Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Board Exam
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is phlebotomy? | Phlebotomy is the pratice in drawing blood samples for analysis |
| List five personal Characteristics of a professional phlebotomist? | • Interpersonal skills • Organizational skills • The ability to handle stress • Professionalism • and ability to be detailed oriented |
| Besides drawing blood samples, what other skills may a phlebotomist be trained to perform. | •A Phlebotomist must adhear to safety regulations. •Interact with patients. •Keep accurate records and •Operate computers |
| Define Hemoconcentration. | Hemaconcentration is increase in the ratio of formed elements to plasma caused by leaving the tourniquet on too long |
| WHAT IS THE PRIMARY FUNCTION OF A RED BLOOD CELL | To carry oxygen to all parts of the body |
| Define point of care testing and state four locales in which it may occur. | Point of care testing (POCT) is the performance of analytical tests immediately after obtaining a sample at the "point of care" e.g. bedside, clinic, intensive care unit or emergency department, physician's office, nursing home, assisted living center |
| The microcuvette tests and measures __________and is essential in ____________. | The microcuvette tests and measures the hemoglobin value and is essential in determining the response to therapy. |
| List 5 Reasons why specimens may be rejected. | •No Request form •Unlabeled/mislabeled specimen •under-filled tubes •Defective tubes •Collection in the wrong tube •Hemolysis •Clotted blood in an anti coagulant specimen •contaminated specimen and containers •Improper special handling followed |
| What is licensure? | Licensure is a document permit issued by a government agency that grants the bearer transmission to perform a service. |
| What is confidentiality? | Confidentiality is the concept by which information regarding the patient should not be discussed with anyone not involved with the patient’s treatment |
| PROCESS IN WHICH BLOOD CLOTS IS CALLED | Haemostasis |
| A PATIENT HAS A SEVERE BURN ON HIS LEFT WRIST. WHAT WOULD BE THE BEST DESCRIPTION OF ITS LOCATION RELEVENT TO HIS FINGERS | Proximal |
| GIVE THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE THE FORCE EXERTED BY THE BLOOD ON THE WALLS OF THE BLOOD VESSELS | Blood pressure |
| WHAT MUST YOU REMEMBER WHEN DRAWING BLOOD FOR BLOOD ALCOHOL LEVELS? | The skin must be cleaned with water and not alcohol |
| NAME 4 HEEL PUNCTURE PRECAUTIONS | Don’t puncture deeper than 2.0 mm, or areas between imaginary boundaries or in the arch & any areas of foot other than heel. Don’t puncture severely bruised areas or posterior curvature of heel or through previous puncture sites or swollen sites |
| WHAT IS AN ACCEPTABLE ANGLE OF NEEDLE INSERTION FOR ARTERIAL PUNCTURE | 45º |
| WHAT IS EMLA USED FOR? | EMLA is a topical anaesthetic cream used in pediatric patients to numb the venepuncture site |
| NAME THE DISORDER THAT REFERS TO IMPAIRED KIDNEY FUNCTION WITH A BUILD-UP OF WASTE PRODUCTS IN THE BLOOD | Ureamia |
| NAME THE ORDER OF DRAW FOR CAPILLARY PUNCTURE | Blood gas specimens, EDTA specimens, Other additive specimens, Serum specimens |
| WHAT TYPE OF ANTICOAGULANT ACTION DOES THE HEPARIN TUBE HAVE? | Inhibits Thrombin |
| WHAT TYPE OF NEEDLE MAY BE USED FOR PEDIATRIC PATIENTS YOUNGER THAN 2 YEARS? | Shorter needles if possible, and use the smallest gauge consistent with the requirements of the tests. Butterflies and smaller tube sizes should be used. If the patient is younger than 1 year, rather perform a heel prick |
| WHAT TYPE OF MUSCLE LINES THE WALLS OF THE BLOOD VESSELS | Smooth muscle or visceral |
| NAME 5 ADVERSE REACTIONS OF ARTERIAL PUNCTURE | Arteriospasm, Artery damage, Discomfort, Infection, Haematoma, Numbness, Thrombus formation, Vasovagal response, Haemorrhage, Seizures |
| NAME 2 SAFE WAYS THAT A CHILD CAN BE IMMOBILIZED DURING A BLOOD DRAW | By wrapping newborns & infants in receiving blanket. Older children need to be restrained. Seated on lap of a parent/assistant who hugs child’s body & holds arm not being used/ lying down with assistant leaning over child, holding unused arm securely |
| WHAT TYPE OF ANTICOAGULANT ACTION DOES THE CITRATE TUBE HAVE? | Binds Calcium |
| WHAT IS HOMEOSTASIS? | Homeostasis is the steady state of good health |
| EXPLAIN WHEN A PHLEBOTOMIST IS DEEMED TO HAVE BEEN NEGLIGENT | If phlebotomist doesn’t follow the standard of care for the procedure being performed. If they fail to perform their duties effectively & it results in injury or harm to the patient. The injury or harm may have been caused intentionally or unintentionally |
| GIVE 2 EXAMPLES OF INFECTIOUS MEDICAL WASTE | Body tissue or fluids, blood products, urine, sputum, stool CSF, Semen |
| WHY IS IT IMPORTANT TO INSTRUCT A PATIENT TO CLEAN THE GENITAL AREA PRIOR TO COLLECTION? | To prevent contamination with commensals |
| OCCULT BLOOD TESTING IS PERFORMED ON: | Feces / Stool |
| DESCRIBE YOUR ETHICAL DUTIES TOWARD YOUR COLLEAGUES | Respect other colleagues. Don't discriminate against colleagues & don't speak ill about them. Don't make pts doubt a their skills. Support colleagues that uphold ethical values & standards. Advise impaired colleagues who to seek professional help |
| WHAT IS THE ETHICAL CORNERSTONE OF PROFESSIONAL BEHAVIOUR | Confidentiality |
| WHAT COMPLICATION CAN OCCUR IF THE PHLEBOTOMIST PUNCTURE A BONE | Osteomyelitis |
| TRANSPORT BAGS HAVE A SEPARATE COMPARTMENT FOR REQUISITIONS IN ORDER TO: | Prevent contamination if the specimen leaks |
| NAME THE 4 BASIC TYPES OF TISSUE AND GIVE AND EXAMPLE OF EACH | Epithelial – lining of intestines, surface of the eye Muscle – heart Nerve – neurons, spinal cord Connective- bone, blood |
| NAME 3 LAB TESTS, AND THE DISORDERS THEY TEST FOR, THAT ARE USED TO ASSESS FOR BONE AND JOINT DISORDERS | 1. ALP -Bone metabolism marker 2. UA -gout 3. RF –rheumatoid arthritis 4. Ca –mineral calcium imbalance 5. Mg –Mg imbalance 6. ANA –systemic lupus 7. ESR –general inflammation test 8. Synovial fluid analysis –arthritis |
| DESCRIBE THE WORD “ANATOMIC POSITION” | The body is erect, facing forward, arms at sides and palms forward, feet forward |
| WHAT ARE BODY CAVITIES? | Body cavities are spaces within the body that contain major organs |
| NAME AND DESCRIBE ONE BODY PLANE | Frontal – vertical division (front and back) Sagittal – vertical division (left and right) Transverse – horizontal division (top and bottom) |
| WHAT IS HEMATOPOIESIS? | Hematopoiesis is the formation of blood cells |
| WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF INFECTION | When the host is invaded by pathogenic microorganisms who begin to multiply in numbers, resulting in disease |
| DEFINE A RANDOM URINE SPECIMEN AND WHAT IS IT USED TO SCREEN FOR? | Random urine specimens can be collected at any time. They are used to screen for obvious abnormalities in the concentration of proteins, glucose, and other significant constituents of urine |
| WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF DISINFECTANT | Substance or solution used to remove or kill microorganisms on surfaces and instruments |
| NAME 4 LAB TESTS THAT ARE USED TO ASSESS FOR MUSCLE DISORDERS | Aldolase, AST, Troponin, Myoglobin, CK, CK-MB, Lactate dehydrogenase |
| NAME 5 TESTS THAT ARE USED TO ASSESS FOR DIGESTIVE DISORDERS | CBC (FBC), Amylase, Lipase, ALP, ALT, AST, GGT, Bilirubin, HBsAg, Ammonia, Hepatitis antibody, carotene, O&P, gastrin, occult blood, stool culture |
| EXPLAIN THE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN A FIRST MORNING SPECIMEN AND A TIMED SPECIMEN | A first morning specimen is collected after the pt wakes up. It is a very concentrated specimen. A timed specimen is collected over a 24-hour period to provide a single large specimen. Typically, the first morning sample is discarded with a timed specimen |
| DESCRIBE THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN EXTERNAL AND INTERNAL RESPIRATION | External respiration is the exchange of gases in the lungs, whereas internal respiration is the exchange of gases at the cellular level |
| WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF IMMUNE | Protected from or resistant to a particular disease or infection because of the development of antibody through vaccination or recovery from the disease |
| WHAT ARE THE DIVISIONS FOR THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM | The brain and the spinal cord |
| DESCRIBE THE PROCEDURE FOR COLLECTING A MIDSTREAM CLEAN CATCH SPECIMEN | The pt should clean area around the urethra, then the pt should begin voiding into the toilet, then the container should be brought into the urine stream until sufficient urine has been collected. The remainder of the urine should be voided into toilet |
| WHAT DOES THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM DO? | The endocrine system maintains homeostasis in conjunction with the nervous system by producing hormones |
| WHEN CAN A HEALTH PRACTITIONER BREACH CONFIDENTIALITY? | Order from court of law; Statutory provision; express consent of pt; Act of Parliament e.g. child abuse; Legal obligation e.g. if someone life is in danger; deceased pt, with consent of next of kin; written consent of parent of a minor-12 |
| WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF ANTISEPTIC | A substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria and is used to clean the skin |
| _______ IS A BONE INFECTION THAT CAN BE CAUSED IMPROPER PHLEBOTOMY TECHNIQUE | Osteomyelitis |
| NAME 3 CLASSIFICATIONS OF JOINTS AND GIVE AN EXAMPLE OF EACH | Immovable – facial bones, cranium Partially movable – vertebrae Free moving – elbow, shoulder, knee |
| NAME 4 FINGER PRICK PRECAUTIONS | Don’t puncture fingers of babies under 1 year Don’t puncture fingers on same side as mastectomy Don’t puncture parallel to grooves/lines of fingerprint. Don’t puncture fifth/little finger or index finger or thumb Don’t puncture side/tip of finger |
| IN WHICH DEPARTMENT IS A CBC PERFORMED? | Haematology |
| PT/INR TESTING MONITORS? | Warfarin therapy |
| THE FUNCTIONAL UNIT OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM IS: | neuron |
| WHAT IS PHLEBOTOMY? | Phlebotomy is the practice of drawing blood samples (via incision of a needle into a vein) for analysis |
| INDEPENDENT LABS THAT ANALYZE SAMPLES FROM OTHER HEALTH CARE FACILITIES ARE KNOW AS: | Reference labs |
| ATP IS FOUND IN WHICH PART OF THE CELL? | Mitochondria |
| THE CHEMISTRY DEPARTMENT SECTION ASSOCIATED WITH DRUG ANALYSIS IS KNOWN AS: | Toxicology |
| EXPLAIN THE PURPOSE OF A TOURNIQUET | A tourniquet prevents venous flow out of the arm |
| APTT TESTING MONITORS? | Heparin therapy |
| WHICH TYPE OF MUSCLE TISSUE IS INVOLVED IN HEMOSTASIS? | smooth |
| WHAT DOES THE GAUGE OF THE NEEDLE INDICATE? | The gauge of the needle indicates the diameter of the needle’s lumen |
| DESCRIBE THE CONSEQUENCES OF USING A NEEDLE WITH A LARGE GAUGE NUMBER | If a large gauge needle is used in venepuncture, collection is slower and blood cells may be hemolysed as they pass through the narrower opening |
| BLOOD IS CONSIDERED TO BE WHICH TYPE OF TISSUE? | connective |
| WHICH DEPARTMENT IDENTIFIES PATHOGENIC MICROORGANISMS IN PATIENT SAMPLES? | Microbiology |
| WHEN PATIENTS DONATE THEIR BLOOD FOR USE DURING THEIR OWN SURGERY, IT IS KNOWN AS: | Autologous donation |
| EXPLAIN THE PURPOSE OF THE RUBBER SLEEVE ON THE MULTISAMPLE NEEDLE | The rubber sleeve on the multisample needle keeps the needle from becoming contaminated or injuring you or the patient, ant it keeps the blood from leaking onto or into the adapter or tube holder, especially when changing tubes |
| EXPLAIN THE ADVANTAGES AND DISADVANTAGES OF THE SYRINGE METHOD OF DRAWING BLOOD AS OPPOSED TO THE EVACUATED SYSTEM | Advantage: blood appears in the hub when the vein has been entered. Disadvantage: there is the potential for needle stick when depositing blood into the collection tube |
| WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF NOSOCOMIAL INFECTION | An infection acquired in a health care facility |
| DEFINE NEGLIGENCE | Negligence is the failure to perform an action consistent with the accepted standard of care |
| BLOOD TUBES ARE EVACUATED. EXPLAIN WHAT THIS MEANS | A vacuum is created within the tube so a measured amount of blood will flow in easily |
| WHEN A PHLEBOTOMIST BREACHES THE DUTY OF CARE TO A PATIENT, THIS IS KNOWN AS: | Dereliction |
| WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF BIOSAFETY | Term used to describe the safe handling of biologic substances that pose a risk to health |
| WHY MUST UNUSED BLOOD TUBES BE DISCARDED WHEN THEY EXPIRE? | Out-of-date tubes may have decreased vacuum, preventing a proper fill, or they may have additives that degrade over time |
| EXPLAIN WHY NASOPHARYNGEAL SPECIMENS MAY BE COLLECTED | To diagnose whooping cough, croup, pneumonia and other upper respiratory tract infections |
| WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF REVERSE ISOLATION | Precautionary measures and procedures designed to protect patients who are particularly susceptible or at increased risk of acquiring infections |
| DEFINE MALPRACTICE | Malpractice is the delivery of substandard care that results in harm to a patient |
| DEFINE SPS AND WHAT IS IT USED FOR | Sodium polyanethole sulfonate It is an additive that prevents blood from clotting Used for blood cultures |
| WHAT MEASURES CAN PHLEBOTOMISTS TAKE TO PROTECT THEMSELVES AGAINST MALPRACTICE SUITS? | Precise and detailed documentation; clear patient communication; following procedures and protocols accurately |
| EXPLAIN WHY AMNIOTIC FLUID MAY BE COLLECTED | To analyse the presence of certain genetic disorders e.g. Down syndrome. It can be analysed for lipids (to indicate lung development), bilirubin (associated with haemolytic disease) and proteins (associated with other abnormalities such as spina bifida) |
| IF A COLLECTION TUBE CONTAINS AN ANTICOAGUANT, WHAT MUST YOU DO IMMEDIATELY AFTER COLLECTION? | Mix thoroughly by gently and repeatedly inverting the tube |
| EXPLAIN WHY FECAL SPECIMENS MAY BE COLLECTED | To look for intestinal infection and screen for colorectal cancer |
| EXPLAIN THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN A THROAT CULTURE AND A NASOPHARYNGEAL CULTURE | A throat culture is collected from the back of the mouth around the tonsils and uvula with a swab. A nasopharyngeal culture is collected through the nose |
| THE PRINCIPLE DEFENCE AGAINST A MALPRACTICE SUIT IS: | To show that the standard of care was followed |
| DEFINE GLYCOLYSIS | Glycolysis is a cellular reaction used to harvest energy from glucose |
| EXPLAIN WHY SEMEN SPECIMENS MAY BE COLLECTED | To determine whether viable sperm are present, either for fertility testing or to assess the success of a vasectomy. Semen may also be collected as a forensic specimen from a rape victim |
| WHAT DOES IT MEAN TO BREACH CONFIDENTIALITY? | To reveal test results/info about a pt to anyone not involved in pt’s care; discuss patient’s care in a public place; to release medical info concerning a pt to anyone not specifically authorized to acquire it; to leave pt records out where anyone can see |
| NAME THE 3 TYPES OF BLOOD SPECIMENS USED FOR ANALYSIS | Whole blood Plasma Serum |
| THE FAILURE TO PERFORM AN ACTION CONSISTENT WITH THE ACCEPTED STANDARD OF CARE IS: | Negligence |
| EXPLAIN THE PURPOSE OF THE SWEAT ANALYSIS TEST | To help diagnose cystic fibrosis |
| HOW MANY TIMES MAY A NEEDLE BE USED BEFORE DISCARDING IT? | once |
| EDTA PREVENTS COAGULATION IN THE BLOOD TUBES BY: | Binding calcium |
| WHAT IS INFORMED CONSENT? | A patient must be informed of intended treatments and their risks and must give consent before these treatments are performed |
| WHICH TYPE OF URINE TEST IS MOST COMMONLY USED TO DETERMINE PREGNANCY? | First morning |
| IN WHICH SYSTEM DOES HEMATOPOIESIS OCCUR? | Skeletal |
| _______ PROMOTES THE BREAKDOWN OF GLYCOGEN BACK TO GLUCOSE? | Glucagon |
| WHICH TEST WILL MICROBIOLOGY PERFORM FOR UROLOGICAL DISORDERS? | Urine-MCS |
| COMPLETE BLOOD CLOTTING TAKES _____ MINUTES | 20 – 30 minutes |
| WHEN IS AN 8-HOUR SPECIMEN TYPICALLY COLLECTED? | In the morning |
| WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON ANTISEPTIC USED IN ROUTINE VENIPUNCTURE? | Isopropyl alcohol |
| EXPLAIN THE PURPOSE OF CONTINUING EDUCATION UNITS | CEUs are required education units to remain certified that provide updates on new regulations and techniques to help refresh skills |
| THE SWEAT ELECTRODE TEST IS TYPICALLY USED TO SCREEN FOR: | Cystic fibrosis |
| TUBES WITH GREEN STOPPERS MAY CONTAIN: | Lithium/Sodium heparin |
| THE FUNCTIONAL UNIT OF THE KIDNEY IS THE: | Nephron |
| THE 4 ELEMENTS OF NEGLIGENCE ARE: | Duty Dereliction Injury Direct cause |
| WHEN IS A URINE SPECIMEN LABLELLED? | After collection |
| ABGs TYPICALLY TEST FOR ______ DISORDERS | Respiratory |
| WHAT IS THE 2 MOST IMPORTANT LEGAL ASPECTS OF THE PHLEBOTOMIST’S PROFESSION? | Obtaining Informed consent and maintaining Confidentiality |
| NAME 4 TYPES OF SAFETY HAZARDS IN THE WORKPLACE AND GIVE AN EXAMPLE OF EACH | Biology: bacteria, viruses Sharps: needles, lancets, broken glass Electrical: high-voltage equipment Chemical: lab reagents, preservatives Latex sensitivity: gloves Physical: wet floors, lifting heavy equipment Fire, explosive: oxygen, chemicals |
| THE HORMONE THAT REGULATES THE AMOUNT OF CALCIUM AND PHOSPHORUS IN THE CIRCULATION IS: | Parathormone (PTH) |
| WHICH HORMONE REGULATES WATER RE-ABSORPTION BY THE KIDNEY? | ADH (Anti-diuretic hormone) |
| LIST 4 SAFETY PRECAUTIONS THAT CAN REDUCE THE RISK OF INJURY IN THE WORKPLACE | Wearing PPE Never store food with biohazard substances Protect feet from spills, slips & falling Don't put things in mouth in the work area Avoid eye-hand contact in work area. Don't wear loose clothing, hair/jewellery -can get caught in equipment |
| HOW MUCH PPD IS DRAWN INTO THE SYRINGE | 0.1 mL |
| WITHIN WHAT TIME PERIOD SHOULD A PATIENT DRINK THE ORAL GLUCOSE SOLUTION? | 5 minutes |
| EXPLAIN THE PURPOSE OF THE BLEEDING TIME TEST | The bleeding time test measures the length of time required for bleeding to stop after an incision is made. It helps assess the overall integrity of primary hemostasis, involving the vascular system and platelet function |
| AT WHAT LEVEL DOES THE BLOOD PRESSURE CUFF REMAIN DURING THE BLEEDING TIME TEST? | 40mmHg |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX ANTE- | before |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX ANTI- | against |
| A 72-HOUR STOOL SPECIMEN IS COLLECTED TO: | Fat quantities |
| A NORMAL BLEEDING TIME RESULT IS: | 2 – 8 minutes |
| A SEMEN ANALYSIS MUST BE DELIVERED TO THE LAB WITHIN: | 30 minutes of collection |
| WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF THE MATERIAL SAFETY DATA SHEET? | Provides information on the chemical, its hazards, the procedure for its clean-up and first aid in case of exposure |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX BRADY- | slow |
| WHAT SPECIMEN IS FOUND IN THE LUNGS AND THORACIC CAVITY? | Pleural fluid |
| HOW FREQUENTLY IS THE BLOOD WICKED DURING A BLEEDING TIME TEST? | Every 30 seconds |
| IN THE EVENT OF A CHEMICAL SPILL ON YOUR ARM, WHAT STEPS SHOULD BE TAKEN? | Proceed to the safety shower, flush the area for 15 minutes and go to the emergency room for treatment |
| DESCRIBE THE STEPS IN THE EMERGENCY RESPONSE TO ELECTRICAL SHOCK | Turn off the equipment or break contact between the equipment and the victim using a non-conductive material. Do not touch the victim until the risk of further shock is removed. Call 911. Start CPR if indicated. Keep the victim warm |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX HYPER- | above |
| WHAT IS AN OGTT | Oral glucose tolerance test. It is a test used to screen for diabetes mellitus and other disorders of carbohydrate metabolism |
| WHERE IS SYNOVIAL FLUID FOUND? | In the knee joint |
| WHY ARE BLOOD CULTURES ORDERED? | Blood cultures are ordered to test for the presence of microorganisms in the blood |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX HYPO- | below |
| CEREBROSPINAL FLUID IS FOUND IN THE: | Brain and spinal cord |
| EXPLAIN THE MAIN FUNCTION OF MICROBIOLOGY | They analyse specimens for the presence of microorganisms. They identify the organism and the particular antibiotic that will be the most effective for treatment |
| LIST THE SIGNS OF SHOCK AND WHAT STEPS TO TAKE TO PREVENT FURTHER COMPLICATIONS | Pale, cold, clammy skin; tachycardia; shallow breathing; weakness; nausea and vomiting. Keep the victim warm and lying down with the airway open and call for professional assistance |
| EXPLAIN THE PURPOSE OF A 24 HOUR URINE COLLECTION | It is used to detect low levels of certain proteins & hormones, incl creatine, a protein released from muscle. In addition, some compounds are excreted in varying amounts over the course of the day, so a 24hr specimen is used to determine an average value |
| THE IDEAL BLOOD VOLUME FOR ADULT BLOOD CULTURES IS: | 20 ml in each set |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX INTER- | between |
| THE FIRST ACTION TO TAKE IN EVENT OF FIRE IS: | Pull the fire alarm |
| NAME 4 CLASSIFICATIONS OF PATHOGENS | Bacteria, Viruses, Fungi and Parasites |
| WHEN IS THE BEST TIME TO COLLECT MIDSTREAM URINE SPECIMENS? GIVE A REASON | Early morning. The specimen is more concentrated – large amount of pathogens will be present |
| WHAT COLLECTION TECHNIQUE IS CRITICAL FOR MEANINGFUL BLOOD CULTURE RESULTS? | Aseptic collection technique |
| FOR A 3-HOUR OGTT, HOW MANY SAMPLES WILL BE COLLECTED? | 5 (fasting, 30min, 60min, 120 min and 180 min) |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX INTRA- | within |
| THE SMALLER THE GAUGE NUMBER, THE: | Larger the lumen diameter |
| IT IS NECESSARY FOR A PATIENT TO FAST FOR ______ BEFORE A GLUCOSE TOLERANCE TEST | 12 hours |
| EXPLAIN THE PROCESS THAT SHOULD BE FOLLOWED IN CONTROLLING A BLEEDING EMERGENCY | Apply pressure to the area or wound, elevate the limb unless it is fractures, and maintain pressure until medical help arrives |
| DESCRIBE HOW TO PROPERLY IDENTIFY A PATIENT | Match the information on the requisition form with the information on the patient’s identification band or with information provided by the patient (Name, Surname and Date of Birth) |
| A 2-HOUR POSTPRANDIAL TEST IS USED TO TEST FOR: | Diabetes mellitus |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX NEO- | new |
| THE HORMONE THAT CAN BE DETECTED BY EARLY PREGNANCY TESTS IS: | HCG |
| CLASS C FIRES INVOLVES: | Electrical equipment |
| HYPERGLYCEMIA MEANS: | Increased blood glucose levels |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX MICRO- | small |
| HOW DO YOU MIX ACIDS AND WATER? | Add acid to water |
| WHAT IS THE MOST CRITICAL PART OF BLOOD CULTURE COLLECTION? | Antisepsis of the collection site |
| THE MOST COMMON GAUGE USED FOR ROUTINE VENEPUNCTURE IS: | 21G |
| THYROXINE IS OTHERWISE KNOWN AS: | T4 |
| DESCRIBE THE DIFFERENT FUNCTIONS OF THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM | The circulatory system transports blood containing oxygen and nutrients throughout the body and picks up metabolic waste products for disposal |
| DISCUSS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN PULMONARY AND SYSTEMIC CIRCULATION | Pulmonary circulation carries blood between the heart and lungs for gas exchange, whereas systemic circulation carries blood between the heart and rest of the body |
| WHAT IS THE INFECTIOUS ORGANISMS FOR MALARIA? | Plasmodium |
| EXPLAIN THE FUNCTIONAL DIFFERENCE BETWEEN VEINS AND ARTERIES | Veins carry blood toward the heart; arteries carry blood away from the heart |
| WHAT INFORMATION IS TYPICALLY ON A REQUEST FORM? | Patient’s name, surname, date of birth, patient’s hospital ID number (for inpatients), the patient’s doctor’s name or code, the type of test requested and the test status (Urgent / routine) |
| CONTRACTION OF THE HEART IS KNOWN AS ______ AND RELAXATION OF THE HEART IS KNOWN AS _____ | Systole Diastole |
| HORMONES ARE PRODUCED BY WHICH BODY SYSTEM? | Endocrine |
| WHAT IS THE INFECTIOUS ORGANISMS FOR HEPATITIS? | Hepatitis virus (A, B, C, D, E and G) |
| WHAT IS THE SINGLE MOST IMPORTANT ASPECT OF ANY PHLEBOTOMY PROCEDURE? | Correctly and positively identifying the patient |
| LIST THE STEPS YOU SHOULD PERFORM WHEN REQUISITIONS ARE RECEIVED | You should examine them for the necessary information: check for duplicates or errors, group them together for the same patient, prioritize them and gather all the equipment you will need to perform the collection |
| NAME THE 4 VALVES OF THE HEART | Atrioventricular (Tricuspid) Pulmonary semilunar Bicuspid (Mitral) Aortic semilunar |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX POLY- | many |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX ERYTHR- | red |
| WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF BACTEREMIA? | Bacteria in the blood |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX POST- | after |
| WHAT IS THE INFECTIOUS ORGANISMS FOR TUBERCULOSIS? | Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
| WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF ANAEROBIC? | Without air or able to live without oxygen |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX HEMI- | half |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX TACHY- | fast |
| WHAT IS THE INFECTIOUS ORGANISMS FOR STREP THROAT? | Streptococcus |
| DEFINE HEMOCONCENTRATION | Hemoconcentration is an increase in the ratio of formed elements to plasma caused by leaving the tourniquet on too long |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX NANO- | billionth |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX CIRRH- | yellow |
| WHEN IS THE FASTING SPECIMEN FOR A GTT DRAWN? | Before the test has actually begun |
| NAME 3 VEINS IN THE ANTECUBITAL AREA SUITABLE FOR VENEPUNCTURE | Median cubital Cephalic Basilic |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX EPI- | On, over |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX CYAN- | blue |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX RUBE- | red |
| WHAT IS THE INFECTIOUS ORGANISMS FOR SYPHILIS? | Treponema pallidum |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX PERI- | around |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX TETRA- | four |
| LIST 2 SOURCES OF ERROR IN BLEEDING TIME TEST | Taking aspirin within 2 wks of test can ↑ BT. Distubing platelet plug formation -↑ BT. BP cuff below/above 40mmHg will ↓ / ↑ BT. Failure to start timing a.s.a incision is made will ↓ BT. Too little/too much pressure on the surgicutt will ↓/ ↑ BT |
| WHAT IS THE INFECTIOUS ORGANISMS FOR GONORRHEA? | Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
| WHAT IS THE INFECTIOUS ORGANISMS FOR TRICHOMONIASIS? | Trichomonas vaginalis |
| WHAT IS THE INFECTIOUS ORGANISMS FOR HERPES? | Herpes Simplex |
| WHAT IS THE INFECTIOUS ORGANISMS FOR AIDS? | Human Immunodeficiency Virus |
| LIST 3 WAYS IN WHICH ONE CAN BREAK THE CHAIN OF INFECTION | The chain of infection is broken by preventing transmission: by hand washing, using personal protective equipment, isolating patients at risk of spreading or contracting infections and using standard precautions |
| WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN A VECTOR AND A FOMITE? | Fomites are objects, whereas vectors are organisms |
| EXPLAIN WHY THE MEDIAN CUBITAL VEIN IS THE FIRST CHOICE FOR VENEPUNCTURE | The median cubital is the first choice for venepuncture because it is large and well anchored and does not move when the needle is inserted |
| NAME THE 3 LAYERS SURROUNDING THE LUMEN OF VEINS AND ARTERIES | Tunica adventitia (Tunica externa) Tunica media Tunica intima |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX LUTE- | yellow |
| DESCRIBE HOW VEINS, ARTERIES, AND TENDONS FEEL WHEN PALPATING THEM | Veins feels spongy, bouncy and firm on palpation Arteries pulsate Tendons feel rigid |
| THE YELLOW LIQUID PORTION OF WHOLE BLOOD, CONTAINING FIBRINOGEN, IS KNOWN AS: | Plasma |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT AGGLUT GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT AGGLUT- | Clump together |
| WHAT IS THE MOST IMPORTANT AND EFFECTIVE WAY OF PREVENTING THE SPREAD OF INFECTION? | Hand washing |
| NAME 4 ITEMS INCLUDED IN PPE | Fluid-resistant gowns, masks, respirators, face shields, gloves and shoe covers |
| WHAT TECHNIQUES CAN YOU USE TO HELP LOCATE A VEIN? | Tap the arm lightly Have the patient make a fist Let the arm hang down Warm the site with a warm towel or hot pack |
| THE FORMED ELEMENTS CONSTITUTE ____% OF BLOOD VOLUME | 45% |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT ANGIO- | vessel |
| WHAT IS THE ROLE OF A PHAGOCYTE? | A phagocyte attacks and digests bacteria |
| DEFINE HEMATOMA | A hematoma is a reddened swollen area in which blood collects under the skin. It can form when the extra pressure from the tourniquet forces blood out through the puncture |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX -EMIA | Blood condition |
| WHERE ON THE BODY IS THE BLEEDING TIME TEST PERFORM? | Volar surface of the arm |
| WHICH TYPE OF LYMPHOCYTE PRODUCES ANTIBODIES? | B cells produce antibodies |
| DESCRIBE THE CORRECT POSITION OF THE PATIENT’S ARM AFTER WITHDRAWING THE VENIPUNCTURE NEEDLE | Straight or slightly bent, but not bent back over the puncture site |
| THE BLEEDING TIME TEST DETECTS: | Platelet function disorders |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX -PLASTY | shape |
| EXPLAIN WHAT STANDARD PRECAUTIONS ARE AND WHY THEY ARE USED | Standard precautions are an infection control method that uses barrier protection and work control practices to prevent direct skin contact with biohazardous materials |
| EXPLAIN THE CORRECT PROCEDURE FOR LABELING BLOOD TUBES | To correctly label tubes, label them at the bedside (in front of the patient) using a permanent marker. The label must have the patient’s name, surname, and identification nr, the date and time of collection |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX -TOMY | cut |
| NAME 3 BLOOD-BORNE PATHOGENS | Syphilis, HIV, Hepatitis (A,B,C,D&E), Malaria, HTLV I and II |
| DESCRIBE THE 2 PATHWAYS IN THE COAGULATION CASCADE | The extrinsic pathway begins with the release of tissue factor by endothelial cells. The intrinsic pathway begins when the plasma coagulation factors contact materials exposed when blood vessels are damaged |
| DESCRIBE THE PROPER WAY BLOOD SHOULD BE TRANSFERRED TO COLLECTION TUBES WHEN USING A SYRINGE | Place the tube in a tube holder and pierce the stopper with the needle. Never hold the tube in your hand during the transfer. Allow the vacuum to pull the blood into the tube, without applying pressure to the plunger |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX -OMA | Tumor, growth |
| LIST 4 SPECIALIZED TEST PROCEDURES THAT FALLS WITHIN YOUR SCOPE OF PRACTICE | Glucose and lactose tolerance test Blood culture collection Bleeding time TB skin testing |
| LIST THE INFORMATION A PHLEBOTOMIST MUST LOOK FOR ON A REQUISITION SLIP | Patient’s identification number or DOB, patient’s name and surname, the physician’s name and the tests ordered |
| DEFINE AND GIVE AN EXAMPLE OF AUTOIMMUNITY | Autoimmunity is an attack by the immune system on the body’s own tissues. E.g. rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, myasthenia gravis and multiple sclerosis |
| NAME THE LYMPH ORGANS | Lymphatic vessels Lymph nodes (tonsils are largest) The spleen The thymus The thoracic and lymphatic ducts |
| EXPLAIN THE REASONING BEHIND PREPARING THE PATIENT BEFORE YOU WASH YOUR HANDS AND PUT ON GLOVES | Phlebotomists must set up the equipment and wash their hands in order to prevent self-contamination, as the equipment being handled may have pathogenic contamination. |
| EXPLAIN THE FUNCTION OF ENZYMES IN THE COAGULATION PROCESS | Enzymes enter the common pathway, reacting with factor X and V to convert circulating inactive prothrombin to active thrombin |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX –PENIA | deficiency |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX -PATHY | disease |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX -PLEGIA | paralysis |
| HEPATITIS B MAY BE STABLE IN DRIED BLOOD FOR AT LEAST _____ DAYS | 7 |
| BLEACH SHOULD BE IN CONTACT WITH A CONTAMINATED AREA FOR ______ MINUTES TO COMPLETE DISINFECTION | 20 minutes |
| WHICH VEIN IS OFTEN THE ONLY ONE THAT CAN BE PALPATED IN AN OBESE PATIENT? | Cephalic vein |
| EXPLAIN WHY IT IS BEST TO PERFORM A DERMAL PUNCTURE RATHER THAN A VENEPUNCTURE ON CHILDREN | Dermal puncture is preferred for children because the young child’s smaller veins and lower blood volume make standard venepuncture difficult and potentially dangerous |
| VARICELLA ZOSTER IS THE CAUSE OF: | Chickenpox |
| UPON ENTERING A PATIENT’S ROOM, YOU SHOULD FIRST: | Introduce yourself |
| WHICH VEIN LIES CLOSE TO THE BRACHIAL ARTERY? | Basilic vein |
| WHICH BLOOD VESSELS ARE A SINGLE CELL IN THICKNESS? | Capillaries |
| HOW OFTEN SHOULD 10% BLEACH AS A CLEANING AGENT BE MADE FRESH? | Daily |
| AT WHAT ANGLE SHOULD A VENEPUNCTURE NEEDLE PENETRATE THE SKIN? | 15 to 30 degrees |
| VEINS AND ARTERIES ARE COMPOSED OF HOW MANY LAYERS? | 3 |
| AN INCREASE IN THE RATIO OF FORMED ELEMENTS TO PLASMA IS CALLED: | Hemoconcentration |
| THE PURPOSE OF A PROTECTIVE ENVIRONMENT FOR HIGHLY IMMUNOSUPPRESSED PATIENTS IS TO: | Prevent transmission of infection to the patient |
| PLASMA CONSTITUTES ___% OF TOTAL BLOOD VOLUME? | 55% |
| ANOTHER NAME FOR A WBC: | Leukocyte |
| SMALL RED SPOTS ON THE SKIN ARE REFERRED TO AS: | Petechiae |
| THE MAIN FUNCTION OF LEUKOCYTES IS TO: | Protect the body against infection |
| WHICH LEUKOCYTES IS KNOWN AS A PHAGOCYTES? | Neutrophils and Monocytes |
| LIST 4 TYPES OF PATIENTS, OTHER THAN INFANTS, IN WHOM DERMAL PUNCTURE MAY BE ADVISABLE | Pts doing frequent glucose monitoring/ blood tests, obese pts, pts with IVs, geriatric pts, patients with burns/scars, pts at risk of thrombosis & anemia, haemorrhage, infection, organ/tissue damage, arteriospasm,/ cardiac arrest, restrained pts |
| DURING THE VENEPUNCTURE PROCEDURE, THE TOURNIQUET SHOULD STAY ON NO LONGER THAN: | 1 minute |
| WHICH VEIN IS THE FIRST CHOICE FOR VENEPUNCTURE? | Median cubital |
| PLATELETS REMAIN IN CIRCULATION FOR: | 9 – 12 days |
| WHICH CELLULAR COMPONENT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE TRANSPORT OF HEMOGLOBIN? | RBCs |
| A GROUP OF INHERITED DISORDERS MARKED BY INCREASED BLEEDING IS KNOWN AS: | Hemophilias |
| HELPER T CELLS ARE NEEDED TO MAKE: | Antibodies |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX -STASIS | stopping |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX –ITIS | inflammation |
| LIST 4 PRE-TEST REQUIREMENTS FOR A GTT | Eat balanced meals -3 days pre-test. Must fast 12-16hrs. Pt can drink water during fast & test. No smoke/chew gum. Confirm protocol with doctor. Stop medication that affects glucose tolerance. Complete documentation: consent, questionnaire, and worksheet |
| THE TRANSVERSE PLAIN DIVIDES THE BODY: | Horizontally into upper and lower portions |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX -GENOUS | Originating from |
| WHAT IS MEANT BY “WICKING” | Blotting the area with blotting paper without touching the cut (blotting – filter paper will suck up the blood next to the cut) |
| PROXIMAL IS DEFINED AS: | Closest to the middle (Nearest to the point of attachment) |
| WHY IS IT IMPORTANT TO “WICK” THE BLOOD EVERY 30 SEC? | So that the area can be better observed for clot formation |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT BILI- | bile |
| THE CHAMBER OF THE HEART THAT RECEIVES BLOOD FROM THE SYSTEMIC CIRCULATION IS THE: | Right atrium |
| WHEN IS THE BLEEDING TIME TEST STOPPED? | When there is no more blood on the blotting paper when you wick it OR at 15 minutes |
| EXPLAIN WHY, IN A DERMAL PUNCTURE, THE FIRST DROP OF BLOOD IS WIPED AWAY WITH GLEAN GAUZE | To prevent contaminating the sample with tissue fluid |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT CARDIO- | heart |
| THE THICK MUSCLE LAYER OF THE HEART IS CALLED THE: | Myocardium |
| THE PURPOSE OF THE PULMONARY SYSTEM IS TO: | Carry blood to and from the lungs |
| THE INTERNAL SPACE OF A BLOOD VESSEL IS CALLED THE: | Lumen |
| THE MAJOR DIFFERENCE BETWEEN PLASMA AND SERUM IS THAT PLASMA: | Contains fibrinogen, serum does not |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX –ALGIA | pain |
| THE MEDICAL TERM FOR RED BLOOD CELL IS: | Erythrocyte |
| WHAT ARE THE SEQUENCE OF EVENTS AFTER BLOOD VESSEL INJURY? | Vasoconstriction, Platelet aggregation, Fibrin clot formation, Fibrinolysis |
| THE MEDICAL TERM FOR PLATELET IS: | Thrombocyte |
| CYSTITIS MEANS: | Inflammation of the bladder |
| WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF BLEEDING TIME? | The time required for blood to stop flowing from a standardised puncture on the inner surface of the forearm |
| WHAT CAN BE USED TO STIMULATE BLOOD FLOW TO THE CAPILLARIES | Warm washcloths or heel warmers can be used to stimulate blood flow to the capillaries |
| WHERE DOES LYMPH ORIGINATE FROM? | Tissue fluid |
| THE ABBREVIATION NPO MEANS: | Nil per os – Nothing by mouth |
| LIST 3 SPECIFIC AREAS OF THE SKIN TO AVOID WHEN PERFORMING A CAPILLARY PUNCTURE | Areas with scars, cuts, bruises, rashes, or edema, and calloused, burned, bluish and infected areas as well as previously punctured sites |
| A HEART DISORDER CHARACTERIZED BY FLUID BUILDUP IN THE LUNGS IS CALLED: | Congestive heart failure |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX SUB- | Below, under |
| AT WHAT AGE ARE HEEL PRICKS PREFERRED TO FINGER PRICKS? | Children under the age of 1 year |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE PREFIX HOMO- | same |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX –IUM | Structure, tissue |
| LIST 2 REASONS WHY ALCOHOL MUST AIR-DRY BEFORE A CAPILLARY PUNCTURE | Stinging, hemolysis, and contamination can occur. Alcohol can also interfere with the formation of rounded drops of blood on the skin surface |
| WHEN TAKING A BLOOD PRESSURE, THE SYSTOLIC PRESSURE IS THE PRESSURE READING WHEN: | First heart sounds are heard as the cuff is deflated |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE SUFFIX –ASE | enzyme |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT CYT | cell |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT DERM- | skin |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT HEME- | blood |
| WHICH FINGERS ARE ACCEPTABLE TO USE FOR A DERMAL PUNCTURE? | The 3rd or 4th fingers (Middle or ring fingers) |
| DESCRIBE THE ORDER OF DRAW FOR A DERMAL PUNCTURE | ABGs EDTA Other additive specimens SST (serum specimens) |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT HEPAT- | liver |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT OSTE- | bone |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT PHAG- | Eat / swallow |
| WHY SHOULD BANDAGES NOT BE PLACED ON YOUNG CHILDREN FOLLOWING A DERMAL PUNCTURE? | Small children can remove bandages and choke on them. Do not use on children younger than 2 years |
| AN INFANT HEEL-WARMING DEVICE SHOULD BE APPLIED FOR APPROXIMATELY: | 3 – 5 minutes |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT -PNEA | breath |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT PULMON- | lung |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT REN- | kidney |
| THE DEPTH OF A HEEL PRICK SHOULD NOT BE MORE THAN: | 2.0mm |
| THE LOCATION FOR HEEL PRICKS IS: | Medial or lateral borders of the plantar surface |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT THROMB- | clot |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT TOX- | poison |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT CRY | cold |
| WHAT MUST BE DONE IF THE PATIENT IS NOT IN THE ROOM WHEN YOU COME TO COLLECT A SPECIMEN? | Every effort must be made to locate that patient by checking with the nursing station |
| WHAT HOSPITAL PROTOCOL IS FOLLOWED WHEN YOU HAVE TO DRAW BLOOD FROM A PATIENT NOT WEARING AN ID BAND? | Contact the nursing station, so that one can be attached by the nurse on duty. Do not draw blood (unless pt has an ID band). Follow the policy of your institution |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT HIST | tissue |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT LIP | fat |
| HOW IS AN UNCONSCIOUS PATIENT APPROACHED FOR BLOOD COLLECTION? | Just as you would treat a conscious patient. Identify yourself and describe the procedure. They may be able to hear you, even if they cannot respond |
| NAME 4 POTENTIAL BARRIERS TO COMMUNICATING WITH A PATIENT | Sleeping or unconscious patient Presence of physicians, clergy or visitors Apprehensive patients Language problem; patient refusal |
| GIVE THE MEANING OF THE ROOT NECR | death |
| DEFINE HEMOLYSIS | Hemolysis is the destruction of red blood cells, resulting in the release of haemoglobin and cellular contents into the plasma |
| DEFINE OCCLUDED, AND DESCRIBE WHAT OCCLUDED VEINS FEELS LIKE | Veins that are occluded are blocked. They feel hard or cordlike and lack resiliency |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION SOB STAND FOR: | Shortness of breath |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION DOB STAND FOR: | Date of birth |
| DESCRIBE WHERE THE TOURNIQUET IS APPLIED WHEN PERFORMING A DORSAL HAND PRICK | The tourniquet is applied around the wrist below the antecubital fossa |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION ASAP STAND FOR: | As soon as possible |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION UTI STAND FOR: | Urinary tract infection |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION IV STAND FOR: | intravenous |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION FUO STAND FOR: | Fever of unknown origin |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION COPD STAND FOR: | Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease |
| WHAT ANTISEPTIC MUST BE USED WHEN COLLECTING FOR A BLOOD ALCOHOL TEST | Povidone iodine or sterile water |
| LIST 2 THINGS THAT CAN CAUSE HEMOCONCENTRATION | A tourniquet that is on longer than 1 minute, pumping of the fist, sclerosed or occluded veins, long-term IV therapy, or dehydration |
| WHAT SYMPTOMS MIGHT A PATIENT EXHIBIT IMMEDIATELY BEFORE SYNCOPE? | A patient’s skin often feels cool, damp, and clammy |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION CVI STAND FOR: | Cerebrovascular incident |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION STAT STAND FOR: | immediately |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION MI STAND FOR: | Myocardial infarction |
| HOW CAN YOU CORRECT THE POSITION OF A NEEDLE WHOSE BEVEL HAS STUCK TO THE VEIN WALL? | Remove the tube. Slightly rotate the needle to correct its position. Re-engage the tube |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION TB STAND FOR: | tuberculosis |
| WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION Rx STAND FOR: | Treatment / prescription |
| WHAT CAN CAUSE A VEIN TO COLLAPSE DURING A BLOOD DRAW? | Too much vacuum on a small vein. During the syringe method, it may occur when the plunger is pulled too quickly |
| HOW MANY VENEPUNCTURE ATTEMPTS BY A PHLEBOTOMIST ARE USUALLY CONSIDERED ACCEPTABLE? | 2 |
| hepato- REFERS TO: | Liver |
| leuko- REFERS TO: | White |
| Cyan- REFERS TO: | Blue |
| -emia REFERS TO: | Blood condition |
| hemi- REFERS TO: | Half |
| HOW CAN A PHLEBOTOMIST PREVENT REFLUX OF AN ADDITIVE DURING COLLECTION? | By keeping the patient’s arm angled downward, so that the tub is always below the site, allowing it to fill from the bottom upwards. Remove the last tube before removing the needle or tourniquet |
| LIST 4 REASONS WHY SPECIMENS MAY BE REJECTED | No requisition form; unlabelled or mislabelled specimens; incompletely filled tubes; defective tubes; collection in the wrong tube; hemolysis; clotted blood in an anticoagulated specimen; contaminated specimens and containers; improper special handling |
| pulmon- REFERS TO: | Lung |
| -tomy REFERS TO: | To cut |
| thromb- REFERS TO: | Clot / clotting |
| LIST AND EXPLAIN 3 STRATEGIES YOU CAN USE TO HELP REDUCE A CHILD’S ANXIETY BEFORE A DRAW | Prepare equipment ahead of time; perform procedure in a room that is not child’s hospital room; be friendly, cheerful, empathetic; explain procedure in child’s terms; don’t say it won’t hurt, give the child the choice arm/ type of bandage they prefer |
| IF AN INFANT IS UNDER A BILI LIGHT, WHAT MUST THE PHLEBOTOMIST DO BEFORE COLLECTION? | Bilirubin is light sensitive. Bili lights should be switched off during collection and the specimen shielded from light |
| Anti- MEANS: | Against |
| Derm- REFERS TO: | Skin |
| LYMPHOSTASIS IS: | Lack of lymph fluid movement |
| NAME 3 PHYSICAL CHANGES THAT GERIATRIC PATIENTS UNDERGO THAT THE PHLEBOTOMIST MUST CONSIDER | Skin is less elastic & thinner; bruise easily; longer healing times; more fragile, less elastic & narrower blood vessels; loss of supporting connective tissue – leading to “loose skin”; loss of muscle tissue–veins move easily; Arteries closer to surface |
| LIST THE SPECIAL CONSIDERATIONS TO TAKE WHEN DRAWING BLOOD FROM A NEWBORN | Since a newborn is under reverse isolation, additional protection equipment is needed. Blood should be drawn from the infant’s heel. The amount collected, tests and their frequency must be recorded in order to prevent blood depletion |
| JAUNDICE MEANS: | Yellowing of the skin |
| LIST 4 TYPES OF VADs | CVC (Central venous catheter – Broviac, Triple lumen) Implanted port Arterial line PICC (Peripherally inserted central catheter) Heparin or saline lock AV shunt |
| CRYING CAUSES AN INCREASE IN: | White blood cell count |
| EXPLAIN THE PROCEDURE FOR DRAWING BLOOD FROM A GERIATRIC PATIENT | Be careful with pt ID; don't apply tourniquet as tightly; place arm on a pillow & have pt grip a washcloth while arm is supported by rolled towels; don't “slap” arm to find vein; anchor vein firmly; apply pressure longer to ensure the bleeding has stopped |
| WHICH LAB TEST ASSAYS JAUNDICE? | Bilirubin |
| ARTERIAL COLLECTION IS MOST OFTEN USED FOR TESTING: | ABGs |
| WHICH GAUGE NEEDLE IS BEST TO USE FOR A DRAW ON A CHILD YOUNGER THAN 2 YEARS? | 23G |
| LIST 2 CONDITIONS THAT PRODUCE ABNORMAL ABG VALUES | COPD, lung cancer, diabetic coma, diabetic ketoacidosis, shock, cardiac failure, respiratory failure, neuromuscular disease |
| WHAT IS A NORMAL BLOOD pH? | 7.35 |
| WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN ACIDOSIS AND ALKALOSIS? | Acidosis is indicated by a lower pH, whereas alkalosis is indicated by a higher pH |
| DESCRIBE THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN A SYRINGE USED FOR VENEPUNCTURE AND ONE USED FOR ABG COLLECTION | A syringe used for venepuncture is nor heparinised, whereas a syringe for arterial puncture is pretreated with heparin to prevent coagulation |
| WHAT LOCAL ANAESTHETIC MAY BE USED TO NUMB THE SITE FOR ABG COLLECTION? | Lidocaine |
| WHAT SAFETY PRECAUTIONS MUST BE TAKEN BY THE PHLEBOTOMIST WHEN COLLECTING BLOOD FROM AN ARTERY? | Wear a fluid-resistant gown, face protection, and gloves; use a puncture resistant container for sharps and a small rubber of latex block for the needle |
| WHAT GAUGE NEEDLE ARE MOST OFTEN USED FOR BLOOD GAS COLLECTION? | 22G |
| DEFINE COLLATERAL CIRCULATION, AND WHICH TEST IS USED TO DETERMINE WHETHER IT IS PRESENT? | Collateral circulation is the accessory supply of blood to a region by more than one artery. Modified Allen test |
| FOR AN ARTERIAL COLLECTION, AT WHAT ANGLE IS THE NEEDLE INSERTED INTO THE ARTERY? | 45º |
| Describe nosocomial infection | Infection acquired whilst in hospital / healthcare associated infection |
| The second and fourth link in the chain of infection is: | Reservoir and means of transmission |
| Bradycardia | Abnormally slow pulse |
| HOW LONG MUST PRESSURE BE APPLIED TO THE PUNCTURE SITE AFTER AN ARTERIAL COLLECTION? | 5 minutes |
| Airborne transmission involves particles that are typically less than | 5 µm |
| Dyspnoea | Difficulty in breathing |
| DEFINE ARTERIOSPASM | An arteriospasm is the spontaneous constriction of an artery in response to pain |
| Fomite can be described as: | Inanimate object that can harbour material that may be infectious |
| When verbal and nonverbal messages do not match it is called: | Kinesic slip |
| LIST 5 ABG SAMPLING ERRORS | Using too much/too little heparin; insufficient mixing; allowing air bubbles to enter syringe; using improper plastic syringe; using an improper anticoagulant; puncturing vein instead of artery; exposing the specimen to the atmosphere after collection |
| Postprandial refers to | After a meal |
| The prefix “melano” means | black |
| NAME 5 REASONS THAT ABG SPECIMENS MAY BE REJECTED | Inadequate volume of specimen for the test; clotting; improper or absent labelling; using the wrong syringe; air bubbles in the syringe; failure to ice the specimen; too long a delay in delivering the specimen to the lab |
| Adding too much blood to a sodium citrate tube can cause | Prolonged clotting time |
| The word “chrondr” pertains to? | Cartilage |
| WHY IS CAPILLARY BLOOD NOT AS DESIRABLE AS ARTERIAL BLOOD FOR TESTING BLOOD GASES? | Capillary blood is a mixture of blood from the capillaries, venules and arterioles, and it is mixed with tissue fluid. This method of collection is open to the air, and the specimen may exchange gases with room air before it is sealed |
| Define the term droplet transmission | Transfer of an infectious agent/ droplets to the mucous membranes ( mouth, nose, eyes) of a susceptible host by coughing, sneezing or talking |
| An injury the cuts through the skin is said to be: | Percutaneous |
| THE ABG SYRINGE IS COATED WITH: | Heparin |
| Explain 6 ways a healthcare worker can break the chain of infection | •Effective hand hygiene •Good nutrition, adequate rest & reduce stress •Immunisation against common pathogens •Use gloves &other PPE •Use needle safety devices •Proper disposal of sharps & infectious waste •Decontamination of surfaces &instruments |
| WHICH ARTERY IS MOST FREQUENTLY USED FOR ABG COLLECTION? | Radial |
| Lipaemia/lipaemic | Presence of fat in the blood |
| The root word “onych/o “ means | Nail |
| THE MODIFIED ALLEN TEST DETERMINES: | Collateral circulation |
| List 3 ways health care institutions can break the chain of infection | • Infection control programs • Insect and rodent control • Isolation procedures/protocols |
| The prefix “lute” means | yellow |
| THE MODIFIED ALLEN TEST IS PERFORMED ON THE: | Ulnar and radial arteries |
| The singular of “atria” is? | Atrium |
| Identify the name of the royal blue topped tube | Trace free element tube |
| Pyuria | Presence of pus in the urine |
| Identify the Act that governs safety in the workplace | Occupational Health and Safety Act ( 1993) |
| Describe the correct procedure and order for removing the following PPE ( gloves gown and mask) when leaving an isolation room | Gloves are removed first • careful not to touch the outer aspect of the gloves) The gown is removed second • Turned inside out • Held away from the body • Rolled up before discarding Mask is removed last • Touching only the strings |
| Where in the order of draw should the trace free element tube be drawn if other tests are required? | Must be drawn separately and must not be included in the order of draw with other additive tubes |
| Which anticoagulants are found in phlebotomy | • Tri potassium ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid • Acid citrate dextrose • Potassium oxalate • Sodium polyanethol sulfonate • Sodium citrate • Lithium or sodium heparin |
| List 3 additives found in the royal blue top tube | • EDTA (BD) • Heparin • No additive • Clot activator (BD) |
| When leaving an isolation room for airborne precautions when is the mask removed? | After leaving the patients isolation room |
| DEFINE BASAL STATE | Basal state is the body’s state after 12 hours of fasting and abstinence from strenuous exercise |
| List the important steps to follow when troubleshooting failed venepuncture | • Stop all needle movement • Assess the situation • Correct the problem |
| List 6 sites for blood collection that fall out of the scope of the phlebotomist | • Catheter implanted surgically into jugular or subclavian vein • Subcutaneous port or heparin lock • Fistula or cannula joining a vein and artery • Femoral vein • Scalp veins • Umbilical veins • All arterial sites except the radial artery |
| LIST 6 FACTORS THAT INFLUENCE BLOOD COMPOSITION | Age; gender; altitude; stress; diet; dehydration; environment; pregnancy; diurnal variation; drugs; exercise; smoking; body position |
| WHAT THINGS ARE TIMED SPECIMENS MOST OFTEN USED TO MONITOR? | To monitor medication levels; changes in a patient’s condition; and normal diurnal variation in blood levels at different times of the day |
| Name the 3 main nerves that supply the forearm and the hand | Radial nerve, median nerve, ulnar nerve |
| In the guidelines for isolation precautions, the C.D.C has stipulated a tier system. What is the first and the second tier? | First tier: Standard precautions Second tier: Transmission based precautions |
| Identify laboratory tests for using the trace free element tube | • Heavy metal toxicity ( lead, arsenic, mercury, zinc, chromium, copper, iron) • Nutritional chemistry determinations |
| LIST THE DISORDER FOR WHICH THERAPEUTIC PHLEBOTOMY IS USED | In the treatment of polycythemia (excessive red cell production) |
| Which one of the white blood cells increase in allergic reactions and parasitic infections? | Eosinophils |
| Give the means of transmission for TB | Airborne |
| An immature red blood cell is called: | Reticulocyte |
| List the veins/ sites that should be avoided when collecting a blood sample from a patient. | Veins on underside of wrist Leg & feet veins Veins in forearm between wrist & antecubital fossa Frequently punctured/thrombosed veins Hematoma sites Oedematous sites Sites on same side as mastectomy Burns, scars & tattoo IV infusions |
| Provide the term used to describe the relationship between the needle diameter and gauge, and give the meaning of the term | Inverse/opposite relationship: The higher the gauge number, the smaller the diameter of the needle |
| Give the means of transmission for Diarrhoea | Contact |
| Describe the correct site for performing a capillary puncture on adults and children over one year old | • Palmer surface • Of the distal/end segment • Of the middle or ring finger • Of the non-dominant hand • On the fleshy pad slightly to the side of centre • Perpendicular to the whorls of the fingerprints |
| Name the plexus from which the main nerves in the arm originate | Brachial plexus |
| Give the means of transmission for Scabies | Contact |
| Your colleague is having difficulty in obtaining blood from a dermal puncture. Identify 5 possible technique errors | •Didn't allow the alcohol to air-dry or made a proper puncture •Didn't warm the site •Didn't wipe away platelets from the edge of wound •Didn't place lancet across whorls of finger print •Didn't release site to allow for sufficient capillary refill |
| The process by which WBC’s are able to slip through the walls of the capillaries to enter the tissues is called: | Diapedesis |
| During primary platelet plug formation the process of platelet adhesion and platelet aggregation is known as: | Initiation |
| The term polycythaemia means: | An excess of RBC in circulation |
| WHAT IS TDM, AND WHY WOULD THIS BE ORDERED? | Therapeutic drug monitoring. It is often used to adjust drug dosing in patients |
| DESCRIBE THE SCREENING PROCESS A POTENTIAL BLOOD DONOR GOES THROUGH | A potential donor must: 1. Register by providing identifying information and written consent; 2. Interview with a trained interviewer and provide a medical history; 3. Submit to a physical exam, which includes haemoglobin testing |
| Identify the standard size of needle used for adult venepuncture | 21G |
| Explain why it is not permissible to draw specimens for coagulation studies by means of a dermal puncture | Puncturing the skin releases tissue thromboplastin which will activate the coagulation cascade and result in erroneous coagulation results |
| WHAT SPECIAL HANDLING PROCEDURE IS NECESSARY FOR COLD AGGLUTIN SAMPLES? | Cold agglutins must be kept warm until the serum is separated from the cells |
| Give the means of transmission for Lice | Contact |
| Describe 5 reasons for having SOP’s in place in the workplace | •Explain in detail how to perform a procedure &who must do it •Enables everyone to carry out procedure correctly &always in same manner •Used to communicate improvements & updates •Important part of quality system •Training & assessing new staff |
| Which of the tolerance tests would be used to screen a patient for hypoglycaemia? | Extended glucose tolerance test |
| LIST 5 TESTS THAT REQUIRE TRANSPORT ON ICE | ABGs, ammonia, lactic acid, pyruvate, glucagon, gastrin, adrenocorticotropic hormone, parathyroid hormone |
| Give the means of transmission for Shingles | Airborne & contact |
| List the components that make up the evacuated tube system | • Multisample needle • Tube/needle holder • Evacuated tube |
| EXPLAIN CHAIN OF CUSTODY | Protocol that ensures a sample is always in custody of a person legally entrusted to be in control of it. It begins with pt ID & includes collection & testing process. Chain of custody incl special containers, seals, & forms, date, time &ID of handler |
| Define the term phlebotomist | Name given to a person who collects blood from veins for diagnostic purposes and blood donation. It also includes instructing the patient in the collection of non-blood specimens |
| Give the means of transmission for Influenza | Droplet |
| DESCRIBE THE IMPORTANT FEATURES OF BLOOD ALCOHOL TESTING | The site must not be cleaned with alcohol; tubes must be filled as full as vacuum allow, to minimize escape of alcohol from the specimen into the space above; the specimen should not be uncapped – compromise the integrity of the sample before testing |
| Explain how the anticoagulant E.D.T.A. works ( at preventing the blood from clotting) | EDTA binds with the calcium in the blood preventing it from participating in the coagulation cascade |
| Give the means of transmission for Measles | Airborne |
| Describe 3 ways you can cause a capillary specimen to haemolyse during collection | • The 70% isopropyl alcohol was not allowed to air-dry • Pricking a haematoma/previously punctured site • Not wiping away the first drop of blood • Excessive squeezing /milking the site |
| WHAT TEST CAN BE AFFECTED BY GLYCOLYSIS? | Glucose, calcitonin, phosphorus, aldosterone, and a number of enzymes |
| What does the endocrine system regulate? | • Metabolism • Growth and development • Reproduction |
| HOW SOON AFTER COLLECTION SHOULD CELLS BE SEPARATED FROM PLASMA OR SERUM? | Within 2 hours |
| The 4 elements of negligence are: | Duty, dereliction, injury, direct cause |
| Which valve prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle? | Aortic semilunar valve |
| List the secretions of the pancreas | • Insulin • Glucagon |
| WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF CHILLING A SPECIMEN? | Chilling a specimen slows down metabolic processes and keeps analytes stable during transport and handling |
| Explain the term “cross match” | •blood testing before transfusion to check if donor blood is compatible with recipient•The pt’s ABO blood group & RhD type is done•Donor’s RBC are mixed with recipient’s serum & recipients blood is mixed with donor’s serum•If no reaction = compatible |
| Window period | From the time of infection/ exposure to the virus until the time you start producing antibodies that can be detected by a test |
| EXPLAIN WHY IT IS IMPORTANT THAT A CENTRIFUGE CARRY A BALANCED LOAD | A centrifuge must carry a balanced load, or the rotor of the centrifuge may spin out of center, which can damage the centrifuge and cause samples to break |
| The muscle that lies closest to the antecubital fossa is | Pronator teres |
| Briefly describe 8 challenges/special considerations of drawing blood from a child | •Small veins, ↓ blood volume, draw less blood •Win parents & child trust •Needs to be restrained •Pain interventions e.g emla •Smaller tubes to ↓ vein collapse •Butterfly needles •Don't leave child alone •Venous vs capillary blood •Assistant |
| NAME THE LIGHT-SENSITIVE ANALYTES AND DESCRIBE HOW TO HANDLE THESE SPECIMENS | Bilirubin – to transport, the specimen must be protected from light (tube wrapped in foil) Other analytes: Vit B12, carotene, folate and porphyrin |
| List the secretions of the parathyroid gland | Parathyroid hormone/PTH |
| The main commitment of the HPCSA is: | To serve and protect the public |
| What tests are routinely performed on every blood donation | • ABO ( forward and reverse grouping) • Rh ( to detect the presence of D antigen) • HIV 1&2 • Titre test • Rough antibody screen • NAT testing • Syphilis • Hep B (HbsAg) & Hep C |
| ONCE A CAP IS REMOVED FROM A BLOOD TUBE, THE pH: | May increase |
| The plastic stopper that surrounds the rubber stopper of vacutainer tubes ( called haemagaurd)main purpose is to: | Prevent aerosols upon stopper removal |
| WHAT COMPARES PREVIOUS PATIENT DATA WITH CURRENT DATA? | Delta check |
| Name the secretion of the thyroid gland | • Calcitonin • Triiodothyronine (T3) • Thyroxine (T4) |
| The Board that controls the work of a phlebotomy technician is: | The Professional Board of Medical Technology |
| Failure to keep medical information private is: | Breach in confidentiality |
| Most gas exchange between blood and tissue takes place in the: | Capillaries |
| List the tubes in which EDTA may be found | • Lavender / purple top tubes • Micro collection tubes with lavender tops • Pink top tubes ( used for blood bank collections) • Royal blue top tubes • White/pearl top tubes ( with thixotropic gel) |
| Give the means of transmission for Measles | Airborne |
| List 6 possible causes of haematoma formation. | •Inadequate pressure to site •Bending arm while applying pressure •Inadvertent arterial puncture•Not releasingtourniquet before removing needle•Vein too small/fragile for size of needle•needle through vein•Needle partially into vein•Excessive probing |
| Discuss the basic protocol to follow in the incident of a needle stick injury | •Perform first aid- wash area with water & soap •Report incident to safety rep •Start post exposure prophylaxis •Test source pt for HIV, hep B, Hep C & syphilis •Have your blood tested for HIV, hepB, hepC, & syphilis •Complete incident form |
| Explain six modes/routes of transmission of HIV | •Unprotected sex - HIV+ •Sharing HIV+ needles •MTCT during pregnancy if mother HIV+, during childbirth & through breast milk•blood transfusions with HIV+•Occupational exposures e.g needle stick injury=HIV+ needle•Traditional ceremonies e.g circumcision |
| Define the term Pre-analytical variables | • Occurring before a specimen is tested • A factor that can be recognised / measured and affect the outcome of a test result |
| Discuss the steps you would take in preparing a venepuncture site prior to the collection of a routine blood specimen | •Wash hands, wear gloves •Use swabs with 70% isopropyl alcohol •Clean skin with moistened swab in circular motion from inside out •Allow skin to air-dry •Check that swab is visibly clean •Don't touch clean site unless wearing sterile gloves |
| Give the means of transmission for Chicken pox | Airborne and contact |
| How would you clean a small blood spill that has dried on a countertop: | Moisten surface with appropriate disinfectant, and absorb it with a paper towel. Discard in biohazard waste container |
| Give the means of transmission for Impetigo | contact |
| Distance, time and shielding are principles of: | Radiation safety |
| Which adverse reactions can be avoided when collecting blood from a patient | Allergies Fainting Haematomas Iatrogenic anaemia Inadvertent arterial puncture Infection Nerve injury Reflux of additive Pain Vein damage |
| Give the means of transmission for Abscess | contact |
| The HIV (ELISA) test: | Detects HIV antibodies in the blood |
| Explain the positioning of a patient with rationale prior to performing a capillary puncture on a heel | Position the infant lying face up with the foot lower than the torso/heart so gravity can assist blood flow |
| On which patients is capillary puncture not appropriate? | • Dehydrated patients • Patients who are shocked ( due to peripheral shut down) • Patients who have poor circulation to the extremities |
| Briefly explain the meaning of isolation | Is where the patient with transmissible infections are separated from other patients, and their contact with hospital personnel and visitors is limited in order to minimize the spread of infection |
| Name the test that needs to be performed prior to performing an arterial blood gas | Modified Allen’s test |
| The process by which the body produces detectable antibodies is: | Seroconversion |
| Explain why some patients are placed in reverse/protective isolation | to protect them from health care workers and others they are highly susceptible to infections |
| Name the specimen that is obtained through the process of iontophoresis | Sweat |
| Seroconversion | • Is a process whereby people develop detectable antibodies. • They are said to have seroconverted from an HIV negative to HIV positive |
| Viral load is: | The amount of virus multiplying in your blood |
| Name the three types of transmission based precautions | • Airborne precautions • Droplet precautions • Contact precautions |
| Buffy coat | • The layer of WBC and platelets that forms between RBC and plasma • When anti-coagulated blood settles or is centrifuged |
| Briefly explain the purpose of performing the Modified Allen test | Assess collateral circulation prior to arterial puncture |
| How should the patient wrist be positioned for the Modified Allen test | Extended over a rolled towel |
| Blood collection for platelets should not exceed: | 12 minutes |
| What is considered to be the ethical corner stone of professional behaviour in the health care field? | Confidentiality |
| Define the term “standard of care” | • Is the normal level of skill and care • That a health care practitioner at a specific level of training/qualification • Would be expected to adhere to • In order to provide due care for his/her patient |
| Give the correct term for failure to deliver due care to a patient | Negligence |
| A person who has B antigen on their red blood cell can donate to: | Blood group B or blood group AB |
| Titre | Strength of naturally occurring antibodies |
| Define Confidentiality | • Medical confidentiality is both an ethical and legal duty • That the health care provider will keep secret all information relating to a patient that has been obtained either directly or indirectly during their duties with that patient |
| Identify the only site that may be used by phlebotomy technicians for obtaining an arterial blood gas | Radial artery |
| Transfusion reaction | Incompatible blood resulting in agglutination and lysis of red blood cells |
| Which artery is been assessed during the Modified Allen test | Ulnar artery |
| In order to prevent the risk of Creutzfeldt Jacob disease, the donor may not have received: | Pituitary growth hormone and Dura mata |
| Explain the term vicarious liability | Means that healthcare establishments are liable for unlawful acts of persons employed by them during the course of their duties and scope of practice |
| Name the most commonly used multipurpose fire extinguisher | Class ABC extinguisher |
| Haemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when: | When an Rh negative female and Rh positive male have a second child |
| Explain the outcome if the Modified Allen test is positive | • The hand flushes pink/ normal colour • within 5 seconds |
| Explain the guidelines for good practice ( as stipulated by HPCSA) with regard to Signing of official documents | • the practitioner must sign their initials • and surname • in block letters • next to the signature |
| What is contained in the Class ABC extinguisher? | Dry chemical |
| The anticoagulant found in blood packs is: | Acid phosphate dextrose / Citrate phosphate dextrose |
| If a patient for a 2hour GTT (4 specimens) is given the glucose at 08.10, what time will the last specimen be drawn? | 10h15 |
| A glycaed haemoglobin ( HBA1C) may be best described as: | The amount of glucose attached to the red blood cells |
| Products obtained from components by chemical means are called: | Fractions |
| Explain the guidelines for good practice ( as stipulated by HPCSA) with regard to Reporting of impairment or unprofessional, illegal or unethical conduct | •A practitioner shall report another practitioner to the Board if he is convinced that such practitioner is impaired. •Report his/her own impairment •Report any unprofessional, illegal or unethical conduct of another student or qualified practitioner |
| Which class (and which material) may Class ABC extinguisher be used on? | • Class A – ( combustabiles) • Class B- ( flammable liquids) • Class C – ( electrical equip) |
| Pilocarpine is used to aid in the diagnosis of: | Cystic fibrosis |
| The term aliquot is best described as: | The portion of specimen used for testing |
| Discuss 4 ways to minimise iatrogenic blood loss | •Co-ordinate with physicians to minimise number of blood draws per patient•Collect the minimum required blood volumes •Follow facility quality assurance protocols to reduce the incidence of re-draws •Do not draw blood donors more than every 56 days |
| A urine sensitivity test: | Exposes antibiotic susceptibility |
| When collecting spinal fluid for testing, the puncture is performed in the lower lumbar region because: | Its below the spinal cord, To avoid spinal cord injury |
| List 4 criteria that are critical as quality control measures for any point of care testing program | • Calibrate equipment • Run controls • Regular maintenance • Accurate record keeping |
| What is a control? | A manufactured substance that resembles blood, contains a known amount of analyte and used to test an instruments performance |
| The minimum requirements for a TB labatory as specified by the WHO policy is | *Adequate ventilation *Lab must be separated from other areas *Correct use of PPE *Bench for smear puposes must be spearate from other lab areas *Work under lamina flow hood |
| Which of the WBC’s produce antibodies? | Lymphocytes |
| Explain the steps to follow if the Modified Allen test is negative | • The radial artery should not be used • Record findings on requisition form • Assess for another site/ ask for assistance from more senior staff member. |
| List the advantages of drawing arterial blood from the radial artery | •Presence of good collateral circulation •Easy to palpate - superficial•Less haematoma formation - can be easily compressed over ligaments & bones of wrist •Less risk of pricking a vein or nerve - no major veins/nerves near radial artery |
| H.P.C.S.A | Health Professions Council of South Africa |
| S.M.L.T.S.A | Society of Medical Technologists Of South Africa |
| Explain how a phlebotomist is deemed to have been negligent | •fail to perform duties effectively & results in injury/harm to pt •harm may have been caused intentionally/unintentionally •Negligence is decided after consultation with an expert in same field •If phleb hasn't met the standards of practice=negligent |
| A substance that triggers an immune response is an: | Antigen |
| A heart disorder characterized by fluid build-up in the lungs is called: | congestive heart failure |
| When a blood culture is requested, which type of medication is it very important to document? Explain you answer | • Antibiotics • The presence of antimicrobial agents in the blood can inhibit the growth of the micro-organisms in the blood culture bottle • A special culture medium (containing polymeric beads) needs to be used |
| Name four things you should check on a blood culture bottle before you use it. | • Broth/ liquid in bottles must be clear and not turbid/cloudy • Rubber membrane not bulging • Expiry date • Undamaged barcode • Sensor on base of bottles has not changed colour ( from grey to tan/yellow) |
| Define the term acidosis | • Life threatening condition • Where the Ph of the blood is abnormally low |
| What is the primary function of the red blood cell? | To carry oxygen to all parts of the body |
| The medical term for the disorder characterised by irregular shaped red blood cell is called | poikilocytosis |
| Explain what occurs when there are air bubbles in a blood gas sample | • Atmospheric oxygen enters the sample from the air bubble • This results in falsely elevated P02 • Carbon dioxide leaves the sample and enters the air bubble • Resulting in falsely decreased PC02 |
| If an EDTA tube is under filled, what will the test results show | • Red blood cells will shrink • This will result in abnormally low blood cell counts and haematocrits • Will negatively affect the morphological examination on a blood smear • It can also alter the staining characteristics of the cells on a blood smear |
| Explain the process of haemoconcentration | Tourniquet left on for longer than one min causes localised venostasis in response- some plasma & filterable components of blood pass through capillary & and into tissues. The larger non filterable components increase in concentration |
| List the causes of haemoconcentration | • Tourniquet on for longer than one minute • Massaging the site • Vigorous hand pumping • Drawing blood from sclerosed or occluded veins • Probing for a vein • Long term IV therapy |
| Explain the concept of “3way” patient identification | • The patient gives a verbal statement of their full name • Checking the details on the patient’s ID bracelet ( which must be legible and on the patient) • A visual comparison of the labelled specimen with the patient’s ID band and request form. |
| What IS THE RULE regarding patient identification discrepancies? | • Do not proceed with specimen collection • Until the discrepancy has been resolved |
| Give 3 indications why a sputum specimen may be requested | • Bacterial or viral infection • To assist the diagnosis of TB • For cytology |
| Define haemoconcentration | Pressure builds up in blood vessels due to temporary haemostasis, plasma, & small filterable compounds escape the high-pressure environment & move into tissue. compounds that are too large to pass through capillary walls remain behind = elevated values |
| What immediate effect does the tourniquet have following its application to the arm prior to venepuncture? | • It compresses the vein and restricts venous blood flow • Distends the veins ,making them easier to locate |
| Why should a tourniquet be fastened in such a way to allow for a one handed quick release? | • In case of an emergency if a patient wants to faint • Or if the needle accidently backs out of the vein during venepuncture |
| Identify the most common nosocomial infection transmitted by multiuse tourniquets | Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) |
| Identify the additives in the orange top tube | • Thrombin based clot activator • thixotropic gel |
| Give 2 other indications for ABG besides for the management and diagnosis of lung disease. | • acid base balance • electrolyte balance • metabolic diseases such as diabetes |
| What is the preferred method/manner of collection for an ABG sample that ensures specimen integrity and accurate results | • anaerobic manner |
| pH | Potential hydrogen: Measure of acidity or alkalinity of the blood |
| PaO2 | Partial pressure of oxygen: How much oxygen is dissolved in the blood |
| PaCO2 | Partial pressure of CO2: How much Co2 is dissolved in the blood |
| HCO3 | Bicarbonate: Evaluates the bicarbonate buffer system of the kidneys |
| Give 3 rejection criteria for specimens collected for blood bank testing ( eg pink tube) | • Not labeled to specific lab protocol • Haemolysed samples • contain IV fluid • Collected longer than 72hrs. |
| Explain the difference between a component and a fraction. | • components are obtained from processing whole blood • by physical means ( centrifugation) • Fraction are obtained from components • by chemical means |
| What must be verified prior to the insertion of a needle into the radial artery? | collateral circulation |
| Give 3 benefits/ advantages for using needles smaller than 22G when performing an arterial blood gas | • lessen pain • reduce risk of arteriospasm • reduce risk of haematoma |
| Identify the additive used in the donor units | citrate phosphate dextrose |
| Explain why saline adenine glucose mannitol ( SAGM) would be added to red cell concentrates | SAGM increases the expiry from 35-42 days |
| Explain the terms “universal donor” and “universal recipient” | •group O blood are universal donors •They dont have A or B antigens on RBC to react with antibodies in the circulation of the recipient •Group AB are universal recipients •They have A & B antigens on RBC, and lack ABO antibodies in their plasma |
| Give the storage requirements and the expiry for donated platelets | • stored at 20-24 degrees C • need to be agitated • 5 days |
| Explain the term cell salvage | • is a form of autologous blood donation • recovers blood lost during surgery • Is re-infused back to the patient |
| Identify 2 indications for the transfusion of platelets | • bone marrow failure ( leukaemia or aplastic anaemia) • massive transfusion ( with thrombocytopaenia) • DIC • platelet dysfunction |
| How many donors blood is used to make pooled random donor platelets? | • 6 donors ( buffy layer of 5 donor whole blood donations suspended in one donors plasma=300ml) |
Created by:
cisca