receive blood from the atria, and the diastole phase starts. The aortic and pulmonic valves close and cause vibrations, giving rise? (what heart sound) | s2 dubb |
| s2 is what stage on the heart sounds? | second |
| s3 is what stage on the heart sounds? | third |
| s a low-pitched sound audible with the rapid rush of blood from the atrium into the ventricle as it starts relaxing. This may be a normal sound in some people but in people with heart conditions? (what heart sound) | s3 horse gallop |
| s4 heart sound my indicate? | heart disease |
| is a low-intensity sound heard just before S1 in the cardiac cycle. The sudden slowing of blood flow by the ventricle as the atrium contracts causes this sound? (what heart sound) | atrial gallop |
| s4 is what stage on the heart sounds? | fourth |
| fluid bolus for adults? | 20ml/kg |
| ph less than 7 indicates what? | acidity |
| ph greater that 7 indicates what? | alkaline |
| ph for blood is what? | 7.35-7.45 |
| things that are acidity on the ph scale? (1-7) | gastric acid, lemon juice, apple juice, tomato juice, black coffe, milk |
| what item is neutral on the ph scale? | pure water |
| things that are alkaline on the Ph scale? (8-14) | egg, baking soda, hand soap, ammonia solution, bleach, concentrated solution of alkaline |
| An inflammatory disease caused when the immune system attacks its own tissues. Can affect the joints, skin, kidneys, blood cells, brain, heart, and lungs. No cure | Lupus |
| can be a side effect of digitalis therapy. It may occur when you take too much of the drug at one time. It can also occur when levels of the drug build up for other reasons such as other medical problems you have. | Digitalis toxicity |
| A weakness and rapid fatigue of muscles under voluntary control. The condition is caused by a breakdown in communication between nerves and muscles. weakness in the arm and leg muscles, double vision, and difficulties with speech and chewing? | myasthenia gravis |
| ________ occurs when the iris bulges forward to narrow or block the drainage angle formed by the cornea and iris. As a result, fluid can't circulate through the eye and pressure increases? | Angle-closure glaucoma, also called closed-angle glaucoma |
| ______ chronic memory disorder caused by severe deficiency of thiamine. most commonly caused by alcohol misuse, but certain other conditions also can cause the syndrome? | wernicke-korsakoff syndrome |
| How to change Celsius to Fahrenheit? | Multiply by (9/5) and add 32 |
| A disease in which the body doesn't have enough vitamin B-1 (thiamin). Caused my poor diet or alcoholism? | Beriberi |
| ped epi dose? (1:10000) (cardiac arrest) | 0.01-0.02 mg/kg |
| name at least three ways of using epi in peds? | im anaphylaxies, iv/io cardiac arrest 1:10000, im asthma |
| most common cause of bradycardia in peds? | hypoxia |
| tachicardia is the cause of what? | hypovolemia |
| if less than 70 + (2x age in years) is what? | hypovolemic |
| epi for acute stridor with dyspnea? (dosage)? | 1-2mg in normal saline nebulized |
| ped dose for versed? (medication dose)? | 0.1-0.2 mg/kg iv/io 0.2-0.3 mg/kg in im |
| peds dose for dextrose? (medication dose)? (aha) | 0.5-1 g/kg |
| how would you treat school age child extremis for asthma? | positive pressure ventilation (if needed), albuterol, im epi, mag, sol med |
| 0-6 months peds (dextrose med)? | d10 |
| 6 months - 8 years of age (dextrose med)? | d25 |
| greater than 8 year old (dextrose med) ? | d50 |
| d10 d25 dose in peds (dextrose)? | 2-4 ml/kg |
| d50 dose in peds (dextrose)? | 1-2 ml/kg |
| normal etoc2 in peds? | 35-45 |
| cpap for peds (yes or no) (nemonic bedpan)? | yes: bronchiolitis, edema (pulmonary) ,disorders (lung tissue) ((cystic fibrosis, bph)) pneumonia, asthma, near drowning |
| what is peep used for? | respiratory failure and respiratory arrest |
| defibrillation dosage for peds? | 2-4 j/kg |
| what is the synchronized shock (cardioversion) dosage for peds? | 0.5 - 1 j/kg |
| what is the dosage of amiodarone for peds in cardiac arrest? | 5 mg /kg not to exceed adult dose |
| when would you administer atropine to the pediatric patient? (not really recommended) | pre med for intubation |
| 220 minus age in years is what in peds? | max intensity heart rate |
| What are some things to consider before administering adenosine to pediatric patients? | hypovolemia, greater than 180 in child, greater than 220 infant, is the r to r regular ( do 12 lead) width of qrs (greater than 1 small block not svt) |
| name three treatment priorities with peds patients in unstable bradycardia? | less than 60 cpr, oxygenate pt, vascular access, epi (cardiac) |
| adenosine dose in peds? | 0.1 mg/kg repeat 0.2 mg/kg |
| atropine in peds dose? | 0.05 mg/kg every 5 min until vital signs improve |
| DYSPNEA, RALES AND ACUTE FEVER IN ELDERLY PTS? | phenomena MIGHT NOT BE FEBRILE |
| ACUTE HEADACHE, SIGNIFICANT HYPERTENSION, NECK STIFFNESS IN A 48 YEAR OLD FEMALE? | HEMMARAGIC STROKE |
| HEADACHE, NECK STIFFNESS AND FEVER IN A 20 YEAR OLD COLLEGE STUDENT? | MENEGITIS |
| ABDOMINAL PAIN, MID-SCAPULAR PAIN, LEG NUMBNESS AND HYPERTENSION IN ELDERLY MALE? | AAA |
| ORTHOPNEA, HYPERTENSION, PERIPHERAL EDEMA, AND RALES IN AN OVERWEIGHT 65 YEAR OLD MALE? | CHF |
| NAUSEA, FATIGUE, EXERTIONAL DYSPNEA IN A POST-MENOPAUSAL FEMALE WITH A HISTORY OF DIABETES? (NUMBER ONE KILLER IN FEMALE OVER 35) | UNDIAGNOSED CARDIO VASCULAR DISEASE |
| ACUTE DYSPNEA, VENTILATION TO PERFUSION ABNORMALITIES ON WAVEFORM CAPNOGRAPHY (V-Q MISMATCH) IN A 26 YEAR OLD FEMALE PT WHO TAKES ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES AND A SMOKER? | PE |
| PROGRESSIVE ONSET OF DYSPNEA, DROOLING, STRIDOR, AND FEVER IN AN 11 MONTH OLD CHILD? | CROUP: epiglottitis |
| ORTHOPNEA? (MEDICAL TERM) | CANT BREATH WHEN YOU LAY FLAT |
| WHAT IS neuropathy? (MEDICAL TERM) | DEADING TO END OF NERVES |
| ACUTE HYPERGLCEMIA, HYPOTENSION, AMS, FRUITY/METALLIC BREATH, ETCO2 OF 50MMHG IN A 28 YEAR OLD MALE, WHO IS NON-COMPLIANT WITH HIS HEALTHCARE ISSUES? | DKA |
| ACUTE DYSPNEA, CHEST DISCOMFORT, HYPOTENSION AND HYPERRESSONANCE TO THE RIGHT CHEST WALL IN A TALL AND THIN 19 YEAR OLD MALE? | SPONTATIOUS PHNMOTHROAX |
| epiglottitis WILL HAVE WHAT? | FEVER |
| CROUP DOES WHAT? | CREEPS UP |
| A PT IN METABOLIC ACIDOSIS NEEDS WHAT? | RESPITORY ALKOLOSIS |
| respiratory ph deals with what? | lungs c02 |
| metabolic ph deals with what? | kidneys |
| low number on respiratory ph is what? | acidosis |
| high number on respiratory ph is what? | alkalosis |
| low number on metabolic ph is what? | acidosis |
| high number on metabolic ph is what? | alkalosis |
| large shark fin wave form over 45 etco2? | broncho spasm, hypoventilation severe asthma |
| upside down p wave in capno cliff? | needs more paralytics |
| sudden increase in wave form height? | rosc |
| sudden lost in normal wave form cap? | lost pulse of lost et tube |
| 1 breath every 3 secs in a what? | infant |
| 1 breath every 5 secs in what? | adult using oral airway |
| 1 breath every 6 to 8 secs in what? | adult with secured airway |
| when is it acceptable to attempt nasotracheal intubation? | intact gag reflex, trauma to mouth |
| rsi involves what? | induction and paralytics |
| first rib is under the what? | clavicle |
| peep pressure for adults? | 5-10 cm water of pressure |
| peep pressure for peds? | 2-5 cm water of pressure |
| how many oxygen molecules can each hemoglobin protein carry? | 4 |
| stridor and wheezing is what? (airway) | anaphylaxis |
| adult bvm ? (have and need) | 1l : 500-600ml |
| child bvm ? (have and need) | 450ml: 5-10 ml/kg |
| infant bvm? (have and need) | 250 ml: 5- 10 ml/kg |
| delay cord clamping in ob for how long? keep baby _______ ? (ob) | 30 sec: level or skin to skin |
| turn suction down to _____ to _______ for Meconium staining? (ob) | 80-120 |
| umbilical cord has what? (ob) | 2 arteries , 1 vein |
| ______This is when you can see the top of your baby's head through the opening of your vagina. This moment happens during the second stage of labor, when you push and deliver your newborn | crowning |
| poison control number? | 1-800-222-1222 |
| s1q3t3 is indicative of what? | pe |
| s1 q3 t3 shows how on ekg | A LARGE S wave in v 1, a q wave in v 3, v 3 t wave inverted |
| happens when part of your lung receives oxygen without blood flow or blood flow without oxygen. This happens if you have an obstructed airway, such as when you're choking, or if you have an obstructed blood vessel, such as a blood clot in your lung? | V/Q mismatch |
| A seizure that lasts longer than 10 minutes, or three seizures without a normal period in between indicates a dangerous condition called what? | convulsive status epilepticus |
| Neonatal cpr is a ___ to ____1 (compressions to ventilation)? | 3:1 |
| 3 I’s regarding myocardial tissue damage in a mi? | ischemia, injury,infarct |
| Do not give beta blocker who? | trauma patients |
| tidal volume for males? | 600 ml |
| tidal volume for females? | 500 ml |
| tidal volume for peds? | 10-15 ml/kg |
| minute volume is what? | tidal volume x respiratory rate |
| fentanyl peds dose route in im? | 2mcg/kg |
| Hives, also known as ______ ? (medical term) | urticaria |
| ______reddened, itchy welts that may be triggered by exposure to certain foods, medications or other substances? | hives; urticaria |
| vomiting is also known as what? (medical term) | emesis |
| If co2 is_____ oxygen can attach but can’t detach? | low |
| If co2 is _____ oxygen can not attach? | high |
| Opa indications and contraindications? | Respiratory distress/failure unconscious unresponsive, gag reflex presence of oral trauma |
| Npa indications and contraindications? | Respiratory distress/ failure, head and facial trauma, presence of skull fracture |
| PCI therapy means what? | Cath lab |
| ________ et tube any neonate 30 days or less in age | uncuffed |
| how to determine depth of et tube? | tub size x3 |
| becks triade is what kinda trauma? | chest |
| Never use the _________ gauze for hemorrhage? | powdered |
| can not apply what in Junctional areas in hemorrhage? | no tourniquets |
| must loose ________ % of blood volume to become hypotensive? | 25% |
| Fluid therapy for trauma patients? | no if systolic is 90 or above: tko |
| trauma is what? | circulation airway and breathing: if they bleed out they die control first then fix airway problem |
| Ischemia is what in an ekg? | 2mm, 2 small blocks |
| Injury is what in an ekg? | 4mm, 4 small blocks |
| Infract is what in an ekg? | more than 4mm when it gets to the same height as the top of Qrs (tomb stone) you get vtact or vf |
| How to treat seizures in rosc? | give benzo |
| Miami stroke scale is done when? | going down the road |
| Cincinnati’s and Los Angeles is stroke scale done when? | while on scene |
| most common stroke scale is? | cincinnati stroke scale |
| High co2 in rosc 45-60 give? ( med) | bi card |
| The top number (systolic) minus the bottom number (diastolic) gives you your? | pulse pressure |
| pulse pressure less than 40 could mean? | heart failure |
| puple pressure greater than 60 could mean? | cardiovascular disease |
| Io is the vascular access in cpr with infants? (name the sight) | proximal tibial tuberosity |
| when in doubt transport trauma to what? | trauma center |
| contraindications for CPAP? | i. Inability to maintain an open airway (ams) ii. Severe hypotension (systolic BP < 90) iii. A respiratory rate of less than 8 breaths/min |
| neonate less than 100 heart rate don't rush do give what first? | room air |
| Infants (up to 2 years of age) For infants, the IM injection site is the_____ ______ ______ of the thigh? | front outer side |
| term baby start with what size et tube? | 4.0 |
| what is the nexus study criteria and what does it represent? | focal neurologic deficit , midline spinal tenderness, altered level of consciousness, intoxication, distracting injury: possible spinal injury |
| how to manage lvad ? | main thing listen to pt and family, keep batteries and controller near the pt, use caution when cutting clothes, administer fluid bolus and vasopressor like normal, don't place cpr pads on device, might not have a blood pressure |
| Eye protection is recommended by the CDC when workers may be at risk of acquiring infectious diseases via ocular exposure? (name 6) | Adenovirus ii. Herpes simplex iii. Staphylococcus aureus iv. Hepatitis B and C v. HIV vi. Rhinoviruses |
| in the event of a dangerous situation where hazardous materials are suspected, the ambulance should be parked or staged? | upwind and uphill |
| petechiae that continue to grow and blend together may mean your child has a what? | bleeding disorder |
| petechia usually occurs where? | arms legs stomach buttocks |
| petechiae two common causes? | infections and medications |
| _______ law that covers most civil suits, redress a wrong done to a person and provide relief from the wrongful acts of others? | tort law |
| __________ are formed when tiny blood vessels called capillaries break open. When these blood vessels break, blood leaks into your skin, intradermal capillary bleeding (1-3mm) | petechiae |
| A condition in which the immune system attacks the nerves. The condition may be triggered by an acute bacterial or viral infection. | Guillain-Barré syndrome |
| _______ is a standardized approach to incident management developed by the United States Department of Homeland Security? | national incident management system |
| a discoloration of the skin resulting from bleeding underneath, typically caused by bruising? | ecchymosis |
| are larger, typically raised lesions resulting from bleeding within the skin? bruise | purpura |
| is defined as acute hemorrhage from the nostril, nasal cavity, or nasopharynx? | epistaxis |
| is inflammation of the gallbladder? (medical term) | cholecystitis |
| cholecystitis symptoms? | abdominal pain, right upper quadrant pain, shoulder pain |
| A serious infection of the liver's bile ducts? | cholangitis |
| cholangitis symptoms? | abdominal pain fever jaundice |
| A gastrointestinal condition in which digested material is prevented from passing normally through the bowel? | bowel obstruction |
| bowel obstruction symptoms? | abdominal pain, obstructed defecation, constipation |
| A hardened deposit within the fluid in the gallbladder, a small organ under the liver? | gallstones |
| gallstones symptoms? | right upper quadrant pain, severe pain, abdominal discomfort |
| a more severe form of cold trauma where the actual tissue of the epidermis is destroyed, potentially involving the deeper dermis in severe cases? | frostbite |
| is a superficial cooling of the tissues with no underlying cellular destruction? | frostnip |
| sever symptoms of cold trauma? | The skin turns white and has a waxy appearance. Swelling and blisters may be present. If the skin has been thawed and refrozen, the skin may have areas of purple mottling or cyanosis (a blue tinge to the skin.) |
| frostnip damages what skin? | epidermis |
| secondary to repeated cold exposure are commonly seen in patients who partake in activities (e.g., climbers) or live in situations that predispose them to multiple episodes of minor frostbite (homeless)? | chilblains or fingertip ulcerations |
| how long to check for pulse in cold trauma? (hypothermia) | 30-45 secs |
| Take particular care when moving _______ patients, the heart go into malignant ventricular rhythms. (easy handling) | hypothermic |
| MODERATE. Altered mental status + NO shivering (hypothermia what degree) | 82-90 degree |
| MILD. Normal mental status + shivering (hypothermia what degree) | 90-95 degree |
| SEVERE. Unconscious (hypothermia what degree) | 75 -82 degree |
| SEVERE - apparent death (hypothermia what degree) | 56.7-82 degree |
| death (hypothermia what degree) | 48.2- to 56.7 degree |
| Which of the following parts of the spinal cord plays the most significant role in stimulation of the reflexes? | gray matter |
| the area of the armpit, usually in reference to a specific part of the thorax? (medical term) | axillary |
| the space in the mouth between the cheek and gums? (medical term) | buccal |
| Cutaneous is in reference to or affecting the skin? (medical term) | Cutaneous |
| refers to the lateral area of the upper arm or shoulder? (medical term) | deltoid |
| the area of and including the gluteus muscles, buttocks? (medical term) | Gluteal |
| the area of, and including the processes of, the liver? (medical term) | hepatic |
| the area of, and including, the groin? (medical term) | Inguinal |
| the area of, and including, the eye sockets? (medical term) | orbital |
| the area of, and including, the knee and kneecap? (medical term) | Patellar |
| the area of, an including, the bones on each side of the skull? (medical term) | Parietal |
| the outermost layer of the internal lining of the abdominal cavity? (medical term) | peritoneum |
| between the inferior scrotum and the anus in men, and between the inferior vagina and anus in women? (medical term) | Perineal |
| the innermost lining of the abdominal cavity, which surrounds the cavity? (medical term) | parietal peritoneum |
| the area of, and including, the sole or bottom of the foot? (medical term) | plantar |
| the area of, and including, the hollow at the posterior (back) portion of the knee? (medical term) | Popliteal |
| the area of, and including, the temples of the sides of the skull behind the orbits? (medical term) | temporal |
| the area of and including the palm of the hand? (medical term) | volar |
| To create negative pressure in the thorax the diaphragm contracts and moves in which of the following directions? | downward |
| When the diaphragm relaxes, it returns to its domed shape that extends across the bottom of the thoracic cavity. To have air forced out of the lungs, the pressure in the thorax must rise above? | atmospheric pressure |
| Which layers of pleural membrane cover the lungs and chest wall; working together to help maintain expansion and contraction of the lung? | The visceral and parietal pleura |
| lower jaw? (MEDICAL TERM) | mandible |
| upper jaw? (MEDICAL TERM) | MAXILLA |
| CHEEK BONE? (MEDICAL TERM) | ZYGOMATIC |
| The only bone in the larynx is the? | HYOID BONE |
| is found at the superior border of the manubrium of the sternum and between the clavicular notches and is useful in determining a secure airway with intubation efforts? | JUGLAR NOTCH |
| is where sound is produced in the throat? (MEDICAL TERM) | LARYNX |
| BRIDGE OF THE NOSE BONE IS CALLED? ( MEDICAL TERM) | NASAL BONE |
| an accumulation of blood within the pleural cavity? ( MEDICAL TERM) | HEMOTHORAX |
| IS THE ROOF OF THE MOUTH? ( MEDICAL TERM) | PALATE |
| The ________ lies behind the larynx and is the entrance to the esophagus? | HYPOPHARYNX |
| The purpose of the ______ is to help close the nasopharynx during swallowing? | UVULA |
| The ________ _________ is the pyramid-shaped structure attached to the vocal cords? | ARYTENOID CARTILAGE |
| What is the best description of the National Incident Management System (NIMS)? | * NIMS provides guidelines and common terms to allow multiple agencies to work together. |
| What is the advantage of using the Incident Command System (ICS)? | The ICS gives you a modular organizational structure that can be applied to incidents of all sizes. |
| What is the term for an incident with many victims? | Mass-Casualty Incident (MCI) |
| What is triage? | a method of sorting patients based on their severity of injury |
| What is the name of the reference used to determine the initial response to a Hazardous Materials (HazMat) incident? | the DOT Emergency Response Guide |
| Where is an ambulance most likely to be involved in a traffic accident? | At an intersection |
| Who is responsible for the daily inspection of an ambulance? | the staff assigned to the vehicle for that shift |
| Upon arrival on a scene, your first responsibility after BSI and PPE is to ____. | Scene size up |
| When cleaning an ambulance, what mixture of bleach to water is recommended? | 1:10 to 1:100 dilution bleach to water |
| According to patients, what is the portion of contact with EMS they fear the most? | Ambulance ride |
| From which direction should you never approach a helicopter while its engine is operating? | The rear |
| What is the minimum recommended area for a helicopter landing zone? | 60 by 60 or larger |
| is a nuclear, chemical, biological, or radiological weapon designed to inflict maximum damage or casualties over a large area? | Weapon of mass destruction |
| Any area around a vehicle that is not easily visible through direct sight or mirrors by the vehicle’s operator? | Blind spot |
| What motor vehicle safety system is a hazard to personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash? | Air bag. Not deployed |
| The most lethal type of radiation is ____? | neutron radiation requires several feet of concrete |
| HIPAA is an act that was adopted on August 21, 1996, to protect a patient’s privacy and assist in maintaining health insurance coverage. What does HIPAA stand for? | Health Insurance and Portability and Accountability Act |
| An EMT’s obligation to provide patient care, which is defined by law and their departmental policies, is called ____. | Duty to act |
| Each EMS system has a physician medical director. What is the primary role of the medical director? | The medical director authorizes the EMTs in the field to provide appropriate medical care for each injury, condition, or illness they encounter. |
| What are the five parts of assessment according to the National EMS education standard competencies? | scene size-up, primary assessment, history, secondary assessment, and reassessment |
| During triage, what type of patient would receive a red triage tag? | Immediate treatment |
| an area where adequate decontamination has ensured that there will be no spread of any hazardous materials and EMS are able to fully treat patients. | The cold zone or clean zone is |
| When cutting the wires of a battery inside a vehicle, what should be cut first? | The negative battery cable, often black in color, should be cut first. |
| A mechanical-piston device and load distributing band device are capable of...? | providing constant chest compressions for the patient in cardiac arrest |
| START triage uses the mnemonic? (Rpm) | RPM(Respirations, pulse, mental status). |
| The cold, or green, zone is where the...? | majority of treatment will occur. |
| If the pediatric patient is apneic but does have a pulse, you should..? | reposition their airway and check for respirations. |
| If the patient is still apneic, they should be triaged as..? | Deceased |
| quick survey that will help you to form a general impression of the condition of the occupants in the vehicle and the resources you will need to help them.? | Wind shield survey |
| Command, triage, and transportation are the? | core of what all activities during a mass casualty incident are based on. |
| Autonomy refers? | to the patient's right to refuse medical care. |
| CHART Nemonic ? | C- Chief Complaint H- Patient Medical history and history of incident A- Patient assesment R- Treatment T- Transport |
| Red tags mean? | Immediate |
| Yellow tags mean? | (observation) for those who require observation (and possible later re-triage). |
| Green tags mean? | (wait) are reserved for the "walking wounded" |
| Mitigation involves? | early warning to disasters in an effort to try and reduce the destruction of an event. |
| The six basic components of the incident command system are? | command, operations, planning, logistics, finance, and safety. |
| is an important process at any hazardous materials incident and should be performed prior to placing patients in emergency apparatus? | Decontamination |
| DUMBELS Nemonic? | defecation, urination, miosis, bradycardia, emesis, lacrimation, salivation |
| A disaster is an incident? | with 100 or more patients |
| MCI can have anywhere from? | twenty-six to ninety-nine patients |
| Patients in cardiac arrest are an absolute contraindication? | for all types of aeromedical transport |
| A DNR or Do Not Resuscitate Order is another name for? | Advanced directive |
| HEPA stands for? | High Efficiency Particulate Air |
| Spreads thru blood to blood contact mainly affects the liver? (Disease) | Hep c |
| very weak type of radiation that can be stopped by the skin? | Alpha radiation |
| caused by the shockwave hitting the body? (Blast injury) | The primary blast injury |
| fragments being propelled through the air and striking the body? (Blast injury) | Secondary blast injury |
| when the body is projected onto an object (i.e. thrown into a wall), or the object strikes them (i.e. a building collapsing onto someone).? (Blast injury) | Tertiary blast injuries |
| During a technical rescue incident what comes last? | the safety of the rescue patient |
| When parking your emergency vehicle to block oncoming traffic at the scene of a crash, how do you park? | Park at a 45 degree angle to deflect traffic away from the incident if a vehicle does hit the emergency apparatus. |
| When performing safe parking, ensure that you? | have parked far enough from the scene of the crash so that you have a safe working area as well as a buffer zone in case another vehicle strikes the emergency apparatus. |
| a box-stylepassenger compartment on a truck chassis? (What type of ambulance) | Type I |
| a van chassis with a raised roof in the patient compartment? ( what type of ambulance) | Type 2 |
| a box-stlye passenger compartment on a van chassis? ( what type of ambulance) | Type 3 |
| ultimately in charge of deciding whether it is safe to proceed with a rescue operation? (Type of officer) | Safety |
| The multiplex system is made up of? (Operations) | multiple duplex channels |
| send and receive data over the same frequency? (Operations) | Duplex |
| Environmental hazards include? | time of day, weather, and temperature. |
| Presence of fluids, airbag deployment, and electrical system components are? | Vechile hazards |
| On-line medical control is? (Communications) | Radio and phone |
| None of our senses can detect ? | Radiation |
| those that have decreased explosive power but increased heat production and potential to produce burns? | Incendiary devices |
| How far do you park from a fire hazard? | 100ft |
| Are both defamatory statements? | Libel and slander |
| Unlawful contact is what ? | Battery |
| willful and intentional action that injures someone.? | Malfeasance |
| Should worn any time you are operating in or around water? | Life jackets |
| The type of anthrax that poses the largest threat to the human population is? | inhalation anthrax |
| Most bodily fluids or secretions, with the exception of sweat require? | Standard precautions |
| Flashlights (especially white) should not be used While? | Landing a helicopter |
| The three phases of spinal immobilization of a water rescue patient are? | in-water spinal immobilization, C-collar application, and backboarding and extrication of the patient from the water. |
| threat to commit harm to a person? ( medical term) | Assault |
| actually committing the bodily harm to a person? (Medical term) | Battery |
| The three "T's" of a mass casualty incident. You can be assigned to perform any of these duties? | Triage trauma transport |
| the j point is where on an ekg? | end of the qrs, beginning of the st segment |
| the j point represents what on an ekg? | junction of the qrs complex and st segment; marking the end of depolarization and beginning or repolarization |
| is caused by a blockage in an artery that supplies blood to the brain? | ischemic stroke |
| an inadequate blood supply to an organ or part of the body, especially the heart muscles? (medical term) | ischemia |
| is a condition in which a blockage in an artery restricts the delivery of oxygen-rich blood to the brain, resulting in damage to brain tissue? (medical term) | cerebreal ischemia |
| three main types of strokes? | ischemic, Hemorrhagic stroke, Transient ischemic attack (a warning or “mini-stroke”). |
| q ? (medical term dosage | each, every |
| q2wk (medical term dosage? | once every 2 weeks |
| q6h (medical term dosage)? | once every 6 hours |
| q1h (medical term dosage)? | once every hour |
| q2h (medical term dosage)? | once every 2 hours |
| q4h (medical term dosage)? | once every 4 hours |
| sv (medical term)? | stroke volume |
| what percentage of survivability is lost with each passing minute of cardiac arrest where no cpr or early defibrillation is provided? | 10% with every passing min. |
| what are at least two considerations for maternal/ pregnancy related cardiac arrest? | left lateral uterine displacement, anticipate more difficult airway, notify receiving facility of possible need for emergency c section to salvage baby if mother doesn't respond to treatment |
| position tilts the parturient's abdomen and pelvis at least 15 degrees off the midline by placing a wedge under the right buttock; this position shifts the gravid uterus off of the aorta and vena cava? (medical term) | left lateral uterine displacement |
| what can you do if the patient develops hypotension after you give rsi meds? | pdp= push dose pressor, or initiate vasopressor drip or epi drip |
| pdp (medical term)? | push dose pressor |
| elderly pt presents with symptomatic afib with rvr consider what first:? | fluids |
| ac (medical term)?abbreviation | before breakfast |
| alt. H. (medical term)?abbreviation | every other hr |
| ante (medical term)?abbreviation | before |
| ap (medical term)?abbreviation | before dinner |
| APAP (medical term)?abbreviation | acetaminophen |
| BCP (medical term)?abbreviation | birth control pill |
| BID (medical term)?abbreviation | twice a day |
| bol (medical term)?abbreviation | bolus |
| CAP (medical term)?abbreviation | cancer of the prostate |
| cap (medical term abbreviation)? | capsule |
| cf (medical term abbreviation)? | cystic fibrosis |
| EENT (medical term abbreviation)? | eys ear nose throat |
| FDA (medical term abbreviation)? | Food and Drug Administration |
| GERD (medical term abbreviation)? | gastroesophageal reflux disease |
| K (medical term abbreviation)? | potassium |
| LA (medical term abbreviation)? | long-acting |
| mane (medical term abbreviation)? | in the morning |
| Mg (medical term abbreviation )? | magnesium |
| MgSO4 (medical term abbreviation)? | magnesium sulfate |
| MS (medical term abbreviation)? | morphine sulfate or magnesium sulfate |
| n or noct. (medical term abbreviation)? | in the night |
| Na (medical term abbreviation)? | sodium |
| NTE (medical term abbreviation)? | not to exceed |
| p (line over the p) (medical term abbreviation)? | after |
| per neb (medical term abbreviation)? | by nebulizer |
| PR (medical term abbreviation)? | per the rectum |
| TID (medical term abbreviation)? | three times a day |
| UA (medical term abbreviation)? | urinalysis |
| μEq (medical term abbreviation)? | microequivalent |
| μg, mcg (medical term abbreviation)? | microgram |
| μL (medical term abbreviation)? | microliter |
| TR (medical term abbreviation)? | timed-release |
| qod (medical term abbreviation)? | every other day |
| qid (medical term abbreviation)? | four times a day |
| qn (medical term abbreviation)? | Nightly or at bedtime |
| what is the most communicable disease? | hep b |
| Hemostasis involves three basic steps? | vascular spasm, the formation of a platelet plug, and coagulation |
| What is considered hypertension in pregnant females? | 140/90 |
| is a rare spinal disorder that results from an injury to one side of the spinal cord in which the spinal cord is damaged but is not severed completely. It is usually caused by an injury to the spine in the region of the neck or back? | Brown-Séquard syndrome |
| is an inability to flex the neck forward due to rigidity of the neck muscles? (medical term) | nuchal rigidity for meningitis |
| Severe stiffness of the hamstrings causes an inability to straighten the leg when the hip is flexed to 90 degrees? (medical term) | kernigs sign for meningitis |
| is paralysis from the waist down? (medical term) | paraplegia |
| is when all four limbs are paralyzed, sometimes along with certain organs? (medical term) | Quadriplegia (or tetraplegia) |
| A person with a complete ______ level of injury is paralyzed from the shoulders down? | C4 |
| A person with a complete _____ level of injury is paralyzed from the waist down? | T12 |
| ____ is a group of symptoms that cause discomfort in the pelvic region. It usually occurs during pregnancy? (medical term) | symphysis pubis |
| the distance from your pubic bone to the top of your uterus? (medical term) | fundal height |
| Doctors begin measuring fundal height at around week ___? | 20 |
| Passage of cervical mucus plug. Dilation and effacement of the cervix? (what stage in ob) | stage 1 |
| what is the fundal height used for? | determining age |
| Starts once the cervix is fully dilated at 10 cm and ends after delivery of the fetus? (what stage in ob) | stage 2 |
| Delivery of the placenta? (what stage in ob) | stage 3 |
| When your baby 'drops,' or descends into the pelvis in preparation for birth, the fundal height is reduced at usually what weeks for first baby? | 35 or 36 |
| the uterus feels like a what under the skin? | hard ball |
| if the top of the uterus is _____ the bellybutton, measure how many fingers it is (pointer and middle finger) (2.5-3 months,3.5-4 months,4.5-5months)? | below |
| If the top of the uterus is ____ the bellybutton, measure how many fingers it is (pointer and middle finger) (5.5-6 months,6.5-7 months, 7.5-8 months, 8.5-9 months)? | above |
| swallowing difficulties? (medical term) | dysphagia |
| difficulty in speaking due to a physical disorder of the mouth, tongue, throat, or vocal cords? (medical term) | dysphonia |
| 4 D's of epiglottis? | dysphagia, dysphonial, drooling, distress |
| A nasal cannula at 6lpm delivers how much O2? | 44% |
| Where would you expect to hear bowel sounds with a diaphragm rupture? | in the chest/thoracic cavity |
| number of times pregrant? (medical term) | gravida |
| number of deliveries? (medical term) | para |
| is the perception of noise or ringing in the ears? (medical term) acetylsalicylic acid OD sign? | tinnitus |
| Partner refuses to respond to call because location in known for its violence? (medical term) | breech of duty |
| What is the most common type of Hepatitis? | hep a |
| is defined as giving birth after less than 3 hours of regular contractions? (medical term) | precipitous labor or rapid labor |
| What is a complication of a precipitous delivery (fast labor)? | maternal lacerations |
| someone who is pregnant? (medical term) | gravid |
| What is a common symptom of schizophrenia? | hallucinations |
| used to prevent or reduce fever? (medical term) | antipyretic |
| What is the Parklin formula used for? | fluid resuscitation in burns |
| most commonly affects the colon and the last part of the small intestine (ileum)? (what disease) | Crohn disease |
| affects only the colon, A chronic, inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the digestive tract. Symptoms include rectal bleeding, bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and pain? (what disease) | Ulcerative colitis |
| Too much co2 in the blood? (medical term) | hypercapnia |
| ST depression is an indication of what? | ischemia |
| ST elevation is a sign of what? | injury |
| Where is the femoral vein in relation to the femoral artery or nerve? | medial |
| What does the vertical axis on the ecg represent? | voltage |
| each small block up and down on an ecg is how much? | 1mm |
| each small block left to right on an ecg is how much? | 0.4 sec |
| each big block (5 small) up and down on an ecg is how much? | 5 mm |
| each big block (5 small) left to right on a ecg is how much? | .20 sec |
| If a patient is in shock long enough, what will the develop? | renal failure |
| Which critters have neurotoxins? | pit vipers (coral snakes) |
| is when a person can see the blood in his or her urine? (Medical term) | Gross hemoturia |
| causes lesions to grow in the skin, lymph nodes, internal organs, and mucous membranes lining the mouth, nose, and throat. It often affects people with immune deficiencies, such as HIV or AIDS (medical term) very rare cancer | Kaposi sarcoma |
| tumors in your pancreas. They make extra insulin, more than your body can use? (Medical term) | Insulinomas |
| A hormone-secreting tumor that can occur in the adrenal glands.( medical term) | Pheochromocytoma Or pcc |
| Parkland burn formula? | 4ml x TBSA (%) x body weight (kg); 50% given in first eight hours; 50% given in next 16 hours. |
| F.a.s.t (face numbness or weakness , arm numbness or weakness, slurred of difficulty speaking, time) (what stroke scale)? | Cincinnati |
| Assesses for unilateral deficit ,facial-paresis,hand grip weakness by ,and arm drift (what stroke scale)? | Los Angelas |
| an unhealthy pale appearance? (medical term) | pallor |
| is an average blood pressure in an individual during a single cardiac cycle, to ensure enough blood flow to vital organs, such as the heart, brain, and kidneys. (medical term) | mean arterial pressure |
| mean arterial pressure calculation? | SBP + 2(DBP) DIVIDED BY 3 |
| MAKE SURE CHEST NEEDLE IS INSERTED HOW AND WHERE? | 90 DEGREE ANGLE, 2ND 3RD INTERCOSTAL SPACE MID CLAVICULAR INSERT OVER THE SUPERIOR MARGIN OF THE THIRD RIB |
| AVERAGE DEPTH OF CHEST NEEDLE? | 4.28 CM |
| how to select needle size for needle chest decompression? | 14 – 16 ga. X 2 inch over-the-needle catheter (adult) |
| listen for or seen in syringe for confirmation of needle chest decompression? | rush of air or bubbles in syringe |
| airway volumes not participating in gas exchange? (medical term) | dead space |
| how much anatomic dead space do we usually have? | 150ml |
| potential space between visceral and parietal pleurae? | pleural cavity |
| passageway for air and food? | pharynx |
| most inferior portion of larynx? | Cricoid Cartilage |
| WHAT increases surface area of nasal mucous membrane? | Nasal Concha |
| fold of mucous membrane containing elastic fibers responsible for sounds? | vocal fold |
| serves as resonant chamber and reduces weight of skull? | Paranasal Sinus |
| consist of large lobes? | lungs |
| A nonrebreather mask can deliver____ to ____ percent oxygen at 10–15 LPM.? | 80-90% |
| A BVM can deliver ____– _____ percent oxygen at 12–15 LPM.? | 90-100% |
| is composed of 3 large, unpaired cartilages (cricoid, thyroid, epiglottis); 3 pairs of smaller cartilages (arytenoids, corniculate, cuneiform); and a number of intrinsic muscle? | larynx |
| consists of the tongue from the circumvallate papillae, posteriorly to the epiglottis, the tonsils, the associated pharyngeal walls, and the soft palate? | oropharynx |
| A needle length of at least _____cm (_____ inches) should be used for needle decompression? (cm/inches) | 4.5cm : 1.8 inches |
| flesh-eating disease, is an infection that results in the death of parts of the body's soft tissue. sever disease sudden onset:Symptoms usually include red or purple skin in the affected area, severe pain, fever, and vomiting. (medical term) | necrotizing fasciitis |
| It spreads from contaminated food or water, or contact with someone who is infected? | hep a |
| is spread when blood, semen, or other body fluids from a person infected with the virus enters the body of someone who is not infected. | hep b |
| is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless flammable gas that is slightly less dense than air? | carbon monoxide |
| are small, bulging pouches that can form in the lining of your digestive system. They are found most often in the lower part of the large intestine (colon)? | diverticula |
| a colorless, odorless gas produced by burning carbon and organic compounds and by respiration. It is naturally present in air (about 0.03 percent) and is absorbed by plants in photosynthesis? | carbon dioxide |
| are hard deposits of minerals and acid salts that stick together in concentrated urine. They can be painful when passing through the urinary tract, but usually don't cause permanent damage? | renal calculi or kidney stones |
| Inflammation of the membrane lining the abdominal wall and covering the abdominal organsis usually infectious and often life-threatening. It's caused by leakage or a hole in the intestines, such as from a burst appendix? | peritonitis |
| At which of the following ages is a woman most likely to undergo menopause? | 50 |
| In the field, the biggest and most acute problem encountered with liver disease is? | upper gi hemorrhage |
| Cheyne-Stokes respirations are associated with? | brain stem injuries |
| Agonists _____ drug effects at the receptor sits? | enhance |
| A retinal detachment usually occurs due to age-related shrinkage of the ______ _______? | vitreous gel |
| Cells that surround, engulf, and destroy invading bacteria are called? | microphages |
| Leakage of urine from the vagina after pelvic abdominal surgery is indicative of damage to what? | ureter |
| ______ are alternate pathways where blood goes when the primary pathways are blocked or occluded? | anastomoses |
| If there is a blockage or occlusion, the heart receives collateral circulation via? | anastomoses |
| A patient with severe hepatic encephalopathy due to liver failure likely has an excess of? | ammonia |
| is the absence of palpable pulse waves in a peripheral artery for one or more heartbeats and is often seen in atrial fibrillation? | pulse deficit |
| The ______ phase is characterized by muscle rigidity? | tonic |
| the _____ phase is the rhythmic movement (jerking) phase. | clonic |
| The ______ phase is the period immediately following the seizure. | posictal |
| What is the key factor that results in the formation of a hematoma versus a simple contusion after a soft tissue injury? | Damage to larger caliber blood vessels |
| When performing drags, responders should attempt to drag patients in which of the following directions? | along the long axis of the body |
| _____ is an acquired cognitive impairment? | dementia |
| What do Incident Action Plans provide? | incident objectives |
| In a patient of normal body habitus, a ______ _______ is superior to all other methods of pelvic stabilization? | pelvic binder |
| Pelvic Inflammatory Disease symptoms include the PID shuffle, vaginal discharge, and pain; the pain is especially significant during which type of event? | sexual intercourse |
| This term means "dilation of the vessel" and generally occurs at a weak point in the wall of an arterial wall, causing a bulge in the vessel? | aneurysm |
| is an abnormal connection between two body parts, such as an organ or blood vessel and another structure? injury or surgery (medical term | fistula |
| Which term best describes the pocket of air in the body created by a penetrating projectile such as a bullet? | cavitation |
| the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling? | ascites |
| Res Ispa Loquitur is a doctrine of law that means? | things that speak for its self |
| The movement of air into and out of the lungs is called which of the following? | ventilation |
| The _____ _____ extends upward from the ring of the pelvis. This portion of the innominate bone makes up the widest and highest portion of the "hips."? | iliac crest |
| pelvic anatomy (top to bottom) | illium, iliac crest, iliac spine, acetabulum, ischium, pubis |
| is a condition in which you have difficulty controlling or coordinating the muscles you use when you speak, or weakness of those muscles? | dysarthria |
| is the medical term for ear drainage? | otorrhea |
| Black, tarry stool as a bowel movement is?. (medical term) | melena |
| is the passage of fresh blood per anus, usually in or with stools? | hematochezia |
| When performing triage, patients who are unconscious or have an altered mental status can be placed in the ____ _______ in the interim until definitive care can be provided? | recovery position |
| Cerebral blood flow in a child is how much faster in volume than in an adult? | twice as fast |
| ______ is simply a slow respiratory rate? | bradypnea |
| In what population do premature ventricular beats signify a substantially increased risk of sudden death? | Those with myocardial infarction |
| Which of the following is a common sign of cold trauma to the phalanges? | loss of sensation |
| Hazardous Material placards are diamond-shaped signs that identify motor carriers transporting dangerous goods. Which of the following hazard classes or divisions are required to be identified? | Both primary and subsidiary hazard classes and divisions, if applicable |
| A patient who is suspected of having sepsis is febrile and warm to the touch. What is the process that is warming the skin? | The blood vessels in the skin dilating to release heat |
| When assessing pupils, what would you most likely find in a patient with severe brainstem injury? | Both pupils dilated and nonreactive |
| When an electrical impulse comes back to the AV node or junctional tissue instead of terminating after ventricular depolarization, provoking a tachycardia, it is referred to as? | reentry atrial tachycardia |
| If a patient has a defect in between their ventricles, which of the following describes the abnormal pattern of blood-flow that will result? | From the left ventricle to the right |
| The kidneys are contained in which area of the body? | Retroperitoneum |
| Which structure facilitates movement of substance into and out of the cell? | Plasma membrane |
| is the control center of the cell? | nucleus |
| is a cell organelle that helps process and package proteins and lipid molecules, especially proteins destined to be exported from the cell.appears as a series of stacked membranes? | Golgi apparatus |
| It is the power house of the cell; it is responsible for cellular respiration and production of (most) ATP in the cell? | mitochondria |
| is a condition where air becomes trapped under the skin | subcutaneous emphysema |
| Which of the following is the main differentiator between the large and small intestine? | One absorbs a larger percentage of nutrients than the other |
| The strongest modifiable risk factor for osteoarthritis is? | obesity |
| ____ or ______ results in rapid enlargement of the prostate, which lies below the bladder and surrounds the urethra. can eventually result in blockage of the urethra leading to urinary retention | bph or benign prostate hyperplasia |
| If an Anaphylactic emergency happens for the first time? | It can portend future recurrences |
| You are assisting with a delivery in the field. The baby's head emerges but the amniotic sac is still intact. You should? | Allow delivery to proceed and when the sac ruptures, push it away from baby's head and face |
| What are some hazards of an improperly sized cervical collar? | Pain and spinal injury aggravation |
| double vision? (medical term) | diplopia |
| occurs when an object such as a ball strikes the eye causing compression of the orbital contents and a fracture in the orbital floor? | blowout fx |
| Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with rising intracranial pressure? | Irregular respirations, rise in blood pressure without a rise in heart rate (HR) |
| In accelerated junctional rhythms, the pacemaker is located in? | AV node |
| is an inflammatory process that causes a blood clot to form and block one or more veins, usually in your legs. The affected vein might be near the surface of your skin or deep within a muscle? | thrombophlebitis |
| to the buildup of fats, cholesterol and other substances in and on your artery walls (plaque), which can restrict blood flow? | atherosclerosis |
| HDL because it carries cholesterol from other parts of your body back to your liver. Your liver then removes the cholesterol from your body is called the what? | good cholesterol |
| LDL stands for low-density lipoproteins. because a high LDL level leads to a buildup of cholesterol in your arteries. is called the what? | bad cholesterol |
| What sounds indicate turbulence of blood flow within the heart? | murmurs |
| Which rhythm is best associated with overstimulation of the vagus nerve resulting in vasovagal syncope? | sinus bradycardia |
| Less than ____ mm/Hg difference between systolic and diastolic is considered a "narrowed pulse pressure." | 25 |
| During a pulmonary embolism, which chamber of the heart experiences a sudden increase in pressure? | right ventricle |
| In what year was the use of helicopters in civilian emergency medical response explored? | 1970 |
| is an infection of the trachea (breathing tube or windpipe) that is caused by bacteria or viruses. occurs during or after croup? | tracheitis |
| This term means "the condition of abnormal menstruation" and most often presents as pain, nausea, diarrhea, and leg pain during menstruation? | Dysmenorrhea |
| Which of the following time frames BEST defines the neonate? | birth to 1 month in age |
| What is the term for the force of attraction between a medication and its target receptor? | affinity |
| What is the most common cause of large bowel (colon) obstruction? | volvulus |
| is extreme, persistent nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. It can lead to dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances? | hyperemesis gracidarum |
| As the body compensates for shock with peripheral vasoconstriction, oxygen delivery to the capillaries decreases. What happens at this point? | Anaerobic metabolism replaces aerobic metabolism |
| A method used to calculate the amount of force involved in a collision would be? | Mass times acceleration |
| If a drug is "relatively contraindicated" which of the following is most accurate? | It’s use in a given situation requires extreme caution |
| With emergency childbirth in the field, when are the APGAR assessments performed? | at 1 and 5 minutes after birth |
| occurs through the actions or conduct of the patient rather than direct communication through words? (law) | implied consent |
| you would be allowed to treat this unconscious adult patient under? (law) | implied consent |
| is a process for getting permission before conducting a healthcare intervention on a person, or for disclosing personal information? (law) | informed consent |
| permission for something that is given specifically, either verbally or in writing? (law) | express consent |
| Which of the following screenings is mandated by most employers? | Tuberculosis |
| What is the term for Findings in a history that describe the absence of signs or symptoms? | Pertinent negative findings |
| How does the diaphragm, the most important muscle of respiration, cause the body to inhale new air? | By lowering the air pressure in the chest |
| You set-up for a needle cricothyrotomy. How should this patient be positioned for the procedure? | Supine with his head and neck hyperextended |
| The process of creating pathways through the wreckage of an accident or removing patients from mangled cars is called? | Disentanglement |
| You are treating a 7-year-old patient with difficulty breathing. When assessing a patient's respirations what are the four things you want to look at? | Rhythm, rate, quality, and depth |
| is a short-acting intravenous anesthetic agent used for the induction of general anesthesia and sedation for short procedures such as reduction of dislocated joints, tracheal intubation, cardioversion and electroconvulsive therapy? (drug) | etomidate |
| The loss of brain function when a damaged liver doesn't remove toxins from the blood? (medic term) | hepatic encephalopathy |
| le fort fracture 1 involves what? ( speak no evil) | nasomaxillary: palate |
| le fort fracture 2 involves what? (see no evil ) | pyramidal: nose + palate |
| le fort fracture 3 involves what? (hear no evil) | craniofacial disjunction: entire face |
| A sudden drop in heart rate and blood pressure leading to fainting, often in reaction to a stressful trigger? (medical term) | vasovagal syncope |
| Beta-2 agonists will result in? | Vasodilation |
| The ______ _______ is responsible for delivering the impulses from the medulla oblongta to the lungs? | phrenic nerve |
| Antiviral therapy is not recommended for varicella-zoster virus-infected individuals who are _____ ______? | young children |
| The ductus venosis allows the fetal blood to bypass the baby's ______? | liver |
| the hollow digestive organs (esophagus, stomach, and intestines) Primarily exist to facilitate the ______ _____ ______? | absorption of nutrients |
| _______leads the development and maintenance of resource typing definitions for resources shared on a local, interstate, regional, or national scale? | FEMA |
| The endotracheal tube size refers to the ____________ in millimeters? | inside diameter |
| The ______ _______ will collect and evaluate the facts about the potential exposure incident and make a determination whether an exposure may have occurred? (officer) | designated officer |
| The ________ _______ ______ _______ dictates what content an EMS provider of a given level must be familiar with? | national EMS education standards |
| ACTH and aldosterone from the adrenal glands, the renin-angiotensin system (RAS) in the kidneys, anti-diuretic hormone (ADH, or vasopressin) from the pituitary and hypothalamus are _______ _____ responses to shock? | neuroendocrine system |
| Lifelong habits and patterns of activity are generally established between ages? | 20 and 40 |
| j waves are called what? | Osborn waves |
| The ease with which the lungs expand during inspiration is called? | compliance |
| What are the three domains of EMS research as defined in the National EMS research agenda? | education clinical systems |
| Late stage cirrhosis is ______, the only treatment being liver transplant? | irreversible |
| Chronic liver damage from a variety of causes leading to scarring and liver failure? (medical term) | cirrhosis |
| At what age are the primary teeth expected to begin erupting through the gums? | 6 months |
| male reach final adult height by age? | 18 |
| The absence of carbon dioxide highly indicates that the ET tube has been inadvertently placed in the? | esophagus |
| by using _______ _______ to inflate the lungs which reduces cardiac output due to the loss of the respiratory pump effect? | positive pressure |
| The key focus of EMS care is to do no harm? (medical Latin term) | primus non nocere |
| suction for no more than in peds? | 5 sec |
| _____ is a rare congenital defect where the heart is situated primarily on the right side of the body instead of the left? (medical term) | dextrocardia |
| _____ _____ _____ is a more frequent cause of syncope in the elderly than it is in younger persons? | Carotid sinus hypersensitivity |
| Which route of administration will deliver results the fastest? | iv |
| taste buds are what? (medical term) | chemoreceptors |
| sluggish and apathetic? (medical term) | lethargic |
| showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern? (medical term ) | apathetic |
| Which 2 substances act as the essential fuel that all cells require to function properly? | oxygen and glucose |
| What are S3 and S4 sounds? | ventricular filling sounds |
| _________ is age-related hearing loss and is often associated with gradual hearing loss caused by damage to the cochlea or labyrinth? (medical term) | presbycusis |
| is an inner ear disorder that causes vertigo? | meunière disease |
| is caused by a mechanical blockage that impedes hearing, like earwax buildup? | conductive hearing loss |
| is a combination of sensorineural hearing loss and conductive hearing loss? | mixed hearing loss |
| are responsible for pain and temperature sensation? | spinothalamic tracts |
| The bronchi begin at the _____ , the point where the trachea bifurcates? | carina |
| You point the angiocath downward at a _____ during a needle cricothyrotomy to protect the vocal cords? | 45°angle |
| If a patient sustains an injury that compromises the Canal of Schlemm in the eye, which of the following is most likely to occur? | increased intraocular pressure |
| dubotrex is a trade name for? | dobutamine |
| ______ is determined by the number of systoles (contractions) per minute? | BPM |
| The primary action of dobutamine is to increase the? | inotropic action |
| is used for short-term management of CHF and LVH by increasing cardiac contractility (inotropic effect)? | dobutamine |
| is the outermost layer of the alimentary tube wall? | serosa |
| the innermost layer of the alimentary tube wall is? | mucosa |
| The ______ rectum is near the end of the large intestine just prior to the rectum? | sigmoid |
| Which of the following is the most common route of hantavirus transmission? | aerosolized feces |
| Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial medication to administer to counteract aspirin overdose? | activated charcoal |
| The placenta contains an extremely high amount of which of the following? | blood vessels |
| Hantaviruses that are responsible for human transmission are particular among which populations? | rodents |
| In hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome, the main effects? | are in the blood vessels |
| Meconium staining occurs in what percentage of term deliveries? | 15-20% |
| Which of the following signs and/or symptoms are the most common initial symptom in meningitis? | fever |
| Assess fetal heart tones with a stethoscope, anything higher than ____ or below _____ is an early sign of fetal distress? | 160 or 120 |
| The ______ autoinjector kit contains one syringe that contains both atropine and pralidoxime chloride and was FDA-approved in 2007? | duo dote |
| The maximum amount of air that can be inhaled or exhaled is called the _______? | vital capacity |
| the volume of air that enters or exits the lungs in a minute's time is called ________? | minute ventilation |
| CBRNE stands for? (nemonic operations) | chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, and explosives. |
| When you're _________, the amount of fluid in your blood lowers and your blood pressure goes down? | dehydrated |
| Brown recluse spider bites cause a ______ ______ and within 7-14 days the bite develops into an open, necrotic sore? | local injury |
| Pulmonary embolism is a known side effect of_____ _____ ____? | birth control pills |
| it is important that the EMS professional build _______ with the patient to earn their trust prior to performing treatments or care? | rapport |
| ___________ is the saturation of oxygen in the blood and body cells? | oxygenation |
| ______ are broken into five categories: Vesicants or blistering agents, Blood agents (cyanides), Pulmonary agents, Incapacitating agents, Nerve agents? | chemical agents |
| _________ __________ is a chronic lung disease occurring in pre-term infants treated with positive pressure ventilation and high oxygen concentrations? | Bronchopulmonary dysplasia |
| Irregular, stronger-than-usual jugular venous pulsations that occur when the atria and ventricles contract together are called? | cannon a waves |
| the pelvic space can hold how much blood? | 1.5L |
| The retroperitoneal space can hold how much blood? | over 5 L |
| Alzheimer's Disease is distinguishable from other forms of dementia by? | The presence of amyloid beta depositions. |
| Pelvic binders work to reduce _____ _____ ____ by reducing the space of the pelvic cavity? | total blood loss |
| _________ _______ is when the patients pulse becomes weaker upon inhalation and stronger during exhalation? | pluses paradoxus |
| pulses paradoxus equals what? | copd exerbation cardiac tamponade and pericarditis |
| also known as conjunctival icterus, refers to the yellowish pigmentation of the sclera, which is the normally white area of the eye. This yellowish pigmentation arises due to the buildup of bilirubin in blood? | scleral icterus |
| A consistent 1:2 AV beat is considered? ______ ; ________ | regular : irregular |
| icterus means? (medical term) | jaundice |
| School age children (6-12) have a? | maximum normal systolic blood pressure of 120 mmhg |
| In a patient with hepatic encephalopathy which of the following is most likely to result in acute decompensation and death in the EMS setting? | Increased intracranial pressure |
| Women get more bladder infections than men because? | Their urethras are shorter |
| Vessels in the neck and upper chest are most likely to promote ____ _______ when severed? | air embolism |
| is the ability of the cardiac pacemaker cells to spontaneously initiate an electrical impulse without being stimulated from another source? | automaticity |
| The ______ is the strongest refractor in the eye. This means that its modification has the highest change of restoring, or creating, normal 20/30 to 20/20 vision. | cornea |
| EMS professionals should always follow their ______ requirements when notifying authorities. | state |
| CHF is the cardiac muscle's inability to _____ efficiently? | pump |
| Which of the following types of muscle is under the exclusive control of the autonomic nervous system? | smooth muscle |
| When the ventricles acutely cease activity for more than a few seconds, it is called? (unusual cardiac event) | Ventricular standstill |
| myopia is what? ( medical term vision) | near sight |
| Hyperopia is what? (medical term Vision) | far sight |
| ______ are small projection that receive signal from other neurons? | dendrites |
| In the Incident Command System (ICS), the Logistics Section is responsible for which of the following functions? | providing resources |
| Where does gaseous exchange happen in organs? | Capillaries |
| The OPQRST checklist is most useful for which of the following? | describing pts pain |
| Which of the following cardiac rhythms is most likely if the patient was struck by lightning? | asystole |
| is the study of the movement of a drug through an individual's body, describing HOW and WHERE drugs interact with the normal processes of the body? | pharmacokinetics |
| Which of the following components of the kidney is focused on re-absorbing proteins, ions, and fluids that have been filtered out of the circulation? | nephron tubules |
| A molecule that facilitates a chemical reaction is called a(n)? | enzyme |
| The entire pertussis illness, whooping cough, lasts about? | 3 months |
| A highly contagious respiratory tract infection that is easily preventable by vaccine? | pertussis or whooping cough |
| The innate immune system reacts quickly to signals from infected or injured tissues by releasing? | cytokines |
| The cranium is made up of several bones that are connected by which of the following joint types? | fused joints |
| Anaphylaxis is what type of hypersensitivity? | type 1 |
| the sensation/sound of bone pieces crunching together, would be consistent with a fracture versus the other injuries? (medical term) | crepitus |
| a large disaster such as an earthquake or hurricane occurs that requires cooperation across state lines, which of the following would allow for cooperation between states, enabling the sharing of EMS personnel and equipment? | an emergency management assistance compact |
| Which of the following are the most common factors that cause disease in the average American? | Genetic and environmental |
| Your pulseless, apneic adult patient has an obvious implanted pacemaker but is currently experiencing ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following is the next best step in treatment? | Start CPR and shock the patient as usual, more than 1" away from the device |
| A patient with COPD is likely to rely on what mechanism to stimulate their respiratory drive? | hypoxia |
| Which supplemental cardiac force helps to pressurize valves and accounts for 15-25% of stroke volume? | atrial kick |
| a prolapse of the cord is most common with? | breech presentation |
| Which of the following regions of the skull makes up the majority of the posterior surface? | parietal |
| occurs when there is a malfunction of the hypothalamus or loss of vasomotor tone, making the victim feel as if they are overheated? | paradoxical undressing |
| Paradoxical undressing is most likely found in patients with which of the following conditions? | Hypothermia and vasoconstriction failure |
| Preeclampsia and eclampsia are more common in? | later pregnancy |
| The National EMS Information System requires patient care reports to include a minimum data set. Statistical data is collected from two specific categories in these data sets. Which two categories are included in the minimum data set? | Patient information and administrative information |
| also called thrombolytic drug, any agent that is capable of stimulating the dissolution of a blood clot (thrombus)? | fibrinolytic drug |
| should be initially given slowly at the rate the patient has been breathing? | assisted ventilations |
| Which fluid lies between the visceral and parietal pleura allowing them to easily slide over each other without friction? | serous fluid |
| If a conscious adult patient falls less than 25 feet, they are most likely to land on which of the following? | their feet |
| complete visualization of the uvula? (mallampati score, intubation)? what class | class 2 |
| are a sign of previous myocardial infarction, wider than 0.04 sec and is seen in tow or more contiguous leads? | pathologic q waves |
| What is the recommended minimum number of responders needed to perform the log roll maneuver? | three |
| Patients with ____ ___ ____ or _______ may require intubation during episodes of GI distress with significant vomiting, primarily to reduce the high risk of aspiration in this population? | poor mental status or altered level of consciousness |
| Which of the following is NOT included within the scope of the National Incident Management System concerning incidents? | mitigation |
| Traumatic aortic rupture usually occurs as a result of transection of the aorta at the? | ligamentum ateriosum |
| Which of the following is the proper sequence of steps for using an AED (automated external defibrillator) on a pulseless unconscious patient? | Power on the AED, attach electrode pads, analyze the rhythm, clear the patient, deliver shock |
| Which of the following, Incident Command System Organizational Level, is responsible for directing and coordinating all incident tactical operations? | Operations Section |
| What is the primary function of the skin layer known as the epidermis? | Protection (from trauma, pathogens, and UV light) |
| how to you transport amputated limbs or fingers? | dry sterile dressing on top of ice |
| The Q in the V/Q ratio stands for which of the following? | perfusion |
| chiefly of a drug) used to reduce anxiety? (medical term) | anxiolytic |
| The __ an anxiolytic is, the more likely it'll be abused? | faster-acting |
| Which of the following is considered the first line of defense in fighting the spread of infectious disease in the pre-hospital environment? | proper hand washing procedures |
| dys ( medical abbreviation)? | difficulty |
| phasia (medical abbreviation)? | speech |
| phagia (medical abbreviation)? | swallowing |
| aphasia (medical abbreviation)? | inability to speak |
| Which of the following is absent from the neurons in the central nervous system that prevents them from regrowing their axons if they are severed during trauma? | sheath of cytoplasm |
| What hormone(s) rise(s) during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle? | estrogen |
| Rupture of any abdominal organ can cause ______ _______? | diffuse peritonitis |
| hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count, A serious complication of high blood pressure during pregnancy.syndrome usually develops before the 37th week of pregnancy, or shortly after. Many women are diagnosed with preeclampsia beforehand. | hellp syndrome |
| The electrical disturbance that results in reversal of the normal direction of ventricular depolarization is? | left bundle branch block |
| When an incident occurs within a single jurisdiction and without jurisdictional or functional agency overlap, the appropriate authority designates which of the following? | single incident commander |
| You are called to see an elderly woman with a narrow oblique strip of exquisitely painful skin on one side of her chest. This most likely represents? | early shingles |
| complete visualization of the soft palate? (mallampati score for intabuation)? what class | class 1 |
| visualization of only the base of the uvula? (mallampati score for intabuation)? what class | class 3 |
| soft palate is not visible at all (mallampati score for intabuation) ? What class | class 4 |
| Which of the following muscles are located within the chest wall and expand/contract with inhalation and exhalation? | intercostal muscles |
| Hazardous Material placards are diamond-shaped signs that identify motor carriers transporting dangerous goods. In what area of the placard must the hazard class or division number be located? | lower sections of the diamond |
| relating to the heart and the lungs?(anatomy) | cardiopulmonary |
| is the easiest process in the eye to disrupt. Small changes in the shape of the lens, cornea, or retina can throw this off? | refraction |
| Which serious condition presents as a sharp, tearing pain in the chest accompanied by a rapid drop in blood pressure? | aortic aneurysm |
| An infant turning his head is known as the what reflex? | rooting reflex |
| The response by an infant when its cheek is touched what reflex? | suckling reflex |
| infant Palm grasping when a finger is placed there what reflex? | palmar grasp reflex |
| infant Throwing the arms wide and spreading the fingers when startled what reflex? | moro reflex |
| Which of the following are responsible for grouping and processing the raw visual input from the retinal photoreceptors? | ganglion cells |
| Which reflex results from stimulation of the plantar area to identify neurological injury? | Babinski sign |
| Which of the following is a straw-colored fluid when separated from the rest of the blood? | plasma |
| A patient sustains damage to the ascending sympathetic nervous system following trauma. Which of the following functions of the eyelids would be inhibited in this patient to the greatest degree? | spreading of tears across the cornea |
| What part of the body is injured in a silver fork fracture in which the wrist is curved like the back of a fork? | radius |
| The mechanism of sudden cardiac arrest is usually which of the following? | vt/vf |
| Which type of vessels does nitroglycerin dilate? | Both arterial and venous vessels |
| The principle neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is? | acetylcholine |
| A difference between stable angina and unstable angina is? | Whether or not a typical pattern is present |
| A middle-aged writer recently has noticed that when working at the computer the screen is blurry, yet she is still able to see items that are far away without difficulty. What is the most likely etiology of their visual difficulties? | Degeneration of the lens |
| Neonatal nausea and vomiting that is not addressed can result in? | dehydration |
| Which of the following vessels has thin walls through which oxygen, nutrients, and wastes can pass? | capillaries |
| You are treating a patient injured in an ATV rollover, He has a large open wound to the left side of the neck that is expressing a moderate amount of flowing dark blood. What should you do for this puncture wound? | Apply an occlusive dressing |
| In a portion of the lung in which there is consolidation (fluid filling the tissue,) you would expect the breath sounds to be? | increased |
| Waves seen in VF that are irregular in amplitude, morphology, and periodicity are called? | Fibrillatory waves |
| When auscultating heart tones, you hear 4 tones. (S4-S1-S2-S3 or Ta-lub-dub-ta) This is a sign of cor pulmonale. What is cor pulmonale? | Right sided heart failure secondary to CHF |
| The venous drainage from the small intestines flows into which of the following structures? | portal vein |
| What does a heart murmur indicate? | valvular disease |
| Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) patients have a reduced respiratory response to which of the following conditions? | Elevated levels of carbon dioxide |
| The process of spontaneous transport of molecules or ions across a cell’s membrane via specific transmembrane integral proteins involves which of the following? | Facilitated diffusion |
| is a form of traumatic brain injury. It happens when the brain rapidly shifts inside the skull as an injury is occurring? | diffuse axonal injury |
| If a large hurricane strikes a large coastal metropolis and vast areas are flooded, which of the following may be established to oversee the entire metropolis and the individual incident command systems of smaller cities that make up the metropolis? | An Area command |
| Preterm infants are at a higher risk for? | Temperature loss |
| Digital intubation is contraindicated in which of the following? | Before bite blocks are inserted into mouth |
| The National Incident Management System's qualification, certification, and credentialing process uses which of the following approaches to recognize responders? | Performance-based |
| When performing primary triage, first responders should document which of the following? | The patients location and transport need |
| What underlying construct provides the backbone for identifying and changing everything in EMS; from patient assessment and management, to improving service delivery? | Research |
| An important disadvantage in using both nasal and oral adjuncts is that they? | are unable to protect the lower airway from aspiration |
| Lactic acid and other byproducts of anaerobic metabolism are broken down in the? | liver |
| shoulder dystocia is more likely to occur with mothers who are? | diabetic |
| While preforming CPR on an elderly patient the possibility of compressing the sternum too hard can cause sternal/rib fractures. If this occurs which of the following injuries may occur to the patient? | lacerated liver |
| Nfpa diamond 12 o'clock? | red diamond (fire) |
| Nfpa diamond 3 o'clock? | yellow diamond (instability) |
| Nfpa diamond 6 o'clock ? | white diamond (specific hazard) |
| Nfpa diamond 9 o'clock? | blue diamond (health hazard) |
| 88% of adverse drug events (ADEs) in the elderly are? | preventable |
| Which of the following is best defined as heat loss through direct contact with a solid surface? | conduction |
| patient with notable blood loss is continuing to degrade. What is the first sign this patient is going into hypotensive shock? | rapid breathing |
| Which of the following operations are housed in the Joint Information Center (JIC)? | joint information system operations |
| Which of the following represents a difference between AVRT and WPW syndrome? | widened qrs complex |
| The risk of developing Type 2 diabetes? | increases with age |
| Persistent projectile vomiting in a child suggests? | obstruction |
| Sickle cell disease tends to result in hypertension due to its damaging effects on which of the following organs? | kidneys |
| Ventricular systole occurs primarily during which identifiable segment? | qt segment |
| NIMS qualification, certification, and credentialing process uses a performance-based approach to recognize responders. This process relies on the Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ), to qualify, certify, and credential responders is what type of process? | decentralized |
| Which of the following post-surgical complications generally occurs immediately after surgery? | atelectasis |
| Where in a drug profile would you expect to find a description of how the medication may affect a pregnant patient? | special considerations |
| bone is in pieces? (what type of fracture) | comminuted fx |
| Exocrine glands secrete their product? | via ducts, canals, or pores |
| The primary precursor of pediatric cardiac arrests is which of the following? | Bradycardia and respiratory distress |
| In the renal system, "KUB" stands for? | kidney, ureteres, and bladder |
| Capillary walls are made up mostly of? | intima |
| A 21-year-old male has received a penetrating trauma to the neck and is bleeding profusely from several large vessels. You should? | apply an occlusive dressing then apply pressure |
| You are called to care for a 6-month-old patient who is in respiratory distress and whose cough sounds like a bark. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of this complaint in this age group? | croup |
| Which layer of vessel wall is much thicker in arteries than in veins? | tunica media |
| You are assessing an elderly patient who has a “popcorn” like popping sound throughout heard all across their chest when inhaling, which of the following conditions is likely leading to this finding? | acute pulmonary edema |
| The act of committing or entrusting a person with authority is the definition of which of the following? | commission |
| What is the definitive treatment for pericardial tamponade? | pericardiocentesis |
| What does the Q-wave specifically represent in ECG monitoring? | depolarization of the septum |
| You are dispatched emergency traffic to the scene of a single car MVC vs light pole. Where should you park the ambulance if you are the first one on scene? | safe distance before the scene |
| COPD patients may develop a condition characterized by high carbon dioxide level in the blood due to poor gas exchange in the lungs. This results in the body no longer being able to use the level of carbon dioxide as a signal for how fast/deep to breathe. | hypoxic drive |
| Which of the following must be present for the Fick principle to function normally? | Adequate number of red blood cells |
| another medical term name for alkalotic on the ph scale is? | basic |
| a chemical bond formed when an electron is completely donated from 1 atom to another is called ? | ionic bond |
| the organelle responsible for >80% of the cells ATP production is? | mitochondria |
| if you can't determine the shock think? | compensated, decompensated or irreversible |
| ______ medication administration routes include all those that do not use any portion of the digestive tract? | parenteral |
| rectal administration of a drug is considered an _________ medication? | enteral |
| _______ solutions will draw fluid out of a cell? | hypertonic |
| the only medication that paramedics can administer that are hypertonic to the cells is? (2) | D50 and manitol |
| water will move in a direction of ______ solute concentration to an area of _______ solute concentration? | lower; higher |
| medications that undergo first-pass metabolism require a higher dose to maintain therapeutic levels. Medications subject to first-pass metabolism are given via the _______ route? | oral |
| The precordial electrodes give an additional ____ views (leads) of the heart, specifically anterior, septal, and lateral? (number) | 6 |
| Skin and tissue are pulled back exposing underlying tissu? (trauma) | avulsion |
| The key findings in parkinson's are "-----------l" meaning they affect the unconscious elements of movement. i.e. resting posture, tremors, and muscle tone? | Extrapyramidal |
| is leakage of urine when the internal pressure becomes greater than what is needed to keep the sphincter closed, and laughing, coughing, or sneezing can suddenly raise this pressure to incontinence levels? | Stress incontinence |
| What is the most common cause of traumatic maternal death? | Motor vehicle crashes |
| Which of the following is produced in the lungs and aids in preventing the collapse of the alveoli? | surfactant |
| At which gestational age does the pregnant uterus convert from being a pelvic organ to an abdominal organ? | 12-13 weeks |
| Which artery is usually obstructed to cause acute mesenteric ischemia? | The superior mesenteric artery |
| Which type of muscle encircles the blood vessels? | smooth |
| Which anatomical plane splits the human body into Left and Right halves? | sagittal |
| is an imaginary plane that divides the body into superior and inferior parts? (two names) | axial or transverse plane |
| an imaginary plane dividing the body into dorsal and ventral parts? | coronal plane |
| The Beck Airway Airflow Monitor (BAAM) whistle is used for which of the following? | Listening for exhalations nasal intubation |
| Which type of drag would employ the use of items readily available to place under the patient to perform the drag? | blanket drag |
| What is the pressure that blood exerts against the walls of a vessel? | Hydrostatic pressure |
| A gene pair wherein one is dominant and the other is recessive is called? (medical term) | Heterozygous |
| Neurogenic shock from head injury causes? | peripheral vasodilation |
| Which of the body's immunological defense mechanisms acts in a symbiotic way? | Microbiome |
| Our____ is a vast collection of bacteria that line our intestines, feeding off of the nutrients we ingest, while protecting our intestinal walls from more dangerous forms of bacteria that are capable of entering the intestinal walls and causing disease? | microbiome |
| involving interaction between two different organisms living in close physical association? | symbiotic |
| is hypoplasia of the mandible causing posterior displacement of the tongue during development that causes a cleft palate. The tongue prolapses backward, causing airway obstruction? (syndrome) | Pierre Robin syndrome |
| is underdevelopment or incomplete development of a tissue or organ? (medical term) | hypoplasia |
| The majority of the grey matter in the brain is located where in relation to the brain as a whole? | Superficially |
| Provide information about which portion of the heart is experiencing ischemia or infarct? | Acute ST segment changes |
| Alpha-blockers (antagonists) will result in? | Vasodilation |
| Rescue inhalers are "Beta-agonists," meaning they work on the beta receptors of the _____ _____ ______? | sympathetic nervous system |
| what part of the heart is damaged in a heart attack? | myocardium |
| A mother who has given birth during transport sustained a tear to the area surrounding the vaginal introitus, in which anatomical area is this tear most likely to be in? | The perineal area |
| The +____ _____ is one of the quickest areas of the body to heal? | oral mucosa |
| cause liquefaction necrosis and burn through the skin the deepest? | bases (alkalis) |
| Clouding of the lens, known as a ______ , is the most common age-related disease of the eye. Gradual clouding, blurring, or a "haze" over the vision--potentially resulting in blindness--is the key symptom of this condition. | cataract |
| ______ glands secrete substances into the bloodstream directly? | Endocrine |
| Pain nerves that carry acute pain sensations of discomfort to the brain are usually? | Myelinated |
| causing sharp, deep, sudden pain to get your attention? (nerve) | myelinated |
| A 16-year-old male patient who has jumped from a second-story window. The patient landed feet first and now has no feeling below the waist. Based on the information, what type of spinal column injury is most likely? | Compression |
| Which of the following can serve as a coordination entity to Unified Command? | The Joint Information Center (JIC) |
| are inanimate objects with reservoirs of infectious agent, such as towels, clothing, bedding, bar soap, razors, or athletic equipment that touches the skin? | Fomites |
| The Therapeutic Index (TI) is? | TD50 / ED50 |
Created by:
tsummers