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FF 1 Chapter 6

PPE

QuestionAnswer
1. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of personal protective equipment (PPE)? (259-261) A. Designed to eliminate injuries B. Designed to minimize risk of injury or fatality C. Designed to isolate firefighters during incident D. Designed to minimize discomfort while at incident B. Designed to minimize risk of injury or fatality
2. Structural fire fighting protective clothing must meet what NFPA ® standard? (261) A. 1500 B. 1971 C. 1977 D. 1982 B. 1971
Structural Fire Fighting Activities required for rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation in structures, vehicles, vessels, and similar types of properties.
Proximity Fire Fighting Activities required for rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation at fires that produce high radiant, conductive, or convective heat. (aircraft haz mats, storage tanks etc...)
3. Which of the following BEST describes why personal protective equipment (PPE) should never be altered? (262) A. May create confusion at incident scene B. May cause misidentification with Incident Command C. May void manufacturer’s warranty and endanger lives D. May significantly increase breathing, heart rate, and skin temperature C. May void manufacturer’s warranty and endanger lives
4. Which of the following BEST describes a design limitation of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE)? (263) A. Keeps coat sleeves from riding up B. Provides protection from hot water C. Prevents heat transfer away from body D. Covers all portions of skin when moving C. Prevents heat transfer away from body
5. What part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) prevents scalding water and embers from reaching the ears and neck? (264) A. Helmets B. Wristlets C. Protective coats D. Eye protection devices A. Helmets
6. What part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) is intended for use in combination with a primary form of eye protection? (265) A. Goggles B. Safety glasses C. SCBA facepieces D. Helmet-mounted faceshields C. SCBA facepieces
7. What part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) is designed to fit inside a protective coat? (266) A. Helmets B. Wristlets C. Protective hoods D. Eye protection devices C. Protective hoods
8. Which of the following BEST describes why the liner should never be removed from a protective coat? (266) A. It traps insulating air close to the body. B. It increases direct flame contact exposure. C. It allows less restrictive movement during incident. D. It compromises the design and increases the likelihood of injuries. D. It compromises the design and increases the likelihood of injuries.
9. Which of the following structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) components must allow enough dexterity and tactile feel to perform the job required? (267) A. Protective coats B. Protective hoods C. Protective gloves D. Protective trousers C. Protective gloves
10. What part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) must be high enough to protect the lower leg? (267) A. Protective coats B. Protective hoods C. Protective trousers D. Protective footwear D. Protective footwear
11. What part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) is worn when noise exceeds maximum noise exposure levels? (270) A. Protective coats B. Protective hoods C. Hearing protection devices D. Personal alert safety systems C. Hearing protection devices
12. What part of structural fire fighting personal protective equipment (PPE) is useful in total darkness and confined spaces? (270) A. Protective coats B. Eye protection devices C. Hearing protection devices D. Personal alert safety systems D. Personal alert safety systems
13. Which NFPA ® standard outlines the specifications for wildland personal protective clothing? (270) A. 1500 B. 1971 C. 1977 D. 1982 C. 1977
14. What part of wildland personal protective equipment (PPE) must meet the requirements of ANSI Z87.1? (272) A. Gloves B. Jackets C. Goggles D. Trousers C. Goggles
15. Steel toe boots are not recommended for wildland protective clothing because they: (272) A. interfere with mobility. B. absorb and retain heat. C. do not have enough grip. D. do not protect enough of the leg. B. absorb and retain heat.
16. What piece of personal protective equipment (PPE) can be worn to increase visibility at roadway incidents? (273) A. Protective coat B. Eye/face protection device C. Personal alert safety systems D. Traffic vests with retroreflective trim D. Traffic vests with retroreflective trim
17. What component of emergency medical protective clothing may be dual certified for use in the station as well? (274) A. Footwear B. Facemask C. Utility gloves D. Face protection device D. Face protection device
18. Which of the following types of special protective clothing requires a personal flotation device? (275) A. Ice rescue B. Technical rescue C. Proximity fire fighting D. Hazardous materials A. Ice rescue
19. Which of the following types of special protective clothing is designed as similar to structural personal protective equipment (PPE) but with an aluminized outer shell? (276) A. Ice rescue B. Technical rescue C. Hazardous materials D. Proximity fire fighting D. Proximity fire fighting
20. Which NFPA ® standard specifies requirements for station/work uniforms? (276) A. 1500 B. 1975 C. 1977 D. 1982 B. 1975
21. One-hundred percent cotton underwear is recommended for station/work uniforms to prevent: (276) A. burns. B. chafing. C. discomfort. D. hygiene issues. A. burns.
22. Which of the following BEST describes the frequency with which personal protective equipment (PPE) should be inspected? (277) A. As dictated by manufacturers B. As a firefighter feels there is need C. When there is down time at the fire station D. At the beginning of shift and after every use D. At the beginning of shift and after every use
23. Where might a firefighter find wear due to friction during a routine personal protective equipment (PPE) inspection? (278) A. Along the path of a zipper B. Where SCBA contacts the protective coat C. Where SCBA facepiece and mask connect D. Under arms, in crotch, at knee and elbow joints D. Under arms, in crotch, at knee and elbow joints
24. The type of cleaning required for personal protective equipment (PPE) is determined by: (278) A. local budgetary constraints. B. where the department is located. C. how long the PPE has been in use. D. amount and type of contamination. D. amount and type of contamination
25. What type of NFPA ® defined cleaning may be done in a washing machine designed to handle heavy loads? (279) A. Routine cleaning B. Contract cleaning C. Advanced cleaning D. Specialized cleaning C. Advanced cleaning
26. Damaged equipment marked for training can be used in: (280) A. live fire training. B. any type of training. C. non-live fire training. D. training for the public, not for firefighters. C. non-live fire training.
27. Moisture in the shell and liner material of personal protective equipment (PPE) could result in: (280) A. air pockets. B. shrinkage of PPE. C. serious steam burns. D. discomfort during an incident. serious steam burns.
28. What is the minimum overlap between coat and trousers when the wearer is bent over to a 90 degree angle? (280) A. 2 inches (50 mm) B. 3 inches (76 mm) C. 5 inches (127 mm) D. 6 inches (152 mm) A. 2 inches (50 mm)
29. What action should a firefighter take if thermal radiant heat burns develop while wearing personal protective equipment (PPE)? (280) A. Move farther back from fire B. Withdraw from area immediately C. Shift to get a different angle on the fire D. Inform supervisor before continuing work B. Withdraw from area immediately
30. Which of the following respiratory hazards causes superheated air to damage the respiratory tract? (283) A. Oxygen levels B. Gases and vapors C. Elevated temperatures D. Particulate contaminants C. Elevated temperatures
31. What two respiratory hazards are responsible for the majority of fire- related fatalities? (285) A. Phosgene and ammonia B. Carbon monoxide and phosgene C. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide D. Hydrogen cyanide and hydrogen chloride C. Carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide
32. Which of the following respiratory hazards can be protected against using high-efficiency particulate (HEPA) filters? (287) A. Oxygen levels B. Gases and vapors C. Airborne pathogens D. Elevated temperatures C. Airborne pathogens
33. Which of the following BEST describes when SARs are used? (289) A. For assessing industrial accidents B. For emergency medical incidents C. For working with particulate-producing tools D. For confined space rescues and technical rescue incidents D. For confined space rescues and technical rescue incidents
34. An open-circuit SCBA air cylinder control valve should be _____ when in use. (290) A. opened fully B. partially open C. opened slowly D. monitored closely A. opened fully
35. Which part of the facepiece assembly releases exhaled air without admitting in the contaminated outside atmosphere? (292) A. Nose cup B. Exhalation valve C. Facepiece frame D. Speaking diaphragm B. Exhalation valve
36. Which part of the facepiece assembly is made of clear safety plastic and mounted in a flexible rubber frame? (292) A. Nose cup B. Exhalation valve C. Facepiece frame D. Speaking diaphragm C. Facepiece frame
37. Which of the following SCBA components warns when the system is reaching 20-25% of cylinder capacity? (293) A. Nose cup B. Universal air coupling C. Remote pressure gauge D. End-of-service-time indicators D. End-of-service-time indicators
38. Which of the following types of respiratory protection uses visual ESTIs only? (294) A. Open-circuit SCBAs B. Closed-circuit SCBAs C. Air-purifying respirators D. Atmosphere-supplying respirators C. Air-purifying respirators
39. Which of the following APR effectiveness clues is monitored by being aware of how labored a firefighter’s breathing is? (295) A. Time B. Weight C. Taste and smell D. Resistance-to-breathing-indicators D. Resistance-to-breathing-indicators
40. Which of the following limitations of respiratory protection may cause the wearer to deplete the air supply rapidly? (295) A. Lack of agility B. Psychological limitations C. Lack of physical condition D. Inadequate pulmonary capacity C. Lack of physical condition
41. Which of the following limitations of respiratory protection may affect the ability to get a complete facepiece seal? (296) A. Unique facial features B. Psychological limitations C. Lack of physical condition D. Inadequate pulmonary capacity A. Unique facial features
42. Which of the following limitations of respiratory protection is created by the weight and resistance of harness straps? (296) A. Decreased mobility B. Decreased endurance C. Poor condition of apparatus D. Decreased ability to communicate A. Decreased mobility
43. Which of the following limitations of respiratory protection is caused by fogging in the facepiece? (296) A. Limited visibility B. Decreased endurance C. Low air cylinder pressure D. Decreased ability to communicate A. Limited visibility
44. Which of the following BEST describes the factors respiratory equipment must be protected from during storage? (296) A. Ultraviolet light, contamination B. Ultraviolet light, temperature changes C. Contamination, temperature changes, gas vapors D. Contamination, temperature changes, ultraviolet light D. Contamination, temperature changes, ultraviolet light
45. When donning SCBA, all straps on the harness assembly and facepiece should be: (298) A. fully extended. B. partially extended. C. adjusted individually. D. adjusted per local SOPs. A. fully extended.
46. Which NFPA ® standard requires seat-mounted SCBAs be held in place by a mechanical latching device? (299) A. 1500 B. 1901 C. 1971 D. 1982 B. 1901
47. Exposure to weather and physical hazards is a potential disadvantage for what type of SCBA mount? (300) A. Seat mount B. Unmounted C. Backup mount D. Rear external mount D. Rear external mount
48. Compartment doors may interfere with what type of SCBA mount? (300) A. Seat mount B. Unmounted C. Backup mount D. Rear external mount C. Backup mount
49. Before doffing SCBA, ensure you are out of the contaminated area and: (302) A. the facepiece is not fogged. B. SCBA is no longer required. C. the incident is under control. D. all members of your team are all right. B. SCBA is no longer required.
50. Which NFPA ® standard establishes the inspection period for protective breathing apparatus? (303) A. 1500 B. 1852 C. 1971 D. 1982 B. 1852
51. Which piece of protective breathing apparatus has the frame checked weekly for deterioration, dirt, and cracks? (303) A. Hoses B. Facepiece C. Breathing air cylinder assembly D. Backplate and harness assembly B. Facepiece
52. Which piece of protective breathing apparatus has the hand wheel checked for damage during weekly inspection? (304) A. Hoses B. Facepiece C. Breathing air cylinder assembly D. Backplate and harness assembly C. Breathing air cylinder assembly
53. Which piece of protective breathing apparatus is checked for any unusual sounds during operation? (305) A. Hoses B. Facepiece C. Regulator D. Low-pressure alarm C. Regulator
54. Soot can reduce visibility on what piece of protective breathing apparatus? (305) A. Hoses B. Facepiece C. Regulator D. Low-pressure alarm B. Facepiece
55. Which types of SCBA air cylinders are tested every five years? (307) A. Steel and aluminum B. Fully wrapped Kevlar TM C. Fully wrapped fiberglass D. Hoop-wrapped aluminum A. Steel and aluminum
56. Any source used to refill SCBA must provide what type of air quality? (307) A. Type 1 Grade A B. Type 1 Grade B C. Type 1 Grade C D. Type 1 Grade D D. Type 1 Grade D
57. Which type of fill station is designed to refill SCBA at emergency incidents? (309) A. Mobile fill stations B. Stationary fill stations C. All types of fill stations D. Firefighter Breathing Air Replenishment Systems A. Mobile fill stations
58. Which of the following BEST describes when an SCBA cylinder needs to be replaced? (311) A. After first use of cylinder B. When the cylinder becomes completely empty C. While performing short-term work in emergency operations D. During inspection if cylinder contains less than 90% of capacity D. During inspection if cylinder contains less than 90% of capacity
59. Which of the following BEST describes SCBA safety precautions to take in an IDLH atmosphere? (311) A. Work in teams of two or more B. Check air supply when there is down time C. Remove SCBA if atmosphere appears safe D. Exit IDLH atmosphere after low air alarm activates A. Work in teams of two or more
60. Which of the following is a nonemergency exit indicator? (313) A. SCBA failure B. Assignment completed C. Change in oxygen level D. Change in concentration of respiratory hazards B. Assignment completed
61. Which of the following is a nonemergency exit indicator? (313) A. Situation is stabilized B. Changes in oxygen level C. Activation of SCBA low-pressure D. Presence of APR/PAPR breakthrough symptoms A. Situation is stabilized
62. Which of the following is an emergency exit indicator? (313) A. SCBA failure B. Situation is stabilized C. Assignment completed D. Necessary to replace air cylinder A. SCBA failure
63. Which of the following is an emergency exit indicator? (314) A. Situation is stabilized B. Change in oxygen level C. Changes in operational strategy D. Necessary to replace air cylinder B. Change in oxygen level
64. A firefighter experiencing light-headedness, disorientation, and rapid fatigue most likely has: (314) A. an oxygen deficiency. B. incorrectly cleaned PPE. C. reached a personal physical limit. D. not controlled breathing correctly. A. an oxygen deficiency.
65. Which nonemergency exit technique may require a second team member to remain outside monitoring a search line? (315) A. Egress paths B. Buddy system C. Controlled breathing D. Accountability systems B. Buddy system
66. Which nonemergency exit technique should be practiced in training until it is second nature? (315) A. Egress paths B. Buddy system C. Controlled breathing D. Accountability systems C. Controlled breathing
Created by: Toddgfunk
 

 



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