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ATI Med-Surg

ATI study material

QuestionAnswer
Aphasia language use or comprehension difficulty
Alexia reading difficulty
Agraphia writing difficulty
what portion of the brain is responsible for language, mathematics, and analytic thinking? left cerebral hemisphere
the right portion of the brain is responsible for??? visual and spatial awareness and proprioception
If you pt has a stroke where will you place the food? back of mouth on unaffected side
what should you check on a stroke pt before feeding? swallowing, gag, cough
If you are caring for a stroke pt what kind of liquids would you give and why? thickened liquids, risk for aspiration
An Rn would provide systemic/catheter thrombolytic therapy to pts except? pts with hemorrhagic stroke or increased risk of bleeding
how would you rule out a hemorrhagic stroke? MRI
what are risk factors for stroke? HTN, Atherosclerosis, hyperlipidemia, DM, Cocaine, A Fib, smoking, oral contraceptives, obesity, hypercoagulability, cerebral aneurysm, and arteriovenous malformation
the pt has infarction/ischemia on the right side of the brain, which side should the nurse approach and place the pts dinner? The right side.
what are the three layers of the meninges? dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater. (from outer to inner)
the pt has infarction/ischemia on the right side of the brain, which side should the nurse approach and place the pts dinner? The right side.
what are the three layers of the meninges? dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater. (from outer to inner)
which meningitis is aseptic, most common and resolves without treatment? viral
Bacterial Meningitis Is??? septic, contagious, occurs in overcrowded living areas
what is the most definitive test for meningitis? CSF analysis
what results indicate meningitis? cloudy(bacterial)/clear(viral), elevated WBC, protein, CSF pressure, decreased glucose(bacterial)
Kernig and Brudzinski signs indicate what? bacterial meningitis
20/200 or less with corrective lenses constitutes what? legal blindness
how is intraocular pressure measured and what determines the drainage angle of the anterior chamber of the eyes? tonometry and gonioscopy
tonometry normal values??? 10-21 mm Hg
what food is recommended for preventing reduced vision? green leafy vegetables, an antioxidant
What is mydriasis? dilation of the pupil (anticholinergics are given)
what is cycloplegia? ciliary paralysis (anticholinergics are given)
what is miosis? constriction of the pupil (cholinergic given; angle-closure glaucoma)
what do you give for open-angle glaucoma and decreased in aqueous humor production? beta-blocker (timolol(timoptic))
at what age should annual eye exams with IOP measurement be encouraged? 40+
when and how is scleral buckling performed? rest eye before procedure, general anesthesia, insert silicone and encircling band, infiltration of gas to push retina back, eye patch/shield, avoid rapid movement
bright flashes of light, floating dark spots, partial-curtain drawing over visual field, loss of vision are S/S of ? retinal detachment
what activities increase IOP? bending at the waist, sneezing, coughing, straining, vomiting, head hyperflexion, restrictive clothing, sexual intercourse
what is myopia? nearsightedness
what is the most common surgery for people over 65yo? cataract surgery. 95% successful
what are some rick factors of cataracts? advanced age, diabetes, heredity, trauma, excessive sun exposure, chronic steroid use
Final best vision is not expected until? 4-6 weeks post-op
progressive and painless loss of vision, decreased visual acuity, glare/light sensitivity, blurred vision, visible opacity, absent red reflex, and diplopia are S/S of ? cataracts
what is the leading cause of blindness? glaucoma, early diagnosis and treament to prevent vision loss
what is the most common form of glaucoma? open-angle glaucoma (angle between iris and sclera)S/S: loss peripheral vision, decreased accommodation, elevated IOP)
what is the least common form of glaucoma? angle-closure (IOP rises suddenly, angle between iris and sclera is decreased)S/S:elevated IOP rapid, decreased/blurred vision, halos around lights, pupils nonreactive to light, severe pain, photophobia
what med is used as an emergency treatment for angle-closure glaucoma to quickly decrease IOP? IV Mannitol
which eye disease is not curible or irreversible? glaucoma, its a chronic disease
how far should the Snellen chart be from the pt? 20 ft
what test identifies if hearing loss is conductive or sensorineural? Audiometry
what are the characteristics of inner ear problems? tinnitus, vertigo, and dizziness
what is closed reduction? when a pulling force is applied manually to realign the displaced fractured bone fragment
what is used to ensure fracture alignment? radiographs
when applying a cast was is placed underneath to maintain skin integrity? tubular cotton web rolls
should the cast be elevated and if so when? yes, during the first 24-48hrs to prevent swelling
It is ok to use a metal hanger to scratch an itch under the cast? no, no foreign objects should be placed under the cast
what do splints prevent? unsupported fractured/injured areas and joint contracture
How is countertraction provided in straight/running traction? by the clients body
How is countertraction provided in balanced suspension traction? devices such as slings or splints
what is the essential assessment when a pt is immobilized? neurovascular
which joints are most commonly replaced? knee and hip
if your pt has joint replacement what side of the bed do you tranfer from? unaffected side
what motion is promoted in the knee and to prevent scar tissue? continuous passive motion (CPM)
how many grades of open fractures are there and what are they? 3. I)minimal skin damage II)damage includes skin and muscles contusions III)damage to skin,muscles,nerves,blood vessels
what is crepitus? grating sound created by the rubbing of bone fragments
what are early signs in neurovascular assessment that a problem is developing? pain, paresthesia, pallor(increased cap refill, cyanosis)
what are late signs in neurovascular problems? paralysis,polar-cold, weak/unpalpable pulses
A pt presents to the ER with an closed fracture and receives appropriate treatment, what type of shock is pt at risk for? Hypovolemic (ex:pelvic fracture-assess abdomen, bladder for bleeding)
what is normal compartmental pressure? 0-8 mm HG; >8=fasciotomy
what type of embolism might occur 48hrs following a long bone fracture? Fat embolism (alt LOC, resp distress, tachy-cardia/pnea, fever, cutaneous petechiae)
when might bone pain increase with movement? osteomyelitis
A fracture that has not healed within 6 months is called? delayed union
a fracture that never heals is called? nonunion
Fractures that heal incorrectly are known as? malunion
what nutrients are essential in the production of new bone? calcium, phosphorous, protein, vitamin D
what type of surgery is becoming the most common surgical procedure for people over 85yo? surgical hip fracture repairs
what is a disarticulation? amputation through the joint
how much and how long do you inflate an air splint? 20-22 mm HG for 22 of 24hr/day
what is the precursor to osteoporosis? osteopenia-low bone mineral density for pts age/sex
what is DEXA or dual energy x-ray absorptiometry? screen for early changes in bone density, measures mineral density in wrist,hip,vertebral column
what labs rule out metabolic bone diseases other than osteoporosis? serum calcium, vit d, phosphorus, alkaline phosphate
what causes progressive deterioration of the articular cartilagde? osteoarthritis
when is osteoarthritis inflammatory and nonsystemic? It can be inflammed if localized, and it is always nonsystemic
what labs are elevated when a pt has osteoarthritis? ESR-erythrocyte sedimentation rate, high sensitivity C-reactive protein
does joint pain/stiffness resolve with rest? Yes, rest or inactivity (chief report)
what med rebuilds cartilage? glucosamine
what does heat/cold therapy do? heat alleviated pain, cold reduces inflammation
OA is normal part of what process? aging
when is osteoarthritis inflammatory and nonsystemic? It can be inflammed if localized, and it is always nonsystemic
what labs are elevated when a pt has osteoarthritis? ESR-erythrocyte sedimentation rate, high sensitivity C-reactive protein
does joint pain/stiffness resolve with rest? Yes, rest or inactivity (chief report)
what med rebuilds cartilage? glucosamine
what does heat/cold therapy do? heat alleviated pain, cold reduces inflammation
OA is normal part of what process? aging
what are the organs of the immune system? bone marrow, thymus gland, lymph nodes, spleen, mucosal lymphatic tissue
which immunity is inherited and involves inflammatory response? natural
which immunity is acheived by active/passive processes? acquired
active immunity occurs when? when the body responds to presence of pathologic organism and produces antibodies, and response to vaccines
what is passive immuntiy? mother-fetus, breast milk-infant, and antibody injections
when are snesitized t cells produced? cell mediated immunity
antibodies are produced in response to pathogen when? humoral immunity
what are the organs of the immune system? bone marrow, thymus gland, lymph nodes, spleen, mucosal lymphatic tissue
which immunity is inherited and involves inflammatory response? natural
which immunity is acheived by active/passive processes? acquired
active immunity occurs when? when the body responds to presence of pathologic organism and produces antibodies, and response to vaccines
what is passive immuntiy? mother-fetus, breast milk-infant, and antibody injections
when are snesitized t cells produced? cell mediated immunity
antibodies are produced in response to pathogen when? humoral immunity
what are the organs of the immune system? bone marrow, thymus gland, lymph nodes, spleen, mucosal lymphatic tissue
which immunity is inherited and involves inflammatory response? natural
which immunity is acheived by active/passive processes? acquired
active immunity occurs when? when the body responds to presence of pathologic organism and produces antibodies, and response to vaccines
what is passive immuntiy? mother-fetus, breast milk-infant, and antibody injections
when are snesitized t cells produced? cell mediated immunity
antibodies are produced in response to pathogen when? humoral immunity
what are the organs of the immune system? bone marrow, thymus gland, lymph nodes, spleen, mucosal lymphatic tissue
which immunity is inherited and involves inflammatory response? natural
which immunity is acheived by active/passive processes? acquired
active immunity occurs when? when the body responds to presence of pathologic organism and produces antibodies, and response to vaccines
what is passive immuntiy? mother-fetus, breast milk-infant, and antibody injections
when are snesitized t cells produced? cell mediated immunity
antibodies are produced in response to pathogen when? humoral immunity
what are the organs of the immune system? bone marrow, thymus gland, lymph nodes, spleen, mucosal lymphatic tissue
which immunity is inherited and involves inflammatory response? natural
which immunity is acheived by active/passive processes? acquired
active immunity occurs when? when the body responds to presence of pathologic organism and produces antibodies, and response to vaccines
what is passive immuntiy? mother-fetus, breast milk-infant, and antibody injections
when are snesitized t cells produced? cell mediated immunity
antibodies are produced in response to pathogen when? humoral immunity
how often is the tetanus/diphtheria(Td) vaccination given? q 10 yrs
pneumococcal vaccines are given how often? a dose with one time revac in 5 yrs
name three infections that have emerged over the last few decades? lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi), HIV, ans SARS (Coronavirus)
what is the chain of infection? causative agent, reservoir, portal of exit from host, mode of transmission, portal of entry to the host, susceptible host
what is leukopenia? a WBC count below 4300, compromised inflamm response or viral infection
WBC greater that 10000? inflammatory response to a pathogen or disease process
what does a 70% increase in neutrophils indicate? bacterial infection; shift to the left
what type of infection do lymphocytes usually react to? viral infections; second most commonly occuring WBC
What is elevated in the WBC count with allergic rxns and parasitic infection? eosinophils
what is the normal value for ESR? 15-20 mm/hr; increase indicates an active inflammatory process and infection
what test can be used to detect hypersensitivity, autoimmune disorders, chronic viral infections, immunodifficiency, mult..., and immunoglobulin presence/quantity? immunoglobulin electrophoresis
what does HIV target? CD4+ lymphocytes, or T-cells
what stage of HIV has flu like symptoms, s/s within 2-4wks, icreased viral load, decreased CD4+ cells, and increased CD8 cells, with lymphadenopathy? Primary HIV-1 infection
which HIV stage is prolonged/clinically silent (up to 10yrs), anti-HIV antibodies present, and has active replication occuring? Chronic asymptomatic infection, stage II
Stage III-HIV is called? What are the characteristics? AIDS; life-threatening opportunistic infections, end stage of HIV infection, death 3-5yrs without treatment
what are the three classifications of SLE? Discoid-skin, butterfly rash nose/cheeks, self-limiting; systemic-connective tissues, major organ failure;drug-induced-resolve with drug discontinuation, no renal/neuro disease
what are the risk factors of SLE? female 15-40, AA, Asian, Nat.Amer; incidence drops after menapause, but remains steady for men
what are precancerous skin lesions called? actinic keratoses
what are the three types of skin cancer? squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, malignant melanoma
Created by: queencamb
 

 



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