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MSRA

QuestionAnswer
Side effects of Methotrexate Myelosuppression Liver cirrhosis Pneumonitis
Side effects of Sulfasalazine Rashes Oligospermia Heinz body anaemia Interstitial lung disease
Side effects of Leflunomide Liver impairment Interstitial lung disease Hypertension
Side effects of Hydroxychloroquine Retinopathy Corneal deposits
Side effects of Prednisolone Cushingoid features Osteoporosis Impaired glucose tolerance Hypertension Cataracts
Side effects of Gold Proteinuria
Side effects of penicilliniamine Proteinuria Exacerbation of Mysathenia Gravis
Side effects of Etanercept Demyleination Reactivation of tuberculosis
Side effects of 'MABs' Reactivation of TB
Side effects of NSAIDs Bronchospasm in asthmatics Dyspepsia/peptic ulceration
What is Section 2 admission for assessment for up to 28 days, not renewable
What is Section 3 admission for treatment for up to 6 months, can be renewed
What is Section 4 72 hour assessment order used as an emergency, when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay
What is Section 5(2) a patient who is a voluntary patient in hospital can be legally detained by a doctor for 72 hours
What is Section 5(4) similar to section 5(2), allows a nurse to detain a patient who is voluntarily in hospital for 6 hours
What is Section 17a Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order)
What is Section 135 a court order can be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety
What is Section 136 someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder can be taken by the police to a Place of Safety
hat is the most appropriate anti-emetic to prescribe in PArkinson's? Domperidone
What Is the most appropriate first-line anti-anginal for stable angina in a patient with known heart failure, if there are no contraindications Atenolol
Management of acute sensorineural hearing loss? Acute sensorineural hearing loss is an emergency and requires urgent referral to ENT for audiology assessment and brain MRI
What is the incubation period of Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus? 1-6 hours
What is the incubation period of Salmonella, Escherichia coli? 12-48 hours
What is the incubation period of Shigella, Campylobacter? 48-72 hours
What is the incubation period of Giardiasis, Amoebiasis? >7 days
Abx for Acute prostatitis Quinolone or trimethoprim
Abx for Acute pyelonephritis Broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone
Abx for Erysipelas Phenoxymethylpenicillin (erythromycin if penicillin-allergic)
Abx for Otitis externa* Flucloxaacillin
Abx for Campylobacter enteritis Clarithromycin
Abx for Salmonella (non-typhoid Ciprofloxacin
Which skin disorders is most associated with antiphospholipid syndrome? Livedo reticularis
Which may give a falsely low BNP result? aldosterone antagonists, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, beta-blockers and diuretic
What can be given To induce remission in adults with a mild to moderate first presentation or inflammatory exacerbation of left-sided or extensive ulcerative colitis offer a high induction dose of an oral aminosalicylate consider adding a topical aminosalicylate or oral beclometasone dipropionate, taking into account the person's preferences.
What are the side effects of Calcium channel blockers? Headache Flushing Ankle oedema Verapamil also commonly causes constipation
What are the side effects of beta blockers? Bronchospasm (especially in asthmatics) Fatigue Cold peripheries Sleep disturbances
What are the side effects of nitrates? Headache Postural hypotension Tachycardia
What are the side effects of nicorandil? Headache Flushing Anal ulceration
An 84-year-old female has been an inpatient in a psychiatric ward for the past 6 months with a fixed belief that her insides are rotting as she is deceased. Cotaard Syndrome
belief that friends or family members have been replaced by an identical looking imposter. Capgras Delusion
A nurse undergoes primary immunisation against hepatitis B. Levels of which one of the following should be checked four months later to ensure an adequate response to immunisation? Anti-HbS
surface antigen (HBsAg) first marker to appear and causes the production of anti-HBs
HBsAg implies acute disease (present for 1-6 months)
Anti-HBs implies immunity (either exposure or immunisation). It is negative in chronic disease
Anti-HBc implies previous (or current) infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and is present for about 6 months. IgG anti-HBc persists
What is second-line treatment of Heart failure? either an aldosterone antagonist, angiotensin II receptor blocker or a hydralazine in combination with a nitrate
A 71-year-old woman is diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica. She is started on prednisolone 15mg od. What is the most appropriate approach to bone protection? Oral alendronate, ensure calcium and vitaamin D replete
Which abx cause cholestasis? Flucloxacillin, Co-Amoxiclav
Which abx cause Gastrointestinal upset and Prolongs QT interval Erythromyicn
Which abx cause Lowerd seizure threshold +/-Tendonitis Ciprofloxacin
Which abx cause: Rashes, including photosensitivity Pruritus Suppression of haematopoiesis Trimethoprim
Which drugs should be avoided in breastfeeding? antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides psychiatric drugs: lithium, benzodiazepines aspirin carbimazole methotrexate sulfonylureas cytotoxic drugs amiodarone
Causes of meningitis Neonatal to 3 months Group B Streptococcus: usually acquired from the mother at birth. More common in low birth weight babies and following prolonged rupture of the membranes E. coli and other Gram -ve organisms Listeria monocytogenes
Knee locking and giving-way are common features of meniscal lesions. A positive Thessaly's test confirms the diagnosis.
ACL injury typically presents with... acutely with a history of popping, immediate pain and swelling and instability of the knee.
Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include more than 35 years old and smoking less than 15 cigarettes/day BMI > 35 kg/m^2* family history of thromboembolic disease in first degree relatives < 45 years controlled HTN immobility carrier of(e.g. BRCA1/BRCA2)
Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include >35 years old and smoking > 15 cigarettes/day migraine with aura Hx thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation Hx of stroke/IHD breast feeding < 6 weeks post-partum uncontrolled HTN current breast ca major surgery with prolonged immobilisation
Investigation ? early miscarriage Transvaginal ultrasound
Arteriolar narrowing and tortuosity Increased light reflex - silver wiring Grade 1 HTN retinopathy
Arteriovenous nipping Grade 2 HTN retinopathy
Cotton-wool exudates Flame and blot haemorrhages Grade 3 HTN retinopathy
Papilloedema Grade 4 retinopathy
How is premature ovarian failure defined? Onset of menopause symptoms + raised gonadotrophins before 40 yrs
A 45-year-old female with a history of bipolar disorder presents with an acute confusional state. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to precipitate lithium toxicity? Bendroflumethiazide
Bilaterally small pupils that accommodate but don't react to bright light. Causes include neurosyphilis and diabetes mellitus Argyll-Robertson pupil
Unilaterally dilated pupil which is unresponsive to light. A result of compression of the occulomotor nerve of the same side, by an intracranial mass (e.g. tumour, haematoma) Hutchinson's
Miosis (pupillary constriction), ptosis (droopy eyelid), apparent enophthalmos (inset eyeball), with or without anhidrosis (decreased sweating) occurring on one side. . Horner's syndrome
Relative afferent pupillary defect, seen during the swinging light examination of pupil response. The pupils constrict less and appear to dilate when a light is swung from unaffected to affected eye. Marcus-Gunn pupil
Dilated pupil Adie pupil
The stroke consultant diagnoses him clinically as a POCI (posterior circulation infarct). What part of the brain anatomy is affected for this kind of stroke? Verterbrobasillar arteries
Causes of oligohydraminos premature rupture of membranes fetal renal problems e.g. renal agenesis intrauterine growth restriction post-term gestation pre-eclampsia
Which one of the following types of anti-anginal medication do patients commonly develop tolerance to? Standard release ISMN
Prostaglandin analogues (e.g. latanoprost) Adverse effects include brown pigmentation of the iris, increased eyelid length
Sympathomimetics (e.g. brimonidine, an alpha2-adrenoceptor agonist) Avoid if taking MAOI or tricyclic antidepressants Adverse effects include hyperaemia
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g. Dorzolamide) Systemic absorption may cause sulphonamide-like reactions
Miotics (e.g. pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist) Adverse effects included a constricted pupil, headache and blurred vision
A 52-year-old male presents with 3yr Hx of worsening hip and back pain. He reports the hip pain is worse on weight-bearing and improves with rest. You noticed frontal bossing and bowing of the legs. What is the first-line treatment for his condition ? Alendronate
Should be added in the treatment of pneumonia if secondary to influenza clarithromycin
Which one of the following is a contraindication to the use of a triptan in the management of migraine? A history of IHD
Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone) SE: GI upset, finish 7/7 post trvel
Chloroquine Headache Contraindicated in epilepsy Taken weekly until 4/52 post travel
Mefloquine (Lariam) Dizziness Neuropsychiatric disturbance Contraindicated in epilepsy Taken weekly
A 15yr old has a past history of acne and is currently treated with oral lymecycline. There has been no response to treatment and examination reveals evidence of scarring on his face. What is the most suitable treatment? Oral retinoids
Should be avoided due to an increased risk of drug-induced lupus and hyperpigmentation Oral minocycline
Prolonged treatment may depress haematopoiesis Oral trimethoprim
Thrombotic crises also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises precipitated by infection, dehydration, deoxygenation infarcts occur in various organs including the bones (e.g. avascular necrosis of hip, hand-foot syndrome in children, lungs, spleen and brain
Sequestration crises sickling within organs such as the spleen or lungs causes pooling of blood with worsening of the anaemia
Acute chest syndrome dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates, low pO2 the most common cause of death after childhood
Aplastic crises caused by infection with parvovirus sudden fall in haemoglobin
Haemolytic crises rare fall in haemoglobin due an increased rate of haemolysis
Raised ALP and low calcium Osteomalacia Renal failure
Raised ALP and raised calcium Bone metastases Hyperparathyroidism
Generalised tonic-clonic seizures sodium valproate second line: lamotrigine, carbamazepine
Absence seizures* (Petit mal) sodium valproate or ethosuximide sodium valproate particularly effective if co-existent tonic-clonic seizures in primary generalised epilepsy
Myoclonic seizures sodium valproate second line: clonazepam, lamotrigine
Focal seizures carbamazepine or lamotrigine second line: levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine or sodium valproate
Drugs that cause pancreatitis azathioprine, mesalazine*, didanosine, bendroflumethiazide, furosemide, pentamidine, steroids, sodium valproate
Acne rosacea treatment: mild/moderate topical metronidazole
Acne rosacea treatment:severe/resistant oral tetracycline
Oligohydramnios premature rupture of membranes fetal renal problems e.g. renal agenesis intrauterine growth restriction post-term gestation pre-eclampsia
Responds to their own name 9-12 months
Vocabulary of 2-6 words 12-18 months
Which one of the following conditions is most likely to result in secondary dysmenorrhoea? Adenomyosis
X-linked recessive condition no male-to-male transmission
Causes of scarring alopecia trauma/burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, tinea capitis
Cataracts steroids
Corneal opacities amiodarone indomethacin
Optic neuritis ethambutol amiodarone metronidazole
Retinopathy chloroquine, quinine
Hepatitis B 20-30%
Hepatitis C 0.5-2%
HIV 0.3%
Acute viral labrynthitis sudden onset horizontal nystagmus, hearing disturbances, nausea, vomiting and vertigo
First line BPH Alpha-1 antagonists
Risk factors for DDH female sex: 6 times greater risk breech presentation positive family history firstborn children oligohydramnios birth weight > 5 kg congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity
Parietal lobe lesions sensory inattention apraxias astereognosis (tactile agnosia) inferior homonymous quadrantanopia Gerstmann's syndrome (lesion of dominant parietal): alexia, acalculia, finger agnosia and right-left disorientation
Occipital lobe lesions homonymous hemianopia (with macula sparing) cortical blindness visual agnosia
Temporal lobe lesion Wernicke's aphasia: this area 'forms' the speech before 'sending it' to Brocas area. Lesions result in word substituion, neologisms but speech remains fluent superior homonymous quadrantanopia auditory agnosia prosopagnosia
Frontal lobes lesions expressive (Broca's) aphasia: located on the posterior aspect of the frontal lobe, in the inferior frontal gyrus. Speech is non-fluent, laboured, and halting disinhibition perseveration anosmia inability to generate a list
A 4-year-old boy presents with fever and a sore throat. Examination reveals tonsillitis and a furred tongue with enlarged papillae. There is a blanching punctate rash sparing the face Scarlet fever
A 3-year-old girl with a two day history of fever and malaise. Developed a pink maculopapular rash initially on the face before spreading. Suboccipital lymph nodes are also noted Rubella
A 4-year-old boy presents with fever, malaise and a 'slapped-cheek' appearance Parvovirus B19
Prodrome: irritable, conjunctivitis, fever Koplik spots: white spots ('grain of salt') on buccal mucosa Rash: starts behind ears then to whole body, discrete maculopapular rash becoming blotchy & confluent Measles
Fever, malaise, muscular pain Parotitis ('earache', 'pain on eating'): unilateral initially then becomes bilateral in 70% Mumps
Caused by the coxsackie A16 virus Mild systemic upset: sore throat, fever Vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet Hand, foot and mouth disease
Combined oral contraceptive pill Implanatable contraceptive (etonogestrel) Injectable contraceptive Inhibits ovulation
Progestogen-only pill (excluding desogestrel) Thickens cervical mucus
Intrauterine system (levonorgestrel) Primary: Prevents endometrial proliferation Also: Thickens cervical mucus
Hypomagnesaemia Cisplatin
Myelosuppression, liver fibrosis and oral mucositis Methotrexate
Cardiomyopathy Doxorubicin
Toxoplasmosis retinitis white focal retinitis with overlying vitreous inflammation
Cytomegalovirus retinitis appearance of a 'pizza pie', with retinal spots and flame haemorrhages.
CABG 4 weeks off driving
acute coronary syndrome 4 weeks off driving, 1 week if successfully treated by angioplasty
pacemaker insertion 1 week off driving
successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia 2 days off driving
heart transplant DVLA do not need to be notified
72 hour assessment order for a patient who is not in hospital Section 4
6 months - 6 years adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis 150 mcg (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)
tear drop shaped cells myelofibrosis
A 58-year-old retired miner develops smear-positive Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following dusts is most likely to have increased the risk of this infection in this patient? silica
This is seen in around 3% of MIs and occurs around 1-2 weeks afterwards. Patients present with acute heart failure secondary to cardiac tamponade (raised JVP, pulsus paradoxus, diminished heart sounds). Left ventricular free wall rupture
The ischaemic damage sustained may weaken the myocardium resulting in aneurysm formation. This is typically associated with persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Thrombus may form within the aneurysm increasing the risk of stroke. Left ventricular aneurysm
Rupture of the interventricular septum usually occurs in the first week and is seen in around 1-2% of patients. Features: acute heart failure associated with a pan-systolic murmur. VSD
More common with infero-posterior infarction and may be due to ischaemia or rupture of the papillary muscle. Acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema may occur. An early-to-mid systolic murmur is typically heard. Acute MR
A 23-year-old man develops watery diarrhoea whilst travelling in Egypt. Which one of the following is the most likely responsible organism? E.Coli
Sensory loss over anterior thigh Weak quadriceps Reduced knee reflex Positive femoral stretch test L3 nerve root compression
Sensory loss anterior aspect of knee Weak quadriceps Reduced knee reflex Positive femoral stretch test L4 nerve root compression
Sensory loss dorsum of foot Weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion Reflexes intact Positive sciatic nerve stretch test L5 nerve root compression
Sensory loss posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot Weakness in plantar flexion of foot Reduced ankle reflex Positive sciatic nerve stretch test S1 nerve root compression
Created by: laylag
 

 



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