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Ace ASCP
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Which of the following condition is the most common cause of increase anion gap? A.Metabolic alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Respiratory alkalosis | B. It is caused generally by the body producing too much acid or not producing enough bicarbonate often due to an increase in lactic acid or ketoacids, or kidney failure. More rarely, It may be caused by ingesting methanol or overdosing on aspirin. |
| Which of the following enzymes has the longest elevation after Myocardial Infarction (MI)? A. CK-MB B. Myoglobin C. Troponin D. AOTA | C. Troponin Troponin is elevated up to 10-14 days after Myocardial Infarction. |
| Lactic acid specimen: A. Chilled and separated from cells B. Heated C. Room temperature D. Request EDTA sample only | A. Chilled and separated from cells Special Handling: No tourniquet. Place on ice immediately and deliver to lab or aliquot within 15 minutes. DO NOT FREEZE WHOLE BLOOD SPECIMEN. |
| Specific gravity measured by refractometer: 1.035. Protein and glucose both trace in reagent strip: A. Presence X-ray medium B. Albuminuria C. Glucosuria D. Normal | A. Presence X-Ray medium Xray medium/Radiographic dye can cause erroneous results in urine specific gravity measurement. |
| Px walking pneumonia treated with penicillin. State why the patient is not recovering: A. The organism produces beta lactamase B. The organism has no cell wall C. The organism has capsule D. The organism produces enzyme that neutralizes the antibiotic | B. Pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae is routinely treated with antibiotics, although the disease is usually self-limiting. The disease is treated with macrolide, tetracycline, or fluoroquinolone. lack a cell wall and resistant to beta-lactam |
| What is the coefficient of variation if the mean is 90 and the standard deviation is 5.48? 2.75 6.09 5.68 30 | B. 6.09 Feedback: CV= SD/meanX100, (5.48/90)X100= 6.09. |
| Blood smear below denotes Hairy Cell Leukemia (HCL), which of the following test is used to identify this type of leukemia? Image. 1 Myeloperoxidase Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase Tartrate-resistant alkaline phosphatase Sudan Black | B. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase Hairy cells demonstrate strong positivity for tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) staining. The hairy cells are larger than normal and positive for CD19, CD20, CD22, CD11c, CD25, CD103, and FMC7. |
| Use to differentiate Salmonella from Citrobacter: Lysine decarboxylase ONPG Indole Vogues Proskauer | A. Lysine decarboxylase Salmonella (+) Citrobacter (-) |
| Arrange the common Rh antigens according to immunogenicity (greatest to least): D>c>E>C>e D>C>E>c>e D>c>E>e>C C>D>c>E>e | A. D>c>E>C>e Most immunogenic D > c > E > C > e least immunogenic. |
| Most common error in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is NUCLEIC ACID CONTAMINATION. A True B False | A. True |
| What disease is associated with the possession of HLA-B27? A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Hashimoto's Disease C. Goodpasture's syndrome D. SLE | A. Ankylosing spondylitis belongs to a group of arthritis conditions that tend to cause chronic inflammation of the spine (spondyloarthropathies). The HLA-B27 gene can be detected in the blood of most patients with ankylosing spondylitis. |
| Burr cells are seen in the peripheral blood smear, this is indicative of? A. Uremia (Kidney Disease) B. Anemia C. Leukemia D. Liver Disease | A. Uremia (kidney Disease) The above shown picture illustrates Burr cells, these cells are indicative of Uremia (kidney disease) |
| Anti IgG (-) C3d (+) What should the MLS do? A. Elution B. IAT C. DAT D. Pre-warm | D can be used to prevent cold-reactive alloAb or autoAb from reacting in the IAT phase. Specifically, It prevents cold Ab from binding complement at RT (as opposed to 37C ) and subsequently being detected by anti-C3 in the IAT by polyspecific AHG serum. |
| Maximum interval which a recipient sample maybe used for crossmatching if the patient has been recently transfused, or has been pregnant? A. 2 days B. 6 days C. 3 days D. NOTA | C. 3 days |
| CIN (Cefsulodin, Irgasan, Novobiocin) Agar is a recommended culture medium for the recovery of: A. Rhodococcus equi B. Cardiobacterium hominis D. Brucella suis E. Yersinia enterocolitica | D CIN Agar is recommended for use in the selective and differential isolation of Yersinia and Aeromonas species from clinical specimens, environmental samples, and food sources. Yersinia enterocolitica will exhibit bull's eye appearance on the said agar. |
| What is the formula for sensitivity? TP/(TP+FN)x100 TP/(TP+FP)x100 (TP+FN)/TPx100 (TP+FP)/TNx100 | A. TP/(TP+FN)x100 |
| The anemias of the qualitative hemoglobinopathies, such as sickle cell anemia, are morphologically classified as: Microcytic, hypochromic Macrocytic, normochromic Normocytic, normochromic NOTA | C. Normocytic, normochromic |
| According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) must be infused within what period of time following thawing? 24 hrs 36 hrs 48 hrs 72 hrs | A. 24 hours |
| A woman having menstrual cycle would have the ff. result: Increased TIBC Increased Ferritin Increase % Saturation Normal Transferrin | A. A total iron binding capacity value above 450 mcg/dL usually means that there's a low level of iron in your blood. This may be caused by a lack of iron in the diet, increased blood loss during menstruation, pregnancy, or a chronic infection. |
| Causative agent of "Cat bite fever" Pasteurella multocida Actinomyces israelii Bartonella henselae Leptospira interrogans | A. Are commonly isolated pathogens in animal bites, esp dog, cat. Skin manifestations typically appearing w/in 24 hrs after. Wounds can exhibit a rapidly progressive soft-tissue inflammation that may resemble group A β-hem SPY infections. |
| What is the sugar fermented by Staphylococcus aureus? Mannitol Sucrose Glucose Maltose | A. Mannitol |
| Mannitol Salt agar | Selective, Differential high concentration (7.5%-10%) of NaCl selective for Staphylococci, Micrococcus Contain mannitol and the indicator phenol red. SAU yellow cols yellow zones CNs small pink or red cols with no colour change |
| Identify the organism with broad base budding Blastomyces dermatitidis Malasezia furfur Alternaria Candida albicans | A. Blastomyces dermatitidis |
| What is the first step in agglutination? Sensitization Precipitation Diffusion Lattice formation | A. Sensitization Feedback Agglutination involves two process: First, sensitization or initial binding. Second, lattice formation or formation of large aggregates. |
| Sterilization of autoclave: 121°C at 20 lbs/psi for 30 minutes 121°C at 15 lbs/psi for 15 minutes 85°C for 15 lbs/psi 30 minutes 100°C for 20 lbs/psi 50 minutes | B. 121°C at 15 lbs/psi for 15 minutes Many autoclaves are used to sterilize equipment and supplies by subjecting them to high-pressure saturated steam at 121°C (249 °F) for around 15-20 minutes depending on the size of the load and the contents. |
| A newborn infant has a WBC count of 37,000/ul with the differential count revealing the presence of 50 nRBCs per 100 WBCs. What is the corrected WBC count? 15,000/ul 24,700/ul 27,300/ul 12,500/ul | B. 24,700/ul Corrected WBC count= Uncorrected WBC count x100/nRBCs+100 Thus, (37,000ulx100/50+100= 24,700ul) |
| Gram positive bacilli; non-motile; non-hemolytic; catalase positive; spore forming: B. anthracis B. cereus N. meningitidis N. lactamica | B. B. anthracis Feedback Important distinguishing characteristics between B. anthracis and B. cereus is motility, B. anthracis is non motile while B. cereus is motile. |
| Hair perforation test/Hair baiting test is for identification of which two fungi? Aspergillus niger and A. japonicus Tinea pedis and T. corporis Trichophyton mentagrophyte and T. rubrum C. albicans and C. tropicalis | C. Trichophyton mentagrophyte and T. rubrum Trichophyton mentagrophyte is positive and T. rubrum is negative |
| What is the minimum platelet count before you perform apheresis? 500 200 150 250 | C. 150. Apheresis donors with low normal pre-procedure platelet counts (150 - 200 x 10 9/L) and Hb concentration (12.5 - 13 g/dL) should be examined for post-donation drops in these haematological parameters |
| Gram neg normally found in oropharyngeal tract of mammals, involved in the pathogenesis of some animal bite wounds as well as periodontal diseases. This bacteria exhibits GLIDING MOTILITY: Leptospira Actinobacillus Capnocytophaga Chlamydia | C. Capnocytophaga The term Capnocytophaga comes from "Capno" for its dependence on CO2 and "cytophaga" for its flexibility and mobility shift (" gliding motility "). |
| Urine with an specific gravity consistently between 1.002 and 1.003 indicates: Acute glomerulonephritis Renal tubular failure Addison's disease Diabetes insipidus | D. Diabetes insipidus Low SG (1.001-1.003) may indicate the presence of diabetes insipidus, caused by impaired functioning of antidiuretic hormone. Low SG also may occur in patients with glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, and other renal abnormalities |
| Primidone monitoring: suspected to have primidone overdose, but the serum conc is within the normal range, what should the MLS do next? Measure procainamide conc Measure phenobarbital conc Eliminate primidone overdose as possible diagnosis | B. Measure phenobarbital concentration Primidone is a structural analog of phenobarbital. |
| Postprandial turbidity of the serum is due to the presence of? Fatty acid Cholesterol Phospholipid Lipoproteins | D. Lipoproteins For approximately two to eight hours following a meal there is an additional LIPOPROTEIN class, called chylomicrons, representing the transport of dietary fat absorbed in the intestine. |
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