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EMT Module #1
EMT Module #1 (Chapters 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 & 8)
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT) | The level of EMS practitioner who performs the responsibilities of an EMT with the addition of the use of advanced airway devices, monitoring of blood glucose levels, initiation of intravenous and IO infusions, and admin of a number of medications |
| Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) | A federal law passed in 1990 that protects individuals with a documented disability from being denied initial or continued employment based on their disability |
| Emergency Medical Responder (EMR) | The level of EMS practitioner who is likely to be the first person on the scene with emergency care training |
| Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) | The level of EMS practitioner who provides basic emergency medical care and transportation to patients who access the EMS system including oxygen, vitals signs monitoring, etc. |
| EMS system | Emergency Medical Services system |
| Evidence-based medicine | Medical practice based on scientific evidence that certain procedures, medications, and equipment improve patient outcome. |
| Medical direction | Medical policies, procedures, and practices that are available to EMS providers either off-line or on-line. |
| Medical director | Physician who is legally responsible for the clinical and patient care aspects of an EMS system. |
| Medical oversight | The medical director’s broad responsibilities, including all clinical and administrative functions and activities necessary to exercise ultimate responsibility for the emergency care provided by individual personnel and the entire EMS system. |
| Off-line medical direction | Medical policies, procedures, and practices that medical direction has established in written guidelines |
| On-line medical direction | Direct orders from a physician to a prehospital care provider given by radio or telephone |
| Paramedic | The level of EMS practitioner who provides the highest level of prehospital care, including advanced assessments and care, formation of a field impression, and invasive and drug interventions |
| Prehospital care | Emergency medical treatment given to patients before they are transported to a hospital or other facility. Also called out-of-hospital care |
| Protocols | The policies and procedures for all components of an EMS system. Also called standing orders |
| Quality improvement (QI) | A system of internal and external reviews and audits of an EMS system to ensure a high quality of care. Also known as continuous quality improvement (CQI) |
| Standing orders | Preauthorized treatment procedures |
| Burnout | A condition resulting from chronic job stress, characterized by a state of irritability and fatigue that can markedly decrease effectiveness |
| Critical incident | Any situation that causes unusually strong emotions that interfere with the ability to function |
| Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) | A session usually held within 24 to 72 hours of a critical incident, where a team of peer counselors and mental health professionals help emergency service personnel work through emotions that normally follow a critical incident |
| Defusing | A session held prior to a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) for emergency service personnel most directly involved to provide an opportunity to vent emotions and get information before the CISD |
| Disinfecting | In addition to cleaning, this process involves using a disinfectant such as alcohol or bleach to kill many of the microorganisms that may be present on the surface of an object |
| Pathogens | Microorganisms such as bacteria and viruses that cause disease |
| Personal protective equipment (PPE) | Equipment worn to protect against injury and disease |
| Purified protein derivative (PPD) tuberculin test (Also known as the Mantoux test) | A test to determine the presence of a tuberculosis infection based on a person’s positive reaction to tuberculin, a substance prepared from the tubercle bacillus |
| Standard Precautions | A method of preventing infection by disease organisms based on the premise that all blood and body fluids are infectious. Formerly called body substance isolation |
| Sterilization | The process by which an object is subject to certain chemical or physical substances (typically, superheated steam in an autoclave) that kill all microorganisms on the surface of an object |
| Abandonment | The act of discontinuing emergency care without ensuring that another health care professional with equivalent or better training will take over. You must transfer care to a health care professional upon arrival at the ER |
| Advance directive | Instructions, written in advance, such as a do not resuscitate (DNR) order, a living will, or a durable power of attorney. |
| Assault | A willful threat to inflict harm on a person |
| Battery | The act of touching a person unlawfully without his/her consent |
| Consent | Permission that must be obtained before care is rendered |
| Defamation | An intentional false communication that injures another person’s reputation or good name |
| Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) order | A legal document, usually signed by the patient and his physician, that indicates to medical personnel which, if any, life-sustaining measures should be taken when the patient’s heart and respiratory functions have ceased |
| Durable power of attorney | A legal document that designates a person who is legally empowered to make health care decisions for the signer of the document if he is unable to do it himself. Also called a health care proxy |
| Duty to act | The obligation to care for a patient who requires it |
| Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) | A federal regulation that ensures the public’s access to emergency health care regardless of ability to pay, forbidding turning a patient away at the door or sending him to a public hospital because of inability to pay |
| Expressed consent | Permission that must be obtained from every conscious, mentally competent adult before emergency treatment may be provided |
| False imprisonment | The intentional and unjustifiable detention of a person without his/her consent or other legal authority |
| Good Samaritan law | A law that provides immunity from liability for acts performed in good faith to assist at the scene of a medical emergency unless those acts constitute gross negligence |
| Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) | A federal law enacted in 1996 that protects the privacy of patient health care information and gives the patient control over how the information is distributed and used |
| Implied consent | The assumption that, in a true emergency where a patient who is unresponsive or unable to make a rational decision is at significant risk of death, disability, or deterioration of condition, that patient would agree to emergency treatment |
| Informed consent | Consent for treatment that is given by a competent patient based on full disclosure of possible risks and consequences |
| Involuntary consent | Consent that is assumed when the patient is either mentally incompetent or legally not permitted to make his own medical decisions |
| Libel | The act of injuring a person’s reputation or good name in writing or through the mass media with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements |
| Living will | A legal document that delineates the signer’s wishes about general health care issues such as the use of long-term life support measures |
| Minor consent | Permission obtained from a parent or legal guardian for emergency treatment of a minor or a mentally incompetent adult |
| Negligence | The act of deviating from an accepted standard of care through carelessness, inattention, disregard, inadvertence, or oversight, which results in further injury to the patient |
| Physician orders for life-sustaining treatment (POLST) | Orders that identify the desired level of life-sustaining treatment in patients with a terminal or life-threatening illness who are not likely to survive |
| Proximate cause | The act of deviating from an accepted standard of care through carelessness, inattention, disregard, inadvertence, or oversight, which results in further injury to the patient |
| Scope of practice | The actions and care that an EMT is legally allowed to perform, as typically defined by state laws |
| Slander | The act of injuring a person’s reputation or good name through spoken statements with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements |
| Standard of care | Emergency care that would be expected to be given to a patient by any trained EMT under similar circumstances |
| Tort | A wrongful act, injury, or damage. See also intentional tort |
| Anatomy | The study of the structure of the body and the relationship of its parts to each other |
| Circulatory system | System composed of the heart and blood vessels that brings oxygen and nutrients to and takes wastes away from body cells. Also called the cardiovascular system |
| Digestive system | The structures and organs that ingest and carry food so that absorption and waste elimination can occur |
| Endocrine system | A system of ductless glands that produce hormones that regulate body functions |
| Integumentary system | The skin - The largest organ in the body |
| Musculoskeletal system | The system of bones and muscle plus connective tissue that provides support and protection to the body and permits motion |
| Nervous system | The body system including the brain, spinal cord, and nerves that controls the voluntary and involuntary activity of the human body |
| Physiology | The study of the function of the living body and its parts |
| Reproductive system | The male or female organs that function to accomplish human reproduction, the creation of offspring. |
| Respiratory system | The organs involved in the exchange of gases between an organism and the atmosphere |
| Urinary system | The organs and structures responsible for filtering and excreting wastes from the blood. Also called the renal system |
| Ventral | Belly side of the body |
| Proximal | Closer to the point of attachment |
| Deep | Farther from the skin surface |
| Distal | Further from the point of attachment |
| Anterior | Front of the human body |
| Dorsal | Spinal side of the human body (think Dorsal Fin) |
| Posterior | Back of the human body |
| Palmar | Front surface of the hand |
| Superficial | Closer to/on the skin |
| Plantar | Bottom surface of the foot |
| Inferior | Closer to the feet |
| Apex (apical) | Tip of a structure |
| Lateral | Further from the body's midline |
| Medial | Closer to the body's midline |
| What are the four levels of EMS certification available from NREMT? | Emergency Medical Responder (EMR), Emergency Medical Technician (EMT), Advanced EMT (AEMT), and Paramedic |
| What are the three EMS Delivery Models? | Fire Based, Third-Service (Private), and Hospital Based |
| When someone calls 911, their call is transferred to a dispatch center, also known as a: | Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) |
| What are the two different types of Medical Direction? | On-Line and Off-Line |
| What is an example of On-Line Medical Direction? | Directly talking to an Emergency Physician via a phone or a radio |
| What is an example of Off-Line Medical Direction? | Standing orders or medical protocols that have already been approved by the medical director |
| What is always your primary concern on any EMS or Fire call? | Your personal safety |
| What is Rule 1? | DO NO HARM! |
| What are Ethics? | Ethics refers to rules provided by an external source (codes of conduct, religion, etc..) |
| What are Morals? | Morals refers to an individual's own principles regarding right and wrong |
| What organization defines the EMS Scope of Practice? | National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) |
| What are the different types of consent? | Expressed, Informed, Implied, Involuntary, and Emancipated Minor |
| Does a patient have the right to refuse care even if it will result in death? | Yes, as long as the patient is mentally competent |
| What is negligence? | It is an act or omission (failure to act) by a medical professional that deviates from the accepted medical standard of care |
| What are the four elements to determine negligence? | Duty to Act, Breach of Duty, Damages and Causation |
| Define the Anatomical Position: | The patient is standing upright, directly facing you, with their feet flat on the ground and directed forward. The upper limbs are at the sides of the body with the palms facing forward. |
| What is the Frontal (Coronal) Plane? | It is an anatomical plane that divides the human body in a front and back portions. |
| What is the Transverse Plane? | It is an anatomical plane that divides the human body in a top and bottom portions. |
| What is the Sagittal Plane? | It is an anatomical plane that divides the human body in left and right portions. |
| What does "Anterior" mean? | It is a directional term that means the front of the body - it is also known as Ventral |
| What does "Posterior" mean? | It is a directional term that means the back of the body - it is also known as Dorsal |
| What does "Superior" mean? | It is a directional term that means towards the patient's head |
| What does "Inferior" mean? | It is a directional term that means toward the patient's feet |
| What does "Abduction" mean? | It refers to motion away from the midline of the body |
| What does "Adduction" mean? | It refers to motion towards the midline of the body |
| What does "Extension" mean? | It refers to the straightening of a joint |
| What does "Flexion" mean? | It refers to the bending of a joint |
| The abdomen is broken down into how many quadrants? | Four, Left Upper, Left Lower, Right Upper and Right Lower |
| A patient lying face down is said to be in the: | Prone Position |
| A patient lying face up is said to be in the: | Supine Position |
| A patient sitting in a 45-60 degree with their knees bent is said to be in the: | Fowler's Position |
| A patient lying on their left side is said to be in the: | Recovery Position (Also known as the left lateral recumbent position) |
| What does the root word "Cardi" mean? | Heart |
| What does the root word "Hepat" mean? | Liver |
| What does the root word "Nephr" mean? | Kidney |
| What does the root word "Neur" mean? | Nerve |
| What does the root word "Psych" mean? | Mental status/behavior |
| What does the root word "Thorac" mean? | Chest |
| What does the root word "Pulmon" mean? | Lungs |
| What does the root word "Cerebr" mean? | Brain |
| What does the root word "Cephal" mean? | Head |
| What does the prefix "a" mean? | Without |
| What does the prefix "ab" mean? | Away from |
| What does the prefix "ad" mean? | To, toward |
| What does the prefix "Brady" mean? | Slow |
| What does the prefix "Dys" mean? | Difficult, painful, abnormal |
| What does the prefix "Hyper" mean? | Over, excessive, high |
| What does the prefix "Hypo" mean? | Under, below normal |
| What does the prefix "Para" mean? | Near, beside, beyond, apart from |
| What does the prefix "Tachy" mean? | Fast |
| What does the suffix "Al" mean? | Pertaining to |
| What does the suffix "Algia" mean? | Pertaining to pain |
| What does the suffix "Ectomy" mean? | Surgical removal |
| What does the suffix "Itis" mean? | Inflammation |
| What does the suffix "Logy" mean? | Study of |
| What does the suffix "Logist" mean? | Specialist |
| What does the suffix "Megaly" mean? | Enlargement |
| What does the suffix "Oma" mean? | Tumor (usually referring to cancer) |
| What does the suffix "Pathy" mean? | Disease |
| What is associated with the axial skeletal system? | The skull/facial bones, the vertebral column (spine), and the thoracic cage (rib cage) |
| What is associated with the appendicular skeletal system? | The arms (and hands), legs (and feet), connection points for the arms and legs, and the pelvis |
| The skull is made up of what four bones? | The Occiput, Temple, Parietal and Frontal bones |
| What is the name of the hole at the base of the skull in which the spinal cord emerges from? | The foramen magnum |
| What is the name of the bone found in the upper jaw? | Maxilla |
| What is the name of the bone found in the lower jaw? | Mandible |
| How many bones (vertebrae) make up the spinal column? | 33 |
| How many vertebrae are in the cervical spine? | 7 |
| How many vertebrae are in the thoracic spine? | 12 |
| How many vertebrae are in the lumbar spine? | 5 |
| How many vertebrae are in the sacral spine? | 5 |
| How many vertebrae are in the coccygeal spine? | 4 |
| The bone found in the midline anterior chest to which the ribs attach to is called the? | Sternum |
| What are the three parts of the sternum? | The manubrium (superior part), body (middle & biggest part), and the xiphoid process (most inferior part of the sternum) |
| What are the two types of basic joints in the body? | Hinge and Ball & Socket |
| What three bones make up the shoulder girdle? | The clavicle, scapula, and the humerus |
| What is another common name for the clavicle? | Collarbone |
| The bone found in each upper arm is the? | Humerus |
| The two bones found in each lower arm are the? | Radius and Ulna |
| The medical term for your fingers is? | Phalanges |
| The long bone found in each upper leg is called the? | Femur |
| The knee cap is also known as the? | Patella |
| The two bones found in each lower leg are the? | Tibia and Fibula |
| What are the three types of muscle found in our body? | Skeletal, Smooth and Cardiac |
| Ligaments attach? | Bone to Bone |
| Tendons attach? | Muscle to Bone |
| The respiratory system is divided into two systems, the _________________ and __________________ airway. | Upper, Lower |
| The upper airway starts at the _______________________ and _______________________ and ends at the _________________________. | Mouth and nose, Larynx (includes the larynx) |
| The lower airway starts at the _______________________ and ends at the ___________________. | Larynx, Alveoli |
| The trachea splits into the left and right main bronchi at the ___________________. | Carina |
| The left lung has _________ lobes and the right light has _________ lobes. | 2, 3 (but they are the same size) |
| Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs? | In the alveoli |
| What is the primary muscle of breathing? | The diaphragm |
| When you inhale, your diaphragm _____________________ downward. | Contracts |
| When you exhale, your diaphragm _____________________ and decreases the size of the chest cavity. | Relaxes |
| The mechanical process of moving gas in and out of your body is termed? | Ventilation |
| The exchange of gasses inside of your body is termed? | Respiration |
| What are the two circuits of the cardiovascular system? | The systemic and the pulmonary circuits |
| Arteries always move blood ___________ from the heart. | Away |
| Veins always move blood ___________ the heart. | Toward |
| Most of the time, arteries carry blood that is oxygen ___________________. | Enriched |
| Most of the time, veins carry blood that is oxygen _____________________. | Deficient |
| What is the only artery that carries oxygen deficient blood? | The pulmonary artery |
| What is the only vein that carries oxygen enriched blood? | The pulmonary veins |
| The heart is made up of how many chambers? | 4 |
| The two top chambers of the heart are known as the? | Atriums |
| The two lower chambers of the heart are known as the? | Ventricles |
| The hearts ability to initiate an electrical impulse on its own is known as? | Automaticity |
| What is considered the normal pacemaker of the heart? | The Sinoatrial (SA) node |
| What is the normal firing rate of the SA node? | 60-100 beats per minute |
| What is the normal firing rate of the AV node? | 40-60 beats per minute |
| What is the normal firing rate of the Purkinje System? | 20-40 beats per minute |
| The amount of blood the ventricles pump out with each contraction is known as the? | Stroke Volume |
| What is the equation for Cardiac Output? | Stroke Volume X Heart Rate |
| The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is known as the? | Pulse pressure |
| The pressure in the arteries during ventricular contraction is known as the _____________________ pressure. | Systolic |
| The pressure within the arteries during ventricular relaxation is known as the _____________________ pressure. | Diastolic |
| The diaphragm of the stethoscope is used to auscultate ____________ frequency sounds. | High |
| The bell of the stethoscope is used to auscultate ______________ frequency sounds. | Low |
| The eartips on a stethoscope should always be pointed? | Forward |
| The five distinct sounds that you listen for while obtaining a patient's blood pressure are called the ____________________ sounds. | Korotkoff |
| What are the five Korotkoff sounds? | 1st: Snapping, 2nd: Swooshing, 3rd: Tapping, 4th: Thumping (muting), 5th: Silence |
| A heart rate about 100 beats per minute in an adult is termed? | Tachycardia |
| A heart rate less than 60 beats per minutes in an adult is termed? | Bradycardia |
| Norman capillary refill time is less than __________ seconds. | 2 |
| The medical term for "open" or "to make larger" is: | Dilated |
| The medical term for "smaller" is: | Constricted |
| Normal pupil size in bright light is: | 2-4 mm |
| Normal pupil size in low light is: | 4-8 mm |
| The acronym that we is to assess a patient's level of consciousness is? | AVPU (A=Alert, V=Verbal, P=Painful, U=Unresponsive) |
| High blood pressure is also known as? | Hypertension |
| Low blood pressure is also known as? | Hypotension |
| At what systolic pressure is the patient considered to have hypertension? | Above 140 mmHg |
| At what diastolic pressure is the patient considered to have hypertension? | Above 90 mmHg |
| At what systolic pressure is an adult patient considered to be hypotensive? | Less than 90 mmHg |
| What are the normal heart sounds? | S1 and S2 |
| What produces the S1 heart sound? | The closing of the tricuspid and mitral heart valves |
| What produces the S2 heart sound? | The closing of the aortic and pulmonic heart valves |
| What heart sounds are considered abnormal? | S3 and S4 |
| What part of the blood carries oxygen? | The Red Blood Cell (RBC) - also known as an erythrocyte - In a RBC, the hemoglobin is the actual molecule that carries oxygen |
| How many molecules of oxygen can one molecule of hemoglobin carry? | Four |
| What part of the blood fights infection? | White Blood Cells (WBC's) - also known as leukocytes |
| What part of the blood forms blood clots? | The Platelets - also known as thrombocytes |
| What are the two major divisions of the nervous system? | The Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems |
| What makes up the central nervous system (CNS)? | The brain and the spinal cord |
| What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)? | The Somatic and Autonomic branches |
| The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the? | Fight of flight (things speed up) |
| The parasympathetic nervous system is also known as the? | Feed or breed (things slow down) |
| What are the three layers of the skin? | Epidermis, dermis and subcutaneous |
| The abdomen is divided into how many quadrants? | Four |
| The space behind the abdomen is called the? | Retroperitoneal cavity (this is where the kidneys are) |
| Endocrine glands control much of what happens in the body via what substance? | Hormones |
| Body mechanics | Application of the study of muscles and body movement (kinesiology) to the use of the body and to the prevention and correction of problems related to posture and lifting. |
| Emergency move | A patient move that should be performed when there is immediate danger to the patient or to the rescuer. |
| Kyphosis | Abnormal curvature of the spine with convexity backward. Also called slouch. |
| Lordosis | Abnormal anterior convexity of the spine. Also called swayback. |
| Nonurgent move | A patient move made when no immediate threat to life exists. |
| Power grip | Recommended gripping technique. The palm and fingers come in complete contact with the object and all fingers are bent at the same angle. |
| Power lift | Recommended technique for lifting. Feet are apart, knees bent, back and abdominal muscles tightened, back as straight as possible, lifting force driven through heels and arches, upper body rising before hips. |
| Urgent move | A patient move made because there is an immediate threat to life because of the patient’s condition and the patient must be moved quickly for transport. |
| What governing body usually issues a license to practice? | The state in which you function in. For example, NREMT will issue you a "certification" but the State of Texas will issue you a license. |
| In order to receive renewal of your EMS certification or license, what must you complete? | Most governing bodies require you to have so many hours of continuing education and you have demonstrated proficiency on your psychomotor skill set |
| Base station | The central dispatch and coordination area of an EMS communications system that ideally is in contact with all other elements of the system |
| Closed-ended question | A question that requires only a “yes” or “no” answer |
| Communication | A dynamic process that incorporates verbal and nonverbal expressions into meaningful messages that are received and interpreted by others |
| Decoder | Device that recognizes and responds to only certain codes imposed on radio broadcasts |
| Decoding | Process by which a received message is translated and interpreted |
| Defense mechanisms | Psychological coping strategies individuals use to protect themselves from unwanted feelings or thoughts |
| Encoder | Device that breaks down sound waves into unique digital codes for radio transmission |
| Encoding | Process of converting information into a message |
| Feedback | Any information that an individual receives about his behavior |
| Gestures | Nonverbal body movements that convey meaning to others |
| Intimate zone | An American culture, the space within less than 1 1/2 feet of an individual |
| Leading questions | Questions that suggest an answer guided by the individual who is asking the question |
| Mobile data terminal | Device that is mounted in the cab of an ambulance, receives a signal from a digital radio, and displays the information on the terminal screen. Some mobile data terminals will also print a hard copy of the information |
| Open-ended questions | Questions that allow the patient to give a detailed response in his own words |
| Repeaters | Devices that receive transmissions from a relatively low- powered source such as a mobile or portable radio and rebroadcast them at another frequency and a higher power |
| What is a simplex radio system? | A radio system where only one person can talk at a time and you have to push a button to talk |
| What is a duplex radio system? | A radio system where two people can talk simultaneously (like your home phone) |
| What is a multiplex radio system? | A radio system that allows two people to talk and you can send data at the same time |
| If you receive a medical order during a radio consult with a hospital and you cannot hear or didn't understand the order, what do you do? | Have the physician repeat the radio order and then repeat it back to them for clarification |
| All radio operations in the US are regulated by the: | FCC (Federal Communication Commission) |
| What radio frequency is better for long distance transmission over land? | VHF (Very High Frequency) |
| What radio frequency is better for use in the city where there is a lot of concrete and tall buildings? | UHF (Ultra High Frequency) |
| According to HIPPA, what parts of your medical documentation should only be shared with those in direct care/patient transfer? | Any and all of the information - it is a violation to disclose any patient information to someone not involved in the care of the patient |
Created by:
kevinakers