Question 1

1. SOP/Gs are part of: (289)

A. a response procedure.
B. predetermined procedures.
C. risk-based response models.
D. the incident action plan (IAP).

Accepted Answer

D. the incident action plan (IAP).

Question 2

2. What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at
emergency incidents? (290)

A. Decreased accountability
B. Increased chaos on scene
C. Size-up becomes unnecessary
D. Effective command and control

Accepted Answer

D. Effective command and control

Question 3

3. The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply
to: (291)

A. fire and rescue operations.
B. all emergency services organizations.
C. civilian and emergency responder victims.
D. emergency responders entering the hot zone.

Accepted Answer

B. all emergency services organizations.

Question 4

4. What is the second priority for hazmat incidents? (291)

A. Life safety
B. Incident stabilization
C. Avoidance of publicity
D. Protection of property and the environment

Accepted Answer

B. Incident stabilization

Question 5

5. Which statement about incident priorities is MOST accurate? (291)

A. Incidents usually do not evolve or change.
B. Once the IC establishes priorities, they should not change.
C. The first and most important incident priority is always societal
restoration.
D. You should never risk your life to save property that is
replaceable or cannot be saved.

Accepted Answer

D. You should never risk your life to save property that is
replaceable or cannot be saved.

Question 6

6. Assessing the incident’s conditions to recognize cues that indicate
problems or potential problems is called: (293)

A. size-up.
B. safety checks.
C. hazard assessment.
D. preincident planning.

Accepted Answer

A. size-up.

Question 7

7. Like size-up, hazard and risk assessment is: (293)

A. often a formality.
B. a continual evaluation.
C. unique to hazmat incidents.
D. completed before plan implementation.

Accepted Answer

B. a continual evaluation.

Question 8

8. Hazard and risk assessment starts: (293)

A. during size-up.
B. during pre-incident planning.
C. when setting incident priorities.
D. when developing response objectives.

Accepted Answer

A. during size-up.

Question 9

9. Which statement about hazard and risk assessment is MOST
accurate? (294)

A. An initial assessment is based on all possible conditions.
B. If only limited information is available, initial assessments
should be postponed.
C. An initial assessment should be updated as additional
information becomes available.
D. The resources available to hazmat teams mean that a full,
accurate picture of the incident will always be available.

Accepted Answer

C. An initial assessment should be updated as additional
information becomes available.

Question 10

10. Which type of information is generally NOT needed for hazard and
risk assessment? (294-295)

A. Weather
B. Time of day
C. Names of victims
D. Number and type of injuries

Accepted Answer

C. Names of victims

Question 11

11. Which of the following is the BEST example of a question that
emergency responders should consider during the initial survey?
(296)

A. What did we do right?
B. How can we improve?
C. Has a similar incident happened elsewhere?
D. How much time has elapsed since the incident began?

Accepted Answer

D. How much time has elapsed since the incident began?

Question 12

12. What information is generally NOT a variable to be considered when
considering a rescue operation at a hazmat incident? (296)

A. Who the victim is
B. Probability of rescue
C. Constraints of time and distance
D. Available escape routes and safe havens

Accepted Answer

A. Who the victim is

Question 13

13. After the material has been identified, written references such as
safety data sheets (SDSs) will MOST likely be used to determine:
(296)

A. where the material is going.
B. environmental conditions present.
C. the spread and concentration of material.
D. health and physical hazards presented by the material.

Accepted Answer

D. health and physical hazards presented by the material.

Question 14

14. Situational awareness can BEST be described as: (297)

A. incident size-up.
B. making decisions with limited information.
C. classifying incidents based on size and scope.
D. interpreting signs and clues and predicting outcomes.

Accepted Answer

D. interpreting signs and clues and predicting outcomes.

Question 15

15. What is one of the greatest barriers to maintaining situational
awareness on scene? (297)

A. Limited information
B. Competing priorities
C. Dangerous conditions
D. Making methodical decisions

Accepted Answer

B. Competing priorities

Question 16

16. The lowest level of situational awareness is: (298)

A. perception.
B. application.
C. distraction.
D. comprehension.

Accepted Answer

A. perception.

Question 17

17. Fixation may lead to the loss of situational awareness by: (298)

A. receiving two or more pieces of information that do not agree.
B. losing focus of the original mission without appropriate
rationale.
C. focusing on a single element of the situation to the exclusion of
all others.
D. obtaining a false sense of comfort based on a misconception of
the hazard, risk, or situation.

Accepted Answer

C. focusing on a single element of the situation to the exclusion of
all others.

Question 18

18. What will help to maintain situational awareness? (299)

A. Communicate the desired course of action.
B. Do not monitor crew member performance.
C. Provide operation information only as the need arises.
D. Communicate the mission’s status only when directly asked.

Accepted Answer

A. Communicate the desired course of action.

Question 19

19. A leak from a domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the
meter is generally considered a: (299)

A. Level I incident.
B. Level II incident.
C. Level III incident.
D. non hazmat incident.

Accepted Answer

A. Level I incident.

Question 20

20. A Level II incident: (300)

A. will most likely not be concluded by any one agency.
B. does not require the use of chemical protective clothing.
C. is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene.
D. requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal
agencies, and/or private industry.

Accepted Answer

C. is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene

Question 21

21. What type of incident requires unified command? (300)

A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

Accepted Answer

C. Level III

Question 22

22. Successful handling of a Level III incident requires a collective effort,
including unique outside resources such as: (301)

A. mutual aid fire departments.
B. emergency medical services.
C. local law enforcement agencies.
D. specialists from industry and governmental agencies.

Accepted Answer

D. specialists from industry and governmental agencies.

Question 23

23. Which of the following BEST describes the three modes of operation?
(303)

A. Modes of operation determine incident priorities at an incident.
B. The mode of operation may change during the course of an
incident.
C. Only one mode of operation should be used at an incident in
order to avoid confusion.
D. They are based on the assumption that responders should
interfere with incidents as little as possible.

Accepted Answer

B. The mode of operation may change during the course of an
incident.

Question 24

24. Nonintervention operations, or not taking any direct action at in
incident, is: (303)

A. always the safest course of action.
B. a poor strategy and used as a last resort.
C. the only safe strategy in many types of incidents.
D. the best strategy when mitigation is successful and straight-
forward.

Accepted Answer

C. the only safe strategy in many types of incidents.

Question 25

25. A nonintervention mode is MOST likely to be selected when: (304)

A. there is a slight risk of an explosion.
B. the incident requires additional support units.
C. the situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of responders.
D. responders have the training and equipment necessary to
confine the incident to the area of origin.

Accepted Answer

C. the situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of responders.

Question 26

26. Defensive operations are those in which: (304)

A. serious container damage threatens a massive release.
B. responders take aggressive, direct action on the incident.
C. personnel evacuate the area and withdraw to a safe distance.
D. responders seek to confine the emergency to a given area
without directly contacting the hazardous material.

Accepted Answer

d. responders seek to confine the emergency to a given area
without directly contacting the hazardous material.

Question 27

27. Which of the following is considered a defensive action? (305)

A. Protecting exposures
B. Plugging a container leak
C. Overpacking a nonbulk container
D. Isolating the hazard area and denying entry

Accepted Answer

D. Isolating the hazard area and denying entry

Question 28

28. Offensive operations are: (306)

A. those in which responders will never come into contact with the
material.
B. sometimes beyond the scope of responsibilities of first
responders and require highly trained personnel.
C. the best strategy in certain types of incidents when mitigation is
failing or otherwise impossible.
D. those in which responders seek to confine the emergency to a
given area without directly contacting the hazardous materials
involved.

Accepted Answer

B. sometimes beyond the scope of responsibilities of first
responders and require highly trained personnel.

Question 29

29. At hazmat/WMD incidents, response models are used to: (306-307)

A. simplify the problem-solving process.
B. decide which incident management system to use.
C. gather information on the incident after it has been terminated.
D. maintain a consistent understanding of the problem even if
conditions change.

Accepted Answer

A. simplify the problem-solving process.

Question 30

30. Which of the following is an example of a response model? (307)

A. APIE
B. HAZWOPER
C. SARA or PHSMA
D. 29 CFR 1910.120

Accepted Answer

A. APIE

Question 31

31. Equipping responders with the critical information that is needed to
make good decisions, while not overwhelming them with nice-to-
know information is the key to: (308)

A. risk-based response.
B. risk monitoring and detection.
C. response model implementation.
D. product identification and control.

Accepted Answer

A. risk-based response.

Question 32

32. Which of the following statements about product identification and
risk-based response is MOST accurate? (309)

A. Risk-based response requires all products on scene to be
identified.
B. If the product cannot be identified, risk-based response is not
recommended.
C. Risk-based response should be implemented for all hazardous
materials incidents.
D. Product identification is not a vital element in successful
mitigation of a hazmat incident.

Accepted Answer

C. Risk-based response should be implemented for all hazardous
materials incidents.

Question 33

33. Risk-based response starts with a thorough size-up and identifying
the _____ so that decisions can be made in a logical and educated
manner. (309)

A. specific product
B. immediate hazards
C. secondary exposures
D. product control techniques

Accepted Answer

B. immediate hazards

Question 34

34. Which of the following BEST describes an incident action plan (IAP)?

A. A specific operation performed in a specific order to accomplish
the goals of the response objective
B. A well-thought-out, organized course of events developed to
address all phases of incident control within a specified time
C. A detailed but flexible series of response objectives that
describe contingencies for all possible incident outcomes

Accepted Answer

B. A well-thought-out, organized course of events developed to
address all phases of incident control within a specified time

Question 35

35. Action planning starts with identifying the: (309)

A. hazardous materials involved at the incident.
B. resources available at the scene of the incident.
C. action options that will detail tasks assigned to specific
responders.
D. response objective (strategy) to achieve a solution to the
confronted problems.

Accepted Answer

D. response objective (strategy) to achieve a solution to the
confronted problems.

Question 36

36. Which of the following is NOT an element of an incident action plan
(IAP)? (309-310)

A. Status of injuries
B. Exposure reports
C. Hazard statement
D. Protective measures

Accepted Answer

B. Exposure reports

Question 37

37. Which responder will need to develop and implement an incident
action plan (IAP)? (310)

A. The highest ranking officer on scene
B. A first responder assuming the role of IC
C. Anyone trained to Hazardous Material Technician level
D. The first responder assigned to the Operations section

Accepted Answer

B. A first responder assuming the role of IC

Question 38

38. What word BEST describes response objectives? (310)

A. Tactics
B. Options
C. Strategies
D. Action plan

Accepted Answer

C. Strategies

Question 39

39. Response objectives are _____ of what must be done to resolve an
incident, while action options are _____ that must be done in order
to accomplish those goals. (310)

A. list of actions; risk assessments
B. risk assessments; hazard mitigations
C. specific operations; broad statements
D. broad statements; specific operations

Accepted Answer

D. broad statements; specific operations

Question 40

40. Which of the following criteria is used to select response objectives?
(310)

A. Its ability to prevent further injuries and/or deaths
B. Its ability to correctly identify the product involved
C. Its ability to determine the proper course of action
D. Its ability to restrict unknown hazards to a minimum

Accepted Answer

A. Its ability to prevent further injuries and/or deaths

Question 41

41. One principle of risk-based response is that activities that are
routinely employed to protect property shall be recognized as _____
risks to the safety of members. (310)

A. inherent
B. unknown
C. significant
D. unacceptable

Accepted Answer

A. inherent

Question 42

42. Which of the following is a common response objective? (311)

A. Documentation
B. Monitoring and detection
C. Crime scene and evidence preservation
D. Implementation of an incident command system

Accepted Answer

C. Crime scene and evidence preservation

Question 43

43. What are the specific tactics that are used to accomplish response
objectives? (311)

A. Strategies
B. Action options
C. Incident action plans (IAPs)
D. Risk-based response principles

Accepted Answer

B. Action options

Question 44

44. Which of the following actions are considered to be part of
identifying action options? (314)

A. Performing product identification
B. Determining the size and scope of the incident
C. Performing emergency decontamination operations
D. Determining the need for personal protective equipment

Accepted Answer

C. Performing emergency decontamination operations

Question 45

45. Which of the following statements about determining the need for
emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate? (314)

A. Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat
incidents.
B. Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to
a hazardous material.
C. Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal
protective equipment or clothing.

Accepted Answer

B. Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to
a hazardous material.

Question 46

46. Exposure is the process by which: (314)

A. emergency decontamination is performed.
B. hazardous materials are transferred out of the hot zone to the
cold zone.
C. people, animals, or the environment are potentially subjected
to, or come in contact with, a material.
D. hazardous material transfer to persons, equipment, and the
environment in greater than acceptable quantities.

Accepted Answer

C. people, animals, or the environment are potentially subjected
to, or come in contact with, a material.

IFSTA HAZMAT

Chapter 6

Question	Answer
1. SOP/Gs are part of: (289) A. a response procedure. B. predetermined procedures. C. risk-based response models. D. the incident action plan (IAP).	D. the incident action plan (IAP).
2. What is a likely result of following predetermined procedures at emergency incidents? (290) A. Decreased accountability B. Increased chaos on scene C. Size-up becomes unnecessary D. Effective command and control	D. Effective command and control
3. The three incident priorities at all hazardous materials incidents apply to: (291) A. fire and rescue operations. B. all emergency services organizations. C. civilian and emergency responder victims. D. emergency responders entering the hot zone.	B. all emergency services organizations.
4. What is the second priority for hazmat incidents? (291) A. Life safety B. Incident stabilization C. Avoidance of publicity D. Protection of property and the environment	B. Incident stabilization
5. Which statement about incident priorities is MOST accurate? (291) A. Incidents usually do not evolve or change. B. Once the IC establishes priorities, they should not change. C. The first and most important incident priority is always societal restoration. D. You should never risk your life to save property that is replaceable or cannot be saved.	D. You should never risk your life to save property that is replaceable or cannot be saved.
6. Assessing the incident’s conditions to recognize cues that indicate problems or potential problems is called: (293) A. size-up. B. safety checks. C. hazard assessment. D. preincident planning.	A. size-up.
7. Like size-up, hazard and risk assessment is: (293) A. often a formality. B. a continual evaluation. C. unique to hazmat incidents. D. completed before plan implementation.	B. a continual evaluation.
8. Hazard and risk assessment starts: (293) A. during size-up. B. during pre-incident planning. C. when setting incident priorities. D. when developing response objectives.	A. during size-up.
9. Which statement about hazard and risk assessment is MOST accurate? (294) A. An initial assessment is based on all possible conditions. B. If only limited information is available, initial assessments should be postponed. C. An initial assessment should be updated as additional information becomes available. D. The resources available to hazmat teams mean that a full, accurate picture of the incident will always be available.	C. An initial assessment should be updated as additional information becomes available.
10. Which type of information is generally NOT needed for hazard and risk assessment? (294-295) A. Weather B. Time of day C. Names of victims D. Number and type of injuries	C. Names of victims
11. Which of the following is the BEST example of a question that emergency responders should consider during the initial survey? (296) A. What did we do right? B. How can we improve? C. Has a similar incident happened elsewhere? D. How much time has elapsed since the incident began?	D. How much time has elapsed since the incident began?
12. What information is generally NOT a variable to be considered when considering a rescue operation at a hazmat incident? (296) A. Who the victim is B. Probability of rescue C. Constraints of time and distance D. Available escape routes and safe havens	A. Who the victim is
13. After the material has been identified, written references such as safety data sheets (SDSs) will MOST likely be used to determine: (296) A. where the material is going. B. environmental conditions present. C. the spread and concentration of material. D. health and physical hazards presented by the material.	D. health and physical hazards presented by the material.
14. Situational awareness can BEST be described as: (297) A. incident size-up. B. making decisions with limited information. C. classifying incidents based on size and scope. D. interpreting signs and clues and predicting outcomes.	D. interpreting signs and clues and predicting outcomes.
15. What is one of the greatest barriers to maintaining situational awareness on scene? (297) A. Limited information B. Competing priorities C. Dangerous conditions D. Making methodical decisions	B. Competing priorities
16. The lowest level of situational awareness is: (298) A. perception. B. application. C. distraction. D. comprehension.	A. perception.
17. Fixation may lead to the loss of situational awareness by: (298) A. receiving two or more pieces of information that do not agree. B. losing focus of the original mission without appropriate rationale. C. focusing on a single element of the situation to the exclusion of all others. D. obtaining a false sense of comfort based on a misconception of the hazard, risk, or situation.	C. focusing on a single element of the situation to the exclusion of all others.
18. What will help to maintain situational awareness? (299) A. Communicate the desired course of action. B. Do not monitor crew member performance. C. Provide operation information only as the need arises. D. Communicate the mission’s status only when directly asked.	A. Communicate the desired course of action.
19. A leak from a domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter is generally considered a: (299) A. Level I incident. B. Level II incident. C. Level III incident. D. non hazmat incident.	A. Level I incident.
20. A Level II incident: (300) A. will most likely not be concluded by any one agency. B. does not require the use of chemical protective clothing. C. is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene. D. requires resources from state/provincial agencies, federal agencies, and/or private industry.	C. is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene
21. What type of incident requires unified command? (300) A. Level I B. Level II C. Level III D. Level IV	C. Level III
22. Successful handling of a Level III incident requires a collective effort, including unique outside resources such as: (301) A. mutual aid fire departments. B. emergency medical services. C. local law enforcement agencies. D. specialists from industry and governmental agencies.	D. specialists from industry and governmental agencies.
23. Which of the following BEST describes the three modes of operation? (303) A. Modes of operation determine incident priorities at an incident. B. The mode of operation may change during the course of an incident. C. Only one mode of operation should be used at an incident in order to avoid confusion. D. They are based on the assumption that responders should interfere with incidents as little as possible.	B. The mode of operation may change during the course of an incident.
24. Nonintervention operations, or not taking any direct action at in incident, is: (303) A. always the safest course of action. B. a poor strategy and used as a last resort. C. the only safe strategy in many types of incidents. D. the best strategy when mitigation is successful and straight- forward.	C. the only safe strategy in many types of incidents.
25. A nonintervention mode is MOST likely to be selected when: (304) A. there is a slight risk of an explosion. B. the incident requires additional support units. C. the situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of responders. D. responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin.	C. the situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of responders.
26. Defensive operations are those in which: (304) A. serious container damage threatens a massive release. B. responders take aggressive, direct action on the incident. C. personnel evacuate the area and withdraw to a safe distance. D. responders seek to confine the emergency to a given area without directly contacting the hazardous material.	d. responders seek to confine the emergency to a given area without directly contacting the hazardous material.
27. Which of the following is considered a defensive action? (305) A. Protecting exposures B. Plugging a container leak C. Overpacking a nonbulk container D. Isolating the hazard area and denying entry	D. Isolating the hazard area and denying entry
28. Offensive operations are: (306) A. those in which responders will never come into contact with the material. B. sometimes beyond the scope of responsibilities of first responders and require highly trained personnel. C. the best strategy in certain types of incidents when mitigation is failing or otherwise impossible. D. those in which responders seek to confine the emergency to a given area without directly contacting the hazardous materials involved.	B. sometimes beyond the scope of responsibilities of first responders and require highly trained personnel.
29. At hazmat/WMD incidents, response models are used to: (306-307) A. simplify the problem-solving process. B. decide which incident management system to use. C. gather information on the incident after it has been terminated. D. maintain a consistent understanding of the problem even if conditions change.	A. simplify the problem-solving process.
30. Which of the following is an example of a response model? (307) A. APIE B. HAZWOPER C. SARA or PHSMA D. 29 CFR 1910.120	A. APIE
31. Equipping responders with the critical information that is needed to make good decisions, while not overwhelming them with nice-to- know information is the key to: (308) A. risk-based response. B. risk monitoring and detection. C. response model implementation. D. product identification and control.	A. risk-based response.
32. Which of the following statements about product identification and risk-based response is MOST accurate? (309) A. Risk-based response requires all products on scene to be identified. B. If the product cannot be identified, risk-based response is not recommended. C. Risk-based response should be implemented for all hazardous materials incidents. D. Product identification is not a vital element in successful mitigation of a hazmat incident.	C. Risk-based response should be implemented for all hazardous materials incidents.
33. Risk-based response starts with a thorough size-up and identifying the _____ so that decisions can be made in a logical and educated manner. (309) A. specific product B. immediate hazards C. secondary exposures D. product control techniques	B. immediate hazards
34. Which of the following BEST describes an incident action plan (IAP)? A. A specific operation performed in a specific order to accomplish the goals of the response objective B. A well-thought-out, organized course of events developed to address all phases of incident control within a specified time C. A detailed but flexible series of response objectives that describe contingencies for all possible incident outcomes	B. A well-thought-out, organized course of events developed to address all phases of incident control within a specified time
35. Action planning starts with identifying the: (309) A. hazardous materials involved at the incident. B. resources available at the scene of the incident. C. action options that will detail tasks assigned to specific responders. D. response objective (strategy) to achieve a solution to the confronted problems.	D. response objective (strategy) to achieve a solution to the confronted problems.
36. Which of the following is NOT an element of an incident action plan (IAP)? (309-310) A. Status of injuries B. Exposure reports C. Hazard statement D. Protective measures	B. Exposure reports
37. Which responder will need to develop and implement an incident action plan (IAP)? (310) A. The highest ranking officer on scene B. A first responder assuming the role of IC C. Anyone trained to Hazardous Material Technician level D. The first responder assigned to the Operations section	B. A first responder assuming the role of IC
38. What word BEST describes response objectives? (310) A. Tactics B. Options C. Strategies D. Action plan	C. Strategies
39. Response objectives are _____ of what must be done to resolve an incident, while action options are _____ that must be done in order to accomplish those goals. (310) A. list of actions; risk assessments B. risk assessments; hazard mitigations C. specific operations; broad statements D. broad statements; specific operations	D. broad statements; specific operations
40. Which of the following criteria is used to select response objectives? (310) A. Its ability to prevent further injuries and/or deaths B. Its ability to correctly identify the product involved C. Its ability to determine the proper course of action D. Its ability to restrict unknown hazards to a minimum	A. Its ability to prevent further injuries and/or deaths
41. One principle of risk-based response is that activities that are routinely employed to protect property shall be recognized as _____ risks to the safety of members. (310) A. inherent B. unknown C. significant D. unacceptable	A. inherent
42. Which of the following is a common response objective? (311) A. Documentation B. Monitoring and detection C. Crime scene and evidence preservation D. Implementation of an incident command system	C. Crime scene and evidence preservation
43. What are the specific tactics that are used to accomplish response objectives? (311) A. Strategies B. Action options C. Incident action plans (IAPs) D. Risk-based response principles	B. Action options
44. Which of the following actions are considered to be part of identifying action options? (314) A. Performing product identification B. Determining the size and scope of the incident C. Performing emergency decontamination operations D. Determining the need for personal protective equipment	C. Performing emergency decontamination operations
45. Which of the following statements about determining the need for emergency decontamination at an incident is MOST accurate? (314) A. Emergency decontamination should be considered at all hazmat incidents. B. Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material. C. Emergency decontamination is the sudden failure of personal protective equipment or clothing.	B. Emergency decontamination is necessary for anyone exposed to a hazardous material.
46. Exposure is the process by which: (314) A. emergency decontamination is performed. B. hazardous materials are transferred out of the hot zone to the cold zone. C. people, animals, or the environment are potentially subjected to, or come in contact with, a material. D. hazardous material transfer to persons, equipment, and the environment in greater than acceptable quantities.	C. people, animals, or the environment are potentially subjected to, or come in contact with, a material.

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries: