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IFSTA HAZMAT

Chapter 7

QuestionAnswer
1. Which level of the basic Command organization configuration entails the overall direction and goals of an incident? (322) A. Task level B. Tactical level C. Logistics level D. Strategic level D. Strategic level
2. Which of the following is a duty of a safety officer? (323-324) A. Conducting safety briefings B. Establishing the site safety plan C. Establishing a decontamination plan and operation D. Identifying the materials or conditions involved in the incident A. Conducting safety briefings
3. Which of the five major NIMS-ICS organizational functions are responsible for the establishment and maintenance of the staging area? (325) A. Logistics Section B. Planning Section C. Command Section D. Operations Section D. Operations Section
4. The major NIMS-ICS organizational function that provides services and support systems to all the organizational components involved in the incident is called the: (326) A. Logistics Section. B. Planning Section. C. Command Section. D. Operations Section. A. Logistics Section.
5. What is a purpose of the Intelligence and Information Section in NIMS-ICS? (327) A. Prevent/deter potential unlawful activity B. Establish a decontamination plan and operation C. Identify and monitor hazardous and unsafe situations D. Identify the materials or conditions involved in the incident A. Prevent/deter potential unlawful activity
6. The person relinquishing Command must provide the person assuming Command with: (328) A. the preincident plan. B. copies of mutual aid contracts. C. an established Command Post. D. a briefing or a situation status report. D. a briefing or a situation status report.
7. A written agreement defining roles and responsibilities within a Unified Command structure is known as a(an): (329) A. Incident Management System (IMS). B. National Response Framework (NRF). C. Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). D. National Incident Management System (NIMS). C. Memorandum of Understanding (MOU).
8. Before an incident with Unified Command occurs, agencies should perform what action to avoid jurisdictional and command disputes? (330) A. Assign a Safety Officer B. Assign an Incident Commander C. Be familiar with the preincident plans D. Know what mutual-aid contracts cover D. Know what mutual-aid contracts cover
9. When are response tactics developed? (331) A. Once the IC has taken command B. As soon as any victims are identified C. After response strategies are in place D. Before response strategies are in place C. After response strategies are in place
10. In the U.S., the notification process is detailed in the: (332) A. Incident Management System (IMS). B. National Response Framework (NRF). C. Memorandum of Understanding (MOU). D. National Incident Management System (NIMS). B. National Response Framework (NRF).
11. What are the specialized response forces that provide medical care following a nuclear, biological, and/or chemical incident? (333) A. Disaster Medical Assistance Teams (DMAT) B. Disaster Mortuary Operational Response Teams (DMORT) C. Weapons of Mass Destruction-Civil Support Teams (WMD-CST) D. National Medical Response Team-Weapons of Mass Destruction (NMRT-WMD) C. Weapons of Mass Destruction-Civil Support Teams (WMD-CST)
12. Scene control at an incident is greatly facilitated by the establishment of: (335) A. law enforcement. B. hazard-control zones. C. public safety sampling. D. interdepartmental MOUs. B. hazard-control zones.
13. Multiple hot zones or a very large hot zone may be required at an incident with: (337) A. more than one IC. B. interstate agencies. C. multiple contaminants. D. multiple devices or release points. D. multiple devices or release points.
14. Decontamination usually takes place within the: (338) A. hot zone. B. cold zone. C. warm zone. D. command zone. C. warm zone.
15. In which of the hazard-control zones are workers not required to wear PPE because the zone is considered safe? (338) A. Hot zone B. Cold zone C. Warm zone D. Command zone B. Cold zone
16. In order to spread out emergency response personnel and limit their exposure as a target, the IC may: (339) A. establish multiple hot zones. B. require them to shelter in place. C. dispense with use of the buddy system. D. use a cornering/quartering staging procedure. D. use a cornering/quartering staging procedure.
17. A personnel tracking and accountability system must include: (340) A. a method to exclude all nonessential personnel. B. tracking and accountability for all deceased victims. C. an IAP that details the responsibilities of each responder. D. a way of identifying and tracking the location of each unit and all personnel on scene. D. a way of identifying and tracking the location of each unit and all personnel on scene.
18. The buddy system’s primary benefit is to: (341) A. reduce the need for backup personnel. B. provide rapid help if there is an emergency. C. provide rapid decontamination for victims in the hot zone. D. reduce the need for more equipment to enter the hot zone. B. provide rapid help if there is an emergency.
19. An effective strategy to protect first responders at hazmat incidents is: (341) A. progress reports. B. evidence preservation. C. time, distance, and shielding. D. recovery, withdrawal, and termination. C. time, distance, and shielding.
20. The US&R designated signal that consists of one long and one short blast means: (342) A. Evacuate the Area. B. Resume Operations. C. Cease Operations/All Quiet. D. Conduct Search Operations. B. Resume Operations.
21. First responders without Mission-Specific training can conduct rescue operations without risk of contamination such as: (343) A. moving victims to a safe place. B. decontaminating exposed victims. C. conducting searches within the hot zone. D. conducting searches on the edge of the hot zone. D. conducting searches on the edge of the hot zone.
22. When protecting the public at an incident, if there is enough time, the best protective action generally is: (344) A. evacuation. B. shelter in place. C. progress reports. D. on-scene debriefing. A. evacuation
23. Which protective action involves directing people to go quickly inside or to stay inside a room or a building and remain inside until danger passes? (346) A. Reporting B. Shelter in place C. Exposure protection D. Protecting/defending in place B. Shelter in place
24. When might the IC decide not to protect property or the environment at a hazmat incident? (349) A. During size-up B. When planning the initial response C. When doing so would pose a risk to life safety D. If they are unfamiliar with the responders that have reported for duty C. When doing so would pose a risk to life safety
25. Attempts to confine a hazardous material that has been released from its container are called_____ strategies. (349) A. offensive B. defensive C. undefined D. environmental B. defensive
26. To help preserve evidence and assist law enforcement, first responders should: (350) A. remove fatalities quickly. B. collect evidence when possible. C. take photographs and videos of the scene. D. not allow any photographs or videos to be taken. C. take photographs and videos of the scene.
27. If an IC receives favorable progress reports from tactical and/or task supervisors, this is an indication that: (352) A. the IAP is effective. B. the incident is destabilizing. C. the IC is no longer needed. D. responders should withdraw immediately. A. the IAP is effective.
28. Which of the following is an indicator to withdraw immediately? (352) A. Black smoke B. Consistent temperatures C. A sudden change in pressure D. Alarm sounding on a photoionization detector. C. A sudden change in pressure
29. What aspect of evaluating progress deals with returning the incident scene and responders to a preincident level of readiness? (352) A. Recovery B. Withdrawal C. Termination D. Progress reports A. Recovery
30. What information should be provided to responders before they leave the scene? (353) A. Postincident analysis B. Postincident critiques C. Evacuation and escape procedures D. Signs and symptoms of an exposure D. Signs and symptoms of an exposure
31. What procedural action of the termination phase compiles the information obtained from the debriefings, postincident reports, and critiques to identify trends regarding operational strengths and weaknesses? (354) A. On-scene debriefing B. Postincident critique C. Operational recovery D. Postincident analysis D. Postincident analysis
Created by: Toddgfunk
 

 



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