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ATI SYSTEM test prep

QuestionAnswer
1) What is the maximum take off and landing altitude? 8,400 ft.
2) When will the RETURN TO SEAT sign illuminate when RTS selector is in the AUTO position? Whit the flaps extended
3)what exit should the crewmember take when using the descent device (inertial reels) on the special freighter aircraft? L1 door
4) if a lightbulb is burned out in an alternate action switch light, what action should the crew take? Call maintenance for relamping.
5) how is the cockpit side window opened from inside? By pulling the window lock lever aft and cranking the window open.
6) how does the crew know that a new status message has been issued by the EICAS computer? The word STATUS appear on the lower EICAS display.
7) What condition will give a landing configuration warning? Gear not down and landing flaps are selected.
8) What indication would be present if not reverse airflow is detected in the equipment cooling system, after the pilot selects OVRD on the equipment cooling panel? NO COOLING light would be illuminated.
9) How long is the OVHT light inhibited after selecting the STBY position on the equipment cooling panel? 5 minutes
10) After an air conditioning pack overheat occur, how is the pack reset? By pushing the pack reset switch after allowing the pack to cool.
11) What does the pack (PACK OFF) light indicate when illuminated? Pack valve is closed.
12) What is the pressurization system maximum normal operating differential pressure? 8.6 psi.
13) During cruise flight, how many feet must the aircraft climb before the cabin altitude begins to climb? 500 ft.
14) What happens when an APU fault occurs (FAULT light illuminates) with the APU running? The APU automatically shut down immediately with no cool down cycle.
15) On the ground if the aircraft battery switch is turned off prior to APU shut down, how will the APU be affected? The APU will shut down after a normal cool down cycle if pneumatics were in use.
16) What symbol generator will be selected by the captain when his EFI switch to ALTN? Center.
17) The map flag has appeared on the FO's HSI. How can the map display be restored? FO selects alternate FMC switch.
18) what is your indication that VNAV has been engaged? Green VNAV on the ADI's.
19) What does an illuminated mode select switch on the MCP indicates? The selected mode has been requested.
20) Below what altitude is the NO LAND 3 annunciation inhibited? 200 ft.
21) If GA is engaged and aircraft altitude is above 400 feet, what occurs when another pitch or roll mode is selected? All autopilots (except the first in CMD) will disengage.
22) How many flight control computers must be operative to engage a single autopilot? 2.
23) what is required to disengage the APP mode after LOC and GS capture? Disengage all autopilots and turn off both flight directors, or engage GA.
24) how is the auto throttle normally disengaged after an automatic landing? By selecting reverse thrust.
25) A white LNAV annunciation on the ADI indicates? LNAV is armed.
26) With LNAV armed, which of the following modes may be used to turn the aircraft to intercept the active route with an autopilot in CMD? HDG SEL.
27) How does the flight crew call the ground crew? By pushing the the GND CALL switch on the PILOT'S CALL PANEL on the overhead panel.
28) when the VS (vertical speed) Mode is selected on the MCP panel, the airspeed will be limited by the FMC to no more then Vmo/Mmo. False.
29) what is accomplished by selecting the AC Bus Tie switches to AUTO? It engages the automatic control of the AC and DC bus tie system.
30) What causes the Standby Power Bus (OFF) light to illuminate? A loss of power on the standby AC bus and/or standby DC bus.
31) What positions should the bus tie switch(es) be placed to in order to enable the DC bus tie relay to automatically close with a power loss on either Left or Right Main DC bus? Both AC bus ties switches must be in auto
32) when the ground service bus be powered? On the ground or in flight from the right main AC bus.
33) what is required to enable the Captain's flight instrument transfer bus to transfer with the loss of left main AC bus. The left AC bus tie switch must be in AUTO.
34) What does the yellow cross on the oxigen? Oxigen is flowing to the mask/regulator.
35) What happens when a single fault is dected in an engine fire detection loop? The system automatically reconfigure itself for single loop operation.
36) what should you do if engine fire switch cannot be pulled out during an engine fire ? Push the respective override switch and pull the engine fire switch. LLP
37) How may the fire warning bell be silenced? Push the Master Warning/Caution Reset Switch.
38) If an APU fire occur, when will the APU Fire Warning Light extinguish? When the APU fire is extinguished.
39) When will the fire bell and master warning light be inhibited? During takeoff, from rotation to 400 feet or 20 seconds later, whichever is reached first.
40) what effect will placing both Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switches to the CUTOUT position have on stabilizer trim? Stabilizer trim is inoperative.
41) If pover is lost on the left main AC bus, which autopilot (s) can be engaged? No Autopilots can be engaged.
42) When do the inboard aileron droop? When the flaps are extended beyond the Flap 5 position.
43) which of the following is true when the (AUTO SPDBRK) light is illuminated? Speed brakes can still be operated manually.
44) Wich flap drive system (s) have asymmetry protection? Normal (hydraulic) flap drive system only.
45) What will cause an (UNSCHED STAB TRIM) Uncomanded stabilizer movement.
46) how are the flaps operated after loss of center hydraulic system pressure? The alternate flap system operates the flaps electric motors.
47) What FO flight instrument indication are connected to right side data source selector switches in their normal position? Flight instrument, except the RDML
48) How do the primary altimeter operate? Electrically, receiving altitude signal from the Air Data Computer.
49) Which Instrument Source Selector switch should be selected to ALTN if both the ADI and HSI lose their display? The EFI switch.
50) In which HSI mode (s) can radar returns be displayed? Map, EXP VOR, and EXP ILS.
51) When will the ADI attitude display appear during the cockpit preflight? As soon as the associated IRS enters the NAV mode.
52) When is the radio altitude displayed on the ADI? When the aircraft is at or below 2500 ft. AGL.
53) The FAST/SLOW indicator indicates deviation from what speed? The speed indicated by the Command Airspeed Bug.
54) Which HSI mode (s) can display the active route, airports, and weather returns? Map
55) what do the PLI's (Pitch Limit Indicators) represent? The pitch attitude at which stick shaker occurs with the flaps/slats extended.
56) The IRS present position is continuously updated in flight by the FMC's , using VOR/DME information False.
57) what type (s) of power can be used to power the IRU's? Both AC and DC power.
58) What message will be displayed on the TAKE OFF REF page if preflight required information has not been entered? All prompts requiring preflight entries.
59) What must be set in the ILS control panel to remove the glideslope and localizer deviation scale from view? All dashes (------).
60) What command should the FMC be sending to the AFDS and auto-throttle when the aircraft symbol reaches the point labeled T/D (top of descent) on the HSI? Descent command.
61) Where can you find the fuel burn for the engines since engine start? On the FMC Progress Page 2 of 2.
62) If AC power is lost on N741AX in flight, what affect will this have on the IRS's? After 5 minutes, the left and center IRs's shut down.
63) When are changes to the ILS frequency inhibited? When three autopilots are in CMD and either the localizer or glideslope are captured.
64) What indications would occur if the aircraft is moved during a normal alignment when any ALIGN light is illuminated? The ALIGN light will begin flashing.
65) How long is a FMC NAV database valid? 28 days.
66) How is the lowest altitude constraint displayed on the HSI MAP? E/D (end of descent)
67) What will cause the DRAG REQUIRED message to be displayed on the CDU? Airspeed is above the FMC target descent speed.
68) What will cause the INSUFFICIENT FUEL message to be displayed in the CDU? Less than RESERVE fuel will remain at the destination airport
69) At what airspeed during take off with the AT mode change to THR HOLD? AT 80 KNOTS.
70) When will the page title change from ACT to MOD? The original database has been modified but not executed.
71) To activate a route during preflight, the ACTIVATE prompt must be selected on the RTE or LEGS page and: The EXEC key pushed.
72) which of the following conditions will cause the " FUEL CONFIG" message to be displayed? When less than 2200 lbs. of fuel remain in either main fuel tank.
73) When will the left forward AC fuel boost pump operate automatically, regardless of switch position? On the ground, when the APU is running and AC power is available.
74) How is total fuel quantity calculated for the overhead panel indicator? It is a separate calculation performed by the fuel quantity processor.
75) What type of demand hydraulic pump power the center hydraulic system? Air Driven
76) With the left hydraulic demand pump selector in AUTO, when will the left demand pump operate? When the engine driven primary pump output pressure is low.
77) When does the Ram Air Turbine deploy automatically? In flight, when both engines' N2 RPM drop to 50% or less.
78) With no malfunctions in the system , what will the wing anti ice valves do when the aircraft lands with wing anti ice turned on? The valves will close automatically upon touchdown.
79) When does the probe heat begin to operate? When the first engine started is above 50% N2.
80) Which hydraulic system is used to operate the landing gear and the nose wheel steering? Center
81) Which of the following provide the greatest deceleration rate when using autobreakes? RTO
82) When does the landing gear lever lock prevent movement of the landing gear lever to the up position? When the main gear is untilted.
83) Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the alternate brake system? Center.
84) What is the maximum alternate gear extension airspeed? 250 knots/.75 Mach.
85) What indicates a bleed air leak in the center pneumatic duct? (DUCT LEAK) light illuminated.
86) What does the (BLEED) light indicate? The high pressure bleed valve is not in the commanded position.
87) What does the (HI STAGE) light indicate? Bleed air is too hot for the system to deal with.
88) if N2 exceed the red line limit in flight, how may the maximum exceedance be erased? When the MAX IND RESET switch is pushed.
89) What is the position of the thrust reversers if the REV annunciations are green? Fully deployed.
90) What happens when an engine control switch is placed to the CUTOFF position? The engine fuel valve and spar valve both close.
91) What is indicated by a STARTER CUTOUT message on EICAS, an illuminated (VALVE) light on the overhead panel, with the N2 RPM above 50%? The start valve is open.
92) When will the in-flight start envelope be displayed? When an engine is shut down in flight and the secondary engine display is in view on the lower EICAS screen (full-up display).
93) When is the engine secondary display required to be in view? Take off only.
94) Out of the selection below, when will standby engine indications be displayed on the Standby Engine Indicator (SEI) with the SEI selector in AUTO? When both EICAS CRT's fail.
95) With the ignition Selector in the No. 1 position, which igniter (s) will operate on each engine with the Engine Start Selector in FLT? Both igniters will operate.
96) Which of the following is indicated by a siren? Cabin altitude warning.
97) With EICAS message page 1 displayed, what action is required to display the second page on EICAS warning, caution and advisory messaged? Push the Cancel switch.
98) What EICAS display changes will occur if the upper EICAS CRT fail? The Primary engine indications appear on the lower EICAS CRT.
99) Whit the EICAS computer selector in AUTO, what will happen if the left EICAS CRT fail? The right computer will take over the EICAS displays automatically.
100) If the EEC fails, what must be accomplished to prevent an over-boost condition within the engine before turning off the EEC switch? Retard the thrust levers to the mid position.
when the center fuel pumps are selected on, are they coming on all the time? No, only when engine N2 is at 50% or higher
how much fuel needs to be in the center tank with the center tank fuel pumps off to show an EICAS FUEL CONFIG message at least 500lb.
when do you get EICAS MIN FUEL
when one of the main thanks ils indicating below 1000lb.
Created by: Gbaron
 

 



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