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st 120 1-8
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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| How many phases of surgical case management are there? | 3 |
| What organization develops national certification exams for surgical technologists and surgical first assistants; and confers the appropriate credential to eligible certificants? | NBSTSA (National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting |
| A private surgical technologist is usually employed by... | Surgeon or physician group |
| The terms entry-level, proficient, and expert practitioners are applied to... | AST recommended clinical ladder levels |
| What term describes the relationship between the CST and the other members of the surgical team in the OR? | Professional |
| Name the term that describes the relationship between the CST and the patient or patient's family | Therapeutic |
| In or by which of the four components of communication would "decoding" take place? | reciever |
| Which example of nonverbal body language might a patient perceive as a negative attitude from a team member? | Tightly folded arms |
| According to the AST position statement on teamwork, which type of environment contributes most to a safe/efficient experience with positive patient outcomes? | Collaborative |
| What term describes the surgical technologist's foundational commitment to professional honesty, confidentiality, fair treatment, cost containment and attention to the highest level of surgical patient care? | Surgical conscience |
| What term describes a physician-group-owned hospital? | Proprietary |
| Which acronym represents an organization that serves as both an insurer and provider of medical services? | HMO (health maintenance organization) |
| Surgical technologists and other allied health professionals in perioperative services usually work under the direction of which hospital administrative director? | Director of nursing |
| What type of professional would have DO or DPM under his or her name? | director |
| Through which hospital department/committee would the CSFA (certified surgical first assistant) submit a request for privileges to work in the OR? | medical staff |
| Which department would provide services for repair of broken equipment or to do routine preventive checks? | biomedical engineering, maintenance and biomed |
| What does the acronym DRG stand for in a hospital setting? | Diagnosis Related Groups |
| When an ARC/STSA site visitor is sent to a surgical technology program to verify/clarify records and annual reporting information..to whom does he or she submit the findings? | CAAHEP (Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs) |
| Which membership organization would the circulating RN in the OR most likely join as a member? | AORN (Association of periOperative Registered Nurses) |
| The CST and CSFA credentials are registered trademarks of which organization? | NBSTSA (National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting) |
| The hospital's infection control nurse would report any suspicion of rare or mysterious infectious diseases to which governmental agency? | CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) |
| Name the organization that employees of the central sterile processing department would likely join as members? | IAHCSMM |
| What federal regulatory agency is dedicated to enforcing workplace safety and preventing worker injuries? | OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) |
| Name the independent, nonprofit national organization that develops standards for and accredits health care organizations in the USA? | The Joint Comission |
| A medical device or surgical piece of equipment that has failed would have to be taken out of service and any patient injury reported; to which agency? | FDA (Food Drug Administration) |
| Which specialist would likely have privileges to surgically treat diseases of the breast, hepatobiliary and gastrointestinal systems, and thyroid gland? | General surgeon |
| What do conscientiousness, problem solving, skills competency, teamwork, and commitment to continuing education represent for a CST? | Professional traits |
| Which national membership organization's House of Delegates proposed the creation of AORT (Association of Operating Room Technicians) in 1969? | AORN (Association of periOperative Registered Nurses) |
| Maintaining sterile field, passing instruments to surgeon, performing surgical counts, handling medications, preparing specimens and dressings are all duties of which phase of surgical case management? | Intraoperative |
| An individual with training and credentials to help position, drape, and transfer patient as well as provide visualization of operative site and close body planes. | Surgical assistant |
| After which of the following military conflicts did Great Britain and the United States begin to train and employ allied health professionals predominantly in the scrub role in surgery? | WWII |
| Which of the following historical figures developed the first x-Ray machine?Roentgen | Roentgen |
| Which of the following historical figures is considered the father of modern anatomy and changed the traditional approach to anatomical studies? | vesalius |
| Which of the following terms is used to describe surgical intervention that does not have to be preformed immediately or within a short period of time, for example, a torn meniscus repair? | elective |
| Which of the following pioneers of medicine and surgery first developed techniques for surgical antisepsis? | lister |
| which of the following behaviors would NOT be considered an example of "workplace violence" | yielding to the other's viewpoint |
| the federal government insurance programs under the general heading of CMS include all of the following EXCEPT | CHAMPUS |
| which of the following is an example of an intentional tort pertaining to surgical patient care | restraints are used on a patient who threatens to leave |
| which of the following legal doctrines would MOST likely apply in the case of a wrong site surgery or retained foreign body | res ispa loquitur (the thing speaks for itself) |
| the phrase "departure from the standard of care" BEST describes which of the following legal terms | negligence |
| which of the following legal terms is BEST described as "professional misconduct that results in harm to another" | malpractice |
| which is the term that describes a method of pretrial discovery in which a surgical team member might answer questions under oath | deposition |
| which of the following torts would be classified as unintentional | foreign bodies left in patient |
| which type of consent applies when emergency circumstances exist when reasonable providers believe that a patient would agree to treatment, even if no form was signed or verbal permission given | implied |
| a special consent form would be required for which of the following situations during a hospital admission | surgical procedure |
| which member of the surgical team is ultimately responsible for obtaining written, informed surgical consent from a patient | surgeon |
| all of the following are components of the surgical patient's medical record EXCEPT | surgeon's preference card |
| in 2004, which of the following agencies created the "Do Not Use" abbreviation list | the joint commision |
| what is the name of the type of report sent to risk management in an effort to decrease the chance of harm to patients or staff or damage to hospital property | sentinel event |
| which of the following surgical patients would be legally authorized to sign an informed surgical consent, based on medical practice acts and state law | an emancipated 16 year-old patient |
| which of the following pertains to a patient's wishes about medical treatment and self-determination in the event of incapacitation or inability to communicate | advance directive |
| which of the following terms best describes the process of keeping thorough, accurate, and legal records of a patient's medical care | documentation |
| the american hospital association replaced its "Patient's Bill of Rights" with which of the following | Patient Care Partnership |
| the broad objectives of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) include all of the following except | eliminate medical errors |
| which of the following terms describes a civil wrong that may be intentional or unintentional | tort |
| the most common types of patient-care errors committed by operating room personnel, including negligence and malpractice, are categorized as | unintentional tort |
| in a common adage, what is the "best medicine" in health care | prevention |
| according to the Joint Commission's definition regarding consent to surgical intervention, which party has "autonomy" | the patient |
| which of the following terms describes the system of principles that become standards of conducts for professionals | ethics |
| which of the following terms describes the principles such as benevolence, trustworthiness, and honesty for the care and well-being of others in society | morals |
| which of the following would NOT be considered an example of potential ethical dilemma | patient privacy |
| the legal term that identifies the knowledge and skills required for profession and describes a health care provider's core accountability, based on education, experience, and credentialing is: | scope of practice |
| which of the following is NOT a form of individual professional credentialing that protects the public from unqualified health care providers | accreditation |
| verification that educational programs meet minimum accreditation standards is done by: | CAAHEP (Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs) |
| graduates of CAAHEP or ABHES programs are eligible to sit for the CST or CSFA examinations administered by: | NBSTSA |
| the best assurance of safe and individual professional behavior by the CST or CSFA is a well-developed, unyielding: | surgical conscience |
| which legal doctrine would be MOST applicable in a case involving failure by the RN and CST to do proper surgical count resulting in retention of a foreign object and the surgeon being found not liable | doctrine of the borrowed servant |
| which legal doctrine would be MOST applicable in a case involving injury to a patient as a result of a hospital employee's lack of proper training or credentialing | doctrine of corporate negligence |
| which type of legal action is MOST likely in cases involving tort law and operating room personnel | civil |
| if a patient suffered a burn as a result of improper application of the ESU dispersive (grounding) pad, the individual team member responsible may be found guilty in a lawsuit of which of the following | negligence |
| specimen loss, mislabeling, and improper preparation are examples of which of the following | negligence |
| which of the following terms meets the following definition: a voluntary and informed act in which one part gives permission to another party to "touch" | consent |
| which of the following forms of consent is defined by the Joint Commission as "agreement or permission accompanied by full notice about what is being consented to" | informed |
| surgical team members who fail to monitor and protect a medicated patient from failing could be charged with: | abandonment |
| which part of the patient's medical record documentation would contain pre-op and post-op diagnoses, positioning, skin prep, start and stop times, counts, and dressing | intraoperative record |
| for which of following processes are identification and reporting of unsafe conditions and hazards MOST critical | risk management |
| which of the following was identified in the late 1990s as causing more deaths in the United States than car accidents, AIDS, and breast cancer combined | medical errors |
| which governmental agency has authority as outline in the Safe Medical Device Act | FDA |
| which of the following diagnoses is currently used in most jurisdictions of the world to define a state of irreversible death | whole brain death |
| which of the following if NOT one of the "Five Stages of Grief" | repression |
| what type of procedure or care providers a terminal patient with symptom relief or avoidance and improves quality of the remaining life expectancy | palliative |
| which of the following terms represents a positive physical and psychological state of a patient | eustress |
| under what circumstances would many hospitals rescind (invalidate) a "do not resuscitate/ do not intubate" order | a patient must undergo a therapeutic surgical procedure |
| which of the following is NOT a form of advance directive | document of self-actualization |
| Maslow's research produced a hierarchical structure of | human progression |
| for what type of research was sister callista roy best known | adaptation model |
| for what type of research was elizabeth kubler-ross best known | five stages of grief |
| which type of general category of death would most likely generate high emotional trauma for family members and a need to follow protocols for preservation of evidence in the perioperative period | accidental |
| which of the following terms describes a set of therapies that preserve a patient's life when body systems are not functioning sufficiently | life support |
| which of the following legislative rulings requires medical facilities to inform patients of their rights to choose the types and extent of medical care available and their legal right to advance directives | patient self-determination act |
| who would be responsible for seeking consent from family members for organ donation after a patient is determined to have suffered whole-brain death | facility's gift of life coordinator |
| which of the following needs identified by maslow would likely be MOST prominent in a surgical patient's mind | safety |
| which of the following levels of maslow's hierarchy of needs is the pinnacle and can be accomplished only when all other needs are met | self-actualization |
| which of the following religions typically prohibits its followers from receiving blood transfusions | Jehovah's Witness |
| which organs or tissues can be recovered after death or after a patient has already been removed from life supprt | bone |
| person in a persistent vegetative state (with only basic physiological functions of respiration, blood pressure, and heartbeat intact) is categorized as having suffered which kind of death | higher brain |
| which of the following religions in reincarnation and that the rebirth is influenced by the previous death experience | buddhism |
| denial, rationalization, regression, and repression are common forms of what type of mechanisms | coping |
| which of the following needs of the surgical patient is related to the identification and understanding of an individual's place in the universe and may include his or her views on theology, philosophy, or mythology spiritual | spiritual |
| which of the following needs of the surgical patient is related to anatomy and physiology, genetics, and pathology | physical |
| which of the following procedures would be surgical treatment for an elderly patient's psychological dissatisfaction with his or her appearance | blepharoplasty and rhytidectomy |
| what does sister callista roy define as "all conditions, circumstances, and influences that surround and affect the development and behavior of the person" | environment |
| which area of concern or fear would most likely be the main focus for a toddler scheduled for surgery | abandonment |
| which of the following conditions was defined by the harvard school of medicine and include the following physical signs: flat EEG, unresponsiveness, lowered body temperature, and absent pupil reflexes | whole- brain death |
| SIDS (formerly known as "crib death") is categorized as which general category of cause of death | sudden |
| what type of life-support treatment would be considered ultimately futile and its benefits far outweighed by the financial and emotional burden suffered by family and health care system | extraordinary |
| what type of life-support treatment would be considered ultimately futile and its benefits far outweighed by the financial and emotional burden suffered by family and health care system extraordinary | passive |
| what is a normal human emotion that surgical team members may feel for their patients, but must not interfere with their abilities to maintain focus on their jobs, particularly in all-hazards situations | empathy |
| a patient may be considered a candidate for donation after cardiac death (DCD) if his or her heart is predicted to cease functioning within what period of time after removal from mechanical support | 90 mins |
| in recognition of which religion's death rites would the operating room staff allow the deceased patient's so or other relative to close the eyes and mouth and wash the body after removal from the surgical suite | jewish |
| the death of a patient from complications of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) would be categorized as which general category of cause of death | prolonged |
| which physiological response to environmental temperature changes is missing or undeveloped in an infant of less than 6 months of age | shivering |
| diabetes mellitus is a disorder of which body system | endocrine |
| n what way can the surgical technologist who is setting up his r her back table and Mayo stand reduce an 18-month-old patient's anxiety prior to induction of anesthesia | perform normal duties of preparation of the sterile field, keeping as quite as possible for induction |
| what is the MOST common type of shock seen in infants and children | septic |
| an emergency laparotomy would be the indicated treatment for all of the following postoperative bariatric surgery complications EXCEPT | thrombophlebitis |
| what is a common potential side effect of all forms of antibiotic therapy for major pediatric infections | pseudomembranous enterocolitis |
| overgrowth of which microorganism is most likely responsible for pediatric cases of enterocolitis following antibiotic therapy | Clostridium difficile |
| what is the number one cause of death in children ages 1 to 15 in the United States | accidents |
| a patient undergoing bariatric surgery may require extra time for general anesthetic reversal because anesthetic agents may be accumulated in and slowly eliminated from what type of tissue | adipose fat |
| what is the coping mechanism often seen in children reacting to trauma | regression |
| which of the following is a common response of pediatric patients to injury and may result in gastric dilation | hyperventilation |
| which organ is responsible for the failure to produce insulin in a patient with type I diabetes | pancreas |
| which classification of antibiotics is contraindicated for use in neonates due to increased incidence of kernicterus | sulfonamides |
| which position enhances a bariatric patient's total lung volume and aids in ventilation | reverse Tredelenburg |
| bariatric patients undergoing surgery and in the immediate postoperative period should have sequential compression devices applied to the lower extremities to prevent | deep vein thrombosis |
| what type of physiological measurement method is rarely done in a neonatal patient due to risk of anatomical trauma | urethral catheterization for urinary output |
| what other condition frequently suffered by obese patients and discovered intraoperatively may be treated surgically in conjunction with bariatric procedure | cholelithiasis |
| what is the name of the device used to test the blood of patients with diabetes for metabolic status | glucometer |
| which of the following is the major cause of serious trauma suffered by pediatric patients | motor vehicle accidents |
| what is the usual cause of a clavicular fracture of a neonate during a vaginal delivery | shoulder dystocia |
| what is the chemical and physiological classification of insulin | hormone |
| during which part of pregnancy would an abdominal surgery be considered safest for both mother and fetus | second trimester |
| placement of a rolled sheet or pad to elevate a pregnant patient's right hip, tilting the operating room table to the left with slight Tredelenburg, or both will shift the weight of the gravid uterus and relieve pressure from the | abdominal aorta and vena cava |
| multiple sclerosis, lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis are example of: | autoimmune diseases |
| which patient condition might be characterized by physical appearance of flat nasal bridge and short neck with some impairment of cognitive ability and growth, slower speech, and an affectionate to clingy persona | down syndrome |
| for which type of transmission-based disease would health are workers need to be fitted for N-95 respirator mask | airbone |
| all of the following national agencies have regulations or protocols or health care workers who may be exposed to infectious diseases in their work environment EXCEPT | NFPA |
| for which special patient population group would the help of a counselor or social worker who could communicate the current state of mind or mood of the patient to the OR staff be of benefit to all parties involved | substance abuse |
| what is the term for the mechanism of injury in a trauma patient that takes into account velocity of the injuring force, flexibility of the tissue, and shape of the injuring force | kinematics |
| which level of trauma center designation can meet all the needs required for treating patients on a 24-hour basis | 1 |
| which of the following activities would present no risk of contracting HIV from an infected individual | AIDS |
| because of the types of drugs used to prevent rejection of a transplanted organ, the recipient patient is considered to have which of the following | immunosuppressed status |
| which organ is MOST often injured in motor vehicle accidents | spleen |
| the term golden hour refers to reduction of morbidity and mortality of which type of patient population | trauma victims |
| physical forces of deceleration, acceleration, compression, and shearing are factors in which type of injuries | blunt |
| high or low velocity projectiles are factors in which type of injuries | penetrating |
| during a surgical procedure on a pregnant patient, the surgical technologist in the scrub role may be asked to palpate what area to detect possible contractions | gravid uterus |
| a patient with acquired immunodeficiency virus may have complications of multiple infections from diseases considered to be | opportunistic |
| in which pediatric age group would all of the craniofacial sinuses be fully developed | adolescent |
| which anesthetic method helps reduce the anxiety and stress experienced by pediatric surgical patients | rapid induction |
| morbid obesity refers to patients whose body weight is greater than how many pounds over their ideal weight | 100 |
| which body system is highly susceptible to injury during positioning of bariatric and geriatric patients | integumentary |
| vomiting from preoperative narcotics can predispose with diabetes to fluid and electrolyte imbalances resulting in | hypoglycemia |
| which of the following is NOT a potential risk from administration of general anesthesia to a pregnant patient | placenta previa |
| which diagnosis could create a social stigma and possible overdramatization of exposure risk by health care workers | human immunodeficiency virus |
| which special patient populations would likely require diagnostic biopsies for verification of cryptosporidiois, candidasis, or cytomegalocirus infections | HIV/AIDS |
| conditions such as severe arthritis, contractures, and tremors are categorized under which type of challenge | physical |
| which broad category of routes of transmission of microorganisms includes food, water, and medial devices and equipment | common vehicle |
| approximately 80% of which special patient population presents to surgery with one or more comorbid conditions | geriatric |
| which special patient population group has 30% to 80% statistical likelihood of coexisting psychiatric illness in addition to the diagnosis for which they are coming to surgery | substance abuse |
| to preserve evidence in a criminal case, what might be done to the patient's hands if the patient does not require surgery | bags are placed around the hands and taped in place |
| in a surgical procedure on a severely injured trauma patient, which of the following measures is of utmost importance | keeping the patient's spine in alignment during changes in position |
| a surgical technologist working in a veteran's administration (VA) facility might frequently encounter patients with which of the following conditions | PTSD |
| the emergency shut off valve or the supply of oxygen into an operating room is designated by which color | green |
| which characteristic of surgical overhead lights allows the surgeon to differentiate between the colors of arterial and venous blood or subtle color changes in tissues | lightbulbs that approximate sunlight |
| where are surgical instrument "booms" mounted in an operating room | ceiling |
| which piece of OR furniture is usually MOST proximal to the operative site | mayo stand |
| what is the electrical engineering safety device required for all operating room electrical outlets | ground fault interrupter |
| an operating room where a surgical procedure is in progress would be considered what type of area | restricted |
| the wilson frame is used for positioning a patient in which of the following surgical positions | prone |
| what type of procedure would require an operating table with a fluid drain pan attachment | cystoscopy |
| what are the preferred characteristics common to the walls, floors, cabinets, and doors in an operating room | nonporous and waterproof |
| which type of ventilation system provides a supply of clean air and reduces contamination and fumes from the OR | positive, unidirectional |
| what are the centers for disease control and prevention (CDC) guidelines for OR air exchanges per hour | 20-25 with 20% fresh outside air |
| unless the patient is at risk of hypothermia, the temperature range in the OR should be between | 68 and 73 degree F |
| which of the following components of personal protective equipment (PPE) are worn for procedures using fluoroscopy | which of the following components of personal protective equipment (PPE) are worn for procedures using fluoroscopy |
| frozen section biopsies are sent to which hospital department for analysis | pathology |
| what is the term used for the process of cleaning and OR after one procedure and preparing for subsequent one | turnover |
| which of the following is NOT a category of hazard for OR personnel or surgical patients | physiological |
| which of the following national agencies is an arm of the CDC and functions under the U.S department of health and human services to research and establish permissible exposure limits for chemical vapors and gases | NIOSH |
| which of the following terms relates to the potential impact on personnel from the duties of the job description or the handling and use of equipment and supplies encountered within the perioperative environment | ergonomics |
| the visual representation of the components necessary to support a fire is which of the following geometric shapes | triangle |
| which type of electricity is generated primarily by friction between two surfaces | static |
| which of the following diagnostic studies emits ionizing radiation | fluoroscopy |
| all of the following are ways to reduce personnel radiological exposure EXCEPT | amplification |
| what term is used for the smoke that is generated by use of a laser or electrosurgical unit pencil on tissue | plume |
| effective surgical smoke evacuator units suction and filter particles as small as | 0.1-0.5 um |
| what is the chemical name of the powder and liquid mixture used as bone cement for placement of prostheses | polymethyl methacrylate |
| what is the name of the system attached to all anesthesia machines to remove waste anesthesia gases | scavenger |
| which of the following is a substance that is derived from tropical trees an that patients and health care workers may be highly allergic to | latex |
| which type of natural immunoglobulins are responsible for the type I serious allergic reactions to rubber-containing items | IgE |
| what distance from the impact site of a laser beam on tissue should the smoke evacuator be positioned to capture 98% of the plume | 1cm |
| what is the acronym for the treatment administered to a surgical technologist within 2 hours following a needle stick during a procedure on a patient with HIV | PEP (post exposure prophylaxis) |
| which governmental agency mandates that operating rooms have a biohazard exposure control plan and make personal protective equipment available for personnel at risk | OSHA |
| what distance from the portable x-ray unit should sterile members of the surgical team stand to reduce their exposure while the image is being taken | 6ft, as far away as possible |
| the part of the complete ESU circuit that delivers alternating current back from exposed tissue to the ESU generator is the | patient return electrode |
| Harvey Cushing, MD and William Bovie, Ph. D, collaborated in 1926 to create the first | electrosurgical unit |
| equipment with the highest potential for serving as ignition sources in surgical fires include all of the following EXCEPT | phacoemulsification probes |
| which of the following would be least damaging to and most effective on a fire involving a laser generator or electrosurgical unit | class d halon extinguisher sprayed on unit |
| which of the following is the large piece of OR furniture onto which most sterile supplies are opened and organized for use during a case | back table |
| the post anesthesia care unit was previously referred to as | recovery |
| which of the following is commonly used as a tissue fixative and preservative for surgical specimens sent to pathology | formalin |
| what is the abbreviation for the sets of references that provide information about all potentially hazardous chemicals used in the perioperative setting and must be acccessible to health care workers | MSDS (material safety data sheets) |
| which of the following is NOT part of a three prong plug | bipolar wire/prongs |
| which of the following should be used by surgical team members to prevent potential injury from tasks involving heavy lifting, moving of equipment or patients, and long periods of standing or sitting | proper body mechanics |
| which of the following is the type of head fixation device that attaches to the operating table used frequently for craniotomy procedures | mayfield brace |
| which of the following is the mnemonic used to remember the steps of operating a fire extinguisher | PASS (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep) |
| which of the following is the mnemonic used to remember the steps to take in the event of a surgical fire | RACE (remove/rescue, alert/sound, contain, extinguish/evacuate) |
| all of the following are articulating breakpoints or removable sections of an operating table EXCEPT | side |
| which of the following organization sets standards for electrical safety, sterilization, and use of medical devices | AAMI |
| The biological indicator (BI) for the steam sterilization method is: | Geobacillus stearothemophiles |
| Why are items disinfected or sterilized in activated glutaraldehyde dried prior to submersion? | Moisture will eventually dilute the concentration to ineffective levels |
| When nested basin sets are being sterilized, how should they be placed in the steam sterilizer? | Fold side down with a towel used to separate them |
| Which term means the number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time? | bioburden |
| What is a potential risk of placing surgical instruments of dissimilar metallic type together in a washer sterilizer cycle? | Electrolyte conduction reaction |
| When a sterilely attired surgical technologist drapes an unsterile table, he or she opens the drape: | Toward him- or herself first |
| Which type of wrapper material is compatible with the hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization method? | Tyvek |
| T or F: Gravity displacement steam sterilizer cycles are much shorter than prevacuum cycles. | F |
| How should air hoses of powered instruments or fiber-optic light cords be placed in rigid container trays for sterilization? | Coiled loosely in perforated or mesh basket |
| During manual cleaning of surgical instruments, what type of solution should be used? | Lukewarm water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with neutral pH |
| The Bowie-Dick test is performed for which sterilization method? | Prevacuum air removal steam |
| Why are large steam sterilizers loaded with space between wrapped items or trays? | It allows adequate circulation and penetration of steam to all surfaces |
| Which of the following chemicals is a high-level disinfectant when items are immersed for 20 to 30 minutes and a sterilant if items remain immersed for 10 hours? | Glutaraldehyde |
| Which of the following concepts has replaced the previous system of assessing storage conditions and package integrity based on an arbitrary expiration designation? - Double wrapping - Julian dating - Time related - Event related | - Event related |
| What is the term used to describe the process of removing all soiled linen, waste, and instruments from the room and cleaning the furniture, floors, or other contaminated surfaces in preparation for opening new supplies for a subsequent case? | turnover |
| Contamination caused by passage of microorganisms through a sterilized package by way of moisture wicking is termed: | Strike-through |
| Cidex is the trade name for which of the following methods of sterilization? | Glutaraldehyde |
| Which of the following should NEVER be processed by immediate-use (flash) sterilization methods? | Implantable devices |
| What is another name for the intermediate-level disinfectant compound phenol? | carbolic acid |
| What is the name of the outside area if an autoclave where steam is created before injection into the interior compartment? | jacket |
| When opening a wrapped item such as a gown on a Mayo stand, the contents and wrappers are considered sterile up to what distance from the edge of the wrapper? | 1 inch from the edge |
| What is the term for inanimate objects that harbor microorganisms that contribute to environmental contamination? | fomites |
| Which of the following cleaning methods for surgical instrumentation relies on bubbles imploding, creating a vacuum that dislodges minute particles in crevices of instruments? | Ultrasonic cleaner |
| Which method of sterilization uses gamma rays or beta particles and is chiefly used by large manufacturing companies? | Ionizing radiation |
| What would be the exposure phase time for an unwrapped instrument set with some lumens in a prevacuum/dynamic air removal steam autoclave? | 4 min |
| A nonsterile person should approach a sterile area face forward while maintaining a distance of: | 12 in |
| Which kind of quality control device consists of a paper that has been impregnated with a dye that changes color in the presence of a specific temperature and sterilant? | Chemical indicator |
| The physical or chemical process by which all living microorganisms, including spores, are killed is: | Sterilization |
| Personnel in CSPD who must move instruments from the ethylene oxide sterilizer to an aeration room should do which of the following with the cart to reduce their exposure to vented gases? | pull it |
| Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers | Helicobacter pylori |
| Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis | Clostridium perfringens |
| Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients | Zygomycosis |
| Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encaphalopathy | prions |
| Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections | Staphylococcus aureus |
| Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both | Viruses |
| Which of the following is the MOST important factor in a surgical technologist's role in preventing surgical site infections? | Strict surgical conscience |
| Which of the following diseases is NOT a form of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy? - Toxic shock - Scrapie - Mad cow - Creutzfeldt-Jakob | - Toxic shock |
| How long should the steam biological indicator be incubated before the reading is recorded? | 24hrs |
| Which of the following statements regarding peratic acid sterilized items are correct? | Cassettes are not sealed, due to liquid immersion during the process, so they cannot be stored |
| What is the relationship of steam pressure to temperature in steam sterilizer? | Increase pressure, Increase temperature |
| What is the advantage of using ethylene oxide gas sterilization? | It is safe for heat and moisture- sensitive items |
| Which part of the instrument reprocessing cycle is performed intraoperatively? | Wiping with sterile water |
| Which type of surgical instrumentation must NEVER be immersed in any type of mechanical decontaminating equipment? | powered |
| Before opening any sterilely packaged item, what is MOST important to verify about the package? | Integrity of package |
| The recommended biological indicator for hydrogen peroxide gas plasma is: | Bacillus atriohaeus |
| Which of the following is the type of dating system that denotes the number of the calendar day in 1 through 365/366? | julian |
| Which type of packaging system had filters and removable locking devices? | rigid containers |
| What is the term for the condition of a surgical technologist's skin after performing a surgical scrub? | surgically clean |
| What term refers to a barrier, such as plastic-backed table cover, that does NOT allow for passage of liquid through it? | Impervious |
| Which type of instruments must be cleaned with bristle-brushes on wire, pipe cleaners, or handheld pressure guns? | Suction tip lumens |
| Which sterilization method presents the greatest exposure risk to CSPD personnel, is expensive, and requires the longest total cycle time? | Ethylene oxide |
| What is the term for the process of lubricating stiffened stainless steel surgical instruments by immersion in a water-soluble solution? | milking |
| All of the following are environmental specifications for the decontamination room in CSPD EXCEPT: - Humidity between 35 -72% - Air exchange rate, minimum of 10 per hour - Positive air pressure maintained - Temperature between 64 -70 degrees F | - Positive air pressure maintained |
| Which of the following patient care items would be classified as noncritical? | Pulse oximeteres |
| What is the type process the ultrasound cleaner uses to dislodge minute particles of soil or organic debris? | Cavitation |
| Which sterilization method is most commonly used, safest, least expensive, and appropriate for the majority of surgical instruments? | Saturated steam |
| Where should the biological test pack be placed on the steam sterilization cart for the first run of the day? | Bottom rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain |
| T or F: The relative humidity in an ethylene oxide sterilizer should be below 30% to aid in the penetration of the gas through bacterial spores protective coating. | F |
| Why are instruments placed in perforated or mesh-bottom trays for sterilization? | Penetration of sterilant |
| What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite? | bleach |
| which of the following is not a type of ESU tip | trocar |